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Question 1
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department. He appears disheveled, lethargic, and disoriented, and it is suspected that he has not had a meal in the past two days. The medical team decides to initiate chlordiazepoxide PRN and administer IV Pabrinex. Which specific vitamin, found in Pabrinex, can help halt the progression of symptoms leading to Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Your Answer: B6
Correct Answer: B1
Explanation:Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, or dietary deficiencies. The classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include peripheral sensory neuropathy and confusion.
When left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for this condition involves urgent replacement of thiamine. With prompt treatment, individuals with Wernicke’s encephalopathy can recover fully.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman is referred to the medical team from the orthopaedic ward. She underwent a right total-hip replacement six days ago. She is known to have mild COPD and is on regular inhaled steroids and a short-acting b2 agonist. She now complains of left-sided chest pain and is also dyspnoeic. Your clinical diagnosis is pulmonary embolism (PE).
Which of the following is usually NOT a feature of PE in this patient?Your Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Symptoms and Signs of Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that can be life-threatening. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of PE to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment. Here are some of the common symptoms and signs of PE:
Dyspnoea: This is the most common symptom of PE, present in about 75% of patients. Dyspnoea can occur at rest or on exertion.
Tachypnoea: This is defined as a respiratory rate of more than 20 breaths per minute and is present in about 55% of patients with PE.
Tachycardia: This is present in about 25% of cases of PE. It is important to note that a transition from tachycardia to bradycardia may suggest the development of right ventricular strain and potentially cardiogenic shock.
New-onset atrial fibrillation: This is a less common feature of PE, occurring in less than 10% of cases. Atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation, and premature beats should alert the doctor to possible right-heart strain.
Bradycardia: This is not a classic feature of PE. However, if a patient with PE transitions from tachycardia to bradycardia, it may suggest the development of right ventricular strain and potentially cardiogenic shock.
In summary, dyspnoea, tachypnoea, tachycardia, and new-onset atrial fibrillation are some of the common symptoms and signs of PE. It is important to have a high level of suspicion for PE, especially in high-risk patients, to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman goes to her first prenatal appointment and is found to have a urinary tract infection based on a urine dipstick test. Despite being asymptomatic, which antibiotic should she steer clear of during the first trimester of pregnancy?
Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Urinary tract infections in pregnancy should be treated to prevent pyelonephritis. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester due to teratogenicity risk. Erythromycin is not typically used for UTIs and nitrofurantoin should be avoided close to full term. Sulfonamides and quinolones should also be avoided in pregnancy.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is in week 32 of her pregnancy. She has been experiencing itching for two weeks and is worried. She now has mild jaundice. Her total bilirubin level is elevated at around 85 μmol/l (reference range <20 μmol/), and her alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level is elevated at 78 iu/l (reference range 20–60 iu/l); her alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level is significantly elevated. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: HELLP syndrome
Correct Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Liver Disorders in Pregnancy
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP), hyperemesis gravidarum, cholecystitis, acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP), and HELLP syndrome are all potential liver disorders that can occur during pregnancy.
ICP is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder and is characterised by generalised itching, jaundice, and elevated total serum bile acid levels. Maternal outcomes are good, but fetal outcomes can be devastating.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterised by persistent nausea and vomiting associated with ketosis and weight loss. Elevated transaminase levels may occur, but significantly elevated liver enzymes would suggest an alternative aetiology.
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly due to gallstones. The most common presenting symptom is upper abdominal pain, which localises to the right upper quadrant.
AFLP is characterised by microvesicular steatosis in the liver and can present with malaise, nausea and vomiting, right upper quadrant and epigastric pain, and acute renal failure. Both AST and ALT levels can be elevated, and hypoglycaemia is common.
HELLP syndrome is a life-threatening condition that can potentially complicate pregnancy and is characterised by haemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels. Symptoms are non-specific and include malaise, nausea and vomiting, and weight gain. A normal platelet count and no evidence of haemolysis are not consistent with a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.
