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Question 1
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A 67-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of experiencing electric shock-like pains on the right side of her face for the past two months. She reports having 10-20 episodes per day, each lasting for 30-60 seconds. She recently had a dental check-up, which was normal. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities were found. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia.
Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.
Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.
The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided weakness, facial droop, and dysphasia that started 3 hours ago. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus, and asthma.
Upon examination, his pulse is regular at 88 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 15 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. His temperature is 37.4ºC, blood pressure is 215/120 mmHg, and blood sugar is 6.8mmol/L. Heart sounds are normal, lungs are clear, and abdomen is soft and nontender. Neurological examination reveals left hemianopia and 0/5 power in the left upper and lower limbs.
Before considering thrombolysis, what additional steps should be taken based on the patient's examination findings?Your Answer: Do a chest x-ray
Correct Answer: Prescribe labetalol
Explanation:Before considering thrombolysis for a patient, it is crucial to ensure that their blood pressure is well-controlled. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 200/120mmHg, thrombolysis cannot be performed. In such cases, medications like Labetalol are administered to rapidly lower the blood pressure. The other options mentioned are not suitable as the patient’s chest and BM examinations were normal. Additionally, statins do not play a role in the acute management of stroke.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department at 37 weeks gestation with blurred vision and severe headache. She reports upper abdominal pain for the last few hours. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg and urinalysis shows proteinuria. While taking her medical history, she experiences a tonic-clonic seizure. What is the appropriate pharmacological treatment to stop this seizure?
Your Answer: Oral midazolam
Correct Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulfate
Explanation:When a seizure is suspected to be caused by eclampsia, the recommended first-line treatment is intravenous magnesium sulfate, given as a loading dose followed by an infusion. In the case of convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous lorazepam is the preferred in-hospital treatment, with phenytoin as an alternative if lorazepam is ineffective. Glucose may be administered if hypoglycemia is a contributing factor. It is not appropriate to administer oral medications to a patient with a decreased level of consciousness. (Adapted from BMJ Best Practice – Pre-eclampsia)
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with suspected dementia is referred by her General Practitioner to the Memory Clinic. A dementia blood screen is performed and is normal.
What is an indication for performing structural neuroimaging (CT or MRI head) in the workup for investigating patients with dementia?
Your Answer: Patient is < 65-years old
Correct Answer: Ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline
Explanation:The Importance of Neuroimaging in the Diagnosis of Dementia
Neuroimaging plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of dementia and ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline. Structural imaging should be offered to assist with subtype diagnosis and exclude other reversible conditions unless dementia is well established and the subtype is clear. In primary care, a blood screen is usually sent to exclude reversible causes, while in secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. Focal neurology and cardiovascular abnormalities are not indications for performing structural imaging of the brain. However, neuroimaging is required in the workup of dementia in all age groups, including patients over 75 years old and those under 65 years old with suspected early-onset dementia. The 2011 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in the investigation of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness. He reports feeling healthy except for experiencing a recent episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. The patient has no significant medical history. During your examination, you observe decreased strength in his legs, normal sensation, and reduced reflexes in the knee and ankle. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.
Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.
To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headache every day for the past three months. She describes that it is worse in the evening. There are no associated symptoms.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cluster headache
Correct Answer: Tension headache
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Headaches
Headaches are a common ailment that can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the different types of headaches and their distinguishing characteristics:
1. Tension headache: This type of headache is often described as a tight, band-like pain across the forehead and is more common in females. It typically worsens towards the end of the day but does not interfere with daily activities. Chronic tension headaches occur at least 15 days of the month for at least three months.
2. Brain tumour: Headaches caused by space-occupying lesions tend to be worse in the morning and when bending forward. They may also be associated with vomiting.
3. Cluster headache: This type of headache is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, which can last for a few minutes up to three hours. There may also be simultaneous lacrimation and nasal congestion. Symptoms occur every day or multiple times every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period lasting months or even years.
4. Giant cell arteritis: This type of headache typically occurs in those aged over 50 years and is characterized by an abrupt onset and recurrent daily headache. Common symptoms include scalp pain/tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, fever, weight loss, and lethargy. A diagnosis of GCA requires three out of five specific criteria.
5. Migraine: Migraines can occur daily but are typically accompanied by associated features such as nausea or vomiting, photophobia, or phonophobia. The International Headache Society criteria for migraine without aura include at least five attacks fulfilling specific criteria.
Understanding the different types of headaches and their characteristics can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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As a physician on an elderly care ward, you are tasked with conducting a cognitive assessment of Harold, an 82-year-old man who is suspected of having dementia. After administering the Addenbrooke's Cognitive Exam-3 (ACE-3), Harold scores 68 out of 100 with a global deficit in all domains tested. Based on this information, what condition do you suspect Harold may have?
Your Answer: Vascular dementia
Correct Answer: Alzheimer's dementia
Explanation:The Addenbrookes Cognitive Exam (ACE-3) is a reliable tool for detecting dementia, with a score of 82 or less indicating a strong likelihood of dementia. The exam assesses five domains: Memory, Attention, Fluency, Language, and Visuospatial. Alzheimer’s dementia typically results in a global deficit across all domains, with later deficits in memory and attention due to damage in the medial temporal lobe. Frontotemporal dementia primarily affects fluency and language due to damage in the frontal lobe. Vascular dementia deficits vary depending on the location and severity of previous strokes, and there is no consistent pattern seen in ACE-3 examinations. Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a precursor to many forms of dementia, with an ACE-3 score of 82-88 indicating MCI. In this scenario, the patient’s score of 68 rules out MCI as a diagnosis.
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. The risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease include increasing age, family history of the disease, and certain genetic mutations. Inherited forms of the disease are caused by mutations in the amyloid precursor protein, presenilin 1, and presenilin 2 genes. Additionally, the apoprotein E allele E4 and Caucasian ethnicity are also risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease.
The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, cortical plaques and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles are present due to the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Furthermore, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.
Neurofibrillary tangles are partly made from a protein called tau, which interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old history teacher has contacted his doctor reporting a one-hour episode of weakness in his left arm and leg earlier today, which has since resolved. He denies any facial drooping, residual weakness, or slurred speech. He insists that he feels completely healthy and only called because his wife urged him to. The patient has a previous diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism and is currently taking apixaban. What is the initial approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer: TIA clinic within 24 hours
Correct Answer: Urgent admission to the emergency department for urgent CT head
Explanation:Immediate admission for imaging to rule out a hemorrhage is necessary if a patient with suspected TIA is on warfarin, a DOAC, or has a bleeding disorder.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 75-year-old man is being evaluated after experiencing an ischemic stroke. He has a history of being unable to tolerate clopidogrel. What is the best treatment option to decrease his risk of having another stroke?
Your Answer: Aspirin + dipyridamole lifelong
Explanation:Lifelong use of aspirin and dipyridamole. Age: 55.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 62-year-old man is admitted to the Acute Medical Ward with lower back pain. He has a past medical history of prostate cancer and hypertension. His pain radiates down the left leg and he has reduced power in that leg. He also has a reduced anal tone. The lumbar spine X-ray shows no obvious fracture and there is no history of trauma.
Given the likely diagnosis of metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC), he was referred urgently for oncological and neurosurgical assessment.
Which medication is the patient most likely to be started on?Your Answer: High-dose dexamethasone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression
Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. Red flags for lower back pain include associated lower limb pain, limb weakness, paraesthesia/numbness, and reduced perianal tone. If these features are present, especially in a patient with an oncological past medical history, urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) should be performed to rule out spinal cord compression.
Patients with MSCC should be referred urgently to the oncology and neurosurgical teams for immediate treatment and consideration of surgical intervention to relieve the compression. Management should include high-dose oral dexamethasone and urgent oncological assessment for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Diclofenac is not indicated in MSCC treatment, and high-dose prednisolone is not the corticosteroid of choice.
Intravenous ceftriaxone is not effective in treating MSCC, as it is used to treat meningitis. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy is also not indicated in MSCC treatment, as it is used to treat conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia, Kawasaki disease, and Guillain–Barré syndrome.
In conclusion, early recognition and prompt treatment of MSCC are crucial to prevent permanent neurological damage. High-dose dexamethasone and urgent oncological assessment for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery are the recommended treatment options for MSCC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male college student visits the first seizure clinic after his roommate expresses concern that he had a seizure early in the morning following a night out. This is the first seizure he has ever experienced. He does not consume alcohol or use recreational drugs, but he did feel sleep-deprived and dizzy before the seizure. The roommate provides a video that shows the seizure to be tonic-clonic in nature, affecting the arms and legs, with no incontinence, tongue-biting, or postictal drowsiness. Blood tests, lumbar puncture, CT head, MRI brain, and electroencephalogram (EEG) are all normal.
What is the recommended duration for this patient to refrain from driving?Your Answer: 1 month
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:After a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, patients with normal brain imaging and EEG cannot drive for a period of 6 months. However, if the seizure is most likely a result of vasovagal syncope due to exhaustion and sleep deprivation, it may not be an epileptic seizure and may not have associated symptoms such as incontinence, tongue-biting or postictal confusion. In such cases, the patient must still adhere to the 6-month driving ban. The options of 1 month and 3 months are incorrect as they are not valid periods for a driving ban for any type of seizure.
The DVLA has guidelines for drivers with neurological disorders. Those with epilepsy/seizures must not drive and must inform the DVLA. The length of time off driving varies depending on the type and frequency of seizures. Those with syncope may need time off driving depending on the cause and number of episodes. Those with other conditions such as stroke, craniotomy, pituitary tumor, narcolepsy/cataplexy, and chronic neurological disorders should inform the DVLA and may need time off driving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with two episodes of painless, transient left monocular visual loss lasting up to a minute; each episode was like a curtain descending from the upper visual field to affect the whole vision of his left eye. Neurological examination is normal. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), glucose and lipids are all within the normal ranges. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm. Computerised tomography (CT) of the brain is normal. Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries shows 50% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery.
Which of the following is the treatment of choice?Your Answer: Right carotid artery angioplasty
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
Transient visual loss can be caused by various factors, including retinal ischemia and emboli from atherosclerotic carotid arteries. In cases where Doppler ultrasound shows 40% stenosis of the internal carotid artery, surgery is not recommended. Instead, best medical treatment should be administered, including control of blood pressure, antiplatelet agents, cholesterol-lowering drugs, and lifestyle advice. Acute treatment with 300 mg aspirin is recommended, followed by high-dose treatment for two weeks before initiating long-term antithrombotic treatment.
Prednisolone is used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis, which can also cause transient visual loss. Diagnosis requires three out of five criteria, including age over 50, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated ESR, and abnormal artery biopsy.
Carotid artery angioplasty may be considered as an alternative to carotid endarterectomy for revascularization in select cases. However, there are concerns regarding stent placement and the risk of stroke. Surgical management is only indicated for carotid artery stenosis over 50%.
Anticoagulation treatment is not routinely used for the treatment of acute stroke. It may be considered for those in atrial fibrillation or at high risk of venous thromboembolism. For patients with a history of transient ischemic attack, high-dose aspirin is recommended for two weeks post-event, followed by long-term secondary prevention with aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole or clopidogrel.
Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of heaviness and discomfort in her upper legs, which is present after walking for more than 5 minutes. She used to enjoy walking regularly, but now finds it difficult to participate. However, she is still able to drive to her part-time job as a receptionist. She has a history of hypertension and was recently started on medication. She quit smoking 3 years ago. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg. Her pulse is 64 and regular. Her peripheral pulses are palpable, but the capillary return in her toes is slow. Neurological examination of her arms and legs is normal, except for diminished ankle jerks and reduced vibration sense distally.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lumbar canal stenosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Progressive Exertional Leg Pain: A Review of Possible Conditions
Progressive exertional leg pain can be a symptom of various medical conditions. In this article, we will review some of the possible differential diagnoses for this symptom.
Lumbar Canal Stenosis
Lumbar canal stenosis is a degenerative condition associated with the ageing spine, resulting in narrowing of the central spinal canal, lateral recess or neural foramina. It is usually due to progressive hypertrophy of the facet joints and disc degeneration. It is a syndrome of buttock or leg pain, with or without back pain, associated with a narrow space available for the neural and vascular elements in the lumbar spine.Metabolic Muscle Disease
This is a diverse group of hereditary muscle disorders caused by specific enzymatic defects due to defective genes. Disorders of muscle energy metabolism result in skeletal muscle dysfunction. Most metabolic myopathies are considered primary inborn errors of metabolism and are associated with enzymatic defects that affect the ability of muscle fibres to maintain energy and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) concentrations. These include abnormalities of glycogen, lipid, purine or mitochondrial biochemistry.Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease
Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (IPD) commonly presents with tremor, stiffness, slowness and balance/gait issues. In addition, PD classically displays a unilateral onset. This patient has no resting symptoms suggestive of IPD.Hypothyroid Muscle Disease
Hypothyroidism is associated with proximal myopathy. There is commonly proximal muscle weakness and raised creatine kinase (CK). Patients may suffer muscle cramping, proximal symmetrical muscle weakness, muscle stiffness and exercise intolerance. Reduced reflexes/ankle reflexes are commonly seen.Abdominal Aortic Stenosis
This refers to narrowing of the aorta during its course in the abdomen. This would produce bilateral vascular claudication symptoms, due to reduced blood flow distal to the stenosis. The progressive exertional leg pain described here could be in keeping with vascular claudication. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45-year-old teacher who was previously healthy was discovered unconscious on the ground. Upon admission, assessment showed weakness on the right side of their body, with their leg more affected than their arm and face, and significant difficulty with speech. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: An occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA)
Explanation:A blockage in the left middle cerebral artery (MCA) is a common cause of cerebral infarction. The symptoms experienced will depend on the extent of the infarct and which hemisphere of the brain is dominant. In right-handed individuals, over 95% have left-sided dominance. Symptoms may include weakness on the opposite side of the body, particularly in the face and arm, as well as sensory loss and homonymous hemianopia. If the left MCA is affected, the patient may experience expressive dysphasia in the anterior MCA territory (Broca’s area) if it is their dominant side, or neglect if it is their non-dominant side. A tumour in the left cerebral hemisphere or thalamus would have a more gradual onset of symptoms, while an occlusion of the right anterior cerebral artery would produce left-sided weakness. The region affected and presentation of each type of artery involvement is summarized in a table.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 35-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic after being referred by his General Practitioner for experiencing numbness and tingling in his left arm. He also reports an incident of visual blurring and pain in his left eye about six months ago.
What is the most suitable type of cross-sectional scan to determine the cause of this man's symptoms?
Choose the ONE most appropriate investigation from the options provided.Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain and spine with contrast
Explanation:Imaging Modalities for Multiple Sclerosis Diagnosis
To diagnose multiple sclerosis, imaging modalities are necessary to assess for acute demyelination and anatomical changes in the grey and white matter. The preferred imaging modality is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with contrast, which can visualize acute inflammatory changes and demyelinating lesions. Dopamine Active Transfer scan (DaTscan) is not useful for multiple sclerosis diagnosis but can confirm Parkinson’s disease. Computed tomography (CT) with contrast is best for vascular lesions, while CT without contrast is only appropriate for acute trauma. MRI without contrast is the second-best option but cannot differentiate between acute and chronic lesions. Both brain and spine should be imaged to avoid missing the lesion responsible for the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents for follow-up regarding her frequent migraine attacks. Despite taking a combination of paracetamol and ibuprofen, she has not experienced significant relief. Her current medications include as-needed paracetamol and ibuprofen, as well as Cerazette, a progestogen-only pill. What is the most suitable medication to consider for reducing the frequency of her migraines?
Your Answer: Zolmitriptan
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For women of childbearing age who suffer from migraines, propranolol is a better option than topiramate. This is because NICE recommends both drugs for migraine prophylaxis, but the combined oral contraceptive pill cannot be used due to the patient’s migraine history. While zolmitriptan can be used to stop attacks, it is not effective for prophylaxis.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with a 2-year history of increasing deafness and tinnitus in his left ear. His left corneal reflex is absent; there is hearing loss in his left ear, with air conduction greater than bone conduction, and the Weber test lateralises to the right.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Explanation:Unilateral hearing loss and loss of corneal reflex are concerning symptoms that require a thorough differential diagnosis. Acoustic neuroma, a benign tumor arising from cranial nerve VIII in the cerebellopontine angle, is the most likely cause of these symptoms. Other potential causes include Multiple Sclerosis (MS), Basilar artery aneurysm, Meningioma, and Ménière’s disease.
MS is a demyelinating disease of the central nervous system that typically presents with episodes of optic neuritis, limb paraesthesiae or weakness, walking difficulty, and fatigue. Basilar artery aneurysm is rare and usually presents with subarachnoid hemorrhage. Meningioma is a tumor arising from the meninges, which can occur at the cerebellopontine angle but is much rarer than acoustic neuromas at this site. Ménière’s disease is an inner ear disorder caused by endolymph accumulation, causing increased pressure, and typically presents with episodic attacks of vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus.
In summary, while there are several potential causes of unilateral hearing loss and loss of corneal reflex, acoustic neuroma is the most likely culprit. It is important to consider other potential causes and perform a thorough differential diagnosis to ensure appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old comes in for a check-up. Over the last 3 months, he has been experiencing frequent headaches. These headaches are now happening almost every day and can be quite intense. What characteristic in this patient should trigger an investigation for a secondary cause of headaches?
Your Answer: Severe unilateral eye pain
Correct Answer: Headache triggered by coughing
Explanation:When dealing with an older patient, it is important to rule out glaucoma if they are experiencing severe unilateral eye pain. However, for a 23-year-old patient, this is not a top concern. Migraine and cluster headaches are common causes of unilateral eye pain, as well as sinusitis which can cause pain behind the eye.
Red Flags for Headaches
Headaches are a common complaint in clinical practice, but some symptoms may indicate a more serious underlying condition. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has identified several red flags that should prompt further investigation. These include compromised immunity, a history of malignancy, sudden-onset headache, new-onset neurological deficit, impaired level of consciousness, recent head trauma, and symptoms suggestive of giant cell arteritis or acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Other red flags include vomiting without an obvious cause, worsening headache with fever, new-onset cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, orthostatic headache, and a substantial change in the characteristics of the headache. If any of these symptoms are present, it is important to seek medical attention promptly. By identifying these red flags, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive appropriate care and treatment for their headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of confusion and difficulty sleeping for the past 5 months. According to his wife, his confusion varies in severity from day to day, and he has been experiencing visual hallucinations of people and animals in their home. The patient is currently taking apixaban 5 mg, amlodipine 5mg, and atorvastatin 20 mg, and there is no recent history of infection. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs and no motor or speech impairment, but the patient struggles to draw a clock face and count down from 20 to 1 correctly. A urine dip test is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vascular dementia
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Based on the information provided, Lewy body dementia is the most probable diagnosis. Unlike other forms of dementia, it is characterized by fluctuating cognitive abilities, particularly in attention and executive functioning. The patient may also experience sleep disturbances, visual hallucinations, and parkinsonism. To confirm the diagnosis, the patient will need to undergo cognitive testing, blood tests, and a CT head scan to rule out other conditions. SPECT imaging may also be considered if there is still uncertainty, as it is highly sensitive and specific for Lewy body dementia.
