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  • Question 1 - After being stung by a bee, a 20-year-old man visits his General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • After being stung by a bee, a 20-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with swollen face and lips, along with wheezing. He is experiencing breathing difficulties and his blood pressure is 83/45 mmHg as per manual reading.
      What would be the most suitable course of action to manage this situation?

      Your Answer: Give 1 : 1 000 intramuscular (im) adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Administering Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis: Dosage and Route

      Anaphylaxis is a severe medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The administration of adrenaline is crucial in managing anaphylactic shock. However, the dosage and route of administration depend on the severity of the symptoms.

      For mild symptoms, such as skin rash or itching, the administration of iv hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine is sufficient. But if the symptoms progress to involve the airways or circulation, adrenaline should be given as soon as possible. The recommended dosage for intramuscular (im) adrenaline is 1:1000.

      It’s important to note that the dosage for cardiac arrest is different, and it’s given intravenously (iv) at a concentration of 1:10,000. However, routine use of iv adrenaline is not recommended unless the healthcare provider is skilled and experienced in its use.

      Hydrocortisone, even by an iv route, takes several hours to have an effect and is no longer deemed to be part of emergency treatment of anaphylaxis. Therefore, it’s not an appropriate course of action for rapidly life-threatening situations.

      In summary, administering adrenaline for anaphylaxis requires careful consideration of the dosage and route of administration. It’s crucial to act quickly and seek emergency medical attention to prevent fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 7-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a non-painful, partially rigid...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a non-painful, partially rigid erection. He mentions noticing it after playing at school in the morning but did not inform anyone. His mother noticed the erection while helping him get ready for his evening soccer practice. The child has no medical or surgical history and is not on any regular medications. What is the initial investigation that should be performed in this case?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound of testes

      Correct Answer: Cavernosal blood gas

      Explanation:

      Cavernosal blood gas analysis is a crucial investigation for patients presenting with priapism. In this case, the patient has a partially erect, non-painful penis that has persisted for over 4 hours, indicating non-ischaemic priapism. This type of priapism is caused by large volume arterial inflow to the penis from trauma or congenital malformation. Confirming whether the priapism is ischaemic or non-ischaemic through cavernosal blood gas analysis is essential for appropriate management. Ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency that requires aspiration of blood from the cavernosa, while non-ischaemic priapism can be managed with observation initially. In paediatric patients, a doppler ultrasound may be a better alternative to cavernosal blood gases due to the potential trauma of the procedure.

      A CT pelvis is not recommended in this case as it would expose the child to unnecessary radiation. Instead, a doppler ultrasound can be used to investigate the arterial/venous blood flow in the penis. A clotting screen may be useful if the patient has a history of bleeding problems or a family history of haemoglobinopathies. However, it should not delay cavernosal blood gas analysis as it is crucial to confirm the type of priapism. Testicular ultrasound is not a useful imaging modality for investigating priapism. If an imaging modality is required to assess penile blood flow, a doppler ultrasound is the preferred option.

      Understanding Priapism: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Priapism is a medical condition characterized by a persistent penile erection that lasts longer than four hours and is not associated with sexual stimulation. There are two types of priapism: ischaemic and non-ischaemic, each with a different pathophysiology. Ischaemic priapism is caused by impaired vasorelaxation, resulting in reduced vascular outflow and trapping of de-oxygenated blood within the corpus cavernosa. Non-ischaemic priapism, on the other hand, is due to high arterial inflow, often caused by fistula formation due to congenital or traumatic mechanisms.

      Priapism can affect individuals of all ages, with a bimodal distribution of age at presentation, with peaks between 5-10 years and 20-50 years of age. The incidence of priapism has been estimated at up to 5.34 per 100,000 patient-years. There are various causes of priapism, including idiopathic, sickle cell disease or other haemoglobinopathies, erectile dysfunction medication, trauma, and drug use (both prescribed and recreational).

      Patients with priapism typically present acutely with a persistent erection lasting over four hours and pain localized to the penis. A history of haemoglobinopathy or medication use may also be present. Cavernosal blood gas analysis and Doppler or duplex ultrasonography can be used to differentiate between ischaemic and non-ischaemic priapism and assess blood flow within the penis. Treatment for ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency and includes aspiration of blood from the cavernosa, injection of a saline flush, and intracavernosal injection of a vasoconstrictive agent. Non-ischaemic priapism, on the other hand, is not a medical emergency and is usually observed as a first-line option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman comes back from a trip. During her final day overseas,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes back from a trip. During her final day overseas, she had lunch from an unlicensed street food vendor. After eight days of returning home, she encounters bloating, abdominal discomfort, and non-bloody diarrhea, and she observes that her stools are floating in the toilet bowl. The patient's symptoms persist for nine weeks. What is the probable pathogen responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Giardia

      Explanation:

      Chronic Giardia infection can lead to malabsorption.

