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  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease is seeking advice regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease is seeking advice regarding her desire to start a family with her partner. She is currently taking methotrexate and wants to know if it is safe to conceive.

      What would be the best course of action to recommend?

      Your Answer: He should wait at least 3 months and his partner should take folic 5 mg od

      Correct Answer: He should wait at least 6 months after stopping treatment

      Explanation:

      Men and women who are undergoing methotrexate treatment must use reliable contraception throughout the duration of the treatment and for a minimum of 6 months after it has ended.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 62-year-old man presents with a three month history of epigastric pain after...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with a three month history of epigastric pain after eating and intermittent heartburn between meals. He reports weight loss but denies any nausea or vomiting. There is no change in bowel habit and no history of passing blood or melaena stools. He has no significant past medical history, drinks up to 10 units of alcohol a week, and quit smoking five years ago. What is the optimal course of action for managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Refer routinely for upper GI endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Treat with an oral proton pump inhibitor (for example, omeprazole 20 mg daily) and review in two weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Suspected Oesophageal Cancer

      According to NICE guidelines, urgent direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy should be offered to assess for oesophageal cancer in individuals with dysphagia or those aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. A routine ultrasound scan is unlikely to be helpful, and even if Helicobacter pylori is positive, referral should not be delayed. It is advised to be free from acid suppression therapy for at least two weeks before endoscopy in case treatment masks underlying pathology. Therefore, proton pump inhibitors should not be prescribed when referring urgently for endoscopy. These guidelines aim to improve the recognition and referral of suspected oesophageal cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old male presents two weeks following a knee replacement with severe diarrhea....

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male presents two weeks following a knee replacement with severe diarrhea. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      The probable reason for the patient’s condition is Clostridium difficile, which could have been caused by the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics during the operation. According to NICE guidelines, patients undergoing clean surgery with prosthesis or implant placement, clean-contaminated surgery, contaminated surgery, or surgery on a dirty or infected wound should receive antibiotics to prevent surgical site infections. In cases of contaminated or infected wounds, prophylaxis should be accompanied by antibiotic treatment.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      15
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of intermittent central...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of intermittent central abdominal pain and bloating, which is often relieved when she opens her bowels. She also experiences loose stools and occasional urgency to pass a stool. These symptoms have been occurring on and off for about six months, and she has not experienced any weight loss or bleeding. On examination, her abdomen appears normal. The patient has recently been promoted to a more responsible position at work. What is the most appropriate intervention to relieve this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole

      Correct Answer: Mebeverine

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Medications for Irritable Bowel Syndrome: A Case Study

      A patient presents with symptoms consistent with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), including abdominal pain relieved by defecation and the absence of red-flag symptoms. The likely cause of her flare-up is increased stress following a job promotion. Antispasmodics such as mebeverine are appropriate for symptomatic relief of abdominal pain in IBS, while omeprazole is not indicated for this patient. Domperidone is not necessary for the relief of nausea and vomiting, and lactulose is not recommended due to potential bloating. Linaclotide is not appropriate for this patient as her symptoms have only been present for six months and there is no evidence that other laxatives have failed. Overall, mebeverine and lifestyle changes are the recommended interventions for this patient with IBS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      29.6
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  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of diarrhoea for the past few months. Her stools are pale, bulky, and offensive during these episodes. She consumes 14 units of alcohol per week. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:

      - Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dl
      - Platelets: 231 * 109/l
      - White blood cells: 5.4 * 109/l
      - Ferritin: 14 ng/ml
      - Vitamin B12: 170 ng/l
      - Folate: 2.2 nmol/l
      - Sodium: 142 mmol/l
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/l
      - Urea: 4.5 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
      - Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 88 u/l
      - Alanine transaminase: 21 u/l
      - Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 55 u/l
      - Albumin: 36 g/l

      What is the most likely complication that has occurred in this patient?

      Your Answer: Malabsorption syndrome

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) frequently leads to malabsorption syndrome, which is characterized by reduced absorption of certain vitamins (B12, folate), nutrients (iron), and protein (low albumin) as indicated by blood tests.

      Understanding Malabsorption: Causes and Symptoms

      Malabsorption is a condition that is characterized by diarrhea, weight loss, and steatorrhea. It occurs when the body is unable to absorb nutrients from the food that is consumed. The causes of malabsorption can be broadly divided into three categories: intestinal, pancreatic, and biliary. Intestinal causes include conditions such as coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, tropical sprue, Whipple’s disease, Giardiasis, and brush border enzyme deficiencies. Pancreatic causes include chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, and pancreatic cancer. Biliary causes include biliary obstruction and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other causes of malabsorption include bacterial overgrowth, short bowel syndrome, and lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      3.7
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  • Question 6 - An 83-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a recent weight loss of...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a recent weight loss of 6 kg over the past three months, without any significant pain. During the examination, she appears drawn and emaciated, with deep yellow sclera. She has experienced jaundice twice before, once in her teens, and her sister has also had it. She typically enjoys a glass or two of wine on weekends and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. What is the probable reason for her jaundice?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Infective hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Jaundice and their Characteristics

      Jaundice can be caused by various conditions, each with their own unique characteristics. Cancer of the pancreas, particularly in the head, can cause painless jaundice. On the other hand, cancer in the body or tail of the pancreas can present with dull, unremitting central abdominal pain or back pain. Smoking is a known risk factor for pancreatic cancer.

