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Question 1
Correct
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An ultrasound in the 1st trimester of pregnancy is done for?
Your Answer: Dating of the pregnancy
Explanation:Early ultrasound improves the early detection of multiple pregnancies and improved gestational dating may result in fewer inductions for post maturity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow up. On pelvic ultrasound you noted a decrease in amniotic fluid, and all her previous scans were normal. When asked she recollected on experiencing an episode of urinary incontinence yesterday, were she had wet her undergarment with a sudden gush of clear fluid. Considering the presentation, which of the following is MOST likely the cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?
Your Answer: Premature preterm rupture of membrane
Explanation:This patient presenting with oligohydramnios in her third trimester and had reported an episode of sudden gush of fluid secondary to ruptured membrane which she had mistaken to be “urinary incontinence”. Hence, the most likely cause of oligohydramnios in this patient will be premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM).
An amniotic fluid volume which is less than expected for gestational age is called as Oligohydramnios and is typically diagnosed by ultrasound examination. This condition can be qualitatively described as reduced amniotic fluid volume and quantitatively as amniotic fluid index ≤5 cm or a single deepest pocket <2 cm. Oligohydramnios either can be idiopathic or may have a maternal, fetal or placental cause. Fetal prognosis in this case depends on several factors like the underlying cause, the severity of loss ie. reduced versus no amniotic fluid state and the gestational age at which oligohydramnios occurred. As an adequate volume of amniotic fluid is critical for the normal fetal movements, for fetal lung development and for cushioning the fetus and umbilical cord from uterine compression, so pregnancies complicated with oligohydramnios are at higher risk for fetal deformation, pulmonary hypoplasia and umbilical cord compression.
Oligohydramnios is also associated with an increased risk for fetal or neonatal death, which can either be related to the underlying cause of reduction in amniotic fluid volume or due to the sequelae caused due to reduced amniotic fluid volume. The amniotic fluid volume reflects the balance between fluid production and movement of fluid out of the amniotic sac and the most common mechanisms behind oligohydramnios are fetal oliguria/anuria or fluid loss due to rupture of membranes; also reduction in the amount of lung fluid or increased swallowing do not play major roles in this. Idiopathic cases as in idiopathic oligohydramnios, may be due to alterations in the expression of water pores like aquaporin 1 and aquaporin 3, present in fetal membranes and placenta.Causes of oligohydramnios
a) Maternal causes includes:
– Medical or obstetric conditions associated with uteroplacental insufficiency like preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, collagen vascular disease, nephropathy, thrombophilia.
– Intake of medications like angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, trastuzumab.
b) Placental causes are:
– Abruption of placenta
– Twin polyhydramnios-oligohydramnios sequence which is the Twin to twin transfusion
– Placental thrombosis or infarction
c) Fetal cases leading to oligohydramnios are:
– Chromosomal abnormalities
– Congenital abnormalities which are associated with impaired urine production
– Growth restriction
– Demise
– Post-term pregnancy
– Ruptured fetal membranes
– Infections
– Idiopathic causesDuring First trimester: Etiology of oligohydramnios during the first trimester is often unclear. As the gestational sac fluid is primarily derived from the fetal surface of the placenta via transamniotic flow from the maternal compartment and secretions from the surface of the body of the embryo reduced amniotic fluid prior to 10 weeks of gestation is rare.
During Second trimester: Fetal urine begins to enter the amniotic sac and fetus begins to swallow amniotic fluid by the beginning of second trimester, therefore, during this period any disorders related to the renal/urinary system of the fetus begins to play a prominent role in the etiology of oligohydramnios. Some of such anomalies include intrinsic renal disorders like cystic renal disease and obstructive lesions of the lower urinary tract like posterior urethral valves or urethral atresia. Other common causes of oligohydramnios in the second trimester are maternal and placental factors and traumatic or nontraumatic rupture of the fetal membranes.
During Third trimester: Oligohydramnios which is first diagnosed in the third trimester is often associated with PPROM or with conditions such as preeclampsia or other maternal vascular diseases leading to uteroplacental insufficiency. Oligohydramnios frequently accompanies fetal growth restriction as a result of uteroplacental insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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According to the RCOG Green-top guideline published in 2013 at what stage of gestation should pregnant patients with PCOS be offered screening for gestational diabetes
Your Answer: 24-28 weeks gestation
Explanation:Screening for gestational diabetes should be offered and performed between 24-28 weeks. It should be noted PCOS alone does not make screening essential. It is advised for PCOS patients who are overweight or if not overweight but has other risk factors (age >40, personal history of gestational diabetes or family history of type II diabetes). Screening is via a 2-hour post 75 g oral glucose tolerance test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 4
Correct
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The midwife asks for your advice about a 33 year old woman who she has just seen at her booking appointment. The patient had an uncomplicated pregnancy 10 years ago. This is her second pregnancy. There is no significant personal or family history. On examination the patients blood pressure is 120/75, BMI 32.5kg/m2. The midwife asks your advice on testing for gestational diabetes. What would you advise?