      Giardia is a type of protozoan that can be transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated fecal matter. While giardiasis typically resolves within a few weeks, if the infection persists for more than six weeks, it is considered chronic. Chronic Giardia infection can cause malabsorption of various nutrients, including vitamin A, B12, iron, zinc, and lipids. This malabsorption can result in steatorrhea, which is characterized by greasy, foul-smelling stools that float in the toilet bowl.

      It is important to note that other pathogens, such as Entamoeba histolytica, Escherichia coli, and Salmonella, do not commonly cause malabsorption. While they may cause diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms, they do not typically result in the malabsorption of nutrients.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      135.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old female is admitted to the psychiatric ward and experiences an acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female is admitted to the psychiatric ward and experiences an acute episode of psychosis. The on-call doctor is consulted and prescribes medication, but the patient subsequently develops severe acute agitation and torticollis.
      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Flumezanil

      Correct Answer: Procyclidine

      Explanation:

      Common Drugs and Their Roles in Treating Extra-Pyramidal Side Effects

      Extra-pyramidal side effects (EPSE) are a common occurrence in patients taking antipsychotic medications. Procyclidine is an antimuscarinic drug that is the first line treatment for EPSE, including torticollis. It can be administered orally or parenterally and is usually very effective.

      Naloxone, on the other hand, is an opioid antagonist used in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose. It has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine antagonist, is used to reverse central sedative effects of benzodiazepines during anaesthesia or diagnostic, surgical or dental procedures. It has no role in the treatment of torticollis or other EPSE.

      N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is mainly used in the treatment of paracetamol overdose and has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Sodium thiosulphate, used as an antidote to cyanide poisoning, also has no role in the treatment of EPSE, including torticollis. Understanding the roles of these common drugs can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment for patients experiencing EPSE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      60.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are invited to a meeting at a nearby daycare center. There has...

    Correct

    • You are invited to a meeting at a nearby daycare center. There has been a rise in the number of children contracting hand, foot, and mouth disease and a plan is being developed to address this issue. What is the most efficient measure to decrease the occurrence of hand, foot, and mouth disease?

      Your Answer: Hand hygiene

      Explanation:

      Hand hygiene is the most crucial step in addressing MRSA, although a comprehensive approach is necessary.

      Understanding MRSA and Screening for Infection

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections and is particularly dangerous in hospital settings. To prevent the spread of MRSA, certain patients should be screened for the infection, including those awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions starting in 2011. Screening involves taking a nasal swab and checking for skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is found to be a carrier of MRSA, treatment involves using antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, or linezolid. However, some strains may develop resistance to these antibiotics, so newer options like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to suppress MRSA from carriers to prevent the spread of infection. This can be done through the use of mupirocin and chlorhexidine gluconate. By understanding MRSA and screening for infection, healthcare providers can take steps to prevent the spread of this dangerous bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      29.9
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  • Question 6 - A 9-year-old boy is being evaluated at the Enuresis clinic. Despite using an...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy is being evaluated at the Enuresis clinic. Despite using an enuresis alarm for the past three months, he continues to wet the bed at night. He has no issues with urination during the day and has a daily bowel movement. What treatment option is most probable to be suggested?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin

      Explanation:

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.4
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  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man has been admitted to the orthopaedic ward following a left...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man has been admitted to the orthopaedic ward following a left hemiarthroplasty. He has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes and chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML).

      The nurse has requested an urgent review of the patient as he is displaying signs of confusion. His blood pressure is 96/54 mmHg and his heart rate is 135 bpm. The patient has been passing 10 ml of urine an hour through his catheter and the nurse has observed that the urine in the catheter bag is bright red.