Alzheimer’s disease is less likely as memory impairment is typically the first cognitive domain affected, and confusion is not as fluctuating. Visual hallucinations are also less common than in Lewy body dementia.
Chronic subdural hematoma is unlikely as it typically presents with reduced consciousness or neurological deficits rather than cognitive deficits alone. Given the patient’s age and anticoagulation therapy, CT imaging should be performed to rule out any intracranial hemorrhage.
Frontotemporal dementia is unlikely as it typically presents before the age of 65 with personality changes and social conduct problems, while memory and visuospatial skills are relatively preserved.
Understanding Lewy Body Dementia
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.
Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with difficulty in walking and foot drop. There is weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot, with a small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of that foot.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Posterior tibial nerve lesion
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion
Explanation:The common peroneal nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve that provides motor and sensory innervation to the lateral and anterior compartments of the leg, as well as the dorsum of the foot. Damage to this nerve, often caused by fibular neck fracture, results in footdrop and sensory loss in the affected areas.
The sciatic nerve, which originates from the lumbosacral plexus, innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh and indirectly innervates the posterior leg/calf muscles and some intrinsic muscles of the feet. It also provides sensory innervation to the posterolateral leg, lateral foot, and sole of the foot. Sciatica, a common condition that causes pain radiating down the leg, is often caused by irritation of the sciatic nerve root.
The posterior tibial nerve, another branch of the sciatic nerve, supplies motor innervation to the posterior compartment of the leg and sensory innervation to the posterolateral leg, lateral foot, and sole of the foot. Damage to this nerve, often caused by compression or trauma, results in ankle and sole of foot paraesthesiae.
The L5 root innervates muscles responsible for ankle and great toe dorsiflexion, hip abduction, and sensory innervation to the buttocks, posterolateral thigh, and lateral calf. L5 radiculopathy, which causes pain radiating from the lower back to the foot, is a common condition associated with damage to this root.
The deep peroneal nerve, a branch of the common peroneal nerve, innervates the muscles responsible for foot dorsiflexion and provides sensory innervation to the area between the first and second toes. Damage to this nerve, often caused by conditions such as LMD or diabetes, results in footdrop with minimal sensory loss and preserved eversion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic with a continuous tremor. During the examination, it is observed that his arms have a tremor of 6-8 Hz, which worsens when he stretches them out. His father also had a similar condition. What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are consistent with essential tremor, an autosomal dominant condition that worsens with outstretched arms but improves with alcohol and propranolol. Propranolol is typically the initial treatment option.
Understanding Essential Tremor
Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.
When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with concerns about increasing numbness in his fingers and soles of his feet. He was diagnosed with epilepsy in his early twenties and has been managing his seizures effectively. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin is recognized to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect.
Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects
Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Correct
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Wernicke's encephalopathy is caused by a lack of which vitamin?
Your Answer: Thiamine
Explanation:Vitamins and their Deficiencies: Understanding the Role of Thiamine, B12, Nicotinic Acid, Folic Acid, and Vitamin D
Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, plays a crucial role in preventing Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition caused by thiamine deficiency. This deficiency can result from inadequate dietary intake, reduced gastrointestinal absorption, decreased hepatic storage, and impaired utilization. Individuals with alcohol-use disorders are at high risk and should receive thiamine supplementation.
Vitamin B12 deficiency, on the other hand, causes macrocytic (megaloblastic) anemia and various neurological symptoms, including peripheral neuropathy. However, it is not a cause of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Nicotinic acid, also known as vitamin B3 or niacin, deficiency causes pellagra, a disease characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.
Folic acid, or vitamin B9, deficiency causes macrocytic (megaloblastic) anemia similar to that caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, but not the peripheral neuropathy caused by vitamin B12 deficiency. It is important to check if a patient with megaloblastic anemia and folic acid deficiency is also lacking vitamin B12, as treating only with folic acid replacement can worsen neurological symptoms.
Vitamin D is involved in calcium metabolism and mainly affects bone homeostasis. Severe deficiency can cause cognitive impairment in older adults, but it is not a cause of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Understanding the role of these vitamins and their deficiencies can help in the prevention and treatment of various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 70-year-old man has been admitted to the stroke ward due to experiencing dense right-sided weakness and facial droop. The stroke team has treated him for an acute stroke, and he has been making good progress with the help of the physiotherapy and occupational therapy team. Although the CT head did not reveal any abnormalities, the team has arranged for an MRI head and a Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries. The MRI head has shown a left-sided infarct, and the carotid doppler has revealed severe stenosis of the left carotid artery. What should be the next appropriate plan for the stroke team?
Your Answer: Refer to the vascular surgeons for consideration of carotid artery endarterectomy
Explanation:If a patient experiences a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled, carotid artery endarterectomy may be a viable option. Additionally, if the patient is making positive strides with physiotherapy and has significant carotid stenosis, they should be evaluated by the surgical team for potential endarterectomy. At this time, there is no need for involvement from the cardiology team as it is unclear what cardiac investigations have already been conducted. An MRI of the C-spine would not provide any additional information for the management plan, and there is no indication for repeat blood tests.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with difficult to control epilepsy is being evaluated by a surgeon, four months after switching his antiepileptic medication. Despite being seizure-free, he has gained 5 kg in weight since his last check-up. Which antiepileptic drug is commonly linked to weight gain?
Your Answer: Levetiracetam
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Weight gain can be a side effect of taking sodium valproate.
Sodium Valproate: Uses and Adverse Effects
Sodium valproate is a medication commonly used to manage epilepsy, particularly for generalised seizures. Its mechanism of action involves increasing the activity of GABA in the brain. However, the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects, which can lead to neural tube defects and neurodevelopmental delays in children. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor.
Aside from its teratogenic effects, sodium valproate can also inhibit P450 enzymes, leading to gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, increased appetite, and weight gain. Other adverse effects include alopecia, ataxia, tremors, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, and hyperammonemic encephalopathy. In cases where hyperammonemic encephalopathy develops, L-carnitine may be used as a treatment option.
Overall, while sodium valproate can be an effective medication for managing epilepsy, its use should be carefully considered and monitored due to its potential adverse effects, particularly during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Correct
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As a young medical practitioner in the emergency department, you encounter a patient who has been in a severe road accident. The patient has suffered significant head injuries and is now reliant on mechanical ventilation, with no signs of responsiveness. You and your senior colleagues suspect that the patient may have experienced brain death. What is the process for confirming this diagnosis?
Your Answer: By a minimum of two doctors on separate occasions
Explanation:To minimize the risk of errors, brain death testing must be conducted by two experienced doctors on different occasions. The testing involves evaluating the patient’s history, pupil reactions, reflexes, pain response, and respiratory effort. Once brain death is confirmed, life support can be discontinued, and the patient may be considered for organ donation, which can take place before the withdrawal of life support.
Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death
Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.
The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculo-vestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.
It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Correct
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You see a 56-year-old man with a 5-year history of back pain following a work-related injury. He has presented to the clinic due to poor control of his pain. He is experiencing shooting pains down his legs with an associated burning sensation.
Despite intensive physiotherapy, his pain is still poorly controlled and requiring full dose codeine and paracetamol which is failing to control the pain.
His MRI was normal and he has been discharged by the spinal team due to no operable cause identified for his pain.
You're asked to review him due to ongoing pain. The nursing team has asked if he can have morphine sulfate prescribed as required to help with this. He was started by his general practitioner 3 months previously on amitriptyline which he hasn't found of any benefit.
You decide rather than just prescribing morphine that you can try to adjust his chronic pain management as well.
Which of the following options would be best for the management of his chronic pain?Your Answer: Stop amitriptyline and start duloxetine
Explanation:When it comes to managing chronic pain, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used alone. If they are not effective, it is recommended to switch to a different drug rather than adding another one. This question may also bring attention to poorly controlled acute pain, but it is important to note that morphine sulfate is not ideal for chronic pain management due to its potential side effects, dependence, and worsening of chronic pain. Tramadol is a better option for managing breakthrough pain in neuropathic pain patients, but it does not change the overall management of chronic pain. The recommended drugs for neuropathic pain include duloxetine, gabapentinoids, and amitriptyline (a tricyclic antidepressant).
Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management
Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.
To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.
Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Correct
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What is the most prevalent form of multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Relapsing-remitting disease
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the central nervous system, causing demyelination. It is more common in women and typically diagnosed in individuals aged 20-40 years. Interestingly, it is much more prevalent in higher latitudes, with a five-fold increase compared to tropical regions. Genetics play a role in the development of multiple sclerosis, with a 30% concordance rate in monozygotic twins and a 2% concordance rate in dizygotic twins.
There are several subtypes of multiple sclerosis, including relapsing-remitting disease, which is the most common form and accounts for around 85% of patients. This subtype is characterized by acute attacks followed by periods of remission. Secondary progressive disease describes relapsing-remitting patients who have deteriorated and developed neurological signs and symptoms between relapses. Gait and bladder disorders are commonly seen in this subtype, and around 65% of patients with relapsing-remitting disease go on to develop secondary progressive disease within 15 years of diagnosis. Finally, primary progressive disease accounts for 10% of patients and is characterized by progressive deterioration from onset, which is more common in older individuals. Understanding the different subtypes of multiple sclerosis is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Correct
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An 83-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation arrives at the emergency department with dysarthria and left-sided weakness that she noticed earlier today. During the examination, left-sided hemiparesis is observed, and her blood glucose level is 6.5 mmol/L. What is the next appropriate investigation?
Your Answer: Non-contrast CT head
Explanation:Assessment and Investigations for Stroke
Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging when symptoms are vague. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses for loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of greater than zero indicates a likely stroke.
When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question to answer is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate management. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, while haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material surrounded by low density. It is important to identify the type of stroke promptly, as thrombolysis and thrombectomy play an increasing role in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman is brought to her General Practitioner by her daughter who is concerned that she has been experiencing a few falls recently. She reveals that she has been getting confused and forgetful for the past two weeks. She has been complaining of dizziness and has vomited on a couple of occasions in the same time period. Her past medical history includes type 2 diabetes, hypertension and osteoporosis.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma (SDH)
Explanation:Differentiating between types of intracranial hemorrhage
Intracranial hemorrhage can have various causes and presentations. Here are some key points to differentiate between different types of intracranial hemorrhage:
Chronic subdural hematoma (SDH): This type of hemorrhage can be spontaneous or caused by head trauma. Symptoms tend to develop gradually and may fluctuate. They include headache, vomiting, personality changes, memory disturbances, and loss of consciousness. Patients with a history of AF and recurrent falls are at high risk of developing a chronic SDH.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH): This type of hemorrhage occurs when blood accumulates in the space between the arachnoid and pia mater. The most common cause is rupture of a Berry aneurysm in the Circle of Willis. The classical presentation of SAH is a sudden-onset, severe ‘thunderclap’ headache often accompanied by vomiting and meningism. The presentation is usually acute.
Acute subdural hematoma (SDH): This type of hemorrhage occurs due to tearing of cortical bridging veins leading to bleeding into the subdural space. An acute SDH usually follows a significant head injury. Loss of consciousness may occur immediately or a few hours after the injury.
Extradural hemorrhage: This type of hemorrhage is caused by the rupture of one of the meningeal arteries that run between the dura and the skull. It usually occurs following a significant head injury often in younger patients. There is classically a lucid interval following the injury, followed several hours later by rapid deterioration resulting in loss of consciousness.
Ischemic cerebrovascular accident (CVA): This type of event occurs due to a lack of blood flow to the brain. Patients with risk factors such as AF and hypertension are at higher risk. Classical CVA symptoms include sudden-onset unilateral weakness, speech difficulties, or visual loss which do not resolve within 24 hours. However, the patient’s symptoms in this case are not typical for a CVA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of severe headache at the back of her head, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. A CT scan reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage, and a subsequent CT angiogram shows an aneurysmal bleed on the posterior cerebral artery. Assuming that the patient's vital signs and Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score remain stable, what is the definitive treatment plan for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Coiling of the aneurysm
Explanation:After a subarachnoid haemorrhage, the preferred treatment for most intracranial aneurysms is coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist. This is the most probable course of action given the patient’s stable condition. If the patient showed signs of raised intracranial pressure, such as haemodynamic instability or a change in GCS, craniotomy and clipping of the aneurysm might be considered. However, regardless of whether the aneurysm is coiled or clipped, the primary objective is to prevent further bleeding by mechanically occluding the aneurysm, preferably within the first 24 hours. Therefore, the other options are unlikely to be the correct and definitive management for the patient’s condition.
A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 29-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of muscle cramps and numbness in her hands and feet for the past 5 days. She also reports a tingling sensation around her mouth. The patient was diagnosed with epilepsy 8 weeks ago and has been prescribed phenytoin. What abnormality is most likely to be observed in her blood test results?
Your Answer: Corrected calcium of 1.5 mmol/L
Explanation:The patient is displaying typical symptoms of hypocalcaemia, including perioral paraesthesia, cramps, tetany, and convulsions. This condition can be a side effect of taking phenytoin, and if left untreated, it can lead to seizures due to changes in neuromuscular excitability. Mild cases of hypocalcaemia can be managed with oral supplementation, while more severe cases may require intravenous replacement.
It’s important to note that hypercalcaemia can cause bone pain, renal calculi, constipation, polyuria, fatigue, depression, and confusion. However, the patient does not display any of these symptoms.
Hyperkalaemia can cause muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but the patient does not have these symptoms. Hypokalaemia can also cause muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but the patient’s symptoms do not fit this condition.
Finally, hypernatraemia can cause nausea, vomiting, headache, and confusion, but the patient is not experiencing these symptoms.
Hypocalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs
Hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. Since calcium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, many of the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia are related to neuromuscular excitability. The most common features of hypocalcaemia include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. In chronic cases, patients may experience depression and cataracts.
An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show a prolonged QT interval, while Trousseau’s sign may be present when the brachial artery is occluded by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining pressure above systolic. This causes wrist flexion and fingers to be drawn together, and is seen in around 95% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 1% of normocalcaemic people. Chvostek’s sign, which is seen in around 70% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 10% of normocalcaemic people, involves tapping over the parotid gland to cause facial muscles to twitch.
In summary, hypocalcaemia can cause a range of symptoms and signs related to neuromuscular excitability, including muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia, depression, and cataracts. Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign are also commonly observed in patients with hypocalcaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department. He reports experiencing sudden blurred vision and difficulty speaking. He denies any history of head injury or trauma and does not have a headache. On examination, he exhibits exaggerated reflexes and upward plantars. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cerebral venous thrombosis
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:Neurological Conditions and Upper Motor Neurone Signs
Upper motor neurone signs, such as spasticity, hyperreflexia, clonus, and the Babinski reflex, are indicative of certain neurological conditions. Multiple sclerosis, a demyelinating disease, is one such condition that causes these signs. On the other hand, a stroke in a young person is relatively unlikely to cause upper motor neurone signs. Cerebral venous thrombosis could cause these signs, but it would be highly unlikely without a headache and normal fundoscopy. Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is a relatively symmetrical, ascending lower motor neurone disease that does not typically present with blurred vision and speech disturbances. Poliomyelitis, a lower motor neurone condition, is characterised by hypotonia and hyporeflexia and would not cause the Babinski reflex.
Understanding Upper Motor Neurone Signs in Neurological Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 50-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department via ambulance after experiencing a sudden onset of facial droop and speech impairment. Upon examination, she is conscious but displays both expressive and receptive aphasia. The patient's GP summary record indicates that she is only taking tamoxifen. Based on this information, what is the most probable medical condition in her past medical history?
Your Answer: Oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer
Explanation:Pre-menopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer are managed using Tamoxifen.
Tamoxifen is ineffective in treating oestrogen receptor-negative breast cancer or ovarian cancer.
However, Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer.
Colorectal cancer is not treated with Tamoxifen.Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to you with progressive numbness in his right hand and entire right side, indicating a possible stroke. You promptly arrange for an ambulance and he returns 6 weeks later to express his gratitude and discuss medication. If there are no contraindications, what antiplatelet regimen is recommended after an acute ischemic stroke?
Your Answer: Aspirin 75mg for 1 year with clopidogrel 75mg to be continued long term
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg daily for 2 weeks then clopidogrel 75 mg daily long-term
Explanation:When a patient shows symptoms of acute stroke, it is crucial to immediately send them to the nearest stroke center. Treatment should not be administered until a diagnosis of ischemic stroke is confirmed. Once confirmed, the patient should be prescribed aspirin 300 mg daily for two weeks, followed by long-term use of clopidogrel 75 mg daily. Additionally, if the patient is not already taking a statin, it should be offered as a treatment option.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of leg weakness. Other than a recent cold 1 month ago, he has been feeling well and has no significant medical history. On examination, it is noted that he has reduced power in his legs as well as reduced knee and ankle reflexes. His lower peripheral sensation was intact. What investigation can be done to confirm the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Guillain-Barré Syndrome
Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is a rare autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nervous system. To confirm a diagnosis of GBS, several diagnostic tests may be performed.
Lumbar puncture (LP) is often done to confirm GBS and rule out an infection in the meninges. An LP in GBS would show a rise in protein with a normal white-blood-cell count, found in 66% of patients with GBS.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the whole spine is unlikely to show GBS-specific abnormalities in the early stages of the disease, as it starts in the peripheral nervous system.
Blood cultures are not diagnostic of GBS, as the presence of Campylobacter jejuni (often the trigger for GBS) is unlikely to be detected four weeks after the infection.
Computed tomography (CT) of the head is not useful in diagnosing GBS, as the pathology is in the peripheral nervous system, and an abnormality in the brain would not be seen on imaging.
Electromyography (EMG) is not typically performed in GBS diagnosis. Instead, nerve conduction studies may be performed, which could show decreased motor nerve-conduction velocity (due to demyelination), prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F-wave latency.