Early recognition, treatment, and timely delivery are imperative for all of these liver disorders in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the hospital with a flare-up of his condition. He has been experiencing up to five bloody stools per day for the past three days, and has developed abdominal pain and a low-grade fever in the last 24 hours. His blood work shows the following results:
- Hemoglobin: 13.9 g/dL
- Platelets: 422 * 10^9/L
- White blood cells: 10.1 * 10^9/L
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 88 mm/hr
- C-reactive protein: 198 mg/L
What is the most crucial investigation to conduct next?Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Correct Answer: Abdominal x-ray
Explanation:It is possible that this individual has developed toxic megacolon, which is characterized by a transverse colon diameter exceeding 6 cm and accompanying symptoms of systemic distress. Treatment for toxic megacolon typically involves intensive medical intervention for a period of 24-72 hours. If there is no improvement in the patient’s condition during this time, a colectomy may be necessary.
Understanding Ulcerative Colitis Flares
Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can cause flares or periods of worsening symptoms. While most flares occur without a clear trigger, there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and even quitting smoking.
Flares of ulcerative colitis can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the frequency and severity of symptoms. Mild flares may involve fewer than four stools a day with or without blood, while moderate flares may include four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares, on the other hand, may involve more than six stools a day containing blood, as well as evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, and hypoalbuminemia.
Patients with evidence of severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for close monitoring and treatment. Understanding the triggers and symptoms of ulcerative colitis flares can help patients manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 6
Correct
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You are called to attend a premature delivery. The neonate is born at 34 weeks gestation via emergency Caesarean section. The neonate is having trouble starting to breathe and needs resuscitation. They are dyspnoeic and tachypnoeic at a rate of 85 breaths/min. Upon listening to the chest, there is decreased breath sounds on both sides. Heart sounds are displaced towards the middle. The abdominal wall looks sunken. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Explanation:The appearance of a scaphoid abdomen is a common presentation of congenital diaphragmatic hernia, which occurs when abdominal contents protrude into the chest cavity. This condition can cause breathing difficulties and rapid breathing in newborns. The characteristic auscultation findings are caused by underdeveloped lungs and compression due to the presence of abdominal organs in the chest. Immediate medical attention and respiratory support are necessary. It is important to note that this specific concave abdominal appearance is not seen in any other conditions mentioned.
Understanding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) is a rare condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,000 newborns. It occurs when the diaphragm, a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, fails to form completely during fetal development. As a result, abdominal organs can move into the chest cavity, which can lead to underdeveloped lungs and high blood pressure in the lungs. This can cause respiratory distress shortly after birth.
The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia, which accounts for about 85% of cases. This type of hernia occurs when the pleuroperitoneal canal, a structure that connects the chest and abdominal cavities during fetal development, fails to close properly.
Despite advances in medical treatment, only about 50% of newborns with CDH survive. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes. Treatment may involve surgery to repair the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs back into their proper position. In some cases, a ventilator or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) may be necessary to support breathing until the lungs can function properly. Ongoing care and monitoring are also important to manage any long-term complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 7-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, bloody stool and pain during defecation. She denies any recent travel and has not experienced any vomiting episodes.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Salmonella infection
Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea
Explanation:Sexually Transmitted Infections: Differential Diagnosis
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common cause of morbidity worldwide. When evaluating a patient with symptoms suggestive of an STI, it is important to consider a broad differential diagnosis. Here are some common STIs and their clinical presentations:
Gonorrhoea: This is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A diagnosis can be made by identifying typical Gram-negative intracellular diplococci after a Gram stain.
Crohn’s disease: This is an inflammatory bowel disease that presents with prolonged diarrhea, abdominal pain, anorexia, and weight loss. It is not consistent with a typical STI presentation.
Candidiasis: This is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida. It is associated with balanitis, presenting with penile pruritus and whitish patches on the penis.
Salmonella infection: This is often transmitted orally via contaminated food or beverages. Symptoms include a severe non-specific febrile illness, which can be confused with typhoid fever. There is nothing in this clinical scenario to suggest Salmonella infection.
Chancroid: This is a bacterial STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It is characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy.
In summary, a thorough differential diagnosis is important when evaluating patients with symptoms suggestive of an STI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Correct
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A 45-year-old businessman presents to the Emergency Department with his second episode of epistaxis in a 24 hour period. On each occasion, the nosebleeds stopped with pressure applied just below the nasal bridge, but the most recent bleed went on for 30 minutes. He has hypertension, for which he takes medication regularly. He also admits to smoking a pack of cigarettes per day and drinking 10-15 units of alcohol each week. There is no history of trauma. He is worried about the problem affecting his work, as he has an important meeting the following day.