      Upon examination, the patient has petechial bruising over his arms and blood is slowly oozing from his peripheral cannula. What blood test results would you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Low platelets, low fibrinogen, raised APTT and PT and raised D-dimer

      Explanation:

      The typical blood picture for DIC includes a decrease in platelets and fibrinogen levels, as well as an increase in PT and APTT, and fibrinogen degradation products. DIC can be triggered by trauma, malignancies, and other factors. The patient’s symptoms, such as oliguria, hypotension, and tachycardia, suggest circulatory collapse due to DIC. Bleeding at multiple sites, including haematuria, petechial bruising, and bleeding from a peripheral cannula, is also common in DIC. The release of procoagulants in DIC leads to widespread clotting activation, which consumes platelets and clotting factors, resulting in a low platelet count and prolonged bleeding times. Fibrinolysis is also activated, leading to low fibrinogen levels and high D-dimer levels. Additionally, haemoglobin levels may be low due to bleeding and lysis caused by fibrin strands in small blood vessels.

      Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis

      Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.

      To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      43.2
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man, who lives alone, complains of pain in his right knee....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man, who lives alone, complains of pain in his right knee. He finds it difficult to walk long distances. A recent knee radiograph showed signs of osteoarthritis (OA). Examination revealed mild medial joint line tenderness and stable ligaments. His body mass index (BMI) is 25.
      What would be the treatment of choice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Weight loss and physiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol with topical NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Management Strategies for Osteoarthritis

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. There are various management strategies for OA, including pharmacological and non-pharmacological approaches.

      Paracetamol with Topical NSAIDs
      The first-line management strategy for knee and hand OA is to use paracetamol with topical NSAIDs, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.

      Oral NSAIDs
      Oral NSAIDs should be used with caution in the elderly and those with renal disease. Topical NSAIDs are preferred in the first instance. If they are ineffective, oral NSAIDs may be used at the lowest effective dose, for the shortest period of time, and with a protein pump inhibitor co-prescribed.

      Oral NSAIDs with Gastric Protection
      Oral NSAIDs can be given with gastric protection if topical NSAIDs plus paracetamol provide insufficient analgesia. However, it is not the first-line recommendation for relief of pain in osteoarthritis.

      Arthrodesis of the Knee Joint
      Surgical management of OA is typically with joint replacement. Surgery may only be considered in those patients in whom non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures have proved ineffective and there is severe pain with functional limitation.

      Weight Loss and Physiotherapy
      Weight loss and physiotherapy are part of the non-pharmacological management for OA. However, weight loss is only appropriate in those with a BMI of over 25 (overweight or obese). Physiotherapy and gentle exercise should be recommended to all patients with OA, regardless of age, pain severity, co-morbidity, or disability.

      Management Strategies for Osteoarthritis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old man has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. What is the most probable psychiatric issue that he may experience?

      Your Answer: Tics

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Depression is a prevalent psychiatric issue in patients with Parkinson’s disease, with approximately 40% of individuals experiencing it, despite dementia being a common comorbidity.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that occurs when dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra degenerate. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other characteristic features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and micrographia. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is an accurate statement about alcoholic liver disease (ALD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an accurate statement about alcoholic liver disease (ALD)?

      Your Answer: Men are more susceptible than women

      Correct Answer: In alcoholic hepatitis the AST : ALT ratio is at least 2 : 1

      Explanation:

      Alcoholic Liver Disease: Facts and Myths

      Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a common liver disease caused by overconsumption of alcohol. Here are some facts and myths about ALD:

      Myth: In alcoholic hepatitis, the AST:ALT ratio is less than 2:1.
      Fact: Unlike most other liver diseases, including viral hepatitis, alcoholic hepatitis exhibits at least a 2:1 AST:ALT ratio.

      Myth: Hepatic iron overload is not indicative of concomitant heterozygote haemochromatosis.
      Fact: Evidence of iron overload, such as elevated levels of transferrin saturation and serum ferritin, is common in ALD and may indicate concomitant heterozygote haemochromatosis.

      Myth: Women are less susceptible to ALD than men.
      Fact: Women are actually twice as susceptible to ALD than men, even when consumption is corrected for body weight, and may develop ALD with shorter durations and doses of chronic consumption.

      Myth: Alcoholic fatty infiltration is irreversible once established.
      Fact: Although steatosis (fatty infiltration) will develop in any individual who consumes a large quantity of alcohol over a long period of time, this process is usually transient and reversible. Alcoholic hepatitis and alcoholic fatty infiltration are reversible with abstinence and adequate nutrition.

      Myth: Alcoholic cirrhosis does not progress to hepatocellular carcinoma.
      Fact: Like other causes of liver cirrhosis, alcoholic cirrhosis can also progress to hepatocellular carcinoma.