In conclusion, a combination of clinical presentation, lumbar puncture, and nerve conduction studies can help diagnose Guillain-Barré syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the General Practice with a 4-week history of pain in his left hand and forearm. The pain is concentrated around the thumb and index finger and is worse at night. There is no history of trauma. Shaking his hand seems to provide some relief. The likely diagnosis conclusion is carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS).
Which of the following would suggest an alternative diagnosis?Your Answer: Wasting of the hypothenar eminence
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Symptoms and Examination Findings
Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. One of the symptoms of CTS is the wasting of the thenar eminence, which is innervated by the median nerve. It is important to note that the hypothenar eminence, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve, is not affected by CTS.
During examination, weakness of thumb abduction (abductor pollicis brevis) is a common finding in CTS. Tapping along the problematic nerve causes paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist also causes symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Treatment for CTS may include a corticosteroid injection, wrist splints at night, and surgical decompression through flexor retinaculum division.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and examination findings of CTS can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb, and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus. Joint position sense is impaired at her left great toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal.
Which of the following is the most likely site of the lesion?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate site of the lesion from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest Brown-SĂ©quard syndrome, which is caused by a hemisection of the spinal cord. This results in ipsilateral pyramidal weakness and loss of joint position/vibration sense, along with contralateral loss of pain/temperature sensation. The patient’s lesion is located in the left mid-thoracic cord. A lesion in the left lumbosacral plexus would only affect the left lower limb. A cervical cord lesion would affect the upper limbs. A central lesion would produce bilateral symmetrical defects, which is not the case here. A right mid-thoracic cord lesion would produce similar symptoms, but on the right side instead. Other spinal cord syndromes include complete cord transection, anterior cord syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, syringomyelia, and cauda equina syndrome. Each of these has a distinct set of symptoms and affected areas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of Parkinson's disease is being evaluated in clinic and it has been determined that cabergoline is the appropriate medication to initiate. What is the most significant adverse effect that is commonly linked to this drug?
Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Management of Parkinson’s Disease: Medications and Considerations
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized expertise in movement disorders for diagnosis and management. However, all healthcare professionals should be familiar with the medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease due to its prevalence. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2017 to aid in the management of Parkinson’s disease.
For first-line treatment, levodopa is recommended if motor symptoms are affecting the patient’s quality of life. If motor symptoms are not affecting the patient’s quality of life, dopamine agonists (non-ergot derived), levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors may be used. NICE provides tables to aid in decision-making regarding the use of these medications, taking into account their effects on motor symptoms, activities of daily living, motor complications, and adverse events.
If a patient continues to have symptoms despite optimal levodopa treatment or has developed dyskinesia, NICE recommends the addition of a dopamine agonist, MAO-B inhibitor, or catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitor as an adjunct. Other considerations in Parkinson’s disease management include the risk of acute akinesia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome if medication is not taken or absorbed, the potential for impulse control disorders with dopaminergic therapy, and the need to adjust medication if excessive daytime sleepiness or orthostatic hypotension develops.
Specific medications used in Parkinson’s disease management include levodopa, dopamine receptor agonists, MAO-B inhibitors, amantadine, COMT inhibitors, and antimuscarinics. Each medication has its own set of benefits and potential adverse effects, which should be carefully considered when selecting a treatment plan. Overall, the management of Parkinson’s disease requires a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual needs and circumstances of each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 78-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for a possible cognitive impairment and movement disorder. Various scans have been ordered to aid in the assessment. The scan results are as follows: MRI head shows normal age-related changes, while the SPECT scan reveals decreased dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra. Based on this information, what is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Parkinson's disease
Explanation:Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain, leading to a range of symptoms. Parkinson’s disease is a common example, which affects the basal ganglia and causes movement disorders such as bradykinesia, muscle rigidity, tremor, and postural instability. Alzheimer’s dementia, on the other hand, is associated with atrophy of the medial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex, but does not typically involve movement disorders. Huntington’s disease primarily affects the striatum, leading to a loss of striatal volume and the characteristic symptom of chorea – jerky, uncontrollable limb movements. Multi-system atrophy is a rare condition that affects both the basal ganglia and cerebellum, leading to autonomic dysfunction, ataxia, and Parkinsonism, but cognitive impairment is not typically seen.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that occurs when dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra degenerate. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other characteristic features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and micrographia. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about his wife. He reports that in the past year, she has become increasingly forgetful and confused. He has observed her talking to their deceased dog, 'Buddy', and has noticed that she has been falling more frequently and moving around the house at a slower pace. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alzheimer's Dementia
Correct Answer: Lewy-Body Dementia
Explanation:To differentiate between the possible answers, it is crucial to analyze the patient’s symptoms. Considering his age and the duration of one year, the decline in cognitive function indicates a potential dementia condition. Additionally, the presence of visual hallucinations involving an animal strongly suggests Lewy-body dementia. Furthermore, the decrease in mobility and higher frequency of falls may indicate parkinsonism, further supporting the correct answer of Lewy-body dementia.
Understanding Lewy Body Dementia
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.
Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a sudden onset of right-sided facial weakness, which appears to be a lower motor neuron palsy. There are no other neurological symptoms on examination, and her ears appear normal. You diagnose her with Bell's palsy and prescribe prednisolone. What is the crucial next step in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Prescribe artifical tears and advise eye taping at night
Explanation:Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man describes intermittent unilateral pain above and behind his left eye, which has woken him from sleep every night for the previous 7 days. The pain is described as severe and stabbing, lasting about 30 minutes and making him restless and agitated. It is associated with tearing from his left eye and nasal stuffiness. When he looked in the mirror during attacks, he had noted his left eyelid drooping. He remembers he had experienced similar symptoms for about a month last year, but that they had resolved spontaneously and he had not sought medical attention. Physical examination is normal. He is a lifelong smoker.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Differentiating Headache Disorders: Cluster Headache, Trigeminal Neuralgia, Migraine, Temporal Arteritis, and Paroxysmal Hemicrania
Headache disorders can be challenging to diagnose due to overlapping symptoms. However, understanding the distinct characteristics of each disorder can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
Cluster Headache: This disorder is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, lasting from a few minutes up to 3 hours. It may be accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion and has a circadian pattern of occurring every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period.
Trigeminal Neuralgia: This disorder is characterized by recurrent unilateral brief electric shock-like pains, limited to the distribution of one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. Pain is triggered by innocuous stimuli such as hair brushing and lasts from a fraction of a second to 2 minutes.
Migraine: This disorder typically lasts 4-72 hours and is associated with unilateral headache, nausea, vomiting, or photophobia/phonophobia. It may be preceded by an aura.
Temporal Arteritis: This disorder occurs in patients over 50 years old and presents with abrupt-onset headache, scalp pain/tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, and constitutional symptoms.
Paroxysmal Hemicrania: This disorder is related to cluster headache and presents with severe unilateral orbital pain, lacrimation, and nasal congestion. Episodes last only a few minutes and occur multiple times per day.
It is important to note that each disorder has specific diagnostic criteria, and a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to the Vascular Clinic. He has been found to have a left internal carotid dissection incidentally while having cross-sectional neck imaging. He is asymptomatic, there are no intracranial or extracranial haematomas and he has not had a stroke or transient ischaemic attack in the past.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for this patient?Your Answer: Endovascular stenting procedure
Correct Answer: Conservative management with antiplatelet or anticoagulation agents
Explanation:Treatment and Surveillance Options for Carotid Artery Dissection
Carotid artery dissection is a condition that requires careful management and surveillance to prevent stroke and other complications. The treatment approach depends on various factors, including the cause of the dissection, the location, and the presence of bleeding. Conservative management with antiplatelet or anticoagulation agents is often used to minimize the risk of stroke. Endovascular stenting may be an option for some patients, particularly those who cannot tolerate anticoagulation or have failed medical management.
Surveillance is also crucial for patients with carotid artery dissection, particularly those who are asymptomatic. Yearly surveillance with carotid ultrasound Doppler is a non-invasive and cost-effective option that can be used for follow-up monitoring. However, it has some limitations, including difficulty scanning the distal-internal carotid artery and detecting emboli. Computed tomography (CT) angiography has high sensitivity in diagnosis and follow-up reviews of carotid-artery dissections, but it has no role in treatment. Magnetic resonance (MR) angiography and MR imaging can also be used for follow-up monitoring and diagnostic purposes, but they are not appropriate for treatment. Overall, a comprehensive approach that considers the individual patient’s needs and circumstances is essential for managing carotid artery dissection effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 45
Correct
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A 55-year-old male carpenter visits the GP clinic complaining of right foot drop. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. During the examination, the doctor observed weakness in the right foot dorsiflexion and eversion. The patient also reported sensory loss on the dorsum of the right foot and lower lateral part of the right leg. No other neurological deficits were detected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from common peroneal nerve palsy, which may be caused by diabetes. This condition can result in weakness of foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion. L5 nerve root compression is a possible cause of foot drop, but it does not lead to weakness of foot eversion, so it is not the correct option. Sciatic nerve palsy can also cause foot drop, but it can also affect other nerves, resulting in weakness of foot plantar flexion and sensory loss of the sole of the foot, which is not present in this case. Stroke is a central cause of foot drop, but the absence of upper motor neuron signs suggests common peroneal nerve pathology is more likely. Polyneuropathy involves multiple nerves, so it is not the correct option.
Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion
A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve, which divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The most notable symptom of this type of nerve damage is foot drop, which is characterized by weakness or paralysis of the muscles that lift the foot.
In addition to foot drop, other symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion may include weakness in foot dorsiflexion and eversion, as well as the extensor hallucis longus muscle. Sensory loss may also occur over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and there may be wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.
Overall, understanding the symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion can help individuals recognize and seek treatment for this type of nerve injury. With proper care and management, it may be possible to improve symptoms and prevent further damage to the affected nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the Neurology Clinic. He has been recently diagnosed with idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) and wants to know what lifestyle changes and medical treatments he needs to adopt to help reduce symptoms, and which to avoid.
Which of the following should be avoided in patients with IIH?
Your Answer: Weight loss
Correct Answer: Maintaining a high-sodium diet
Explanation:Managing Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension: Strategies and Interventions
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the skull, which can lead to vision loss and other neurological symptoms. Effective management of IIH involves a combination of lifestyle modifications, medication, and, in some cases, surgery. Here are some key strategies and interventions for managing IIH:
Low-sodium diet with acetazolamide: A low-sodium diet with acetazolamide has been shown to improve vision in patients with IIH. A high-sodium diet should be avoided as it can increase fluid retention and decrease the effectiveness of acetazolamide.
Weight loss: Weight loss can induce remission of papilledema in patients with IIH. A strict diet and pharmacological therapy may be necessary to achieve weight loss and prevent vision loss.
Surgical treatment: If patients are losing their vision despite maximal medical therapy, surgical treatment by optic-nerve-sheath fenestration or CSF shunting should be considered.
Discontinuing excessive vitamin A intake: Excessive vitamin A intake can increase CSF volume and pressure, so it is important to eliminate this risk factor in patients with IIH.
Discontinuing retinoid treatment: Retinoid, a metabolite of vitamin A, has been linked to the development of IIH. Therefore, discontinuing retinoid treatment is crucial when suspecting IIH.
Starting acetazolamide: Acetazolamide is a medication that decreases CSF production in humans and is often used in the initial management of IIH.
By implementing these strategies and interventions, patients with IIH can effectively manage their condition and prevent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 47
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a severely painful headache mainly around his left eye, associated with left-sided eye watering. He has had several similar episodes of pain over the past few months, each lasting about 2–3 hours.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Distinguishing Cluster Headache from Other Headache Disorders
Cluster headache is a severe headache disorder that primarily affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The pain is localized around one eye and can last from a few minutes up to three hours. Lacrimation and nasal congestion may occur simultaneously, and symptoms tend to occur frequently for several weeks followed by a symptom-free period lasting months or even years. It is important to distinguish cluster headache from other headache disorders, such as brain tumors, giant cell arteritis (GCA), migraine, and tension headache. Brain tumors may present with signs of raised intracranial pressure, while GCA typically affects those over 50 years old and presents with abrupt-onset headache, scalp pain/tenderness, and jaw claudication. Migraine is characterized by recurrent episodes of headache accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, nausea, and vomiting, while tension headache is typically bilateral and described as a band-like pain across the forehead. Associated eye watering is not a feature of tension headache.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 48
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of right-sided neck pain and left-sided sensorimotor disturbance. Shortly after the neck pain had begun, she had noted that her right eyelid was ‘drooping’ and that she had developed weakness and altered sensation in her left arm and leg. She had recently visited a physiotherapist for neck pain after a fall. Examination reveals right Horner syndrome, and weakness and sensory disturbance on the left-hand side, with a left extensor plantar response.
Which of the following is the most likely clinical diagnosis?Your Answer: Carotid artery dissection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Neck Pain and Stroke Syndrome
Carotid artery dissection, lateral medullary infarction, posterior fossa space-occupying lesion, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and venous sinus thrombosis are all potential causes of neck pain and stroke syndrome in a young patient. Carotid artery dissection is a tear in one of the carotid arteries that can occur spontaneously or following trauma. Symptoms may include vague headache, facial and neck pain, meiosis, ptosis, focal limb weakness, and cranial nerve palsies. Lateral medullary infarction is usually due to occlusion of the intracranial vertebral artery or the posterior inferior cerebellar artery and may present with vestibulocerebellar symptoms, ipsilateral Horner syndrome, sensory symptoms, and ipsilateral bulbar muscle weakness. Posterior fossa space-occupying lesions are more common in children and may cause symptoms due to raised intracranial pressure and brainstem/cerebellum compression. Subarachnoid hemorrhage presents with a sudden-onset, severe headache, while venous sinus thrombosis usually presents with progressive headache, nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Hemiplegia may occur in both posterior fossa space-occupying lesions and venous sinus thrombosis, but Horner syndrome does not occur in either. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of neck pain and stroke syndrome in a young patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 49
Correct
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A 51-year-old man comes to see the GP complaining of leg twitching and cramps that have been going on for a year. He also reports difficulty swallowing both liquids and food. The patient has no prior medical history. During the examination, the GP observes tongue fasciculations and hypophonia. Based on these findings, what conditions should be considered for further investigation?
Your Answer: Motor neuron disease
Explanation:Bulbar onset motor neuron disease can be identified by the presence of tongue fasciculations.
While benign fasciculation syndrome can also cause tongue fasciculations, the overall clinical picture suggests a more serious underlying condition. Other factors may be misleading in making a diagnosis.
Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.
Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.
Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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In a patient with parkinsonian features, what is the single most appropriate feature that supports the diagnosis of progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP) over idiopathic Parkinson's disease (PD)?
Your Answer: Unilateral onset
Correct Answer: Early postural instability
Explanation:Differentiating Progressive Supranuclear Palsy from Other Movement Disorders
Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP) is a neurodegenerative condition that typically affects individuals over the age of 50, with a higher incidence in men. Early postural instability is a hallmark feature of PSP, often leading to falls within the first year of onset. The Clinical Criteria for the Diagnosis of Progressive Supranuclear Palsy developed by the National Institute for Neurological Disorders and Society for PSP (NINDS-SPSP) suggests that a poor or absent response to levodopa is indicative of PSP.
Unlike Parkinson’s disease (PD), PSP is not associated with Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia (INO) and does not typically present with marked tremors. Instead, PSP is characterized by supranuclear gaze dysfunction, rigidity, bradykinesia, dysarthria, and dysphagia. Symptoms are usually symmetrical, and unilateral onset is more suggestive of idiopathic PD.
In summary, early postural instability, poor response to levodopa, absence of INO, and lack of marked tremors are key features that can help differentiate PSP from other movement disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 51
Correct
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A 50-year-old man complains of vertigo and loss of hearing on the left side. Which test is most likely to suggest the presence of an acoustic neuroma?
Your Answer: Absent corneal reflex
Explanation:Consider acoustic neuroma if there is a loss of corneal reflex.
Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)
Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.
The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease and the next appropriate step is likely starting her on donepezil. She has a past medical history of ischaemic heart diseases, pacemaker insertion for bradyarrhythmias, diabetes mellitus type II, hypercholesterolaemia and general anxiety disorder (GAD).
Which one of the following could be a contraindication to the prescription of donepezil?
Your Answer: General anxiety disorder (GAD)
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Contraindications and Considerations for the Use of Donepezil
Donepezil is a medication used to treat Alzheimer’s disease. However, there are certain contraindications and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when prescribing this medication.
Bradycardia, a condition where the heart beats too slowly, is a relative contraindication for the use of donepezil. This medication may cause bradycardia and atrioventricular node block, so caution should be taken in patients with other cardiac abnormalities. Additionally, patients with asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, supraventricular conduction abnormalities, susceptibility to peptic ulcers, and sick-sinus syndrome should also be closely monitored when taking donepezil.
Concurrent use of simvastatin, a medication used to lower cholesterol levels, is not a concern when taking donepezil. General anxiety disorder (GAD) and diabetes mellitus type II are also not contraindications for the use of donepezil.
However, elderly patients with a known history of persistent bradycardia, heart block, recurrent unexplained syncope, or concurrent treatment with drugs that reduce heart rate should avoid donepezil. A history of ischaemic heart diseases alone is not a contraindication for donepezil.
In summary, healthcare professionals should carefully consider a patient’s medical history and current medications before prescribing donepezil. Close monitoring is necessary in patients with certain cardiac abnormalities and caution should be taken in elderly patients with a history of bradycardia or heart block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 53
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after being hit on the side of his head by a cricket ball during a match. According to his teacher, he initially fell to the ground and complained of a sore head. However, he got up after two minutes, claimed to feel fine, and resumed playing. Unfortunately, after 30 minutes, he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What kind of injury is he likely to have suffered?
Your Answer: Extradural haematoma
Explanation:Extradural (epidural) hematoma – Head injury with a lucid interval
Types of Traumatic Brain Injury
Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. Intra-cranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.
Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 54
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents with sudden-onset visual disturbance. He denies any other symptoms. He is known to be a heavy smoker and hypertensive. On examination, he has a right incongruous homonymous hemianopia.
