00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of intermittent chest pains. She states that these started in the afternoon and have gotten worse. The pain is central and seems to improve when she sits on her chair and leans forward. She has a past medical history of hypertension. The GP decides to perform an electrocardiogram (ECG).
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following best describes what might be seen on the ECG?
      Select the SINGLE most likely ECG finding from the list below.

      Your Answer: Widespread concave ST-segment elevation

      Correct Answer: Widespread concave ST-segment elevation and PR segment depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding ECG Findings in Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis is a condition that commonly presents with central pleuritic chest pain, relieved on leaning forward. One of the main ECG findings in acute pericarditis is widespread concave ST-segment elevations with PR-segment depression, which is 85% specific for the condition. Absent P waves are not typically caused by acute pericarditis, and ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads is more suggestive of anterior myocardial infarction. U waves are not characteristic ECG findings in acute pericarditis and are associated with other conditions. Other clinical features of acute pericarditis are largely dependent on the underlying cause. It is important to understand these ECG findings to aid in the diagnosis and management of acute pericarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction (MI).
      Which of the following options has not been shown to have a beneficial effect on mortality after an MI?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction (MI) Care

      After a myocardial infarction (MI), certain medications are recommended to reduce mortality and manage symptoms. Nitrates, such as isosorbide mononitrate, offer no mortality benefit but can be used for angina symptoms. β-blockers, like timolol, provide both mortality and anti-anginal benefits and should be continued for at least 12 months post-MI. Statins, specifically atorvastatin 80 mg, are recommended for secondary prevention to reduce mortality. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as ramipril, offer good mortality benefit, but angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can be used if the patient cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors. Aspirin, in combination with another antiplatelet therapy, is recommended for 12 months post-MI. Studies have shown that tirofiban, timolol, and ramipril reduce mortality after an MI, while isosorbide mononitrate showed no benefit. The MIRACL study found that atorvastatin reduced cardiovascular events by 17% when given for 3 months post-MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man presents to you with recent blood test results showing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to you with recent blood test results showing a total cholesterol of 6.2 mmol/L. You schedule an appointment to discuss this further and calculate his Qrisk score to be 23%. He has a 20-year history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day and his father died of a heart attack at age 50. He also has a past medical history of asthma. Which medication would you recommend he start taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 20mg

      Explanation:

      To prevent cardiovascular disease, it is recommended to start taking Atorvastatin 20mg, which is a high-intensity statin. Atorvastatin 80 mg is used for secondary prevention. Simvastatin 10mg and 20mg are considered low-intensity statins. It is important to combine statin treatment with lifestyle changes such as increasing physical activity, reducing alcohol consumption, and adopting a heart-healthy diet.

      The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old patient is being treated for symptomatic bradycardia. Despite receiving multiple boluses...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old patient is being treated for symptomatic bradycardia. Despite receiving multiple boluses of atropine, the patient's condition remains unchanged with a heart rate of 35 beats per minute, blood pressure of 85/55 mmHg, respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 98%, and a temperature of 37.3ºC. The patient is experiencing confusion, sweating, and has cold and clammy extremities. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External pacing

      Explanation:

      Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms

      The 2015 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight the importance of identifying adverse signs and potential risk of asystole in the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms. Adverse signs indicating haemodynamic compromise include shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment in this situation. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, and isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.

      Furthermore, the presence of risk factors for asystole such as complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, and ventricular pause > 3 seconds should be considered. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing. Effective management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms is crucial in preventing further deterioration and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old male patient informs you that he has Long QT syndrome and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male patient informs you that he has Long QT syndrome and you are contemplating prescribing an antibiotic. Which antibiotic should you avoid prescribing to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      A prolonged QT interval may be caused by Erythromycin.

      Understanding Long QT Syndrome

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.

      LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General Practitioner with a heavy feeling in his chest for the past two hours. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is taken, which shows 1.4 mm ST-segment elevations in leads II III and aVF.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior MI

      Explanation:

      Based on the electrocardiogram (ECG) findings, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is an inferior myocardial infarction (MI), which occurs in the territory of the right coronary artery. This is indicated by ST-segment elevations in leads I, II, and aVF. Other ECG changes, such as complete heart block and bradycardia, may also be present due to the arterial supply the RCA gives to the atrioventricular and sinoatrial nodes. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may suggest acute coronary syndrome.

      Acute pericarditis is unlikely as it presents with sharp retrosternal chest pain and a pericardial friction rub on auscultation, with different ECG findings such as widespread concave ST-segment elevations and PR segment depression.

      An anterolateral MI would show ST-segment elevations in the anterolateral leads, while a posterior MI would show ST-segment depressions in the anterior leads with tall R waves.