      In conclusion, ALD is a serious liver disease that can have irreversible consequences if not addressed in a timely manner. It is important to understand the facts and myths surrounding this disease to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A father is worried about a swelling he has noticed on his two-day-old...

    Correct

    • A father is worried about a swelling he has noticed on his two-day-old baby's head. The baby was delivered using forceps due to a prolonged second stage of labor. Upon examination, there is a swelling in the parietal region that does not cross the suture lines. The doctor informs him that it may take several weeks to resolve. What type of head injury is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Cephalohaematoma

      Explanation:

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.

      In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You see a 56-year-old man with a 5-year history of back pain following...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 56-year-old man with a 5-year history of back pain following a work-related injury. He has presented to the clinic due to poor control of his pain. He is experiencing shooting pains down his legs with an associated burning sensation.

      Despite intensive physiotherapy, his pain is still poorly controlled and requiring full dose codeine and paracetamol which is failing to control the pain.

      His MRI was normal and he has been discharged by the spinal team due to no operable cause identified for his pain.

      You're asked to review him due to ongoing pain. The nursing team has asked if he can have morphine sulfate prescribed as required to help with this. He was started by his general practitioner 3 months previously on amitriptyline which he hasn't found of any benefit.

      You decide rather than just prescribing morphine that you can try to adjust his chronic pain management as well.

      Which of the following options would be best for the management of his chronic pain?

      Your Answer: Continue amitriptyline and start gabapentin

      Correct Answer: Stop amitriptyline and start duloxetine

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing chronic pain, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used alone. If they are not effective, it is recommended to switch to a different drug rather than adding another one. This question may also bring attention to poorly controlled acute pain, but it is important to note that morphine sulfate is not ideal for chronic pain management due to its potential side effects, dependence, and worsening of chronic pain. Tramadol is a better option for managing breakthrough pain in neuropathic pain patients, but it does not change the overall management of chronic pain. The recommended drugs for neuropathic pain include duloxetine, gabapentinoids, and amitriptyline (a tricyclic antidepressant).

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.

      Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      57.8
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman is experiencing heavy menstrual bleeding but refuses an intrauterine system...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is experiencing heavy menstrual bleeding but refuses an intrauterine system due to negative mood effects from hormonal therapies in the past. What alternative treatment should be considered?

      Your Answer: Tranexamic acid or NSAID

      Explanation:

      If the woman does not approve of hormonal treatments, alternatives such as tranexamic acid or NSAIDs can be utilized according to NICE CG44.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      37.4
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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a subcutaneous injection of sumatriptan, resulting in the alleviation of his symptoms.
      What is the mechanism of action of the drug?

      Your Answer: Causing vasoconstriction of cranial arteries

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanisms of Sumatriptan: A Migraine and Cluster Headache Treatment

      Sumatriptan is a medication commonly used to treat migraine and cluster headaches. It works by activating specific serotonin receptors (5-HT1D and 5-HT1B) found on cranial and basilar arteries, causing vasoconstriction of these blood vessels. This medication can be administered orally, by subcutaneous injection, or intranasally.

      It is important to note that sumatriptan has no effect on adrenergic receptors or acetylcholinesterase receptors. It is also not a cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor or an opioid receptor agonist or antagonist.

      In addition to its effects on blood vessels, sumatriptan has been shown to decrease the activity of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for its effectiveness in treating cluster headaches.

      Overall, understanding the mechanisms of sumatriptan can help healthcare professionals and patients better understand how this medication works to alleviate the symptoms of migraine and cluster headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      19.5
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of occasional abdominal distension...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of occasional abdominal distension and bloating, which varies with her menstrual cycle and is accompanied by episodes of constipation. She works as a teacher and finds work stressful; she has previously taken a course of sertraline for depression/anxiety. On examination, bloods and colonoscopy are normal.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

      Explanation:

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a gastrointestinal disorder that causes abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits without any identifiable organic pathology. It is more common in women and can be worsened by stress and the perimenstrual period. Diagnosis is made by ruling out other potential causes of symptoms. Management includes dietary changes, such as increasing fiber intake and avoiding trigger foods, as well as psychological support. Medications may also be used to alleviate symptoms. This patient’s symptoms are not consistent with chronic pancreatitis, ulcerative colitis, peptic ulcer disease, or diverticulitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      16.7
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  • Question 16 - A 38-year-old woman complains of a sudden 'droop' on the right side of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman complains of a sudden 'droop' on the right side of her face upon waking up this morning. She denies any weakness in her limbs, difficulty swallowing, or changes in her vision. Upon examination, you observe paralysis on the upper and lower right side of her face. Which of the following symptoms would be most indicative of Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer: Rhinorrhoea

      Correct Answer: Hyperacusis

      Explanation:

      Ramsey Hunt syndrome can be diagnosed based on the presence of a vesicular rash near the ear, which is often accompanied by hyperacusis in approximately one-third of patients.