Where is the most likely site of the lesion?Your Answer: Left optic tract
Explanation:Understanding Visual Field Defects: A Guide to Lesion Locations and Symptoms
Visual field defects can provide important clues about the location and nature of neurological lesions. Here is a breakdown of the different types of visual field defects and their associated lesion locations:
– Retina/optic disc: Scotoma
– Optic nerve: Unilateral blindness (ipsilateral) or scotoma
– Lateral optic chiasm: Incomplete/contralateral hemianopia
– Central optic chiasm: Bitemporal hemianopia
– Optic tract: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (incongruent)
– Temporal lobe/optic radiation: Contralateral superior quadrantanopia
– Parietal lobe/superior optic radiation: Contralateral inferior quadrantanopia
– Complete parieto-occipital interruption of optic radiation: Contralateral congruent homonymous hemianopia (may be macula sparing)It is important to note that incomplete lesions may produce asymmetrical/incongruent homonymous hemianopia, while complete lesions result in congruous homonymous hemianopia, relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD), and optic nerve atrophy. Other symptoms may also be present depending on the lesion location, such as language defects, neglect, and movement or color agnosia. By understanding the different visual field defects and their associated lesion locations, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to the Accident and Emergency Department after having a blackout. He was walking down the street when he felt nauseated, dizzy and sweaty. He collapsed and lost consciousness for one minute. A friend says that he was pale and had some jerking of his limbs for 10 seconds, but he did not bite his tongue and there was no history of urinary incontinence. He recovered immediately, with no confusion or disorientation. Examination and the electrocardiogram (ECG) are normal. He is otherwise usually fit and well and on no regular medications.
What further investigation is required to make a diagnosis?Your Answer: Electroencephalogram (EEG)
Correct Answer: No investigation
Explanation:When to Investigate Transient Loss of Consciousness: A Guide for Clinicians
Transient loss of consciousness (LOC) can be a concerning symptom for patients and clinicians alike. However, not all cases require extensive investigation. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients presenting with a transient LOC should undergo a thorough history, examination, and electrocardiogram (ECG). If these are normal and the patient meets certain criteria, further work-up may not be necessary.
For example, uncomplicated vasovagal syncope can be diagnosed if there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis and if the patient experiences the 3 Ps of posture-prolonged standing, provoking factors, and prodromal symptoms. Doppler ultrasonography of the carotids would only be indicated if there was suspicion of carotid artery stenosis, while a single syncopal episode is not an indication for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain.
Electroencephalogram (EEG) may be considered if the history is suggestive of epilepsy, but it should not be routinely used in the work-up for transient LOC. Features strongly suggestive of epilepsy include a bitten tongue, head turning to one side during transient LOC, no memory of abnormal behavior witnessed by someone else, unusual posturing, prolonged limb jerking, confusion following the event, and prodromal déjà vu or jamais vu. If any of these are present, the patient should be reviewed by a specialist within 2 weeks, who would then make a decision regarding EEG.
In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary for all patients presenting with a transient LOC. However, if the patient meets certain criteria and there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis, further investigation may not be required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 56
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. What is the current evidence-based approach to managing this condition?
Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 57
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman experiences weekly migraines despite making lifestyle changes and avoiding triggers. Her doctor has agreed to prescribe medication for migraine prevention. She is in good health and does not take any regular medications. Her blood pressure measures 130/83 mmHg.
Which medication would be the most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For migraine treatment, the recommended acute options are a combination of triptan with NSAID or paracetamol. For prophylaxis, the recommended options are topiramate or propranolol. In a woman of childbearing age with no asthma history and requiring migraine prophylaxis, propranolol is the most appropriate option. Although it should be avoided during pregnancy, it does not carry the high risk of birth defects associated with topiramate. Carbamazepine is not recommended for migraine treatment but is licensed for trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is not effective for migraine prophylaxis and is not recommended by NICE guidelines. Topiramate is an option for migraine prophylaxis, but it is not the most appropriate first-line option for a woman of childbearing age due to its teratogenic effects. Highly effective contraception is required if topiramate is used. The recommended safe options for contraception are the copper intrauterine device, levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena), or Depo-Provera injections plus condoms, as per guidelines from the Faculty of Reproductive and Sexual Health (FSRH).
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 58
Correct
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A 25-year-old male comes to the neurology department with complaints of weakness. He initially experienced weakness in his legs a few days ago, which has now progressed to involve his arms. Additionally, he is experiencing shooting pains in his back and limbs. About four weeks ago, he had a brief episode of vomiting and diarrhea. Upon examination, reduced tendon reflexes and weakness are confirmed.
What test results would you anticipate for this patient?Your Answer: Abnormal nerve conduction studies
Explanation:Guillain-Barre syndrome can be diagnosed with the help of nerve conduction studies. The presence of ascending weakness after an infection is a common symptom of this syndrome. Most patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome show abnormal nerve conduction study results. If there are cord signal changes, it may indicate spinal cord compression or a spinal lesion. Inflammatory infiltrates on muscle biopsy are typically observed in patients with myositis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by the presence of anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the CSF protein level is usually elevated, not decreased.
Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.
Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.
To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding migraines is accurate?
Your Answer: Aura occur in around 50% of patients
Correct Answer: Typical aura include a spreading scintillating scotoma ('jagged crescent')
Explanation:Caution should be exercised when administering prokinetic agents like metoclopramide to children.
Diagnostic Criteria for Migraine
Migraine is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours and having at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness may prompt further investigation or referral.
In summary, the diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura include specific characteristics of the headache and associated symptoms, while migraine with aura is characterized by typical aura symptoms that may occur prior to the headache. It is important to accurately diagnose migraine to provide appropriate treatment and management for those who suffer from this debilitating condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She has a history of depression and was recently referred for a Mental Health Act assessment because her family were concerned about her. She has been talking about her insides rotting and believes that she is going to die in her sleep. She cannot be convinced otherwise. She is not eating, barely drinking and lacks energy, concentration and motivation. Just prior to the Assessment she used a biro pen to cut into her forearm to 'prove that there is nothing inside that will bleed', and this required reconstructive surgery.
She is admitted to a psychiatric hospital and is commenced on an SSRI and an antipsychotic. One week into her admission the nurses call you because she is scoring highly on the Early Warning Score.
On examination you find Sarah to be confused. She has a temperature of 39ºC and is sweating. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. She complains of muscle stiffness but is not sure when this began. Cogwheel rigidity is present.
Urgent blood tests reveal the following:
Hb 155 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 18 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Creatine Kinase 2032 9/L (32-294)
Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 3.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 118 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Encephalitis
Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Explanation:Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a severe reaction that can occur in response to antipsychotic medication and can be life-threatening. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, including muscle rigidity and elevated creatine kinase levels. Amphetamine intoxication is an unlikely cause as there is no history of drug use and the patient is under Section 2 of the MHA. Encephalitis and sepsis are important differential diagnoses to consider, but cogwheel rigidity would not be expected in encephalitis and sepsis would not typically cause muscle rigidity or elevated creatine kinase levels.
Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.
A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.
In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to you after experiencing his first TIA. He states that he is typically in good health and was surprised to learn that he had suffered a 'mini stroke.' He is eager to resume his normal daily routine and is curious about when he can safely operate his vehicle once more.
What guidance would you offer him?Your Answer: Can start driving immediately if symptom free -no need to inform the DVLA
Correct Answer: Can start driving if symptom free after 1 month - no need to inform the DVLA
Explanation:Group 1 drivers do not need to inform the DVLA and can resume driving after being symptom-free for one month following a single TIA.
The DVLA has guidelines for drivers with neurological disorders. Those with epilepsy/seizures must not drive and must inform the DVLA. The length of time off driving varies depending on the type and frequency of seizures. Those with syncope may need time off driving depending on the cause and number of episodes. Those with other conditions such as stroke, craniotomy, pituitary tumor, narcolepsy/cataplexy, and chronic neurological disorders should inform the DVLA and may need time off driving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 62
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman complains of pressure-type headache and brief visual disturbance upon standing.
What is the most indicative feature that supports the diagnosis of idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH)?Your Answer: An enlarged blind spot and constriction of the visual field
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)
Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH) is a headache syndrome that is characterized by raised cerebrospinal fluid pressure in the absence of an intracranial mass lesion or ventricular dilatation. While IIH is associated with visual field defects, reduced visual acuity is not a common presenting feature. Instead, an enlarged blind spot and constriction of the visual field are the classic findings in a patient with papilloedema. Additionally, IIH does not typically present with motor weakness or a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
It is important to note that a past history of deep venous thrombosis or lateralized motor weakness would raise suspicions about the possibility of cranial venous thrombosis, which can also cause raised intracranial pressure and papilloedema. Reduced visual acuity, on the other hand, is more consistent with an optic nerve lesion such as optic neuritis.
In summary, understanding the symptoms of IIH can help healthcare professionals differentiate it from other conditions and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a characteristic of essential tremor?
Your Answer: Improved by alcohol
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance
Explanation:When arms are extended, essential tremor worsens, but it improves with the use of alcohol and propranolol. This is an autosomal dominant condition.
Understanding Essential Tremor
Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.
When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits a memory clinic accompanied by his daughter. He has a medical history of hypertension and is a former smoker. The daughter reports that he had been stable for several months before experiencing sudden declines on multiple occasions. The physical examination is normal, and his MoCA score is 18 out of 30. He denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Correct Answer: Vascular dementia
Explanation:The gradual decline in cognitive function, along with hypertension and smoking as risk factors for cerebrovascular disease, suggest a diagnosis of vascular dementia. This type of dementia is caused by damage to the brain from reduced blood flow or bleeding due to cerebrovascular disease. In contrast, Alzheimer’s dementia progresses slowly over time, while frontotemporal dementia affects personality, behavior, language, and attention. Lewy body dementia is characterized by hallucinations and Parkinsonian symptoms, while Parkinson’s dementia occurs in patients with Parkinson’s disease and affects their mental function and memory, along with physical signs of PD.
Understanding Vascular Dementia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Vascular dementia is a type of cognitive impairment that is caused by different mechanisms resulting from cerebrovascular disease. It is the second most common form of dementia after Alzheimer’s disease. Vascular dementia is often recognized as the most severe form of the spectrum of deficits encompassed by the term vascular cognitive impairment. Early detection and an accurate diagnosis are crucial in preventing vascular dementia.
The prevalence of vascular dementia is estimated to be around 17% of dementia cases in the UK. The incidence of vascular dementia increases with age and is often associated with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack, atrial fibrillation, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, smoking, obesity, coronary heart disease, and a family history of stroke or cardiovascular disease. Rarely, vascular dementia can be inherited as in the case of cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy.
Patients with vascular dementia typically present with a sudden or stepwise deterioration of cognitive function, focal neurological abnormalities, difficulty with attention and concentration, seizures, memory disturbance, gait disturbance, speech disturbance, and emotional disturbance. Diagnosis is made based on a comprehensive history and physical examination, formal screening for cognitive impairment, medical review to exclude medication cause of cognitive decline, and MRI scan.
Treatment for vascular dementia is mainly symptomatic with the aim to address individual problems and provide support to the patient and carers. It is important to detect and address cardiovascular risk factors to slow down the progression of the disease. Non-pharmacological management is tailored to the individual and may include cognitive stimulation programs, multisensory stimulation, music and art therapy, and animal-assisted therapy. Pharmacological management is limited, and there is no specific pharmacological treatment approved for cognitive symptoms. Only consider AChE inhibitors or memantine for people with vascular dementia if they have suspected comorbid Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease dementia, or dementia with Lewy bodies. There is no evidence that aspirin is effective in treating patients with a diagnosis of vascular dementia, and no randomized trials have evaluated statins for vascular dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 65
Correct
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A 20 year-old female patient visits her GP to request a refill of her COCP prescription. She reports experiencing intense headaches on the left side of her head, accompanied by visual disturbances prior to the onset of the headache. Upon examination, no abnormalities are detected. What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?
Your Answer: Stop the COCP and start treatment on a progesterone only contraceptive pill.
Explanation:The woman is experiencing migraines with aura, a condition that can be exacerbated by the use of COCP. If a woman has migraine with aura, it is recommended that she discontinue the use of the pill immediately. This is because the oestrogen component of COCP can increase the risk of ischaemic stroke. The only alternative contraceptive medication that can be prescribed is a progesterone-only contraceptive pill, as other options contain oestrogen.
Counselling for Women Considering the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on the potential harms and benefits of the pill. The COC is highly effective if taken correctly, with a success rate of over 99%. However, there is a small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes, as well as an increased risk of breast and cervical cancer.
In addition to discussing the potential risks and benefits, women should also receive advice on how to take the pill. If the COC is started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, there is no need for additional contraception. However, if it is started at any other point in the cycle, alternative contraception should be used for the first 7 days. Women should take the pill at the same time every day and should be aware that intercourse during the pill-free period is only safe if the next pack is started on time.
There have been recent changes to the guidelines for taking the COC. While it was previously recommended to take the pill for 21 days and then stop for 7 days to mimic menstruation, it is now recommended to discuss tailored regimes with women. This is because there is no medical benefit to having a withdrawal bleed, and options include never having a pill-free interval or taking three 21-day packs back-to-back before having a 4 or 7 day break.
Women should also be informed of situations where the efficacy of the pill may be reduced, such as vomiting within 2 hours of taking the pill, medication that induces diarrhoea or vomiting, or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. It is also important to discuss sexually transmitted infections and precautions that should be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.
Overall, counselling for women considering the COC should cover a range of topics to ensure that they are fully informed and able to make an informed decision about their contraceptive options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 66
Correct
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What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia? Choose one option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment
Explanation:Trigeminal Neuralgia: Diagnosis and Treatment
Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by sharp, shooting pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve. While the cause is unknown, it can be due to compression of the nerve as it exits the foramen. The pain is intermittent and often exacerbated by light touch, eating, talking, or exposure to the cold.
Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia, with an initial dose of 100 mg up to twice daily. The dosage can be increased in increments of 100-200 mg every 2 weeks until the pain is under control.
Contrary to popular belief, trigeminal neuralgia usually affects the face unilaterally, with only 3% of cases being bilateral. A CT scan of the head is not recommended for all patients with the diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia, but may be necessary if red flag symptoms are present.
It is important to note that patients with trigeminal neuralgia do not typically experience constant pain, as the pain is episodic in frequency. Tramadol is not the first-line treatment for trigeminal pain, carbamazepine is.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 67
Correct
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An older gentleman patient presents with arthritic pains. At the end of the consultation, he mentions that he recently visited a doctor at the memory clinic who diagnosed him with Alzheimer's dementia. However, he cannot recall why he was not prescribed any medication for this condition.
Which of the following factors would be a potential relative contraindication to prescribing donepezil for this patient?Your Answer: Resting bradycardia
Explanation:Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.
Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presented to the eye clinic with double vision. He has been experiencing this for the past few weeks. During examination, it was observed that he had horizontal diplopia and slight limitation of one of the extraocular muscles in his left eye. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and prostate cancer. Brain imaging revealed a metastatic lesion in the clivus that surrounds the cavernous sinus and carotid artery. Which cranial nerve palsy is responsible for the diplopia in this patient?
Your Answer: Right sixth cranial nerve (CN6) palsy
Correct Answer: Left sixth cranial nerve (CN6) palsy
Explanation:Understanding the 12 Cranial Nerves and their Functions
The human body has 12 pairs of cranial nerves that originate from the brainstem and control various functions such as movement, sensation, and reflexes. Each nerve has a specific function and pathway, and damage to any of these nerves can result in various clinical symptoms.
Some of the important functions of these nerves include smell (olfactory nerve), sight (optic nerve), eye movement (oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), facial sensation and mastication (trigeminal nerve), facial movement and taste (facial nerve), hearing and balance (vestibulocochlear nerve), taste and swallowing (glossopharyngeal nerve), phonation and innervation of viscera (vagus nerve), head and shoulder movement (accessory nerve), and tongue movement (hypoglossal nerve).
In addition to their primary functions, some of these nerves also play a role in various reflexes such as the corneal reflex, jaw jerk reflex, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and pathways of these cranial nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has come in for her 6-week baby check with no postnatal issues. She is currently breastfeeding and has a history of frequent migraines. She is seeking treatment for a migraine today. Which of the following medications should be avoided?
Your Answer: Sumatriptan
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Breastfeeding mothers should avoid taking aspirin as it may increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome. High doses of aspirin can also affect platelet function and cause hypoprothrombinaemia in infants with low vitamin K stores. However, paracetamol is safe to use for pain relief during breastfeeding. Anti-emetics such as cyclizine and prochlorperazine are also safe to use while breastfeeding and are unlikely to cause any harm.
Breastfeeding has some contraindications that are important to know, especially when it comes to drugs. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, and trimethoprim are safe for breastfeeding mothers, as are endocrine drugs like glucocorticoids (in low doses) and levothyroxine. Epilepsy drugs like sodium valproate and carbamazepine, asthma drugs like salbutamol and theophyllines, and hypertension drugs like beta-blockers and hydralazine are also safe. Anticoagulants like warfarin and heparin, as well as digoxin, are also safe. However, some drugs should be avoided, such as antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and sulphonamides, psychiatric drugs like lithium and benzodiazepines, aspirin, carbimazole, methotrexate, sulfonylureas, cytotoxic drugs, and amiodarone. Other contraindications include galactosaemia and viral infections, although the latter is controversial in the developing world due to the increased risk of infant mortality and morbidity associated with bottle feeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A client is observed to have a missing triceps reflex. To which nerve root does this correspond?
Your Answer: C6-C7
Correct Answer: C7-C8
Explanation:Understanding Common Reflexes
Reflexes are automatic responses of the body to certain stimuli. These responses are controlled by the nervous system and do not require conscious thought. Common reflexes include the ankle reflex, knee reflex, biceps reflex, and triceps reflex. Each reflex is associated with a specific root in the spinal cord.
The ankle reflex is associated with the S1-S2 root, which is located in the lower part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the Achilles tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the calf muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
The knee reflex is associated with the L3-L4 root, which is located in the middle part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the quadriceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
The biceps reflex is associated with the C5-C6 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the biceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the biceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
The triceps reflex is associated with the C7-C8 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the triceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
Understanding these common reflexes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various neurological conditions. By testing these reflexes, they can determine if there is any damage or dysfunction in the nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 71
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient complains of vision problems. Upon examination, a left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia is observed. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Right parietal lobe
Explanation:A visual field defect known as left homonymous hemianopia indicates a loss of vision to the left side, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. Homonymous quadrantanopias, which affect the parietal-inferior and temporal-superior areas, are also a type of visual field defect. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by lesions in the optic radiation or occipital cortex.
Understanding Visual Field Defects
Visual field defects refer to the loss of vision in certain areas of the visual field. One common type of visual field defect is left homonymous hemianopia, which means that there is a visual field defect to the left due to a lesion of the right optic tract. Another type is homonymous quadrantanopias, which can be remembered using the acronym PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior). Incongruous defects indicate an optic tract lesion, while congruous defects suggest a lesion of the optic radiation or occipital cortex. A congruous defect means complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while an incongruous defect is incomplete or asymmetric.
