-
Question 1
Correct
-
All of the following statements are incorrect about insulin except:
Your Answer: Proinsulin is cleaved into insulin and C peptide.
Explanation:Proinsulin is synthesised as a single-chain peptide. A connecting peptide (C peptide) within storage granules is removed by proteases to yield insulin. Insulin:1. is a polypeptide hormone consisting of two short chains (A and B) linked by disulphide bonds. 2. is produced by beta cells, located centrally within the islets of Langerhans, in the endocrine tissues of the pancreas. 3. release is stimulated initially during eating by the parasympathetic nervous system and gut hormones such as secretin. However, most output is driven by the rise in plasma glucose concentration that occurs after a meal. 4. effects are mediated by the receptor tyrosine kinase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a contraindication to using nitrous oxide:
Your Answer: Acute porphyrias
Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure
Explanation:Nitrous oxide should not be utilized in patients with an air-containing confined area because it diffuses into these spaces, causing a rise in pressure. This includes circumstances like pneumothorax, intracranial air after a head injury, imprisoned air from a recent undersea dive, a recent intraocular gas injection, or intestinal blockage. Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow and should be avoided in individuals who have or are at risk of having high intracranial pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A six-year-old boy presents with coryzal symptoms that have persisted for more than two weeks. He was born and raised in the Middle East. His mother claims he has been tired and has complained of various 'aches and pains.' On examination, you find splenomegaly and enlarged cervical lymph nodes. His legs and arms are covered in petechiae.In this case, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Explanation:ALL is the most common leukaemia in children, with a peak incidence between the ages of 2 and 5.ALL has a wide range of clinical symptoms, but many children present with an acute illness that resembles coryza or a viral infection. ALL also has the following features:Weakness and sluggishness all overMuscle, joint, and bone pain that isn’t specificAnaemiaPetechiae and unexplained bruisingOedemaLymphadenopathyHepatosplenomegalyThe following are typical features of a full blood count in patients with ALL:Anaemia (normocytic or macrocytic)Leukopenia affects about half of the patients (WCC 4 x 109/l).Around 25% of patients have leucocytosis (WCC > 10 x 109/l).Around 25% of patients have hyperleukocytosis (WCC > 50 x 109/l).Thrombocytopaenia
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Bordetella pertussis is spread via which of the following routes:
Your Answer: Respiratory droplet route
Explanation:Bordetella pertussis is a Gram negative coccobacillus that causes whooping cough. B. pertussis is spread via the respiratory droplet route and expresses fimbriae that aid their adhesion to the ciliated epithelium of the upper respiratory tract, and produce a number of exotoxins, causing the characteristic thickened bronchial secretions, paralysis of cilia and lymphocytosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 57-year-old woman receives vitamin B12 injections following a gastrectomy.Which of the following cell types, if absent, is responsible for her vitamin B12 deficiency?
Your Answer: Parietal cells
Explanation:Intrinsic factor, produced by the parietal cells of the stomach, is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 from the terminal ileum. After a gastrectomy, the absorption of vitamin B12 is markedly reduced, and a deficiency will occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 68-year-old female has presented to the Emergency Department with chest pain, palpitations, and breathlessness complaints. On ECG, she is diagnosed with ventricular arrhythmia and is administered lidocaine. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action of lidocaine?
Your Answer: Blocks Na+ channels in the heart
Explanation:Lidocaine is a tertiary amide local anaesthetic and also a class IV antiarrhythmic.Like other local anaesthetics, lidocaine works on the voltage-gated sodium ion channel on the nerve cell membranes. It works in the following steps:1. diffuses through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane into the axoplasm2. binds fast voltage-gated Na+ channels in the neuronal cell membrane and inactivates them3. With sufficient blockage, the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron will not depolarise and will be unable to transmit an action potential, thereby preventing the transmission of pain signalsThe same principle applies to Lidocaine’s actions in the heart as it blocks the sodium channels in the conduction system and the myocardium. This raises the threshold for depolarizing, making it less likely for the heart to initiate or conduct any action potential that can cause arrhythmia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
Question 9
Correct
-
The most important Complement protein for antigen opsonization is:
Your Answer: C3b
Explanation:Phagocytosis is largely responsible for depletion of cells coated with antibodies. Cells opsonized by IgG antibodies are recognized by phagocyte Fc receptors, which are specific for the Fc portions of some IgG subclasses. In addition, when IgM or IgG antibodies are deposited on the surfaces of cells, they may activate the complement system by the classical pathway. Complement activation generates by-products, mainly C3b and C4b, which are deposited on the surfaces of the cells and recognized by phagocytes that express receptors for these proteins. The net result is phagocytosis of the opsonized cells and their destruction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Identify the type of graph described below:This graph is a scatter plot of the effect estimates from individual studies against some measure of each study's size or precision.