On examination, he looks well and is not pale, and his blood pressure and pulse are within normal limits. He is peripherally well perfused. On inspection of the nasal vestibule, there are prominent blood vessels visible on the right side of the nasal septum, with a small amount of clotted blood also present.
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Cauterise the bleeding point using silver nitrate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Epistaxis: From Simple First-Aid Measures to Invasive Procedures
Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can be treated through simple first-aid measures. However, in cases of repeated or prolonged nosebleeds, more invasive treatment may be necessary. Here are some treatment options for epistaxis:
Cauterization: If an anterior bleeding point is seen, cautery can be attempted. This is usually achieved by the application of a silver nitrate stick to the area for around 10 seconds after giving topical local anesthesia.
Blood tests and investigations: Blood tests and other investigations are of little use, as an underlying cause is highly unlikely in a young and otherwise well patient.
First-aid measures: Epistaxis is mainly treated through simple first-aid measures. It is important to reassure the patient that the problem is normally self-limiting.
Nasal tampon: Bleeds that do not settle with cautery, or significant bleeds where a bleeding point cannot be seen, require the application of a nasal tampon and referral to ENT.
Admission: This patient does not require admission. Blood tests are unlikely to be helpful, and she is haemodynamically stable.
In summary, treatment options for epistaxis range from simple first-aid measures to invasive procedures. The choice of treatment depends on the severity and frequency of the nosebleeds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient complains of a malodorous vaginal discharge that appears white. She denies any associated dyspareunia or itch. The clinician suspects bacterial vaginosis. Which organism is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer: Gardnerella
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is a condition characterized by the excessive growth of mainly bacteria.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Syncope: A Guide
Syncope, or fainting, can be caused by a variety of underlying conditions. One such condition is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), which often presents with syncope following exercise. Patients with HCM may also have a mid-systolic murmur and a jerky pulse, which worsens with Valsalva but improves with squatting.
Atrial fibrillation, on the other hand, typically presents with palpitations, fatigue, or shortness of breath, but not syncope. It does not cause a murmur and results in an irregularly irregular pulse.
Epilepsy is not a common cause of syncope, as typical seizures involve loss of consciousness, tensing, shaking, and postictal fatigue.
Aortic stenosis can cause dizziness and syncope, and is usually associated with angina. The murmur associated with aortic stenosis is a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that radiates to the carotids.
A vasovagal attack, while it can cause syncope, would not cause a murmur. If syncope is recurrent, other causes should be sought.
Dyspnea is a common complaint in patients with HCM, but they may also experience angina or syncope. A left ventricular apical impulse, a prominent S4 gallop, and a harsh systolic ejection murmur are typical findings. The Valsalva maneuver can increase the murmur. An echocardiogram is the diagnostic procedure of choice.
Most patients with aortic stenosis have gradually increasing obstruction for years but do not become symptomatic until their sixth to eighth decades.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 11
Correct
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A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of a 'rash' on their left shin. The rash has increased in size over the last two days and is now a painful, hot, red area on their anterior left shin that spreads around to the back of the leg. The patient is feeling well overall, and it is decided that oral treatment is the best course of action. The patient has a history of penicillin allergy. What is the best antibiotic to prescribe?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by bacterial infection, usually Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylcoccus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is accompanied by symptoms such as erythema, pain, and swelling. In some cases, patients may also experience systemic upset, including fever.
The diagnosis of cellulitis is typically made based on clinical presentation, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, blood tests and cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted to the hospital and sepsis is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, healthcare providers may use the Eron classification system. Patients with Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, or certain risk factors such as immunocompromisation or significant lymphoedema should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if appropriate facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline may be used in patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management of this common bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis and on long-term methotrexate visits the clinic with concerns about his recent exposure to chickenpox. He attended a family gathering where a child with chickenpox was present, but he cannot recall if he had the illness as a child. He is seeking advice on whether he needs any treatment.