Homonymous hemianopia can also be caused by a lesion of the optic tract, with macula sparing indicating a lesion of the occipital cortex. Homonymous quadrantanopias can be caused by a lesion of the inferior optic radiations in the temporal lobe (Meyer’s loop) for superior defects, and a lesion of the superior optic radiations in the parietal lobe for inferior defects.
Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion of the optic chiasm. An upper quadrant defect that is greater than the lower quadrant defect suggests inferior chiasmal compression, which is commonly caused by a pituitary tumor. Conversely, a lower quadrant defect that is greater than the upper quadrant defect suggests superior chiasmal compression, which is commonly caused by a craniopharyngioma. It is important to note that while this information is useful for exams, actual studies suggest that the majority of quadrantanopias are caused by occipital lobe lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 72
Correct
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A 92-year-old male was admitted to the stroke ward with right-sided facial droop and hemiplegia. CT head revealed a significant infarct in the left middle cerebral artery. The patient has finished a 2-week course of high-dose aspirin (300mg) for the management of an acute ischemic stroke. What is the best choice for secondary prevention?
Your Answer: Switch to clopidogrel
Explanation:The preferred antiplatelet for secondary prevention following a stroke is clopidogrel 75mg, as it reduces the risk of major adverse cardiovascular events. It is recommended for patients who have had a transient ischaemic attack or confirmed stroke after two weeks of high-dose aspirin. Low-dose aspirin (75mg) and modified-release dipyridamole can be used as an alternative if clopidogrel is contraindicated. High-dose aspirin (300 mg) is only indicated in the first 2 weeks after an acute ischaemic stroke. Anticoagulants such as DOACs and warfarin are used to prevent clot formation and embolisation in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF) to reduce the risk of stroke. However, since there is no evidence of AF in this patient, these options are not applicable.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents to the General Practitioner with his father who reports that he has been falling behind at school. His teachers have noticed that multiple times during lessons he appears to be 'staring into space' for about ten seconds at a time, during which there is twitching of his arms. He does not remember these episodes. He is referred for an electroencephalography (EEG) which shows spike-and-wave complexes during an episode. He is started on a new medication.
Which of the following is the most likely treatment?Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Correct Answer: Ethosuximide
Explanation:When it comes to treating absence seizures, ethosuximide is the preferred first-line option for women and girls who may become pregnant. Boys and men can be treated with either ethosuximide or sodium valproate. Absence seizures are most common in children and young people, and are characterized by brief episodes of fixed gaze and possible arm or leg movements. An EEG can confirm the presence of spike-and-wave complexes during an attack. Sodium valproate may be used for boys and men, but should be avoided in women of childbearing potential due to the risk of birth defects. Carbamazepine is not effective for absence seizures, but is the first-line treatment for focal seizures. Lamotrigine may be used as a second-line option if other treatments are not effective or well-tolerated. In cases of status epilepticus, intravenous lorazepam is the preferred treatment in a hospital setting, but buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam can be used if intravenous access is not available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after experiencing a 3-hour episode of right facial weakness with forehead sparing. He has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and haemophilia B and takes low dose prednisolone as his only regular medication. He has been a smoker for the past 20 years, consuming 20 cigarettes a day. Upon examination, he reports that his neurological symptoms have resolved 30 minutes ago. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer: Give aspirin immediately
Correct Answer: Admit and arrange a CT head
Explanation:If a patient with a bleeding disorder or on anticoagulants such as warfarin or DOACs is suspected of having a TIA, immediate admission for imaging is necessary to rule out a hemorrhage. In this case, the patient’s age, sex, smoking history, and bleeding disorder increase the likelihood of a TIA. The patient’s history of polymyalgia rheumatica and low dose prednisolone management are not relevant to the diagnosis or management of TIA.
Admission and a CT head are necessary due to the patient’s history of haemophilia B, which increases the risk of hemorrhagic causes of stroke-like symptoms. Aspirin should not be given immediately as it may worsen bleeding in patients with bleeding disorders or on anticoagulants. Reassuring and managing as an outpatient is not appropriate for either hemorrhagic or ischemic causes of TIA, both of which are possible in this case. Thrombectomy is not the appropriate management for this patient as he is at high risk of hemorrhagic stroke, and imaging is necessary to rule out a bleed.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 75
Correct
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You see a 61-year-old man with backache.
Which ONE of the following may indicate a potentially serious pathology and hence requires referral as an emergency?
Your Answer: Perineal anaesthesia
Explanation:Back pain can have various causes, some of which may require urgent medical attention. Perineal anaesthesia, which involves numbness in the perineal, buttock, and inner thigh areas, is a red flag for back pain and may indicate cauda equina syndrome. This condition involves compression or damage to the tail of the spinal cord and requires urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) for diagnosis. Other symptoms of cauda equina syndrome include severe or progressive back pain, new urinary or fecal incontinence, and lower limb weakness. Unilateral leg pain that is worse than low back pain may suggest sciatica, which can be managed conservatively without red flags. Pain radiating to the buttock on one side may also indicate nerve root irritation and can be managed in primary care if there are no red flags. However, new back pain in patients under 20 or over 55 years old should be taken seriously and may require urgent referral for further investigation. Localized neurological signs may indicate nerve root irritation, but do not necessarily require emergency referral. Red flags for back pain, such as constant, non-mechanical pain, thoracic pain, past history of malignant tumor, prolonged use of corticosteroids, and unexplained weight loss, require thorough work-up and consideration of imaging and specialist referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the Memory Clinic with a 9-month history of cognitive decline. Her daughter mentions that she has difficulty remembering basic tasks and is becoming more confused and forgetful than usual. Her daughter noticed a change in her personality and has caught her leaving the stove on and wandering outside alone on multiple occasions.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in this patient’s management?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Your Answer: Start treatment with memantine
Correct Answer: Stop drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion (anticholinergics, central nervous system drugs)
Explanation:Managing Frontotemporal Dementia: Treatment Options and Referrals
Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects behavior, language, and executive function. While there is no cure for FTD, management strategies can help alleviate symptoms and provide support for patients and their families.
One important step in managing FTD is to stop any drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion, such as anticholinergics or central nervous system drugs. Multidisciplinary health and social care is also crucial, involving referrals to geriatric medicine, psychiatry, psychology, social work, occupational therapy, speech and language therapy, physiotherapy, and community nursing.
However, certain treatment options should be avoided or used with caution in FTD patients. Benzodiazepines, for example, are associated with cognitive worsening and fall-related injuries. Anticholinesterase inhibitors, typically used in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease, have shown disappointing results in FTD patients who do not have cholinergic loss. Memantine, used in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease, has not been shown to be effective in FTD and may even have a detrimental effect on cognition in some individuals.
Antipsychotics should only be used cautiously and when other options have failed, as FTD patients are at higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Overall, a personalized and coordinated approach to FTD management is essential for optimizing patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 77
Correct
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A 61-year-old male presents with a four-month history of gradual slurring of speech and trouble swallowing. The patient reports more difficulty with liquids than solids, frequently choking while drinking water. During the examination, the patient exhibits facial weakness and low-volume speech. Ocular examination shows no signs of ptosis or ophthalmoplegia. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Motor neurone disease
Explanation:Motor neurone disease often presents with spared eye movements. This is particularly common in cases of bulbar-onset amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), where patients may struggle with swallowing liquids more than solids in the early stages. Other symptoms may include facial weakness, hypophonic speech, fasciculations, and reduced jaw jerk reflex (a lower motor neuron sign). In contrast, achalasia typically causes difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids due to a loss of normal peristalsis and failure of the lower sphincter to relax during swallowing. This condition does not typically involve fasciculation of the tongue. Oesophageal carcinoma may also cause difficulty swallowing, but patients usually report difficulty with solids before liquids and may experience constitutional symptoms such as weight loss.
Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.
Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.
Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 78
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a two-day history of fever, headache, vomiting, and seizures. She has no significant medical history or allergies. Upon CT head examination, hypodensity of the left temporal lobe is identified, while a lumbar puncture reveals lymphocytes at 57 cells/µL (0-5 cells/µL), protein at 92 mg/100 mL (15-60 mg/100 mL), and glucose at 66 mg/100 mL (50-80 mg/100 mL). Serum blood glucose is normal. A brain MRI is subsequently performed, revealing prominent swelling and increased signal of the left temporal lobe and insular cortex. What is the urgent medication that must be initiated in this patient?
Your Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:In cases of encephalitis caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV), urgent administration of IV aciclovir (which is effective against HSV) is necessary. Amantadine, which is used to manage influenza, is not appropriate. Cefotaxime, which is often used for suspected meningococcal disease, is also not appropriate. Fluconazole, an anti-fungal medication, is not appropriate as encephalitis is unlikely to be caused by a fungal infection.
Encephalitis: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Encephalitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the brain. It presents with symptoms such as fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features such as aphasia may also be present. Peripheral lesions like cold sores are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis. HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults, and it typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes.
To diagnose encephalitis, cerebrospinal fluid analysis is done, which shows lymphocytosis and elevated protein. PCR for HSV, VZV, and enteroviruses is also performed. Neuroimaging may reveal medial temporal and inferior frontal changes, such as petechial hemorrhages, but it is normal in one-third of patients. MRI is a better diagnostic tool. EEG may show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.
The treatment for encephalitis involves intravenous aciclovir, which should be started in all cases of suspected encephalitis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing complications and improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 79
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman comes in with a tremor. What distinguishing characteristic would indicate a diagnosis of essential tremor instead of Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched
Explanation:Typical symptoms of Parkinson’s include bradykinesia, postural instability, and initially unilateral symptoms. On the other hand, alcohol can alleviate essential tremor symptoms.
Understanding Essential Tremor
Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.
When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 80
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting a feeling of weakness in his right arm that occurred about 10 hours ago. He states that the weakness lasted for around one hour and has since disappeared. He has a history of hypertension and takes amlodipine, but is typically healthy.
What is the most suitable course of action for management?Your Answer: Give aspirin 300 mg and refer immediately to be seen in the Stroke Clinic within 24 hours
Explanation:Management of Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)
Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt management to prevent a subsequent stroke. Here are some management strategies for TIA:
Immediate administration of aspirin 300 mg and referral to the Stroke Clinic within 24 hours is recommended, unless contraindicated. Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily is the preferred secondary prevention following a stroke or TIA.
An outpatient magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) head scan may be considered to determine the territory of ischaemia, but only after assessment by a specialist at a TIA clinic.
Patients who have had a suspected TIA within the last week should be offered aspirin 300 mg at once and be seen by a stroke specialist within 24 hours. If the suspected TIA was more than one week ago, patients should be seen by a specialist within the next seven days.
Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel may be considered for the first three months following a TIA or ischaemic stroke if the patient has severe symptomatic intracranial stenosis or for another condition such as acute coronary syndrome.
Management Strategies for Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 81
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient is found to have a missing ankle reflex. To which nerve root does this correspond?
Your Answer: S1-S2
Explanation:Understanding Common Reflexes
Reflexes are automatic responses of the body to certain stimuli. These responses are controlled by the nervous system and do not require conscious thought. Common reflexes include the ankle reflex, knee reflex, biceps reflex, and triceps reflex. Each reflex is associated with a specific root in the spinal cord.
The ankle reflex is associated with the S1-S2 root, which is located in the lower part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the Achilles tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the calf muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
The knee reflex is associated with the L3-L4 root, which is located in the middle part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the quadriceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
The biceps reflex is associated with the C5-C6 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the biceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the biceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
The triceps reflex is associated with the C7-C8 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the triceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.
Understanding these common reflexes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various neurological conditions. By testing these reflexes, they can determine if there is any damage or dysfunction in the nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of generalised weakness that has been ongoing for the past six months. During the examination, fasciculation and weakness are observed in both arms with absent reflexes. Additionally, increased tone and exaggerated reflexes are noted in the lower limbs. Sensation is normal and there are no cerebellar signs. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Syringomyelia
Correct Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Explanation:If you experience fasciculations, it may be a sign of motor neuron disease, specifically amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, which is the most prevalent type.
Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.
Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.
Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 83
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse reporting weakness in his right arm and leg, decreased vision, and difficulty speaking. The symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago, and his wife promptly called for an ambulance. A CT scan of the head ruled out a hemorrhagic stroke, but a CT contrast angiography revealed a confirmed blockage in the proximal anterior circulation. What is the appropriate acute management for this patient?
Your Answer: Alteplase plus thrombectomy
Explanation:For patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours, the recommended treatment is a combination of thrombolysis and thrombectomy. Thrombolysis involves the use of alteplase, a tissue plasminogen activator that breaks down the clot, while thrombectomy physically removes the clot using a specialized device inserted through the femoral artery. In this case, as the patient has confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation, both thrombolysis and thrombectomy should be performed together for the best possible outcome. While alteplase alone can be considered if thrombectomy is not available, a better prognosis is more likely with the combination treatment. It would not be appropriate to perform thrombectomy alone without considering thrombolysis, as the patient is presenting within the window for thrombolysis and should be considered for both in combination according to the guidelines.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 84
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman complains of facial asymmetry. She noticed that the right corner of her mouth was drooping while brushing her teeth this morning. She is in good health but experienced pain behind her right ear yesterday and reports dryness in her right eye. Upon examination, she exhibits complete paralysis of the facial nerve on the right side, from the forehead to the mouth. There are no abnormalities found during ear, nose, and throat examination or clinical examination of the peripheral nervous system. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bell's palsy
Explanation:The diagnosis of an ear infection is unlikely based on the patient’s symptoms and the results of their ear exam.
Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 85
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents to the ED with acute onset of numbness on the right side of his body. He denies any other symptoms. A CT scan of the head was performed and revealed no evidence of hemorrhage or mass. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lacunar infarct
Explanation:If a patient has a lacunar stroke, they may experience a purely motor, purely sensory, or mixed motor and sensory deficit. A total anterior circulation infarct would cause unilateral weakness in the face, arm, and leg, as well as a homonymous hemianopia and symptoms of higher cerebral dysfunction. A posterior circulation infarct could result in a cerebellar or brainstem syndrome, loss of consciousness, or an isolated homonymous hemianopia. A partial anterior circulation infarct would lead to two of the following: unilateral weakness, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cerebral dysfunction. The absence of hemorrhage on a CT scan suggests that this is most likely a lacunar infarct, as there is only a purely sensory deficit.
Lacunar stroke is a type of ischaemic stroke that accounts for approximately 20-25% of all cases. It occurs when a single penetrating branch of a large cerebral artery becomes blocked, leading to damage in the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia. The symptoms of lacunar stroke can vary depending on the location of the blockage, but they typically involve either purely motor or purely sensory deficits. Other possible presentations include sensorimotor stroke, ataxic hemiparesis, and dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome. Unlike other types of stroke, lacunar syndromes tend to lack cortical findings such as aphasia, agnosia, neglect, apraxia, or hemianopsia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke. Upon examination, the man's speech is non-fluent, but his comprehension is intact. He experiences difficulty repeating a phrase. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Parietal lobe
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:The patient in the scenario has non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition, which is indicative of Broca’s dysphasia. This type of speech abnormality is associated with a lesion in the frontal lobe affecting Broca’s area. When responding to a conversation, the signal travels from the ear to Wernicke’s area for comprehension, then along the arcuate fasciculus to Broca’s area for speech coordination. A lesion in the cerebellum, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe would not be associated with Broca’s dysphasia.
Understanding the Different Types of Aphasia
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. This type of aphasia results in sentences that make no sense, word substitution, and neologisms, but speech remains fluent. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, resulting in non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.
Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. Speech is fluent, but repetition is poor, and the person is aware of the errors they are making. Comprehension is normal. Global aphasia is the most severe type, affecting all three areas and resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. However, the person may still be able to communicate using gestures.
Understanding the different types of aphasia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this language disorder. It is important to note that dysarthria is different from aphasia and refers to a motor speech disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 87
Correct
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A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a persistent tremor. During examination, it is observed that there is a symmetrical bilateral tremor of his arms which worsens when they are outstretched. His father also had a similar problem. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Essential Tremor: Understanding the Differences from Parkinson’s Disease
Essential tremor is a neurological disorder that causes involuntary shaking, typically in the hands, head, and voice. It is important to differentiate between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease (PD) as the treatment options differ. Propranolol is considered the first-line treatment for essential tremor, while levodopa is used for PD.
To distinguish between the two conditions, it is important to note that essential tremor worsens with movement and is often symmetrical, while PD tremors occur mostly at rest and are asymmetrical. Additionally, essential tremor often has a family history component.
Other medications, such as diazepam, fluoxetine, and gabapentin, are not typically used for essential tremor. Diazepam is used for acute muscle spasms and anxiety, fluoxetine is used for depression and other mental health conditions, and gabapentin is used for seizure disorders and neuropathic pain.
In summary, understanding the differences between essential tremor and PD is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment options. Propranolol is the preferred medication for essential tremor, while levodopa is used for PD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 88
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after experiencing daily headaches for the past week. She is usually healthy but drinks three cups of coffee a day. She describes sudden onset of severe, unilateral periorbital pain and tearing of the eye. The attacks last around 30 minutes and have all occurred in the late afternoon.
What is the most suitable treatment to be administered to this patient during an acute episode of headache?
Select the MOST appropriate treatment from the options below.Your Answer: Intranasal sumatriptan
Explanation:Treatment options for Cluster Headaches
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion. The pain can last for a few minutes up to three hours and occurs every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period. Here are some treatment options for cluster headaches:
Intranasal Sumatriptan: People over the age of 18 with acute bouts of confirmed cluster headache may be given a subcutaneous or nasal triptan for acute attacks.
Verapamil: Verapamil may be prescribed as a preventative treatment for cluster headaches but is not used during an acute attack. It is usually only prescribed following a discussion with a neurologist or a GP with a special interest in headaches.
Carbamazepine: Carbamazepine is used in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia, which presents with sudden attacks of severe, shooting unilateral facial pain that feels like an ‘electric shock’. However, for cluster headaches, it is not the first-line treatment.
Codeine: Patients with cluster headaches should not be offered paracetamol, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or opioids as acute treatment, as they are too slow to take effect.
Short-burst oxygen therapy (home oxygen): Short-burst oxygen therapy (12–15 l/min via a non-rebreathe mask) can be prescribed to reduce the length of an attack, unless it is contraindicated. However, home oxygen is contraindicated for smokers due to the risk of fire.