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      35.6
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  • Question 17 - A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to groin abdominal pain. A CT-KUB reveals a right-sided renal calculus. When you take her medical history, she confesses that she has been feeling unwell for the past few weeks with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, constipation and altered mood.
      Her blood tests show an estimated glomerular filtration rate of >60 ml/min, adjusted calcium of 3.1 mmol/l (2.1-2.6 mmol/l), phosphate of 0.6 mmol/l (0.8-1.4 mol/l), and parathyroid hormone of 5.1 pmol/l (1.2-5.8 pmol/l).
      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is caused by parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia. The typical biochemical markers are low phosphate and high serum calcium levels. However, the parathyroid hormone level may be high or inappropriately normal. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is caused by chronic hypocalcemia, such as in chronic kidney disease, where serum calcium levels are low or normal, but parathyroid hormone levels are high. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is a result of autonomous parathyroid production and usually occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease. Sarcoidosis and type 1 renal tubular acidosis are rare causes of hypercalcemia.

      Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition commonly seen in elderly females, characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, with hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, and carcinoma being less common causes. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, those who do experience symptoms may have polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN I and II).

      To diagnose primary hyperparathyroidism, doctors may look for raised calcium levels and low phosphate levels, as well as perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan. A characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism is the pepperpot skull. Treatment options include total parathyroidectomy, conservative management, and the use of calcimimetics like cinacalcet. Calcimimetics mimic the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.

      In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can be asymptomatic or present with a range of symptoms. It is most commonly caused by a solitary adenoma and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia. Diagnosis involves blood tests and imaging, while treatment options include surgery and medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the general practice clinic with a sore throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the general practice clinic with a sore throat and fever that have been present for 3 days. What clinical sign would indicate that the patient may have a bacterial throat infection and could benefit from antibiotics? Choose ONE positive indicator from the options provided.

      Your Answer: Vomiting

      Correct Answer: Tender cervical lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Need for Antibiotics in Acute Sore Throat: Understanding the Centor Criteria and Other Indicators

      When a patient presents with a sore throat, it is important to determine whether antibiotics are necessary for treatment. The Centor criteria and FeverPAIN score are two approved scoring systems used to predict the likelihood of a bacterial cause for the sore throat.

      Tender cervical lymphadenopathy is one of the parameters in the Centor criteria and scores 1 point. Other parameters include age, exudate on tonsils, absence of cough, and fever. A score of 3 or more suggests a high probability of bacterial infection and the need for antibiotic treatment.

      Cough present is not an indicator for antibiotic therapy, but its absence is one of the factors in the Centor criteria. Sore throat alone is also not an indicator for antibiotics, but a score of 4-5 on the FeverPAIN score or a Centor criteria score above 3 may indicate the need for antibiotics.

      Vomiting and nasal congestion are not included in either scoring system for determining the need for antibiotics. However, vomiting may be a sign of severe illness and dehydration, and any patient presenting with vomiting and a sore throat should be assessed for signs of sepsis and dehydration. Nasal congestion may suggest a viral cause for the sore throat, but alternative causes should still be assessed.

      In summary, understanding the Centor criteria and other indicators can help healthcare providers determine whether antibiotics are necessary for treating acute sore throat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 72 year old man presents with a 6 day history of vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old man presents with a 6 day history of vomiting and diarrhoea. His blood results show Na+ 142 mmol/l, K+ 5.9 mmol/l, urea 14 mmol/l, and creatinine 320 mmol/l. His renal function was normal on routine blood tests 2 months ago. What finding is most indicative of acute tubular necrosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Raised urinary osmolality

      Correct Answer: Raised urinary sodium

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing acute kidney injury, which can be categorized into three causes: pre-renal, renal, and post-renal. Pre-renal causes are due to inadequate renal perfusion, such as dehydration, haemorrhage, heart failure, or sepsis. In this case, the kidneys are still able to concentrate urine and retain sodium, resulting in high urine osmolality and low urine sodium. Renal causes are most commonly caused by acute tubular necrosis, which damages tubular cells due to prolonged ischaemia or toxins. In this scenario, the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine or retain sodium, leading to low urine osmolality and high urine sodium. Acute glomerulonephritis and acute interstitial nephritis are rarer causes of renal injury. Post-renal causes are due to obstruction of the urinary tract, which can be identified through hydronephrosis on renal ultrasound.