What is the best course of action to take next?Your Answer: She should receive IV aciclovir if antibody tests are negative
Correct Answer: She should receive VZIG if antibody tests are negative
Explanation:Patients who are on long-term steroids or methotrexate and are immunosuppressed should be given VZIG if they are exposed to chickenpox and have no antibodies to varicella. The correct course of action is to conduct antibody testing to determine if the patient is negative, and if so, administer VZIG to protect them from potentially developing a serious chickenpox infection. Although a chickenpox vaccine exists, it is not part of the routine childhood vaccination schedule and is not recommended for immunosuppressed individuals due to its live nature. IV aciclovir can be given for chickenpox infection in immunocompromised individuals, but VZIG is more appropriate as it can help prevent the infection from manifesting. Administering VZIG once the patient has already shown symptoms of chickenpox is too late, as it has no therapeutic benefit at that point. While oral aciclovir can be given prophylactically or to reduce the severity of symptoms, VZIG is more appropriate for immunosuppressed patients who are at high risk of severe chickenpox infection.
Managing Chickenpox Exposure in At-Risk Groups
Chickenpox is usually a mild illness in children with normal immune systems, but it can cause serious systemic disease in at-risk groups. Pregnant women and their developing fetuses are particularly vulnerable. Therefore, it is crucial to know how to manage varicella exposure in these special groups.
To determine who would benefit from active post-exposure prophylaxis, three criteria should be met. Firstly, there must be significant exposure to chickenpox or herpes zoster. Secondly, the patient must have a clinical condition that increases the risk of severe varicella, such as immunosuppression, neonates, or pregnancy. Finally, the patient should have no antibodies to the varicella virus. Ideally, all at-risk exposed patients should have a blood test for varicella antibodies. However, this should not delay post-exposure prophylaxis past seven days after initial contact.
Patients who meet the above criteria should be given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). Managing chickenpox exposure in pregnancy is an important topic that requires more detailed discussion, which is covered in a separate entry in the textbook.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance having ingested 12 g of paracetamol over the past three hours. She weighs 70 kg. Her observations are within normal limits and she feels well.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Measure serum paracetamol level and give acetylcysteine if the level is above the treatment line
Correct Answer: Give intravenous acetylcysteine immediately
Explanation:Treatment and Management of Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose is a serious medical emergency that requires prompt treatment and management. Here are some important steps to take:
Give intravenous acetylcysteine immediately for patients who have taken a staggered overdose, which is defined as ingesting a potentially toxic dose of paracetamol over a period of over one hour. Patients who have taken a dose of paracetamol > 150 mg/kg are at risk of serious toxicity.
Observe the patient for 24 hours after treatment.
Measure serum paracetamol level and give acetylcysteine if the level is above the treatment line. Patients who have ingested > 75 mg/kg of paracetamol over a period of less than one hour should have their serum paracetamol levels measured four hours after ingestion. If this level is above the treatment line, they should be treated with intravenous acetylcysteine. If blood tests reveal an alanine aminotransferase above the upper limit of normal, patients should be started on acetylcysteine regardless of serum paracetamol levels.
Start haemodialysis if patients have an exceedingly high serum paracetamol concentration (> 700 mg/l) associated with an elevated blood lactate and coma.
Take bloods including a coagulation screen and start acetylcysteine if clotting is deranged. In patients where a serum paracetamol level is indicated (patients who have ingested > 75 mg/kg of paracetamol over a period of less than one hour), deranged liver function tests are an indication to start acetylcysteine regardless of serum paracetamol levels.
In summary, prompt treatment with intravenous acetylcysteine is crucial for patients who have taken a staggered overdose of paracetamol. Monitoring of serum paracetamol levels, liver function tests, and clotting factors can help guide further management. Haemodialysis may be necessary in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a palpable purpuric rash on her lower limbs and polyarthralgia after experiencing a recent sore throat. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Explanation:Understanding Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a type of small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is often associated with IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease. HSP is commonly observed in children following an infection.
The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, which is accompanied by localized oedema over the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs. Other symptoms include abdominal pain, polyarthritis, and features of IgA nephropathy such as haematuria and renal failure.
Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, while management of nephropathy is generally supportive. There is inconsistent evidence for the use of steroids and immunosuppressants.
The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, especially in children without renal involvement. The condition is self-limiting, but around one-third of patients may experience a relapse. It is important to monitor blood pressure and urinalysis to detect any progressive renal involvement.