In conclusion, cluster headaches can be debilitating, but there are various treatment options available to manage the symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 89
Correct
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As the on-call duty doctor, you are in your room when a receptionist rushes in, alarmed that an elderly woman has been hit by a car in the surgery car park. The receptionist calls an ambulance while you quickly assess the patient. The patient's airway is clear, with spontaneous breathing at a rate of 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient is hemodynamically stable with a heart rate of 70 beats per minute and blood pressure of 138/86 mmHg. The patient is lethargic, but responds to voice and exhibits abnormal flexion in response to pain. The patient mumbles incomprehensible sounds when asked questions. What is the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score based on your assessment?
Your Answer: 8
Explanation:What is the patient’s GCS based on the assessment that he is drowsy, but his eyes open to voice and exhibits abnormal flexion to pain, and mutters incomprehensible sounds in response to questions?
GCS score is 7.Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 90
Correct
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A 60-year-old man had a left mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer. He has now presented with a 4-month history of progressive ataxia and dysarthria. On examination, there is gaze-evoked nystagmus, dysarthria, upper limb ataxia and gait ataxia. Power, tone, reflexes and sensation are normal. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. Computerised tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) microscopy are normal.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of his ataxia?Your Answer: Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a patient with subacute cerebellar dysfunction and normal imaging
Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome, multiple sclerosis, cerebellar metastasis, malignant meningitis, and Wernicke’s encephalopathy are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with subacute onset of cerebellar signs and normal imaging.
Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome is a rare immune-mediated complication of many cancers, which may be diagnosed before the underlying tumour. Symptoms develop rapidly and include dizziness, nausea, vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia, oscillopsia, dysarthria, tremor, dysphagia, and blurry vision. MRI may be normal, but CSF may show raised protein and anti-neuronal antibodies.
Multiple sclerosis is more common in women and usually presents with transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness/paraesthesiae, as well as bladder and cerebellar dysfunction. MRI may visualise plaques of demyelination, and CSF shows oligoclonal bands.
Cerebellar metastasis could occur in breast cancer, but it would be visualised on MRI.
Malignant meningitis occurs when cancer spreads to the meninges and presents with confusion, headaches, and weakness. Imaging and CSF would be abnormal.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to thiamine deficiency, typically seen in alcoholics, and presents with acute confusional state, ophthalmoplegia, and gait ataxia. Dysarthria is not usually a feature. Thiamine deficiency is not suggested by this patient’s history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 91
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found on the floor at home. He is disoriented and unable to provide a clear history. His relatives are yet to arrive. He has a GCS of 12. On examination you note crackles at the left base on auscultation, an ejection systolic murmur over the left sternal edge, and a soft, nontender abdomen. His right pupil is slightly dilated compared to the left and is sluggish to react to light. He has no obvious injuries.
What is the most appropriate, immediate source of action to aid in diagnosis?Your Answer: CT brain
Explanation:Immediate CT scan is necessary to evaluate for raised intracranial pressure and tentorial herniation in a patient with a sluggishly responsive unilaterally dilated pupil. This is the most pressing concern, given the patient’s reduced GCS. Although other investigations will be necessary, the CT brain is the most critical test, as the patient may require urgent neurosurgical intervention to save their life.
Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/frusemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 92
Correct
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A 62-year-old man has been referred due to a tremor and bradykinesia, leading to a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. These symptoms are now interfering with his work as an accountant and overall quality of life. What initial treatment is he likely to receive?
Your Answer: Levodopa
Explanation:Patients with newly diagnosed Parkinson’s who experience motor symptoms that negatively impact their quality of life should be provided with levodopa.
Management of Parkinson’s Disease: Medications and Considerations
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized expertise in movement disorders for diagnosis and management. However, all healthcare professionals should be familiar with the medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease due to its prevalence. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2017 to aid in the management of Parkinson’s disease.
For first-line treatment, levodopa is recommended if motor symptoms are affecting the patient’s quality of life. If motor symptoms are not affecting the patient’s quality of life, dopamine agonists (non-ergot derived), levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors may be used. NICE provides tables to aid in decision-making regarding the use of these medications, taking into account their effects on motor symptoms, activities of daily living, motor complications, and adverse events.
If a patient continues to have symptoms despite optimal levodopa treatment or has developed dyskinesia, NICE recommends the addition of a dopamine agonist, MAO-B inhibitor, or catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitor as an adjunct. Other considerations in Parkinson’s disease management include the risk of acute akinesia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome if medication is not taken or absorbed, the potential for impulse control disorders with dopaminergic therapy, and the need to adjust medication if excessive daytime sleepiness or orthostatic hypotension develops.
Specific medications used in Parkinson’s disease management include levodopa, dopamine receptor agonists, MAO-B inhibitors, amantadine, COMT inhibitors, and antimuscarinics. Each medication has its own set of benefits and potential adverse effects, which should be carefully considered when selecting a treatment plan. Overall, the management of Parkinson’s disease requires a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual needs and circumstances of each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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Which of the following side-effects is not acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed sodium valproate?
Your Answer: Hepatitis
Correct Answer: Induction P450 system
Explanation:The P450 system is inhibited by sodium valproate.
Sodium Valproate: Uses and Adverse Effects
Sodium valproate is a medication commonly used to manage epilepsy, particularly for generalised seizures. Its mechanism of action involves increasing the activity of GABA in the brain. However, the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects, which can lead to neural tube defects and neurodevelopmental delays in children. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor.
Aside from its teratogenic effects, sodium valproate can also inhibit P450 enzymes, leading to gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, increased appetite, and weight gain. Other adverse effects include alopecia, ataxia, tremors, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, and hyperammonemic encephalopathy. In cases where hyperammonemic encephalopathy develops, L-carnitine may be used as a treatment option.
Overall, while sodium valproate can be an effective medication for managing epilepsy, its use should be carefully considered and monitored due to its potential adverse effects, particularly during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 94
Correct
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A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner for evaluation, and it is observed that he is experiencing behavioural issues. The GP recommends additional testing with a potential diagnosis of frontotemporal dementia (FTD) or Lewy body dementia (LBD) being considered.
What aspect of the patient's medical history would suggest that LBD is the more probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Fluctuating confusion and hallucination
Explanation:Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Frontotemporal Dementia and Lewy Body Dementia
Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) and Lewy body dementia (LBD) are two types of dementia that can cause a range of symptoms. Understanding the signs and symptoms of these conditions can help with early diagnosis and treatment.
Fluctuating confusion and hallucination are common signs of LBD, which is caused by protein deposits in nerve cells in the brain. People with LBD may also experience Parkinson’s disease symptoms such as rigid muscles and tremors. On the other hand, FTD is characterized by an insidious onset and a gradual progression. Personality changes, social-conduct problems, and a decline in judgment and empathy are common features of FTD.
While memory loss is a more prominent symptom in early Alzheimer’s, it can also occur in advanced stages of FTD and LBD. However, relatively preserved memory is more characteristic of FTD in its early stages. Additionally, FTD tends to have an onset before age 65, with some cases diagnosed in individuals as young as 17 years old.
Overall, recognizing the signs and symptoms of FTD and LBD can help with early diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of difficulty moving her eyes horizontally. She reports that this is more pronounced after she has been conversing.
What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Ocular Weakness: Myasthenia Gravis, Mononeuritis Multiplex, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, and Polymyositis
Ocular weakness can be caused by a variety of conditions, including myasthenia gravis (MG), mononeuritis multiplex, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), multiple sclerosis (MS), and polymyositis. MG is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, causing fatigable weakness of the periocular, facial, bulbar, and girdle muscles. Mononeuritis multiplex is a rare condition that involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, often caused by systemic disorders such as diabetes or granulomatosis with polyangiitis. GBS is an acute, post-infectious polyneuropathy that presents with progressive, ascending weakness, while MS is a chronic, immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the CNS that typically presents with relapsing-remitting disease and transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness. Polymyositis is a connective tissue disease that causes symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, often accompanied by dermatitis. Understanding the key features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 96
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents after collapsing at home. She has diplopia on right gaze, right-sided facial weakness and left flaccid hemiparesis.
Which of the following is the most likely site for her lesion?Your Answer: Right pons
Explanation:Lesions in different areas of the brainstem can cause specific neurological symptoms. A lesion in the right pons can result in left-sided weakness, right-sided facial paralysis, and double vision when looking towards the lesion. This is known as Millard-Gubler syndrome and is caused by a blockage in the penetrating branches of the basilar artery. A lesion in the right midbrain can affect cranial nerves III and IV, while a lesion in the left midbrain can cause contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral hypoglossal nerve palsy, and ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy. A lesion in the left pons can cause contralateral hemiparesis, ipsilateral lateral gaze palsy, and ipsilateral paralysis of the upper and lower face. Lesions in the cerebral hemisphere produce purely contralateral and upper motor neuron signs. The insertion site, cranial nerves, and skull base associated with each area of the brainstem are also important to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 97
Correct
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A middle-aged man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department. He appears disheveled, lethargic, and disoriented, and it is suspected that he has not had a meal in the past two days. The medical team decides to initiate chlordiazepoxide PRN and administer IV Pabrinex. Which specific vitamin, found in Pabrinex, can help halt the progression of symptoms leading to Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Your Answer: B1
Explanation:Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, or dietary deficiencies. The classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include peripheral sensory neuropathy and confusion.
When left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for this condition involves urgent replacement of thiamine. With prompt treatment, individuals with Wernicke’s encephalopathy can recover fully.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with permanent atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin. She has experienced two unprovoked tonic-clonic seizures witnessed by her husband. CT scan of the brain reveals diffuse ischaemic changes in the white matter. The specialist recommends starting her on an anti-epileptic medication.
What would be the most suitable anti-epileptic drug to prescribe for this patient who is also on warfarin therapy?Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Considerations for Anti-Epileptic Drugs and Warfarin Interaction
When prescribing anti-epileptic drugs to patients taking warfarin, it is important to consider potential drug interactions. Lamotrigine is a safe option as it has no effect on liver enzymes and does not interact significantly with warfarin. However, other anti-epileptic drugs such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, primidone, and phenobarbital can affect warfarin metabolism and effectiveness. Phenytoin and warfarin have a complex interaction that may initially increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, then decrease it with continued phenytoin use. Warfarin also increases the level of phenytoin. Carbamazepine is a P450 enzyme inducer, which decreases the level and effect of warfarin. Phenobarbital and primidone are also enzyme inducers that decrease warfarin effectiveness. Sodium valproate, on the other hand, is a liver enzyme inhibitor. Therefore, when considering anti-epileptic drugs for patients taking warfarin, it is important to weigh the potential drug interactions and choose the appropriate medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. What is the most probable psychiatric issue that he may experience?
Your Answer: Dementia
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Depression is a prevalent psychiatric issue in patients with Parkinson’s disease, with approximately 40% of individuals experiencing it, despite dementia being a common comorbidity.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that occurs when dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra degenerate. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other characteristic features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and micrographia. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. Around 2 hours ago he was allegedly assaulted outside of a bar. He was repeatedly punched in the head and has sustained some bruising around his eyes. His friends report that he is 'concussed' and say that he is confused. On examination his GCS is 14 (M6 V4 E4) and he has trouble explaining where he is. There are no focal neurological features. There is no past medical history of note. Tonight he has drunk around four pints of lager. What is the most appropriate management with regards to a possible head injury?
Your Answer: Admit for 12 hours of observation
Correct Answer: CT head scan within 1 hour
Explanation:According to the latest NICE guidelines, a CT head scan is necessary for this patient as their GCS remains below 15 after 2 hours.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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You assess a 27-year-old female patient who experiences intense, one-sided, pulsating headaches. These occur approximately once a month and are not associated with her menstrual cycle. Prior to the onset of the headache, she occasionally experiences momentary 'zig-zags' in her vision. She has no specific preference for treatment and seeks your guidance on the most effective approach to managing acute episodes. Which of the following options would be the most suitable initial treatment?
Your Answer: Oral triptan
Correct Answer: Oral triptan + oral NSAID
Explanation:Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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Migraine can be a debilitating condition that affects many people, but there is no one-size-fits-all solution for managing it. Which of the following is the best statement about migraine.
Your Answer: Headache may last from a few minutes to a number of days
Correct Answer: Over half of all patients have their first attack before the age of 20
Explanation:Understanding Migraines: Facts and Diagnostic Criteria
Migraines are a common neurological disorder that affects people of all ages. Here are some important facts to know about migraines:
– The first attack of migraine often occurs in childhood or teenage years, with over half of all patients experiencing their first attack before the age of 20.
– Migraine attacks can last for a few hours to several days, with the International Headache Society diagnostic criteria requiring at least five episodes of headache lasting 4-72 hours.
– While aura is estimated to accompany headache in only a quarter to a third of patients, over half of all patients experience aura before the headache.
– Migraine is classically described as a unilateral, pulsating headache, but subsequent migraines can affect the same side or be bilateral.
– The release of vasogenic amines from blood vessel walls, accompanied by pulsatile distension, is believed to be responsible for migrainous attacks.
– A good history is important in diagnosing migraines, as patients may self-diagnose and overlook other factors such as combined oral contraception.In summary, migraines are a complex neurological disorder that can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. Understanding the facts and diagnostic criteria can help with proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 103
Correct
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As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you are tasked with evaluating an 82-year-old man who has arrived with confusion. The patient has provided little history, but his wife reports that his condition has been deteriorating over the past week. He has also been unusually irritable and not acting like himself. The patient has abstained from alcohol for many years. He is responsive to voice and has an AMT score of 1. The patient appears dehydrated and emits a strong odor of urine. Although neurological examination is challenging, he has normal tone and reflexes, and his pupils are equal and reactive. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Delirium
Explanation:The man is experiencing acute confusion and impaired consciousness, which is indicative of delirium rather than dementia. The presence of dehydration and a smell of urine suggests a possible urinary tract infection as a trigger for the delirium. Korsakoff syndrome is unlikely as it is an amnestic disorder caused by thiamine deficiency associated with prolonged alcohol ingestion. The symptoms described are more likely to be mistaken for Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which can also cause confusion and altered consciousness. There is no evidence to suggest an acute psychotic episode. Treatment for Wernicke’s encephalopathy involves thiamine replacement.
Delirium vs. Dementia: Understanding the Differences
Delirium and dementia are two conditions that are often confused with each other. While both can cause confusion and cognitive impairment, there are some key differences between the two. Delirium is a sudden onset of confusion and disorientation, often accompanied by changes in consciousness and perception. Dementia, on the other hand, is a gradual decline in cognitive function that occurs over time.
Factors that can help distinguish delirium from dementia include the acute onset of symptoms, impairment of consciousness, fluctuation of symptoms (such as being worse at night or having periods of normality), abnormal perception (such as illusions and hallucinations), agitation, fear, and delusions. These symptoms are often more pronounced in delirium than in dementia.
It is important to understand the differences between delirium and dementia, as they require different approaches to treatment. Delirium is often reversible if the underlying cause can be identified and treated, while dementia is a progressive condition that cannot be cured.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 104
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention for worsening migraine symptoms. He is experiencing one debilitating migraine attack every two weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and only partially relieved by zolmitriptan. This has resulted in frequent work absences. His current medication regimen includes zolmitriptan, salbutamol, and Clenil. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for reducing the frequency of his migraine attacks?
Your Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:For the prophylaxis of migraines, NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol. However, propranolol is not suitable for this patient due to his asthma. As for acute treatment, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 105
Correct
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A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his colleagues 30 minutes after being hit in the head with a falling object at a construction site. He did not lose consciousness, has had no problems with memory before or after the injury, and has not had any seizures. Since the injury, he has vomited 3 times but does not currently feel nauseous. The patient has no past medical history. He is responsive to commands, is aware of his surroundings, and his eye movements are normal. There is no visible bruising or fluid discharge from the ear or nose. No delays in investigations are expected. What is the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Arrange CT head within 1 hour
Explanation:If a patient experiences more than one episode of vomiting following a head injury, it is necessary to arrange a CT head within one hour. This is because persistent vomiting can indicate the development of neurological complications, such as intracranial bleeds, which can initially present as vomiting. Although the patient in this scenario has a Glasgow coma score of 15 and no other neurological symptoms, the presence of multiple episodes of vomiting warrants urgent imaging. Admitting the patient and arranging neurological observations would not be appropriate unless there was equipment failure preventing the CT scan. Similarly, arranging a CT head within four or eight hours is not appropriate, as the recommended timeframe for imaging in cases of head injury is within one hour for patients with persistent vomiting.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 106
Correct
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A 75-year-old male has two episodes of weakness affecting the right arm and leg each lasting ten minutes, both within the space of 2 days. He did not attend the emergency department after the first episode. His only significant past medical history is hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine 5mg OD. He has experienced one similar episode to this one year ago, but did not seek medical attention. His son is present who informs you that the patient has lost a significant amount of weight in the last year. On further questioning, he reports some haemoptysis lately. His blood pressure in the department was 170/90 mmHg initially.
His bloods reveal:
Hb 115 g/l
Platelets 149 * 109/l
WBC 13.1 * 109/l
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 5.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 111 µmol/l
CRP 15 mg/l
ECG: Sinus tachycardia, rate 104/min
What is the most appropriate management for this gentleman?Your Answer: Admit for CT head + aspirin
Explanation:This question assesses the candidate’s understanding of TIA risk stratification. The individual meets the criteria for crescendo TIAs, having experienced two TIAs within a week. This necessitates prompt evaluation and imaging. Admission is recommended for any patient with a score of more than 4 on the ABCD2 scale or crescendo TIA.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman presents urgently to the hospital. She is 35 weeks pregnant and reports sudden onset of right-sided numbness and dysphasia. Initially, she experienced tingling in the right side of her face, which then spread to her right hand over a few minutes. Shortly after, she noticed difficulty finding words and her right arm felt clumsy. The entire episode resolved completely within 20-30 minutes. Upon arrival at the hospital, her neurological exam was normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Focal Onset Impaired Awareness Seizure
Correct Answer: Migraine aura without headache
Explanation:Migraine aura without headache is a condition where a person experiences the typical symptoms of a migraine aura, but without the accompanying headache. In some cases, a person may have multiple attacks with only an aura, while in rare cases, they may only experience the aura without a headache. To diagnose this condition, the International Headache Society requires the presence of one or more fully reversible aura symptoms, such as visual, sensory, speech and/or language, motor, brain stem, or retinal symptoms, along with at least two of the following characteristics: gradual spread of symptoms over more than 5 minutes, each symptom lasting between 5-60 minutes, and at least one symptom being unilateral. It can be difficult to distinguish an aura from a transient ischemic attack (TIA) in patients without a history of migraines, but the characteristic slow progression of symptoms is suggestive of migraine aura without headache. This condition is more commonly seen in patients with a previous history of migraines or a positive family history of migraines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 108
Correct
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A 50-year-old female with multiple sclerosis reports experiencing tingling in her hands when she flexes her neck. What type of symptom is this?