      Distinguishing between Acute Tubular Necrosis and Prerenal Uraemia in Acute Kidney Injury

      Acute kidney injury can be caused by various factors, including prerenal uraemia and acute tubular necrosis. It is important to distinguish between the two in order to provide appropriate treatment. Prerenal uraemia occurs when the kidneys hold on to sodium to preserve volume, leading to decreased blood flow to the kidneys. On the other hand, acute tubular necrosis is caused by damage to the kidney tubules, often due to ischemia or toxins.

      To differentiate between the two, several factors can be considered. In prerenal uraemia, urine sodium levels are typically less than 20 mmol/L, while in acute tubular necrosis, they are usually greater than 40 mmol/L. Urine osmolality is also a useful indicator, with levels above 500 mOsm/kg suggesting prerenal uraemia and levels below 350 mOsm/kg suggesting acute tubular necrosis.

      Fractional sodium excretion and fractional urea excretion are also important measures. In prerenal uraemia, the fractional sodium excretion is typically less than 1%, while in acute tubular necrosis, it is usually greater than 1%. Similarly, the fractional urea excretion is less than 35% in prerenal uraemia and greater than 35% in acute tubular necrosis.

      Other factors that can help distinguish between the two include response to fluid challenge, serum urea:creatinine ratio, urine:plasma osmolality, urine:plasma urea ratio, and specific gravity. By considering these factors, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat acute kidney injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the most probable adverse effect experienced by patients who are taking...

    Correct

    • What is the most probable adverse effect experienced by patients who are taking gliclazide?

      Your Answer: Weight gain

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is the most frequent side-effect observed in patients who take sulfonylureas, although they may experience all of the aforementioned side-effects.

      Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.

      One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual loss of hearing and ringing in her right ear for the past 4 weeks. Upon examination, her ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal. Rinne's test shows air conduction is better than bone conduction on both sides, but Weber's test reveals that the sound is heard best in her left ear. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)

      Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.

      Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.

      The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman presents with postcoital bleeding and intermenstrual bleeding. She reports a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with postcoital bleeding and intermenstrual bleeding. She reports a history of chlamydia infection in her early 20s but has been in a monogamous relationship for the past five years. Pelvic examination six months ago was normal, with an unremarkable and easily located cervix. However, the sample was positive for human papillomavirus (HPV) and demonstrates high-grade dyskaryosis.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy and biopsy within two weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cervical Cancer and Abnormal Smear Test Results

      Cervical cancer is a common malignancy in women worldwide and can be detected through routine cervical screening. An abnormal Papanicolaou (‘smear’) test result is the most common finding in patients with cervical cancer. Physical symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, vaginal discomfort, malodorous discharge, and dysuria. Referral for colposcopy and biopsy should be made within two weeks for patients with symptoms of cervical cancer. Women with a cervical cytology result of moderate, high-grade dyskaryosis, suspected invasive cancer or glandular neoplasia should also be referred for colposcopy within two weeks. Cervical cauterisation with silver nitrate is not associated with the development of cervical cancer and is used to treat cervical ectropion. Endocervical swab for Chlamydia spp. may be necessary for women presenting with mucopurulent cervicitis. Understanding these guidelines and symptoms can help with early detection and treatment of cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man is discharged from the hospital after being treated for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is discharged from the hospital after being treated for a thrombolysed ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He has a history of depression but no other significant medical history. During his stay in the coronary care unit, he developed dyspnoea and an echo revealed a reduced left ventricular ejection fraction. His cardiorespiratory examination today was normal. In addition to the standard treatment of ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, aspirin, clopidogrel, and statin, what other type of medication should he be prescribed?

      Your Answer: Loop diuretic

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone antagonist

      Explanation:

      According to the current NICE guidelines, a patient with a reduced left ventricular ejection fraction should be prescribed an aldosterone antagonist. However, a loop diuretic should only be prescribed if there is evidence of fluid overload.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.

      Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with recent onset of left-sided...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with recent onset of left-sided weakness. She has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin, with an INR of 2.5 upon admission. A CT scan of her head reveals an intracerebral haemorrhage in the left basal ganglia. What steps should be taken regarding her warfarin medication?

      Your Answer: Stop the warfarin, give 5mg of vitamin K intravenously and give prothrombin complex concentrate intravenously

      Explanation:

      In the event of major bleeding, such as an intracranial haemorrhage, it is crucial to discontinue warfarin and administer intravenous vitamin K 5mg and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC). PCC is a solution that contains coagulation factors II, VII, IX and X, specifically designed to reverse the effects of warfarin. It is recommended over fresh frozen plasma (FFP) for warfarin reversal.

      Management of High INR in Patients Taking Warfarin

      When managing patients taking warfarin who have a high INR, the approach will depend on whether there is bleeding or not. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped immediately and intravenous vitamin K 5mg should be given along with prothrombin complex concentrate. If this is not available, fresh frozen plasma can be used instead. For minor bleeding, warfarin should also be stopped and intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg should be given. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, the dose of vitamin K can be repeated. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is below 5.0.

      If there is no bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and vitamin K 1-5mg can be given orally using the intravenous preparation. The dose of vitamin K can be repeated if the INR remains high after 24 hours. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is below 5.0. In cases where the INR is between 5.0-8.0, warfarin should be stopped for minor bleeding and intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg should be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is below 5.0. For patients with no bleeding and an INR between 5.0-8.0, one or two doses of warfarin can be withheld and the subsequent maintenance dose can be reduced.

      It is important to note that in cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered instead of fresh frozen plasma as it can take time to defrost. These guidelines are based on the recommendations of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology and the British National Formulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman with Addison's disease is seen for a follow-up appointment. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with Addison's disease is seen for a follow-up appointment. She reports a productive cough and feeling feverish for the past three days. Upon examination, her chest is clear, pulse is 84 beats per minute, and temperature is 37.7ºC. Due to her medical history, an antibiotic is prescribed.

      What advice should be given regarding her adrenal replacement therapy?

      Your Answer: Double the hydrocortisone dose, keep the same fludrocortisone dose

      Explanation:

      In the case of a patient with Addison’s disease who develops an additional illness, it is recommended to increase the dose of glucocorticoids while maintaining the same dose of fludrocortisone.

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.

      During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a headache....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a headache. She has been experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past three days and the headache started gradually yesterday. The headache is described as being all over and worsens when looking at bright light or bending her neck. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2º, pulse is 96/min, and blood pressure is 116/78 mmHg. There is neck stiffness present, but no focal neurological signs are observed. During a closer inspection, several petechiae are noticed on her torso. The patient has been cannulated and bloods, including cultures, have been taken. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: IV dexamethasone

      Correct Answer: IV cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Immediate administration of appropriate intravenous antibiotics is crucial for this patient diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. In light of modern PCR diagnostic techniques, there is no need to delay potentially life-saving treatment by conducting a lumbar puncture in suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.

      The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An older patient with Bell's palsy presented to the emergency department with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • An older patient with Bell's palsy presented to the emergency department with complaints of a sore and gritty right eye. Despite occasional blurring of vision, the patient's visual acuity remained unaffected. The patient was unable to close their right eye and had not been compliant with taping the eyelid at night or using the lubricating ointment provided by their GP a week prior. An ophthalmologist performed a slit lamp examination, which revealed a normal-appearing cornea and anterior chamber. The examination was then continued with the addition of fluorescein dye on the eye. What findings would the doctor anticipate during this examination?

      Your Answer: Keratic precipitates

      Correct Answer: Punctate fluorescein staining of cornea

      Explanation:

      Patients with dry eyes often exhibit punctate fluorescein staining of the cornea, which is a common occurrence in those with Bell’s palsy. This condition impairs the ability to blink or close the eye, leading to a lack of moisture on the cornea and subsequent dryness. It is important to note that keratic precipitates and foreign bodies can be observed without the use of fluorescein dye, and keratic precipitates are typically associated with anterior uveitis rather than the dry eye syndrome seen in Bell’s palsy. Additionally, corneal abrasions typically result in decreased visual acuity, which is not a symptom of dry eyes in this context.

      Understanding Dry Eye Syndrome

      Dry eye syndrome is a condition that causes discomfort in both eyes, with symptoms such as dryness, grittiness, and soreness that worsen throughout the day. Exposure to wind can also cause watering of the eyes. People with Meibomian gland dysfunction may experience symptoms that are worse upon waking, with eyelids sticking together and redness of the eyelids. In some cases, dry eye syndrome can lead to complications such as conjunctivitis or corneal ulceration, which can cause severe pain, photophobia, redness, and loss of visual acuity.