Your Answer: Pareto diagram
Correct Answer: Funnel plot
Explanation:A funnel plot is a scatter plot of the effect estimates from individual studies against some measure of each study’s size or precision. The standard error of the effect estimate is often chosen as the measure of study size and plotted on the vertical axis with a reversed scale that places the larger, most powerful studies towards the top. The effect estimates from smaller studies should scatter more widely at the bottom, with the spread narrowing among larger studies. In the absence of bias and between study heterogeneity, the scatter will be due to sampling variation alone and the plot will resemble a symmetrical inverted funnel. A triangle centred on a fixed effect summary estimate and extending 1.96 standard errors either side will include about 95% of studies if no bias is present and the fixed effect assumption (that the true treatment effect is the same in each study) is valid.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 59-year-old woman presents with a history of tiredness and weight gain and a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is suspected.Which of these changes is likely to appear first in primary hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Explanation:The earliest biochemical change seen in hypothyroidism is an increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels.Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) levels are normal in the early stages.TBG levels are generally unchanged in primary hypothyroidism.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old male patient lives in a travelling community and has never received any vaccinations. He presents to you with fever.Which of these statements concerning indications and contraindications for vaccination is TRUE?
Your Answer: The BCG vaccination can be safely administered to patients with HIV
Correct Answer: Inactivated vaccines are safe in pregnancy
Explanation:All vaccines are contraindicated in individuals with: A confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the vaccine or a vaccine containing the same antigens.A confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a component in the vaccine e.g. neomycinThere is no evidence that vaccinating pregnant women with inactivated vaccine or toxoids harms the woman or foetus. The current protocol is that a child with history of egg allergy can be safely vaccinated with Fluenz tetra. However, if they had a previous severe anaphylaxis to egg requiring intensive care, then Flenz tetra is contraindicated. BCG, yellow fever or oral typhoid vaccinations are not safe in HIV positive patients.The normal times recommended for immunization of full-term babies should also be applied to premature infants and correction for gestational age should not be implemented.Concurrent antibiotic therapy is not a contraindication to vaccination.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 6-year-old girl is brought to the nephrology clinic by her mother due to facial oedema. Her lab workup shows proteinuria of 7 g/24 hours and serum albumin levels of 15 g/L. A diagnosis of Nephrotic Syndrome is made, and corticosteroid therapy is initiated. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of nephrotic syndrome in this patient?
Your Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:Minimal Change Disease is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in the paediatric population. It may be caused by NSAID use. Electron microscopy shows the fusion of foot processes while light microscopy will appear normal.Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis causes Nephrotic Syndrome in adults. It is associated with Heroin use and HIV infection. There is a limited response to steroids, and the disease progresses to end-stage renal failure in 5-10 years.Diabetic nephropathy occurs after a long period of diabetes due to the deposition of amyloid protein leading to a decrease in glomerular filtration. There is no history of Hepatitis B in this patient and no symptoms of liver disease such as jaundice. Membranous glomerulonephritis would present with features of Nephritic Syndrome. These would be oedema, haematuria; red blood cell casts in the urine and hypertension.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the temporal lobe:
Your Answer: Receptive dysphasia
Explanation:Damage to the Wernicke’s speech area in the temporal lobe can result in a receptive dysphasia. Hemispatial neglect is most likely to occur in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the occipital lobe. Expressive dysphasia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the Broca speech area in the frontal lobe. Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is most likely to occur in a lesion of the frontal lobe.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Water is reabsorbed in which portion of the Henle loop:
Your Answer: Thin ascending limb
Correct Answer: Thin descending limb
Explanation:The loop of Henle consists of three functionally distinct segments: the thin descending segment, the thin ascending segment, and the thick ascending segment. About 20 percent of the filtered water is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle and almost all of this occurs in the thin descending limb. Na+ and Cl-ions are actively reabsorbed from the tubular fluid in the thick ascending limb via the Na+/K+/2Cl-symporter on the apical membrane. Because the thick ascending limb is water-impermeable, ion reabsorption lowers tubular fluid osmolality while raising interstitial fluid osmolality, resulting in an osmotic difference. Water moves passively out of the thin descending limb as the interstitial fluid osmolality rises, concentrating the tubular fluid. This concentrated fluid descends in the opposite direction of fluid returning from the deep medulla still higher osmolality areas.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
Regarding gas gangrene, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Infection is characterised by rapidly spreading tissue myonecrosis with crepitus.