      In a pulmonary embolism (PE), ECG changes may include a large S wave in lead I, a large Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III – S1Q3T3, but this is only seen in a minority of patients. Most patients with a PE would have a normal ECG or sinus tachycardia, with signs of right-heart strain sometimes present. The clinical presentation of a PE would also differ from that of an MI, with symptoms such as tachypnea, tachycardia, lung crackles, fever, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (on echo) has a blood pressure (BP) of 160/95 mmHg. She is currently on lisinopril (maximum doses).
      Which of the following new agents would you add in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Guidelines

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management through medications. Among the drugs commonly used are bisoprolol, bendroflumethiazide, clopidogrel, spironolactone, and diltiazem.

      Bisoprolol and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor are recommended for all heart failure patients as they have been shown to reduce mortality. Bendroflumethiazide and loop diuretics like furosemide can help alleviate symptoms but do not have a mortality benefit. Clopidogrel, on the other hand, is not indicated for heart failure but is used for vascular diseases like NSTEMI and stroke.

      Spironolactone is recommended for patients who remain symptomatic despite treatment with an ACE inhibitor and a b blocker. It is also beneficial for those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD) after a myocardial infarction (MI). However, diltiazem should be avoided in heart failure patients.

      According to NICE guidelines, b blockers and ACE inhibitors should be given to all LVSD patients unless contraindicated. Spironolactone can be added if symptoms persist. Proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for heart failure patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department with exertional chest pain. She had a positive exercise test at the Cardiology Clinic and was started on aspirin, metoprolol, rosuvastatin and a glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray.
      Eight months later, she presented to her General Practitioner with an increasing frequency of anginal episodes. These responded to GTN spray and did not occur at rest.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate additional medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The treatment of stable angina involves lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is either a beta-blocker or a calcium-channel blocker (CCB), depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a beta-blocker at the maximum tolerated dose is not controlling angina, a long-acting dihydropyridine CCB, such as amlodipine, modified-release nifedipine, or modified-release felodipine, should be added. Aspirin and a statin should also be given, along with sublingual GTN to abort angina attacks.

      However, if a patient is taking a beta-blocker, a non-rate-limiting long-acting dihydropyridine CCB should be used instead of diltiazem, as the combination of diltiazem and a beta-blocker can lead to life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure. If a patient cannot tolerate a beta-blocker or CCB, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Ivabradine should only be used on specialist advice and cannot be initiated if the resting heart rate is less than 70 bpm. Nicorandil induces vasodilation of arterioles and large coronary arteries by activating potassium channels. Verapamil should also be avoided in combination with a beta-blocker, as it can result in life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman is recuperating in the hospital after a coronary angiogram for...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is recuperating in the hospital after a coronary angiogram for unstable angina. Two days after the procedure, she reports experiencing intense pain in her left foot. Upon examination, her left lower limb peripheral pulses are normal. There is tissue loss on the medial three toes on the left foot and an area of livedo reticularis on the same foot.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol embolisation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Vascular Conditions: Causes and Symptoms

      Cholesterol embolisation occurs when cholesterol crystals from a ruptured atherosclerotic plaque block small or medium arteries, often following an intervention like coronary angiography. This results in microvascular ischemia, which typically does not affect blood pressure or larger vessels, explaining the normal peripheral pulses in affected patients. Livedo reticularis, a purplish discoloration, may also occur due to microvascular ischemia.

      Arterial thromboembolism is a common condition, especially in patients with established cardiovascular disease or risk factors like hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking. It tends to affect larger vessels than cholesterol embolism, leading to the absence of peripheral pulses and gangrenous toes.

      Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a vasculitis that mainly affects young men who smoke. It presents with claudication of the arms or legs, with or without ulcers or gangrene. However, the acute onset of symptoms following an intervention makes cholesterol embolism a more likely diagnosis.

      Deep vein thrombosis typically presents with a swollen, painful calf and does not display signs of arterial insufficiency like gangrene and livedo reticularis.

      Takayasu’s arteritis is a rare form of large vessel vasculitis that mainly affects the aorta. It is more common in women and tends to present below the age of 30 years old with pulseless arms. However, this patient’s history is not typical for Takayasu’s arteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old woman who has been admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old woman who has been admitted to your ward with a lower respiratory tract infection. She has a medical history of hypertension and gout and is currently taking amlodipine 10mg once daily and allopurinol 100mg once daily. You observe that her blood pressure has been consistently high over the past three days, with readings of 149/76 mmHg, 158/88 mmHg, and 150/82 mmHg. Which antihypertensive medication would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking a calcium channel blocker, the addition of an ACE inhibitor, angiotensin receptor blocker, or thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In this case, since the patient’s hypertension remains uncontrolled, it is appropriate to start them on an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, such as lisinopril. Atenolol would be a suitable option if the patient was already taking a calcium channel blocker, ACE inhibitor/ARB, and thiazide-like diuretic with a potassium level above 4.5 mmol/L. However, since the patient has a history of gout, thiazide-like diuretics like bendroflumethiazide and indapamide should be avoided as they can exacerbate gout symptoms.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Passmed