Overall, understanding Henoch-Schonlein purpura is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with worries about the appearance of his tongue. He reports that it has been like this for a few months but is not causing any discomfort or issues. On examination, the tongue appears mildly erythematous with a few patches surrounded by a white-ish border, and there is no exudate that can be scraped off. What is the MOST probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral leukoplakia
Correct Answer: Geographic tongue
Explanation:Understanding Geographic Tongue: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Geographic tongue is a common and benign condition that affects the tongue. It is characterized by irregular, smooth, red patches with a white border that resemble a map. While some individuals may experience pain or discomfort, others may not have any symptoms at all. The cause of geographic tongue is unknown, and there is currently no cure. However, symptomatic pain relief and avoidance of certain triggers may help manage the condition.
It is important to differentiate geographic tongue from other oral conditions such as oral candidiasis, oral leukoplakia, and vitamin deficiencies. Oral candidiasis can present with white/yellow plaques that can be easily removed, while oral leukoplakia presents with painless white plaques that cannot be easily scraped away and may be pre-malignant. Vitamin deficiencies such as B12 and C can also cause oral symptoms.
Overall, geographic tongue is a harmless condition that primarily affects females. While it may cause discomfort for some individuals, it does not pose any serious health risks. If you are experiencing symptoms of geographic tongue, it is recommended to seek advice from a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 16
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with mild central abdominal discomfort. She also reports unintentional weight loss over the past four months. However, she denies any rectal bleeding or fatigue and has no significant family history.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: 2-week wait referral to the colorectal services
Explanation:Referral for Investigation of Colorectal Cancer with a 2-Week Wait
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients aged 40 or over who present with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain should be referred for investigation of colorectal cancer with a 2-week wait. Other criteria for a 2-week wait referral include patients with unexplained rectal bleeding, iron-deficiency anaemia, change in bowel habit, positive faecal occult blood tests, rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, and patients under 50 years with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss or iron-deficiency anaemia.
Doing nothing and just following up with the patient, prescribing analgesia and following up in one month, referring the patient routinely, or taking urgent bloods and following up in two weeks would not be appropriate in the presence of red-flag symptoms and can create a serious delay in diagnosis and treatment. Therefore, referral for investigation of colorectal cancer with a 2-week wait is the recommended course of action. However, taking urgent bloods and following up the patient in two weeks can still be done while the patient is waiting for the referral appointment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following statements about the correlation between the menstrual cycle and body temperature is accurate?
Your Answer: Body temperature rises following ovulation
Explanation:The increase in body temperature after ovulation is utilized in certain cases of natural family planning.
Phases of the Menstrual Cycle
The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium begins to proliferate. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol.
During ovulation, the mature egg is released from the dominant follicle and triggers the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH). This phase occurs on day 14 of the menstrual cycle. Following ovulation, the luteal phase begins, during which the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. This hormone causes the endometrium to change into a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall.
The cervical mucus also changes throughout the menstrual cycle. Following menstruation, the mucus is thick and forms a plug across the external os. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, and low viscosity. It also becomes ‘stretchy’ – a quality termed spinnbarkeit. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky.
Basal body temperature is another indicator of the menstrual cycle. It falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the different phases of the menstrual cycle can help individuals track their fertility and plan for pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old male visits his doctor due to a rise in his blood pressure. He regularly checks it because of his bilateral renal artery stenosis. During the clinic visit, his blood pressure is measured at 160/101 mmHg. He reports feeling fine and not taking any medications regularly. Which antihypertensive medication should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor drug that inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. However, it is contraindicated in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis as it can cause a significant increase in creatinine levels due to the constriction of the efferent arteriole by angiotensin II. Although ACE inhibitors can sometimes be used to treat hypertension caused by renal artery stenosis, close monitoring is necessary to prevent severe renal impairment. Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is a suitable alternative for this patient as it has no contraindications for renovascular disease. Bendroflumethiazide, a thiazide diuretic, increases sodium excretion and urine volume by interfering with transfer across cell membranes, reducing blood volume. Indapamide, a thiazide-like diuretic, can also be used in this patient, although it is not typically the first-line treatment.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 19
Correct
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A mother brings her 10-month-old baby to her pediatrician with concerns about her development. The baby was born at 37 weeks with a low birth weight of 2,100 grams. The mother reports that the baby is able to sit unsupported but tends to use her right hand only to grasp toys, even when they are on her left side. When a task requires both hands, the baby uses her left hand to assist the right, but it appears uncoordinated. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to a child development service for multidisciplinary assessment
Explanation:If a child shows a preference for one hand before the age of 12 months, it may be a sign of cerebral palsy and should be addressed promptly. The appropriate course of action is to refer the child to a child development service for a comprehensive evaluation by a multidisciplinary team. Children with cerebral palsy typically receive specialized care from birth, but in some cases, the condition may be suspected in a primary care setting. According to NICE guidelines, delayed motor milestones such as not sitting by 8 months (adjusted for gestational age), not walking by 18 months (adjusted for gestational age), early asymmetry of hand function, and persistent toe-walking may indicate cerebral palsy. In this case, as the child is exhibiting hand preference before the age of 1 year and has a risk factor for cerebral palsy (low birth weight), an urgent referral is necessary. Other options are not appropriate and may delay diagnosis and treatment.