Explanation:Gas gangrene usually occurs within 3 days of injury, and is characterised by pain, rapidly spreading oedema, myositis, necrosis, palpable crepitus and systemic toxicity. Diagnosis is clinical and laboratory confirmation should not delay urgent surgical intervention. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy can be considered in addition to surgery and antibiotic therapy, to stop toxin production and inhibit bacteria from replicating and spreading (as Clostridium spp. are obligate anaerobes).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 56-year-old man presents with pneumonia 8 days after being admitted for an open fracture of his tibia and fibula. Upon history taking and observation, it was established that he has no known drug allergies, has coarse left basal crackles and evidence of consolidation in the left lower lobe based on his chest X-ray.Which of the following antibacterial agents would be the most appropriate to prescribe according to the latest NICE guidelines?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The current NICE guidelines for hospital-acquired pneumonia are as follow:- First-choice oral antibiotic if non‑severe symptoms or signs, and not at higher risk of resistance (guided by microbiological results when available): co-amoxiclav- Alternative oral antibiotics if non‑severe symptoms or signs, and not at higher risk of resistance, for penicillin allergy or if co‑amoxiclav unsuitable (based on specialist microbiological advice and local resistance data): doxycycline, cefalexin, co-trimoxazole, levofloxacin- First-choice intravenous antibiotics if severe symptoms or signs (for example, symptoms or signs of sepsis) or at higher risk of resistance (based on specialist microbiological advice and local resistance data): piperacillin with tazobactam, ceftazidime, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, meropenem, ceftazidime with avibactam, levofloxacin- Antibiotics to be added if suspected or confirmed methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection (dual therapy with a first-choice intravenous antibiotic): vancomycin, teicoplanin, linezolid
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old man who is suffering from a bacterial infection require antibiotic treatment. You need to figure out which antibiotic is most suitable. Listed below are antimicrobial drugs. Which one is a nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor?
Your Answer: Gentamicin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin and other quinolone antibiotics work by blocking DNA gyrase, an enzyme that compresses bacterial DNA into supercoils, as well as a type II topoisomerase, which is required for bacterial DNA separation. As a result, they prevent nucleic acid synthesis.The following is a summary of the many modes of action of various types of antimicrobial agents:Action Mechanisms-Â Examples:Cell wall production is inhibitedVancomycinVancomycinCephalosporinsThe function of the cell membrane is disrupted NystatinPolymyxinsAmphotericin BÂ Inhibition of protein synthesisChloramphenicolMacrolidesAminoglycosidesTetracyclinesNucleic acid synthesis inhibitionQuinolonesTrimethoprimRifampicin5-nitroimidazolesSulphonamidesAnti-metabolic activityIsoniazid
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A patient with history of weight loss and diarrhoea was found out to have Giardia lamblia in her stool since returning from a holiday to Nepal.Which of the following statements is considered true regarding the life cycle of Giardia lamblia?