Your Answer: Offer OGTT as soon as possible after booking
Correct Answer: OGTT at 24-28 weeks
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Correct
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A 26-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester was brought to the labour room with complaints of painless vaginal bleeding. On examination, her abdomen was non-tender and os was closed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Explanation:Threatened miscarriage is a term used to describe any abnormal vaginal bleeding that occurs in first trimester, sometime associated with abdominal cramps. The cervix remains closed and the pregnancy may continue as normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced fetal movements?
Your Answer: 70%
Explanation:Reduced fetal movements can be the first indication of possible fetal abnormalities. Movements are first perceived by the mother from about 18-20 weeks gestation, increase in size and frequency until 32 weeks gestation when they plateau at about 31 movements per hour. Investigations for reduced fetal heart rate include auscultation of the fetal heart rate using a handheld doppler device, and a cardiotocograph or ultrasound if the foetus is above 28 weeks gestation. About 70% of women who experience one episode of reduced fetal movement have uncomplicated pregnancies. They are advised to report to a maternal unit if another episode occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 8
Correct
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Bishop scoring is used for:
Your Answer: The success rate of induction of the labour
Explanation:The Bishop score is a system used by medical professionals to decide how likely it is that you will go into labour soon. They use it to determine whether they should recommend induction, and how likely it is that an induction will result in a vaginal birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of the following?
Your Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive
Explanation:The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and even abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive children to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers; its administration could result in maternal blood being bound and taken out of circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?
Your Answer: Normal progress.
Explanation:The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.
There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.
No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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The resting pulse in pregnancy is:
Your Answer: Decreased by 10 to 15 bpm
Correct Answer: Increased by 10 to 15 bpm
Explanation:During pregnancy cardiac output increases by 30 to 50%. As a result, the resting pulse speeds up from a normal of about 70 bpm to 80 or 90 bpm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?
Your Answer: 1 in 10,000
Explanation:The incidence of listeria infection in pregnant women is estimated at 12 per 100 000 compared to 0.7 per 100 000 in the general population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 13
Correct
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The COCP (Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill) causes all of the following biochemical effects EXCEPT which one?
Your Answer: Elevate FSH
Explanation:Remember patients with PCOS have elevated LH. COCPs suppress synthesis and secretion of FSH and the mid-cycle surge of LH, thus inhibiting the development of ovarian follicles and ovulation COCPs reduce hyperandrogenism as reduced LH secretion results in decreased ovarian synthesis of androgens. Furthermore they stimulate the liver to produce Sex Hormone Binding Globulin which leads to decreased circulating free androgens. Other mechanisms include reduction in adrenal androgen secretion and inhibition of peripheral conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone and binding of dihydrotestosterone to androgen receptors
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 14
Correct
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A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of vaginal bleeding after intercourse. Pain is absent and upon examination, the following are found: abdomen soft and relaxed, uterus size is equal to dates and CTG reactive. What is the single most possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Placenta previa
Explanation:Placenta previa typically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding usually in the second to third trimester. Although it’s a condition that sometimes resolves by itself, bleeding may result in serious complications for the mother and the baby and so it should be managed as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The pregnancy has been progressing normally thus far. Her routine mid-trimester ultrasound examination, performed at 18 weeks of gestation, shows that the placenta occupies the lower part of the uterus. It is noted that the placenta is reaching to within 1 cm of the internal cervical os. The patient is wondering what this means for her pregnancy and what needs to be done about it. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Repeat the ultrasound examination in 4 weeks' time.
Correct Answer: Repeat the ultrasound at 34 weeks of gestation.
Explanation:This patient is presenting with a low-lying placenta at 18 weeks of gestation. This is a common finding on ultrasound at 18-20 weeks. If there is not bleeding, there is an 80-90% chance that by late pregnancy, the placenta will have moved and is no longer occupying the lower uterine segment. For this reason, the repeat ultrasound examination is usually performed at 32-34 weeks of gestation. Further discussions about management can then be made after obtaining those results.
Leaving the repeat ultrasound until term would be inappropriate as intervention would be needed prior. If the placenta praevia is still present, it is typically advisable to deliver prior to term.