      Although there may be no abnormalities on examination, eyelid hygiene is the most appropriate management step for dry eye syndrome. This can help control blepharitis, which is a common condition associated with dry eye syndrome. By understanding the symptoms and appropriate management steps, individuals with dry eye syndrome can find relief and improve their overall eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      41.7
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  • Question 28 - As a foundation year two doctor on the surgical admissions unit, you encounter...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation year two doctor on the surgical admissions unit, you encounter a thirty-year-old patient complaining of right upper abdominal pain and anorexia. Upon examination, you find an overweight Caucasian female with a soft abdomen that is tender in the right upper quadrant. Her observations indicate fever and mild tachycardia. Blood tests reveal a significantly elevated bilirubin level (87 umol/L). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gallstones

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain is known as Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which indicates an infection of the bile ducts. This patient is likely suffering from ascending cholangitis. Cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, can also cause right upper quadrant pain and may precede ascending cholangitis. While gallstones are a common cause of cholangitis, they can be asymptomatic and are not a diagnosis on their own. Pregnancy is not a likely cause of right upper quadrant pain. Gilbert’s syndrome typically causes mild jaundice only during times of stress and is usually asymptomatic.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - As a foundation doctor in the emergency decisions unit, you assess a 28-year-old...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in the emergency decisions unit, you assess a 28-year-old intravenous drug user who complains of pyrexia and malaise. Upon examination, the patient appears cachectic, pale, and is coughing. A soft murmur is detected, and mild erythematous macular lesions are observed on both palms. Although the patient is experiencing general aches, there is no specific tenderness reported. Can you identify the probable diagnosis and explain the significance of the lesions?

      Your Answer: Janeway lesions

      Explanation:

      Janeway lesions are painless, red, and bloody lesions that appear on the palms and soles. They are typically associated with infective endocarditis.

      Based on the patient’s history of intravenous drug use, fever, and heart murmur, it is likely that he has infective endocarditis. Both janeway lesions (caused by septic emboli) and osler nodes (caused by immune complex deposition) can be present in endocarditis. However, in this case, the lesions are more likely to be janeway lesions as they are not painful.

      Roth spots are retinal hemorrhages that can also be seen in endocarditis, but they would be detected during a fundoscopy exam.

      If the patient had meningitis, the rash would not be limited to the palms and would not disappear when pressed.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.

      Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      33.8
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old rancher presents to the ER with his spouse. He is experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old rancher presents to the ER with his spouse. He is experiencing a high fever and excessive sweating. During the examination, multiple black blisters are observed, which are producing a malodorous discharge. What is the typical microorganism linked to this ailment?

      Your Answer: Clostridium perfringens

      Explanation:

      Gas gangrene is a severe bacterial infection that can lead to muscle necrosis, sepsis, gas production, and ultimately, death. The infection can occur in two ways: through traumatic or surgical inoculation of a wound with bacteria, or spontaneously, which is often observed in immunocompromised patients. While there are multiple causes of gas gangrene, clostridium perfringens, a type of clostridia species, is frequently implicated. The condition typically begins with pain and progresses to systemic symptoms such as fever and dehydration. Skin changes, including blisters that can burst and produce a foul-smelling discharge, are also common. Movement may produce a crackling sound known as crepitus.

      Clostridia: Gram-Positive Anaerobic Bacilli

      Clostridia are a group of gram-positive, obligate anaerobic bacilli. There are several species of Clostridia, each with their own unique features and pathologies. C. perfringens produces α-toxin, a lecithinase, which can cause gas gangrene and haemolysis. Symptoms of gas gangrene include tender, oedematous skin with haemorrhagic blebs and bullae, and crepitus may be present on palpation. C. botulinum is typically found in canned foods and honey and can cause flaccid paralysis by preventing the release of acetylcholine. C. difficile is known for causing pseudomembranous colitis, which is often seen after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. This species produces both an exotoxin and a cytotoxin. Finally, C. tetani produces an exotoxin called tetanospasmin, which prevents the release of glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord, leading to spastic paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immunology/Allergy (1/1) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/4) 25%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (3/4) 75%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/5) 20%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (3/3) 100%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Renal Medicine/Urology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Passmed