Your Answer: Trophozoites attach to the intestinal wall via a specialised sucking disc
Explanation:Cysts are resistant forms and are responsible for transmission of giardiasis. Both cysts and trophozoites can be found in the faeces (diagnostic stages). The cysts are hardy and can survive several months in cold water. Infection occurs by the ingestion of cysts in contaminated water, food, or by the faecal-oral route (hands or fomites). In the small intestine, excystation releases trophozoites (each cyst produces two trophozoites).Trophozoites multiply by longitudinal binary fission, remaining in the lumen of the proximal small bowel where they can be free or attached to the mucosa by a ventral sucking disk.Encystation occurs as the parasites transit toward the colon. The cyst is the stage found most commonly in non diarrheal faeces.Because the cysts are infectious when passed in the stool or shortly afterward, person-to-person transmission is possible. While animals are infected with Giardia, their importance as a reservoir is unclear.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 54-year-old man returns from a recently holiday on a cruise ship with a dry cough and a fever. Today he has also had several episodes of diarrhoea and has developed bilateral pleuritic chest pain. He states that he is short of breath, most notably on exertion. He had been prescribed amoxicillin by the cruise ship doctor a few days earlier but has not seen any improvement.Which of the following is the most likely causative organism? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:Legionella pneumophilais a Gram negative bacterium that is found in natural water supplies and in the soil, transmitted predominantly via inhalation of aerosols generated from contaminated water (direct person-to-person spread of infected patients does not occur). It is the cause of Legionnaires’ disease. Outbreaks of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas and hot tubs.The clinical features of the pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease include:Mild flu-like prodrome for 1-3 daysCough (usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90%)Pleuritic chest painHaemoptysisHeadacheNausea, vomiting and diarrhoeaAnorexiaLegionella pneumophilainfections can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used.The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) can occur with Legionnaires’ disease and will result in hyponatraemia as is seen in this case.Legionella pneumophilainfections are resistant to amoxicillin but can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used. The majority of cases of Legionnaires’ disease are caused by Legionella pneumophila, however many other species of Legionella have been identified.Legionella longbeachae is another less commonly encountered species that has also been implicated in outbreaks. It is predominantly found in soil and potting compost, and has caused outbreaks of Pontiac fever, the non-respiratory and less severe variant of Legionnaires’ disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
An arterial blood gas test is performed to a 25-year-old students who presents with confusion, headache, nausea and malaise. The results show that carbon monoxide levels are significantly high. Which of the following carbon monoxide poisoning assertions is true?
Your Answer: It causes the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the right
Correct Answer: The PO 2 of the blood in CO poisoning can be normal
Explanation:By combining with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin, carbon monoxide (CO) disrupts the blood’s oxygen transport function. CO binds to haemoglobin with a 240-fold higher affinity than oxygen. As a result, even small amounts of CO can bind a large portion of the blood’s haemoglobin, making it unavailable for oxygen transport. During a suspected carbon monoxide poisoning, the blood PO2 and haemoglobin concentrations will be normal, but the oxygen concentration will be drastically reduced. The oxygen dissociation curve will also shift to the left in the presence of Carboxyhaemoglobin ( haemoglobin and carbon monoxide combination), interfering with oxygen unloading.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 33 year old lady with a known nut allergy was having dinner at a Thai restaurant. She suddenly complained of lip and tongue swelling and difficulty breathing and is brought to ED by ambulance with suspected anaphylaxis. She received intramuscular adrenaline in the ambulance.The most appropriate doses of the second line treatments for anaphylaxis are which of the following?
Your Answer: 10 mg chlorphenamine and 200 mg hydrocortisone
Explanation:Second line drugs to reduce the severity and duration of anaphylactic symptoms are intravenous or intramuscular chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone. The recommended dose is 10 mg chlorpheniramine and 200 mg hydrocortisone in adults.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Room by her mother after a fall from a tree in which she injured her elbow. An elbow fracture is suspected based on the examination findings, and she is given Entonox for analgesia as her elbow is set in a cast. Which one of the following statements regarding this drug is true?