Cardiotocographic (CT) fetal heart rate monitoring is not required in the absence of bleeding or other symptoms.
Delivery by Caesarean section would not be necessary if the placenta was no longer praevia by the time the repeat ultrasound is done.
Repeat ultrasound examination at 22 weeks of gestation would also unnecessary and inappropriate as it is too close in time for the change to occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 32 year old women who is 25 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping lower abdominal pain. On examination the cervix is closed. Fetal cardiac activity is noted on ultrasound. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Antepartum Haemorrhage
Explanation:Antepartum haemorrhage (APH) is defined as bleeding from or in to the genital tract, occurring from 24+0 weeks of pregnancy and prior to the birth of the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following cell types act as professional antigen presenter cells (APCs)
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Correct Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:Macrophages are the antigen presenting cells, they phagocytose the pathogen and after breaking them down present their protein structure to the B and T cells for a specific immune reaction to take place.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration of severe dysmenorrhea. Analgesia with paracetamol, panadeine as well as indomethacin did not provide much relief. The girl is very concerned that the underlying cause could be something sinister. What is the most likely cause of her dysmenorrhea?
Your Answer: Endometriosis.
Correct Answer: Endometrial prostaglandin release.
Explanation:It is less common for a girl of this age to develop fibroids, endometriosis and endometrial polyps, although these are all causes of severe dysmenorrhea. Chronic pelvic infection can be due to sexually transmitted disease but the history does not mention any previous episodes of pelvic pain or symptoms of infection such as fever. In this case, it is most likely that she has primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea, in which no pathological cause can be identified, is believed to be due to the prostaglandins released by the secretory endometrium. If secondary dysmenorrhea is suspected, then endometriosis would be the most prominent cause.
While hysteroscopic and laparoscopic examinations are commonly done in adult women to rule out organic causes such as those mentioned earlier, in younger girls, they are usually only carried out if pain management with, for example, NSAIDs and the use of COCPs, have failed to either provide symptom relief or reduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to your office for routine well-woman exam. Her last menstrual period was 15 years ago. She has not been on oestrogen replacement therapy and now desires to start due to concerns about osteoporosis. On routine pelvic exam, you palpate a small uterus and cervix along with palpable ovaries bilaterally. Of the following, your next step in the management of this patient should be:
Your Answer: Dual photon densitometry for evaluation of bone density
Correct Answer: Pelvic ultrasound
Explanation:In a postmenopausal woman, the ovaries should not be palpable; if they are, it should raise the concern that an ovarian malignancy is present. Before one would perform an operative evaluation, radiologic assessment should be done.
– Although this is an accepted regimen for oestrogen replacement therapy, the palpable ovaries need to be evaluated to rule out malignancy.
– Dual photon densitometry will give a reliable measure of bone density. Again, however, the palpable ovary is the first thing that needs to be worked up.
– Although surgical exploration may be warranted, initial workup of the adnexal mass should include an ultrasound along with tumour markers. A CT scan may also be warranted. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You see a patient who gave birth earlier in the day. She was taken off warfarin during pregnancy and is currently on LMWH. She intends to breastfeed for the first 6-8 weeks and wants advice regarding restarting warfarin. Which of the following is appropriate?
Your Answer: Recommence warfarin in 6 weeks regardless of breastfeeding status
Correct Answer: Recommence warfarin in 5-7 days
Explanation:The use of anticoagulants during pregnancy is a complicated issue because warfarin is teratogenic if used in the first trimester, and is linked with fetal intracranial haemorrhage in the third trimester (mainly at doses 5 mg daily). Low molecular weight heparin may be insufficient at preventing thrombosis in women with mechanical prosthetic heart valves, where the risk of valve thrombus is 10 per cent. Anticoagulation is essential in patients with congenital heart disease who have pulmonary hypertension, or artificial valve replacements, and in those in or at risk of atrial fibrillation. The options are either to continue warfarin for the pregnancy, or replace it with heparin between 6 and 12 weeks gestation to avoid the teratogenic risk. Warfarin should be started a week after delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?
Your Answer: 40%
Explanation:Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infections and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. It colonise the vaginal flora in 20% of non pregnant and 40% pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed that her placenta was retained and needed to be removed manually during the procedure. She is now experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding with an oxygen saturation of 98%, a pulse of 84 bpm and a BP of 124/82mmHg. Her temperature is 37.8C. Which complication of C-section is the woman suffering from?