Common Developmental Problems and Possible Causes
Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points such as not smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and failure to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may also arise, such as abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could indicate cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, as they can also be caused by environmental deprivation or general development delay.
It is important to recognize these developmental problems early on and seek appropriate interventions to address them. By doing so, children can receive the necessary support to reach their full potential and overcome any challenges they may face. With proper care and attention, many children with developmental problems can go on to lead happy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient presents with a persistent cough and runny nose for the past 48 hours. She seeks treatment for her symptoms, but you explain that she is likely experiencing a common cold that will resolve on its own. What is the most frequent cause of the common cold?
Your Answer: Rhinovirus
Explanation:Rhinoviruses are responsible for causing the common cold, while respiratory syncytial virus is a common cause of bronchiolitis. Influenza virus is the culprit behind the flu, while Streptococcus pneumonia is the most frequent cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Parainfluenza virus is commonly associated with croup.
Respiratory Pathogens and Their Associated Conditions
Respiratory pathogens are microorganisms that cause infections in the respiratory system. The most common respiratory pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, influenza virus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophilia, and Pneumocystis jiroveci. Each of these pathogens is associated with a specific respiratory condition.
Respiratory syncytial virus is known to cause bronchiolitis, while parainfluenza virus is associated with croup. Rhinovirus is the most common cause of the common cold, while influenza virus causes the flu. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, and Haemophilus influenzae is the most common cause of bronchiectasis exacerbations and acute epiglottitis. Staphylococcus aureus is known to cause pneumonia, particularly following influenza. Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes atypical pneumonia, which is characterized by flu-like symptoms that precede a dry cough. Legionella pneumophilia is another cause of atypical pneumonia, which is typically spread by air-conditioning systems and causes a dry cough. Pneumocystis jiroveci is a common cause of pneumonia in HIV patients, and patients typically have few chest signs and develop exertional dyspnea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis, which can present in a wide range of ways, from asymptomatic to disseminated disease. Cough, night sweats, and weight loss may be seen in patients with tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the inside of her mouth and the front of her chest, accompanied by red and weeping areas. The dermatologist performs a skin biopsy, which reveals a superficial intra-epidermal split just above the basal layer with acantholysis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, particularly in the mouth. It is caused by autoantibodies to desmoglein 3, a component of the desmosome. The blisters are thin-walled and easily ruptured, leaving painful erosions. Diagnosis is made with a skin biopsy, and treatment involves high-dose corticosteroids or other immunosuppressive drugs.
Bullous pemphigoid is another blistering disorder, but it involves sub-epidermal splitting and tense blisters that are less easily ruptured than in pemphigus vulgaris. Mucous membranes are typically not affected.
Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterised by intensely pruritic clusters of small blisters on the elbows, knees, back, and buttocks. It is associated with HLA-DQ2 and DQ8 and is often seen in patients with coeliac disease.
Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare inherited disorder that causes the skin to become very fragile, leading to blistering and erosions. Symptoms appear at birth or shortly afterwards.
Tuberous sclerosis is not associated with blistering and is a genetic disorder that causes benign tumours to grow in various organs, including the skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is a contraindication for receiving the pneumococcal vaccine in individuals under the age of 2?