Your Answer: Lhermitte's sign
Explanation:Lhermitte’s sign is a well-known symptom that suggests the presence of an underlying condition in the cervical cord’s dorsal column nuclei. This sign is also observed in cases of subacute combined degeneration of the cord and cervical stenosis.
Multiple Sclerosis: Common Features and Diagnostic Criteria
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a disease that can present with various non-specific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis of MS can be made based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion together with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.
MS can affect different parts of the body, leading to a range of symptoms. Visual symptoms are common, with optic neuritis being a frequent presenting feature. Other visual symptoms include optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon (worsening of vision following a rise in body temperature), and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome (paraesthesiae in limbs on neck flexion). Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms such as ataxia and tremor may also occur.
In addition to these symptoms, MS can also cause urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration. It is important to note that not all patients with MS will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity and frequency of symptoms can vary widely between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 109
Correct
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For which condition is the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) a screening questionnaire?
Your Answer: Cognitive impairment
Explanation:The MMSE as a Screening Tool for Cognitive Impairment and Dementia
The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is a widely used screening tool for cognitive impairment and dementia. It assesses cognitive functioning and gives a score out of 30, which can be used to identify individuals who may require further investigation for dementia. However, the MMSE is sensitive to education, and individuals with limited education may have lower scores without cognitive impairment.
While the MMSE is a valuable screening tool for moderate and severe dementia, it cannot make a diagnosis of any type of dementia on its own. It detects cognitive impairment, not cognitive decline, which requires a history. Additionally, there is no reliable test that assesses mental illnesses as a whole.
Nevertheless, the MMSE has been used in many community studies of older people and has proved to be a valuable screening tool for various types of dementia, including vascular dementia. Overall, the MMSE is a useful tool for identifying cognitive impairment and potential dementia, but it should be used in conjunction with other assessments and evaluations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 110
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman presents to the Stroke Clinic for review after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). It is suspected that the patient’s TIA was caused by an issue with her carotid arteries.
A magnetic resonance angiogram (MRA) is requested followed by catheter angiography. The MRA shows a right internal carotid with narrowed eccentric lumen, surrounded by a crescent-shaped mural thrombus and thin annular enhancement. The catheter angiogram shows a ‘string sign’ in the right internal carotid.
What internal carotid abnormality is most likely the cause of this patient’s TIA?
Your Answer: Carotid-artery dissection
Explanation:Cervico-cerebral arterial dissections (CADs) are a common cause of strokes in younger patients, accounting for almost 20% of strokes in those under 45 years old. The majority of cases involve the extracranial internal carotid artery, while extracranial vertebral dissections make up about 15% of cases. A high level of suspicion is necessary to diagnose CAD, and confirmation can be obtained through various imaging techniques such as Doppler ultrasonography, magnetic resonance imaging/magnetic resonance angiography (MRA), computed tomography angiography (CTA), or catheter angiography. CTA can reveal several characteristic features of CAD, including an abnormal vessel contour, enlargement of the dissected artery, an intimal flap, and a dissecting aneurysm. The traditional method of diagnosing arterial dissections is catheter angiography, which typically shows a long segment of narrowed lumen known as the string sign. Other conditions such as carotid-artery pseudoaneurysm, carotid-artery aneurysm, carotid-artery occlusion, and carotid-artery stenosis can also be identified through imaging techniques, but they are not evident in this particular angiogram.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 111
Correct
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A 65-year-old man, who was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation but has not yet started any anticoagulant medication, presents with new-onset weakness on the left side of his body. He is also experiencing difficulty speaking and has lost vision on the left side. He contacts emergency services and is transported to the hospital where he undergoes an urgent CT head and MR angiogram. The results confirm a proximal anterior circulation occlusive stroke that occurred approximately 3 hours ago.
What is the most definitive course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Arrange thrombectomy AND thrombolysis as soon as possible
Explanation:For patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours, it is recommended to arrange both thrombolysis and thrombectomy as soon as possible. This is in line with NICE guidelines, which suggest offering both treatments to patients diagnosed with an acute proximal anterior circulation occlusive stroke confirmed on CT or MR angiogram. Thrombectomy alone can be offered up to 6 hours post-presentation. Giving a stat dose of aspirin is also part of the acute treatment of ischaemic stroke, but it is not a definitive treatment option. Starting apixaban for atrial fibrillation is not appropriate in the initial management of acute ischaemic stroke, as anticoagulant treatment is usually delayed for at least 2 weeks to reduce the risk of haemorrhagic transformation.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl has a 2-year history of progressive weakness, finding it more difficult to stand from a sitting position at home and climb stairs at school. She had measles when she was 3-years-old and received all her childhood immunisations as normal. Apparently, her maternal grandmother suffered from a similar condition but died in a car accident at the age of 28. On examination, the girl is of normal height and appearance. Cranial nerves and higher mental function are normal. She has normal tone and reflexes in her limbs, with weakness proximally in her arms and legs. On repeated stimulation, there is no change. Cranial nerve and sensory examinations are entirely normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy (LGMD)
Correct Answer: Becker’s muscular dystrophy
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from Becker’s muscular dystrophy, a milder form of the condition compared to Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). Both conditions are caused by mutations in the DMD gene, but Becker’s tends to present later in childhood or adolescence with slower progression of symptoms. The patient’s normal childhood development followed by slow onset of proximal weakness fits the typical picture of Becker’s. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy (LGMD) is a possibility, but less likely given the patient’s presentation. DMD is unlikely as it typically presents in early childhood with rapid progression of symptoms. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is characterized by weakness and wasting of the face, scapula, and upper arms, and would not typically present with gait disturbance or lower limb weakness in childhood. Myasthenia gravis is also unlikely given the patient’s history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of metastatic breast cancer experiences a grand mal seizure at home. She has been experiencing worsening headaches over the past few weeks. What is the most suitable initial management to be provided while awaiting brain imaging, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:It is probable that this female patient has cerebral metastases and the recommended initial treatment is administering high-dose dexamethasone to alleviate cerebral edema. Additionally, anti-epileptic medication like phenytoin may be prescribed to decrease the occurrence of seizures.
Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.
Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.
On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 114
Correct
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A 57-year-old man with no significant medical history is hospitalized after experiencing an ischemic stroke. He arrived outside of the thrombolysis window and is given aspirin for the first few days. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, fasting glucose is 5.6 mmol/l, and fasting cholesterol is 3.9 mmol/l. He makes a remarkable recovery and is discharged with almost all of his previous functions restored. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should he be prescribed upon discharge (i.e. after 14 days)?
Your Answer: Clopidogrel + statin
Explanation:The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 115
Correct
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A 54-year-old man with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of numbness in his hands and feet after a recent change in medication. Upon examination, he exhibits reduced sensation in a glove-and-stocking distribution and a decreased ankle reflex. Additionally, he has lymphadenopathy in the cervical and inguinal region and bleeding gums. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects
Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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In the differential diagnosis of cognitive decline, which of the following is the single most appropriate statement?
Your Answer: A multi-infarct aetiology is more common than the Alzheimer disease type
Correct Answer: In Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease an EEG may be characteristic
Explanation:Misconceptions about Dementia: Debunking Common Myths
Dementia is a complex and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about dementia that need to be debunked:
1. In Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease an EEG may be characteristic: An EEG is abnormal in approximately 90% of cases of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, showing characteristic changes (i.e. periodic sharp wave complexes).
2. A multi-infarct aetiology is more common than the Alzheimer disease type: Multi-infarct dementia is the second most common type of dementia in people aged over 65 years.
3. A CT scan will reliably distinguish between Alzheimer disease and multi-infarct dementia: The diagnosis of both AD and multi-infarct dementia remains essentially a clinical one (and can only be definitively confirmed at autopsy).
4. In Alzheimer disease a gait disorder is seen at an early stage: Gait disturbances are usually a late sign of AD.
5. Visual hallucinations are typical of Alzheimer’s disease: Visual hallucinations, often very vivid and colourful, are typical of dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) and Parkinson’s disease dementia (PDD), not of AD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 117
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with recent onset of left-sided weakness. She has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin, with an INR of 2.5 upon admission. A CT scan of her head reveals an intracerebral haemorrhage in the left basal ganglia. What steps should be taken regarding her warfarin medication?
Your Answer: Stop the warfarin, give 5mg of vitamin K intravenously and give prothrombin complex concentrate intravenously
Explanation:In the event of major bleeding, such as an intracranial haemorrhage, it is crucial to discontinue warfarin and administer intravenous vitamin K 5mg and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC). PCC is a solution that contains coagulation factors II, VII, IX and X, specifically designed to reverse the effects of warfarin. It is recommended over fresh frozen plasma (FFP) for warfarin reversal.
Management of High INR in Patients Taking Warfarin
When managing patients taking warfarin who have a high INR, the approach will depend on whether there is bleeding or not. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped immediately and intravenous vitamin K 5mg should be given along with prothrombin complex concentrate. If this is not available, fresh frozen plasma can be used instead. For minor bleeding, warfarin should also be stopped and intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg should be given. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, the dose of vitamin K can be repeated. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is below 5.0.
If there is no bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and vitamin K 1-5mg can be given orally using the intravenous preparation. The dose of vitamin K can be repeated if the INR remains high after 24 hours. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is below 5.0. In cases where the INR is between 5.0-8.0, warfarin should be stopped for minor bleeding and intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg should be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is below 5.0. For patients with no bleeding and an INR between 5.0-8.0, one or two doses of warfarin can be withheld and the subsequent maintenance dose can be reduced.
It is important to note that in cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered instead of fresh frozen plasma as it can take time to defrost. These guidelines are based on the recommendations of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology and the British National Formulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 118
Correct
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A 68-year-old man visits his GP after being urged by his son. He reports experiencing left-sided facial drooping four days ago, which he observed in the mirror. He did not seek medical attention at the time and was relieved to see that it disappeared on its own after approximately 40 minutes. He has not had any additional symptoms since then. Besides an immediate referral to specialist services, what should be done about drug treatment?
Your Answer: Aspirin 300mg
Explanation:If a patient is suspected of having a TIA and visits their GP within 7 days, they should receive immediate treatment with 300 mg aspirin and be referred to a specialist for review within 24 hours. NICE guidelines also suggest considering gastric protection with a PPI if necessary.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 119
Correct
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A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a dense left-sided hemiparesis that has been ongoing for 10 hours. A CT scan of the head reveals a hypodense area in the right middle cerebral artery territory, and he is admitted to the hyper-acute stroke unit for further treatment. He is given 300mg of aspirin. While in the hospital, an ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no p waves. The patient inquires about ways to decrease the risk of future strokes. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Start anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) after 2 weeks
Explanation:Managing Atrial Fibrillation Post-Stroke
Atrial fibrillation is a significant risk factor for ischaemic stroke, making it crucial to identify and treat the condition in patients who have suffered a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA). However, before starting any anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy, it is important to rule out haemorrhage. For long-term stroke prevention, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. The timing of when to start treatment depends on whether it is a TIA or stroke. In the case of a TIA, anticoagulation for AF should begin immediately after imaging has excluded haemorrhage. For acute stroke patients, anticoagulation therapy should be initiated after two weeks in the absence of haemorrhage. Antiplatelet therapy should be given during the intervening period. However, if imaging shows a very large cerebral infarction, the initiation of anticoagulation should be delayed.
Overall, managing atrial fibrillation post-stroke requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and imaging results. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent future strokes and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has, over the course of two days, developed weakness and numbness in his arms. He has no previous medical history of note apart from treated asthma. He smokes cigarettes ‘occasionally’. His father died of a ‘heart problem’ in his early 50s. On examination, the cranial nerves and lower limbs are normal to examination. There is an increased tone in his arms bilaterally, with brisk reflexes. Power is reduced to three-fifths in all modalities above the elbows. Vibration and joint position sense are normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Motor neurone disease (MND)
Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery thrombosis
Explanation:The anterior spinal artery supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord, causing anterior cord syndrome when there is ischaemia/infarct. This results in complete motor paralysis below the lesion, loss of pain/temperature sensation at and below the lesion, and some autonomic and bowel/bladder dysfunction. A lesion at the conus medullaris presents with back pain, saddle anaesthesia, urinary retention, faecal incontinence, lower limb weakness and numbness, and mixed UMN and LMN palsies. Friedreich’s ataxia presents with a slowly progressive gait ataxia, while MND is slowly progressive with combined UMN and LMN signs. Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord is due to vitamin B12 deficiency and has a subacute or gradual onset with degeneration of the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord. Syndrome and lesion affected presentations are summarized in a table.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after slipping on ice and falling backwards, hitting his head on the kerb and landing on his right arm. He did not lose consciousness and is currently feeling fine. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is taking bisoprolol and warfarin. His INR was 2.2 four days ago. There are no visible injuries to his arm or scalp. What is the best course of action for his head injury?
Your Answer: Admit for 24 hours of observation
Correct Answer: Arrange a CT head scan to be performed within 8 hours
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 122
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents with sudden-onset back pain radiating down to his feet. He reports weakness in his legs and a tingling sensation around his scrotum. He has experienced urinary incontinence a few times today. Upon examination, he displays decreased power, tone, and sensation in both legs and absent ankle reflexes.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cauda equina syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Back Pain with Neurological Symptoms
Back pain with neurological symptoms can be a sign of various conditions. Here are some of the differential diagnoses to consider:
Cauda Equina Syndrome
This condition occurs when the lumbar and sacral nerve roots are compressed, leading to bilateral sciatica, neurological deficit in the legs, urinary retention or incontinence, faecal incontinence, and saddle paraesthesia. It is an emergency that requires prompt treatment to prevent irreversible damage to the spinal nerves.Guillain–Barré Syndrome (GBS)
GBS is a rare acute polyneuropathy that causes gradually worsening, ascending muscle weakness, usually starting in the legs and potentially affecting respiratory function. It rarely presents with sensory symptoms, making it an unlikely diagnosis for a patient with acute back pain and sciatica.Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
MS is a chronic inflammatory condition of the central nervous system that leads to demyelination. Patients may present with various neurological symptoms, such as visual disturbance, sensory loss, limb weakness, or urinary symptoms. However, sudden onset of back pain is not a typical feature of MS.Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Spinal Cord
This rare condition is caused by untreated vitamin B12 deficiency and presents with gradually developing symptoms, such as unsteadiness, leg weakness, sensory or visual disturbances, and memory problems. However, lower motor-neurone signs in the legs and acute back pain are not typical features of subacute spinal cord degeneration.Urinary-Tract Infection (UTI)
An upper UTI (pyelonephritis) may cause back or loin pain, rigors, vomiting, and urinary symptoms, such as dysuria, increased urinary frequency, or incontinence. However, bilateral sciatica and lower motor-neurone signs are not typical features of a UTI. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 123
Correct
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A 62-year-old man is being evaluated for cognitive impairment with concerns about a movement disorder. As part of his evaluation, he undergoes cross-sectional brain imaging and a dopamine Transporter Scan (DaTscan). The results show reduced dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra bilaterally on the DaTscan and age-related changes on the MRI head. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Neurodegenerative Disorders: A Comparison of Parkinson’s Disease, Alzheimer’s Dementia, Frontotemporal Dementia, Huntington’s Disease, and Vascular Dementia
Neurodegenerative disorders can be difficult to differentiate due to overlapping symptoms. Parkinson’s disease, for example, involves the death of neurones in the substantia nigra and is often confirmed through the use of DaTscan, which visualises dopamine transporter levels in the brain. Dementia is a common complication of Parkinson’s disease, affecting 20-40% of patients and causing cognitive, mood, and behavioural changes.
Alzheimer’s dementia, on the other hand, is characterised by cortical atrophy visible on CT and MRI scans and is not typically associated with movement disorders. Frontotemporal dementia primarily affects behaviour and language and is also not typically associated with movement disorders.
Huntington’s disease is another basal ganglia disorder, but it primarily involves cell loss in the striatum, leading to chorea – uncontrollable limb movements. CT and MRI scans can show loss of striatal volume in moderate-to-severe cases, but early scans may appear normal.
Vascular dementia, the second most common cause of dementia after Alzheimer’s, often has a history of cerebral vascular disease and is not typically associated with movement disorders. Understanding the unique characteristics of each neurodegenerative disorder is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 124
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a two-month history of neck and right arm pain, which is exacerbated by neck flexion. She has a medical history of knee osteoarthritis, obesity, and depression. Upon examination, there is no apparent muscle weakness or atrophy in the right arm, but there is some sensory loss in the middle finger and palm of the hand. Which nerve root is most likely to be affected by the impingement?
Your Answer: C7
Explanation:Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics
Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed, along with helpful mnemonics to remember them.
Starting from the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt. C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of the thumb and index finger together.
Moving down to C7, it covers the middle finger and palm of the hand. C8 covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome covers the area of the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. T6 covers the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.
The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, which can be remembered by thinking of L for ligament, 1 for 1nguinal. L4 covers the knee caps, and to remember this, think of being down on all fours. L5 covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), and can be remembered by thinking of it as the largest of the five toes. Finally, the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe, while S2 and S3 cover the genitalia.
Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in remembering these important landmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 125
Correct
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A 53-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of left-sided arm and facial weakness that started while he was watching TV for 5 hours. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia. Upon examination, there is a significant motor weakness in his left arm with no effortful muscle contractions. Sensation to pain and light touch is reduced, and he has a left-sided facial droop. A CT scan of his head shows a hypodense lesion in the area of the right anterior cerebral artery. What is the recommended definitive treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Thrombectomy
Explanation:The recommended target time for thrombectomy in acute ischaemic stroke is within 6 hours of symptom onset.
Thrombectomy is the preferred treatment for this patient who has presented with symptoms of left-sided paralysis and paraesthesia, along with vascular risk factors and confirmatory CT imaging indicating an ischaemic stroke. While aspirin may be given initially, thrombectomy is the most definitive treatment option within the 6-hour timeframe. Clopidogrel is used for secondary prevention, and thrombolysis is only indicated within 4.5 hours of symptom onset, making them incorrect choices for this patient.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 126
Correct
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A 68-year-old man who has recently had a stroke is here for a follow-up appointment. He explains that he was watching a game with his son when he suddenly lost feeling on the left side of his body. Emergency services were called and he was taken to the hospital where a CT scan confirmed a right-sided ischemic stroke. He has no other medical history. What antiplatelet medication should he be prescribed after the stroke?
Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg daily for 2 weeks then clopidogrel 75 mg daily lifelong
Explanation:After a stroke, all patients should receive an antiplatelet medication, unless they require an anticoagulant. As per NICE guidelines, individuals with confirmed ischaemic stroke through brain imaging should be given 300 mg of aspirin daily for two weeks. Afterward, long-term treatment with 75 mg of clopidogrel is recommended, provided it is well-tolerated and not contraindicated. If clopidogrel is not suitable, modified-release dipyridamole with low-dose aspirin should be administered.
Latest Guidance on Antiplatelets
Antiplatelets are medications that prevent blood clots from forming by inhibiting platelet aggregation. The most recent guidelines recommend different antiplatelet regimens depending on the diagnosis. For acute coronary syndrome, aspirin and ticagrelor are recommended for 12 months, followed by lifelong aspirin and clopidogrel if aspirin is contraindicated. For percutaneous coronary intervention, lifelong aspirin and prasugrel or ticagrelor for 12 months are recommended, with lifelong clopidogrel if aspirin is contraindicated. For TIA and ischaemic stroke, lifelong clopidogrel is recommended as first-line treatment, with lifelong aspirin and dipyridamole as second-line treatment. For peripheral arterial disease, lifelong clopidogrel is recommended as first-line treatment, with lifelong aspirin as second-line treatment. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 127
Correct
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A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of pain in his foot and lower limb that worsens at night. He reports that the pain alleviates when he dangles his leg over the bed's edge. Upon further inquiry, he mentions experiencing 'pins and needles' in his fingers, which feel cold. The patient has no medical history but is a heavy smoker, consuming 25 cigarettes per day. What is the probable diagnosis based on the given information?
Your Answer: Buerger's disease
Explanation:Buerger’s disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) is the likely diagnosis for a young male smoker experiencing symptoms similar to limb ischaemia. This non-atherosclerotic vasculitis primarily affects medium-sized arteries and is most common in young male smokers. Symptoms include cold sensation or paraesthesia in the limbs or fingers, rest pain, and possible ulceration or gangrene. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis and peripheral vascular disease are important differentials to consider, but unlikely in this case. Sickle cell anaemia and vitamin B12 deficiency are also less likely explanations for the symptoms.
Understanding Buerger’s Disease
Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a type of vasculitis that affects the small and medium-sized blood vessels. This condition is strongly linked to smoking and can cause a range of symptoms, including extremity ischemia, intermittent claudication, ischaemic ulcers, superficial thrombophlebitis, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Individuals with Buerger’s disease may experience reduced blood flow to their limbs, which can lead to pain, numbness, and tingling sensations. This can make it difficult to walk or perform other activities, and may even result in the development of ulcers or sores on the skin.
Superficial thrombophlebitis, or inflammation of the veins close to the surface of the skin, is another common symptom of Buerger’s disease. This can cause redness, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area.
Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in the fingers and toes, is also associated with Buerger’s disease. This can cause the affected areas to turn white or blue and feel cold and numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old girl presented at the age of 5 years with progressive ataxia. She is now wheelchair-bound. On examination, she is now dysarthric, with bilateral optic atrophy. There is ataxia in both upper limbs. Reflexes in her lower limbs are absent, with bilateral extensor plantar response. She has absent vibration and impaired joint position in both feet. Bilateral pes cavus is apparent. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows inverted T waves. Echocardiogram reveals left ventricular hypertrophy.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis (MS)
Correct Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia
Explanation:Friedreich’s ataxia is a common inherited progressive ataxia in the UK that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. The earliest symptom is gait ataxia, followed by limb ataxia, absent lower limb reflexes, and later weakness and wasting of the limbs. Other common features include reduced or absent vibration sense and proprioception, spasticity, dysarthria, dysphagia, cardiac abnormalities, scoliosis, pes cavus, equinovarus, sleep apnea, and urinary frequency/urgency. The history is classic for this condition, and the ECG may show left ventricular hypertrophy. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, Huntington’s disease, and multiple sclerosis are not consistent with this history, while vitamin B12 deficiency may cause similar symptoms but is generally a condition of adults and does not fit the clinical picture as well as Friedreich’s ataxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 129
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to the memory clinic with a history of cognitive decline over the past 10 months. His wife reports that he is struggling with basic tasks and becoming increasingly forgetful and confused. She has also noticed a change in his personality, including more frequent swearing and inappropriate behavior such as answering the door naked. Interestingly, his mother had a similar reputation in her later years. The patient reports smoking 20 cigarettes per day and drinking one glass of wine each evening. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from frontotemporal dementia, which is also known as Pick’s disease. This type of dementia is characterized by a change in personality and social disinhibition, and it often has a positive family history. In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease typically presents with a decline in episodic memory and visuospatial awareness, while Lewy body dementia is characterized by fluctuating confusion and hallucinations. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare condition that causes rapid neurodegeneration and may present with cognitive decline and personality changes, as well as additional symptoms such as abnormal movements and loss of coordination.
Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia. Common features of frontotemporal lobar dementias include onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems.
Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease. Macroscopic changes seen in Pick’s disease include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. Microscopic changes include Pick bodies, spherical aggregations of tau protein (silver-staining), gliosis, neurofibrillary tangles, and senile plaques.
In contrast, CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, with short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.
In terms of management, NICE does not recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 130
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the Eye Hospital Emergency Department with a 4-day history of blurred vision and left-eye pain worse on movement. On examination, there is decreased visual acuity and impaired colour vision in the left eye and a left relative afferent pupillary defect. Fundoscopy reveals a mildly swollen left optic disc. Intraocular pressure is 20 mmHg in the left eye. Her past medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Optic neuritis
Explanation:Understanding Optic Neuritis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be either idiopathic or secondary to multiple sclerosis. Patients with optic neuritis typically experience periocular pain associated with eye movement, as well as a loss of color vision. Visual field defects, such as a central scotoma, can also occur. If the other eye is uninvolved, there is typically a relative afferent pupillary defect.
It is important to differentiate optic neuritis from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms. A stroke, for example, would not typically cause eye pain or affect color vision. Acute-angle-closure glaucoma can also be ruled out if intraocular pressure is within the normal range. Cerebral venous thrombosis would usually cause sudden painless loss of vision with severe retinal hemorrhages on fundoscopy. In cases of raised intracranial pressure, papilledema would be seen in both optic discs.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of optic neuritis is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is referred to the general medical clinic with a history of about 10 attacks of pins and needles in her right arm and leg over a period of 4 weeks. Her GP is concerned that this patient will soon have a completed stroke despite already being on aspirin. Typical attacks lasted for about 5 min and there were no additional symptoms. On closer enquiry she said that the sensation started in her right foot and then, over a period of about 1 min, spread ‘like water running up my leg’ to involve her whole leg and arm. Each attack was identical. Her past medical history includes hypertension and diabetes, for which she already takes aspirin. There are no abnormalities on neurological examination, but her blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: TIAs affecting the right hemisphere
Correct Answer: Partial epileptic seizure affecting the right hemisphere
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Recurrent Neurological Symptoms
Recurrent neurological symptoms can be caused by a variety of conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause. In the case of a patient experiencing march-like progression of symptoms affecting the left side of the body, several possibilities must be considered.
A partial epileptic seizure affecting the right hemisphere is a likely cause, as the positive sensory symptoms and stereotyped nature of the episodes are typical of epilepsy. The rapid progression of symptoms over seconds to a minute is also characteristic of seizure activity.
Transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs) affecting the right hemisphere are less likely, as the march-like progression of symptoms and positive sensory symptoms are not typical of a vascular cause. TIAs are more likely to present with loss of sensation rather than abnormal sensations.
Recurrent, deep, white-matter microhaemorrhages are a possibility due to the patient’s risk factors, but the stereotyped nature of the attacks and positive sensory symptoms make this diagnosis less likely. Microhaemorrhages would typically present with numbness affecting the entire left side at onset.
Migraine equivalent is a rare possibility, but the rapid progression of symptoms and frequency of episodes make this diagnosis unlikely. Migraine aura without headache typically spreads over 20-30 minutes and is more common in patients with a history of previous migraine.
Cerebral venous thrombosis is also unlikely, as the absence of headache makes this diagnosis less probable. CVT typically presents with headache and other neurological symptoms.
In conclusion, the positive sensory features, stereotyped nature, and march of symptoms suggest epilepsy as the most likely cause of the patient’s recurrent neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 132
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a headache that she describes as worsening over the past three weeks. She reports that the headache wakes her during the night, and is worse when she coughs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Brain tumour
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a headache caused by increased pressure within the skull, which is often associated with a space-occupying lesion such as a brain tumor. This type of headache is typically worse in the morning and aggravated by bending forward, coughing, or sneezing. As the tumor grows, other symptoms such as vomiting, seizures, and neurological deficits may develop. Brain tumors can be primary or metastatic, with the most common types being astrocytoma, glioblastoma, oligodendroglioma, ependymoma, meningioma, and primary CNS lymphoma.
The patient’s history does not support a diagnosis of giant cell arteritis, which typically affects individuals over 50 years old and presents with an abrupt-onset headache, scalp tenderness, jaw pain, visual disturbances, and constitutional symptoms such as fever and weight loss. The diagnosis of GCA requires specific criteria, including age at onset, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and abnormal artery biopsy.
The patient’s symptoms are also not consistent with cluster headaches, which typically affect younger males and present with severe, unilateral pain around the eye, accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion. Cluster headaches have a circadian pattern and occur in episodes, followed by symptom-free periods.
Migraine is another type of headache that is not likely in this case, as the patient’s symptoms do not fit the typical pattern of unilateral, pulsating pain lasting 4-72 hours, accompanied by nausea/vomiting and photophobia.
Finally, subarachnoid hemorrhage is a medical emergency that presents with a sudden, severe headache, often described as the worst headache of one’s life, along with other symptoms such as vomiting, loss of consciousness, seizures, and neurological deficits. However, the patient’s headache has been progressing over weeks, which is not consistent with SAH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 133
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner with his daughter. She reports that her father’s behavior has changed over the past year. He used to be a very sociable and outgoing man but recently he has become withdrawn and uninterested in his hobbies. He has also become forgetful and has difficulty completing tasks that he used to do easily. The patient tells you that he does not think there is anything wrong with him and he is just getting older.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Dementia: A Brief Overview
Dementia is a broad term used to describe a decline in cognitive function that interferes with daily activities. However, there are different types of dementia, each with unique characteristics. Here are some key features to help differentiate between frontotemporal dementia, Alzheimer’s disease, Huntington’s disease, normal-pressure hydrocephalus (NPH), and Parkinson’s disease.
Frontotemporal Dementia
This type of dementia is rare and typically affects individuals between the ages of 55 and 65. Early personality and behavior changes are core symptoms, while memory impairment is not typical. Other key features include a gradual progression, decline in social conduct, emotional blunting, and loss of insight.Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, affecting individuals over the age of 65. Memory loss is a key early symptom, followed by agitation and obsessive behavior later in the disease course.Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a neurodegenerative condition that is often inherited. Symptoms include memory impairment, depression, clumsiness, mood swings, and difficulty concentrating. However, this patient’s symptoms are more consistent with early frontotemporal dementia.Normal-Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)
NPH is a reversible cause of dementia characterized by gait abnormality, memory impairment, and incontinence. It may be mistaken for Parkinson’s disease, but symptoms will not improve with levodopa.Parkinson’s Disease
While dementia and hallucinations may develop during the course of Parkinson’s disease, it is primarily a movement disorder characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 134
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of progressive slurred speech over the past few months. He is embarrassed because he frequently gives presentations for work and some people have joked that he sounds drunk. Upon examination, there is no droop or drooling in his head and face, but he struggles to articulate certain phrases and has difficulty swallowing. His tongue also appears to fasciculate when he sticks it out. In addition, there is mild weakness and hypotonia in his limbs, but his knees and ankles have slight hyperreflexia. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Motor neurone disease
Explanation:The presence of fasciculations, along with upper and lower motor neurone signs, strongly suggests motor neuron disease as the underlying condition. The patient’s difficulty with speech and swallowing may be due to bulbar palsy, which is commonly associated with this disease. A stroke, which typically presents with sudden onset of symptoms, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s progressive symptoms over weeks or months. While a cerebellar tumour may cause slurred speech, it would typically be accompanied by other symptoms such as ataxia, vertigo, and difficulty with basic movements. Multiple sclerosis is an uncommon diagnosis in late-middle-aged men and is an upper motor neurone disease, whereas this patient has a combination of upper and lower motor neurone signs. There is no evidence of tremor or bradykinesia in this case.
Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.
Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.
Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 135
Correct
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A 70-year-old female presents with hypothenar eminence wasting and sensory loss in the little finger. What is the probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:The Ulnar Nerve: Overview, Branches, and Patterns of Damage
The ulnar nerve is a nerve that arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 spinal nerves. It provides motor innervation to several muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. It also provides sensory innervation to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects.
The ulnar nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm before entering the palm of the hand via the Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone. The nerve has several branches, including the muscular branch, palmar cutaneous branch, dorsal cutaneous branch, superficial branch, and deep branch. These branches supply various muscles and skin areas in the hand.
Damage to the ulnar nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow. When damaged at the wrist, it can result in a claw hand deformity, which involves hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals) and hypothenar muscles, as well as sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers. When damaged at the elbow, the same symptoms may occur, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to note that in distal lesions, the clawing may be more severe, which is known as the ulnar paradox.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 136
Correct
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A 24-year-old man presents to his GP with right-sided facial weakness. He complains of weakness on the right side of his face, especially when smiling or chewing. He also reports occasional twitching of his right cheek, which started 3 days ago after a flu-like illness. However, he notes that it is already starting to improve.
During examination, the GP observes mild impairment of the facial muscles on the entire right side of the patient's face, including his forehead. Otoscopy is normal, and examination of the eye is unremarkable. The rest of the cranial nerve exam and upper limb neurological exam is normal.
What is the recommended management for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Oral prednisolone and artificial tears
Explanation:Patients with Bell’s palsy should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset, regardless of the severity of their symptoms or any improvement since onset. This is important to differentiate Bell’s palsy from other conditions such as cerebral events and Ramsay-Hunt syndrome. Eye protection with lid taping or lubricating eye drops should also be considered. Therefore, the correct answer is oral prednisolone and artificial tears. Oral aciclovir alone is not sufficient as it does not provide steroids or eye protection. Reassurance only and advice to return if symptoms persist after 2 weeks is not appropriate as treatment should be offered within the 72-hour window. Urgent referral to ENT is not necessary as the diagnosis can be made and managed in primary care, but non-urgent referral may be necessary in severe or prolonged cases or where the diagnosis is unclear.
Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 137
Correct
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Which of the following factors indicates true seizures rather than pseudoseizures with the highest certainty?
Your Answer: Tongue biting
Explanation:Understanding Psychogenic Non-Epileptic Seizures
Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures, also known as pseudoseizures, are a type of seizure that is not caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Instead, they are believed to be caused by psychological factors such as stress, trauma, or anxiety. These seizures can be difficult to diagnose as they often mimic true epileptic seizures, but there are certain factors that can help differentiate between the two.
Factors that may indicate pseudoseizures include pelvic thrusting, a family history of epilepsy, a higher incidence in females, crying after the seizure, and the seizures not occurring when the individual is alone. On the other hand, factors that may indicate true epileptic seizures include tongue biting and a raised serum prolactin level.
Video telemetry is a useful tool for differentiating between the two types of seizures. It involves monitoring the individual’s brain activity and behavior during a seizure, which can help determine whether it is caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain or psychological factors.
It is important to accurately diagnose and treat psychogenic non-epileptic seizures as they can have a significant impact on an individual’s quality of life. Treatment may involve therapy to address underlying psychological factors, as well as medication to manage any associated symptoms such as anxiety or depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 138
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A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department at 3am complaining of an excruciating one-sided headache. He reports the pain is unbearable and situated behind his right eye. During the examination, his right eye appears red and watery, with a small pupil, and the patient seems restless. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he has been experiencing these headaches every night for a few weeks. What medication can be administered for long-term prevention of these headaches?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil is utilized to prevent cluster headaches in the long term, while sumatriptan is employed as an immediate rescue therapy in conjunction with high-flow oxygen. It is important to carefully read the question to ensure the correct medication is selected. Propranolol is used for migraine prevention, while sertraline, an SSRI, is used to treat depression and has a similar mechanism of action to sumatriptan.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain typically occurs once or twice a day, lasting between 15 minutes to 2 hours. The pain is intense and sharp, usually around one eye, and is accompanied by redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, and nasal stuffiness. Some patients may also experience miosis and ptosis.
To manage cluster headaches, 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan can be used for acute treatment, with response rates of 80% and 75% respectively within 15 minutes. Verapamil is the drug of choice for prophylaxis, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches, especially with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 139
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting several strange experiences. She explains feeling as though her environment is not real, almost like a dream. Additionally, she has been informed that she begins to smack her lips, although she has no memory of doing so. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Focal impaired awareness seizure
Explanation:Focal aware seizures do not affect consciousness or awareness, and may involve automatic, repetitive actions such as lip smacking.
Epilepsy is classified based on three key features: where seizures begin in the brain, level of awareness during a seizure, and other features of seizures. Focal seizures, previously known as partial seizures, start in a specific area on one side of the brain. The level of awareness can vary in focal seizures, and they can be further classified as focal aware, focal impaired awareness, or awareness unknown. Focal seizures can also be motor, non-motor, or have other features such as aura. Generalized seizures involve networks on both sides of the brain at the onset, and consciousness is lost immediately. They can be further subdivided into motor and non-motor types. Unknown onset is used when the origin of the seizure is unknown. Focal to bilateral seizures start on one side of the brain in a specific area before spreading to both lobes and were previously known as secondary generalized seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 140
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Sophie is a 30-year-old female who presents with a 3 day history of muscle weakness and pins and needles in both her feet which has now started to spread up into her legs. She reports having a stomach bug 3 weeks ago.
During examination, Sophie is apyrexial. There is reduced tone in both lower limbs with reduced knee jerk reflexes and altered sensation. However, upper limb neurological examination is unremarkable.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome
Explanation:Stephen’s symptoms of progressive peripheral polyneuropathy and hyporeflexia strongly suggest Guillain-Barre syndrome, likely triggered by a recent gastrointestinal infection. Myasthenia gravis, on the other hand, presents with muscle fatigue and ocular manifestations, but normal tone, sensation, and reflexes. Polymyositis causes proximal muscle weakness, while acute transverse myelitis presents with paralysis of both legs, sensory loss, and bladder/bowel dysfunction. However, Stephen’s lack of bladder/bowel dysfunction and back pain, as well as the history of gastrointestinal infection, make Guillain-Barre syndrome the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.
Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.
To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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