Your Answer: It can be used for the sedation of violent and disturbed patients
Correct Answer: It can cause inhibition of vitamin B12 synthesis
Explanation:Entonox is a mixture of 50% Oxygen and 50% nitrous oxide and is given in an inhaled form as a quick form of analgesia. Entonox causes non-competitive inhibition of NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors, which are a subtype of the glutamate receptor. It is stored in blue and white cylinders and administered via a pressure regulator and demand valve. The administration of this medicine reduces pain and anxiety in paediatric and dental procedures ands during labour. Effects are apparent after 20 seconds, and peak action occurs after 3 to 5 minutes as it is a drug with a rapid onset and the patient will also recover rapidly from its effects. Entonox is widely used as it does not accumulate in the body and does not cause many side effects. However, a notable side effect is the inhibition of Vitamin B12 synthesis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. She is pregnant in her second trimester. The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute. She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Cefalexin
Explanation:The NICE guidelines for pregnant women with lower UTIs are:1. Prescribe an antibiotic immediately, taking into account the previous urine culture and susceptibility results or avoiding past antibiotics that may have caused resistance2. Obtain a midstream urine sample before starting antibiotics and send for urine culture and susceptibility – Review the choice of antibiotic when the results are available – change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if the bacteria are resistant, using a narrow-spectrum antibiotic wherever possibleThe first choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is:1. Nitrofurantoin100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minuteThe second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:1. Amoxicillin 500 mg PO TDS for seven days (ONLY if culture results available and susceptible)2. Cefalexin500 mg BD for seven daysAlternative second-choices – consult local microbiologist, choose antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity results
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a profuse, offensive smelling diarrhoea. A diagnosis of Clostridium difficile diarrhoea is made after investigations.The action most effective at minimizing spread to other patients is?
Your Answer: Hand washing
Explanation:Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile associated diarrhoea (CDAD) occurs.Alcohol hand gel is not effective against Clostridium Difficile spores. Hand washing with soap and water is very essential for healthcare workers who come in contact with it.Wearing an apron and gloves, and isolation to a side room are important contact precautions. They are, however, ineffective if hand washing is neglected.Although oral vancomycin is the first-line treatment for C. difficile associated diarrhoea, it will not limit patient to patient spread.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
Most of the lymph from vessels that drain the breast is collected in which of the following lymph nodes?
Your Answer: Axillary nodes
Explanation:Lymph is the fluid that flows through the lymphatic system. Axillary lymph nodes are near the breasts. They are often the first location to which breast cancer spreads if it moves beyond the breast tissue. They receive approximately 75% of lymph drainage from the breast via lymphatic vessels, laterally and superiorly. The lymph usually first drains to the anterior axillary nodes, and from here, through the central axillary, apical, and supraclavicular nodes in sequence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old student presents to the emergency department with a terrible headache, photophobia, and a fever. On her lower limbs, you see a non-blanching purpuric rash. In the department, a lumbar puncture is conducted. What do you think you'll notice on Gram stain:
Your Answer: Gram negative coccobacilli
Correct Answer: Gram negative diplococci
Explanation:Bacterial meningitis and septicaemia are most commonly caused by meningococcal bacteria. The Gram-negative diplococci Neisseria Meningitidis causes meningitis. Gram stain and culture of CSF identify the etiologic organism, N meningitidis. In bacterial meningitis, Gram stain is positive in 70-90% of untreated cases, and culture results are positive in as many as 80% of cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 78-year-old man develops renal impairment and hearing loss after inpatient management for sepsis.Which of these antibiotics is most likely to have been used?
Your Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, acts by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA, and thus prevents initiation of protein synthesis.Two of its most notable side effects are reversible nephrotoxicity(caused by the inhibition of protein synthesis in renal cells, which causes acute tubular necrosis) and hearing loss (caused by damage to the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear). Both side effects are dose-related and occur commonly in the elderly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Regarding the lung roots, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Each lung root contains two pulmonary arteries and a pulmonary vein.
Correct Answer: Generally the pulmonary arteries lie superior to the pulmonary veins in the lung root.
Explanation:Each lung root contains a pulmonary artery, two pulmonary veins, a main bronchus, bronchial vessels, nerves and lymphatics. Generally the pulmonary artery is superior in the lung root, the pulmonary veins are inferior and the bronchi are somewhat posterior in position. The vagus nerves pass posterior to the lung roots while the phrenic nerves pass anterior to them.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