Your Answer: Allergy to egg protein (no features of anaphylaxis)
Correct Answer: Current febrile illness
Explanation:Immunisation is the process of administering vaccines to protect individuals from infectious diseases. The Department of Health has provided guidance on the safe administration of vaccines in its publication ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’ in 2006. The guidance outlines general contraindications to immunisation, such as confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or another component contained in the relevant vaccine. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection. Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression.
Specific vaccines may have their own contraindications, such as deferring DTP vaccination in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition. However, there are no contraindications to immunisation for individuals with asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), or a family history of autism. Additionally, previous natural infections with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella do not preclude immunisation. Other factors such as neurological conditions like Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids (e.g. CAH) also do not contraindicate immunisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up on his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He has a history of chronic CO2 retention and his oxygen saturation goals are between 88-92%. Upon examination, his chest sounds are quiet throughout, with equal air expansion, and a hyper-expanded chest. His oxygen saturation levels are at 91% on air. The clinic performs an arterial blood gas test.
What would be the most likely blood gas results for this patient?Your Answer: pH = 7.39, pO2 = 10.9 kPa, pCO2 = 4.9 kPa, HCO3- = 25 mmol/l
Correct Answer: pH = 7.37, pO2 = 9.1 kPa, pCO2 = 6.1 kPa, HCO3- = 30 mmol/l
Explanation:Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation Made Easy
Arterial blood gas interpretation can be a daunting task for healthcare professionals. However, the Resuscitation Council (UK) has provided a simple 5-step approach to make it easier. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, which is indicated by a PaO2 level of less than 10 kPa on air. The third step is to check if the patient is acidaemic or alkalaemic, which is determined by the pH level. A pH level of less than 7.35 indicates acidaemia, while a pH level of more than 7.45 indicates alkalaemia.
The fourth step is to assess the respiratory component by checking the PaCO2 level. A PaCO2 level of more than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level of less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth and final step is to evaluate the metabolic component by checking the bicarbonate level or base excess. A bicarbonate level of less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess of less than -2mmol/l indicates metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level of more than 26 mmol/l or a base excess of more than +2mmol/l indicates metabolic alkalosis.
To make it easier to remember, healthcare professionals can use the ROME acronym. Respiratory is opposite, which means that low pH and high PaCO2 indicate acidosis, while high pH and low PaCO2 indicate alkalosis. Metabolic is equal, which means that low pH and low bicarbonate indicate acidosis, while high pH and high bicarbonate indicate alkalosis. By following this simple approach, healthcare professionals can easily interpret arterial blood gas results and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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A 62-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhoea. On examination, his abdomen is distended and tender, with generalised guarding. Vital signs show heart rate 110 beats/min, BP 120/80 mmHg. Bloods show lactate 3.5 mmol/l, urea 10 mmol/l, creatinine 150 µmol/l and bicarbonate 14 mmol/l.
Blood test
Reference range
Lactate
<2 mmol/l
Urea
2.5–7.1 mmol/l
Creatinine
44–97 µmol/l
Bicarbonate
22–29 mmol/l.
Based on the history, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Choose the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the options below.Your Answer: Mesenteric ischaemia
Explanation:Acute mesenteric ischaemia (AMI) is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition caused by inadequate blood flow through the mesenteric vessels, leading to ischaemia and gangrene of the bowel wall. It can be classified as either arterial or venous, with embolic phenomena being the most common cause. Symptoms include sudden and severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhoea, with physical signs developing late in the disease process. Early and aggressive diagnosis and treatment are crucial to reduce mortality, but once bowel wall infarction has occurred, the mortality rate may be as high as 90%. Appendicitis, diverticulitis, pseudomembranous colitis, and ruptured AAA are important differential diagnoses to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient complains of painful erythematous lesions on her shins. Which of the following is not commonly associated with this presentation?
Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: Syphilis
Explanation:Erythema nodosum caused by syphilis is uncommon.
Understanding Erythema Nodosum
Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body such as the forearms and thighs. The condition usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.
There are several possible causes of erythema nodosum, including infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s can also lead to the condition. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be associated with malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs like penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also trigger the condition.
Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of erythema nodosum is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a stiff and painful left shoulder that limits all movements. He is left-handed and can no longer participate in his favorite hobbies due to the discomfort. Adhesive capsulitis is suspected. What factors are linked to this condition?