Your Answer: Uterine rupture
Correct Answer: Endometritis
Explanation:Endometritis is inflammation of the inner lining of the uterus (endometrium). Symptoms may include fever, lower abdominal pain, and abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge. It is the most common cause of infection after childbirth. The intermittent vaginal bleeding and the requirement for manual removal of the placenta suggest endometritis as the most possible diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Correct
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All of the following are autosomal recessive conditions EXCEPT which one?
Your Answer: Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfect is an autosomal dominant condition. All the rest of the options are autosomal recessive conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Regarding oogenesis & ovulation:
Your Answer: Ovulation occurs 36 hours after FSH surge
Correct Answer: The 1st meiotic division is arrested in the diplotene stage until just before ovulation
Explanation:The oocyte (eggs, ova, ovum) is arrested at an early stage of the first meiosis (first meiotic) division as a primary oocyte (primordial follicle) within the ovary. Following puberty, during each menstrual cycle, pituitary gonadotrophin stimulates completion of meiosis 1 the day before ovulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except:
Your Answer: Haemorrhagic shock
Correct Answer: Infertility
Explanation:Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a group of tumours defined by abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Trophoblast cells produce human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
GTD is divided into hydatidiform moles (contain villi) and other trophoblastic neoplasms (lack villi). The non-molar or malignant forms of GTD are called gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN).
Hydatidiform mole (HM) is associated with abnormal gametogenesis and/or fertilization. Risk factors include extremes of age, ethnicity, and a prior history of an HM which suggests a genetic basis for its aetiology.GTD is best managed by an interprofessional team that includes nurses and pharmacists. Patients with molar pregnancies must be monitored for associated complications including hyperthyroidism, pre-eclampsia, and ovarian theca lutein cysts. Molar pregnancy induced hyperthyroidism should resolve with the evacuation of the uterus, but patients may require beta-adrenergic blocking agents before anaesthesia to reverse effects of thyroid storm. Pre-eclampsia also resolves quickly after the evacuation of the uterus. Theca lutein cysts will regress spontaneously with falling beta-HCG levels. However, patients must be counselled on signs and symptoms of ovarian torsion and ruptured ovarian cysts.
A single uterine evacuation has no significant effect on future fertility, and pregnancy outcomes in subsequent pregnancies are comparable to that of the general population, despite a slight increased risk of developing molar pregnancy again.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance
Your Answer: X linked dominant
Correct Answer: Autosomal Dominant
Explanation:Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) can either be autosomal dominant or recessive. The autosomal dominant variant is more common in adult PKD however, the recessive pattern is more common in infantile PKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering a female baby you notice the baby has partial fusion of the labioscrotal folds. You suspect congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which of the following genes is most likely to be mutated?
Your Answer: HEF2A
Correct Answer: CYP21A
Explanation:CAH leads to virilization of the female foetus. It occurs to an enzyme deficiency (21-hydroxylase). This results in a reduced levels of corticosteroids from being circulated resulting in hyperplasia of the adrenal glands and increased progesterone production. The CYP21A gene has been implicated in causes this deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old G2P0+1 comes to the emergency department with vaginal spotting. She experienced periodic stomach pain related with the bleeding, but no fetal product passing, about 6 hours before presentation. She is now in the first trimester of her pregnancy and claims that her previous pregnancy was uneventful. She takes her prenatal vitamins regularly and does not use any other prescriptions or drugs. Her vital signs are normal, and her physical examination reveals that she has a closed cervical os. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threatened abortion
Explanation:Threatened abortion consists of any vaginal bleeding during early pregnancy without cervical dilatation or change in cervical consistency. Usually, no significant pain exists, although mild cramps may occur. More severe cramps may lead to an inevitable abortion.
Threatened abortion is very common in the first trimester; about 25-30% of all pregnancies have some bleeding during the pregnancy. Less than one half proceed to a complete abortion. On examination, blood or brownish discharge may be present in the vagina. The cervix is not tender, and the cervical os is closed. No fetal tissue or membranes have passed. The ultrasound shows a continuing intrauterine pregnancy. If an ultrasound was not performed previously, it is required at this time to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, which could present similarly. If the uterine cavity is empty on ultrasound, obtaining a human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level is necessary to determine if the discriminatory zone has been passed.
Placenta previa is an antenatal complication occurring around the third trimester of pregnancy. The cervix is closed in this condition which rules out inevitable abortion and the patient has no history of passage of tissue, this rules out complete abortion. The patient has no history of fever or offensive vaginal discharge which makes septic abortion unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are consenting a patient for a diagnostic hysteroscopy. What is the approximate risk of uterine perforation in diagnostic hysteroscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.10%
Explanation:The risk of uterine perforation is 0.1% during therapeutic hysteroscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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