Your Answer: History of diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Adhesive capsulitis is a condition that may occur in diabetic patients, as well as those with a history of myocardial infarction, lung disease, or neck disease. It is more common in females aged 40-60 years, and typically affects the non-dominant hand. Prolonged immobilization or disuse of the arm due to pain from another cause may also lead to adhesive capsulitis. There is no known correlation with activity.
Understanding Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder)
Adhesive capsulitis, commonly known as frozen shoulder, is a prevalent cause of shoulder pain that primarily affects middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood. However, studies have shown that up to 20% of diabetics may experience an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over several days, with external rotation being more affected than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. In some cases, the condition may affect both shoulders, which occurs in up to 20% of patients. The episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
Diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis is usually clinical, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. Unfortunately, no single intervention has been proven to improve the outcome in the long-term. However, there are several treatment options available, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman is recuperating from a kidney transplant. Within 24 hours of the surgery, she complains of increased discomfort at the transplant site. Upon examination, she has a fever, tenderness at the transplant site, and has not produced urine since the procedure. Her creatinine levels have significantly increased in the past 24 hours. What is the fundamental mechanism behind her rejection?
Your Answer: Pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens
Explanation:Understanding HLA Typing and Graft Failure in Renal Transplants
The human leucocyte antigen (HLA) system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and plays a crucial role in renal transplants. The HLA system includes class 1 antigens (A, B, and C) and class 2 antigens (DP, DQ, and DR), with DR being the most important for HLA matching in renal transplants. Graft survival rates for cadaveric transplants are 90% at 1 year and 60% at 10 years, while living-donor transplants have a 95% survival rate at 1 year and 70% at 10 years.
Post-operative problems may include acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections. Hyperacute rejection, which occurs within minutes to hours, is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in the need for graft removal. Acute graft failure, which occurs within 6 months, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is picked up by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Chronic graft failure, which occurs after 6 months, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms and leads to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, with recurrence of the original renal disease being a common cause.
In summary, understanding the HLA system and its role in renal transplants is crucial for successful outcomes. Monitoring for post-operative problems and early detection of graft failure can help improve long-term survival rates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with right flank pain radiating to her groin. A urine dipstick reveals the presence of blood. You suspect a possible ureteric stone.
What is the most suitable imaging modality to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Non contrast abdominopelvic/kidney, ureters and bladder (KUB) computed tomography (CT)
Explanation:Imaging Modalities for Nephrolithiasis Diagnosis
Nephrolithiasis, or kidney stones, can be diagnosed through various imaging modalities. Non-contrast abdominopelvic computed tomography (CT) scans are the preferred imaging modality due to their high sensitivity and specificity. Contrast scans are not recommended for initial assessment as they can obscure calcific densities. CT scans can also reveal other pathologies. Seriated X-rays, specifically KUB X-rays, can be used in conjunction with CT scans for follow-up of stone patients. Intravenous urography, while widely available and inexpensive, is less sensitive than CT scans and requires IV contrast material and multiple delayed films. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is not recommended for acute renal colic evaluation as it is more expensive and less effective in stone detection. Renal ultrasonography is mainly used in pregnancy or in combination with a KUB X-ray for determining hydronephrosis or ureteral dilatation associated with a urinary tract calculus, but is less accurate in diagnosing ureteral stones and not reliable for stones smaller than 5 mm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of myalgia in the shoulder girdle and low-grade fevers that have persisted for three weeks. He also mentions experiencing a brief loss of vision in his left eye. Based on the probable diagnosis, what laboratory test would be the most effective for diagnosis?
Your Answer: Creatinine kinase
Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Explanation:The diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica primarily relies on the detection of elevated inflammatory markers.
Among the laboratory tests, the most valuable in diagnosing PMR is the measurement of ESR levels.
Although CK and electromyography are commonly used in diagnosing muscle disorders, they may not be helpful in detecting PMR.
While CPR and white cell count may show increased levels in PMR, they are not specific enough to confirm the diagnosis.Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Correct
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A 42-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. He states that he has not experienced any changes in his vision.
During the eyelid examination, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid margins, which are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If necessary, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.
Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis have watery/discharging eyes, a gritty sensation, and conjunctival erythema. Most cases resolve on their own, but some may require topical antibiotics.
Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painless area on the eyelid that settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can help with drainage.
Entropion: The margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.
Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, and plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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