      Gilbert’s syndrome, a familial condition, can also cause jaundice. However, the jaundice in this case is pale yellow and the patient typically feels well. While Gilbert’s syndrome is not uncommon, it is important to consider other potential causes of jaundice, especially if the patient has significant weight loss. As a wise surgeon once said, People with IBS get Ca bowel too – never forget that.

      Hepatitis A is more commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. Primary biliary cirrhosis, on the other hand, has its peak incidence in the fifth decade of life and often presents with generalized pruritus or asymptomatic hepatomegaly. Understanding the characteristics of different causes of jaundice can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      14.9
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old woman is discharged home after undergoing a loop ileostomy following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is discharged home after undergoing a loop ileostomy following an anterior resection of a rectal carcinoma. She has recovered well over the last week. She is not taking anticoagulants and is being careful to drink at least one litre of extra water a day.
      What is the most likely early complication she may experience following this procedure?

      Your Answer: Severe stomal haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Irritant dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Ileostomy: Understanding the Risks

      Ileostomy is a surgical procedure that involves creating an opening in the abdomen to allow waste to pass out of the body. While the procedure can be life-changing for patients with certain medical conditions, it is not without its risks. Here are some of the potential complications of ileostomy:

      Irritant Dermatitis: The skin around the stoma can become irritated and inflamed, either due to contact with stoma equipment or leakage of feces. Hypoallergenic products and corticosteroid lotions can help manage this condition.

      Parastomal Hernia: This occurs when a bulge or protrusion develops around the stoma site. While conservative management is often possible, surgery may be necessary in some cases.

      Dehydration: High output from the ileostomy can lead to dehydration, making it important for patients to maintain a good fluid intake.

      Pernicious Anemia: As vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum, patients may develop pernicious anemia over time. Supplements can help manage this condition.

      Severe Stomal Hemorrhage: While some bleeding is common after bag changes, severe bleeding is more likely in patients taking antiplatelet drugs.

      Understanding these potential complications can help patients and healthcare providers monitor for early signs and manage them effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      4.5
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  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old patient with epilepsy that is currently managed with phenytoin presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old patient with epilepsy that is currently managed with phenytoin presents to his General Practitioner. He has recently been taking oral flucloxacillin for a leg injury that was precipitated by a recent fit. The patient occasionally drinks alcohol and has been taking paracetamol for pain relief after his leg injury. Clinical examination reveals jaundice; however, his abdomen is non-tender. Liver function tests are shown below.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Bilirubin 280 μmol/l 1–22 μmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 440 U/l 45–105 U/l
      Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) 320 U/l 11–50 U/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 46 U/l < 35 U/l
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s jaundice?

      Your Answer: Gallstones

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Causes of Jaundice: Identifying the Culprit in a Clinical Case

      In this clinical case, a patient presents with jaundice and abnormal liver function tests. The following potential causes are considered:

      Flucloxacillin: The patient’s presentation is consistent with cholestatic jaundice, which can be caused by flucloxacillin. Other drugs that can cause a similar picture include chlorpromazine, azathioprine, captopril, ciclosporin, penicillamine, erythromycin, and the combined oral contraceptive.

      Ethanol: Although the patient reports occasional alcohol use, ethanol is an unlikely cause of cholestatic jaundice. Ethanol more commonly causes a hepatitic picture with elevated transaminase levels.

      Gallstones: Cholecystitis typically doesn’t cause jaundice. If gallstones were the cause, right upper quadrant pain and tenderness would be expected.

      Paracetamol: The patient is taking paracetamol, but there is no information about excessive use. Paracetamol overdose typically causes a hepatitic picture rather than cholestatic jaundice.

      Phenytoin: Phenytoin typically causes a hepatitic picture with larger elevations in transaminase levels and a smaller rise in ALP levels.

      In conclusion, flucloxacillin is the most likely cause of this patient’s cholestatic jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He denies alcohol excess and has a body mass index of 36 kg/m2. He is also noted to be a diet-controlled type II diabetic and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.
      Investigations Results Normal value
      Cholesterol 7.7 mmol/l <5 mmol/l
      Fasting triglyceride 2.5 mmol/l <1.7 mmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 IU/l <40 IU/l
      Which of the following is the single most likely explanation regarding the significance of his raised liver enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Probably has non alcoholic steatohepatitis, which can include fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Liver Function Test Results in a Patient with Metabolic Risk Factors

      Liver function tests are an important tool for assessing liver health. In a patient with metabolic risk factors such as obesity, dyslipidaemia, and abnormal glucose tolerance, elevated liver transaminases may indicate non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), a condition that can lead to fibrosis and eventually cirrhosis if left untreated. Weight loss and control of comorbidities are the mainstay of management for NASH. While autoimmune hepatitis is a rarer possibility, it may be considered if the patient has a history of other autoimmune disorders and a normal body mass index and lipid profile. Regardless of the specific diagnosis, abnormal liver function test results in a patient with metabolic risk factors require further investigation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 23-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of fatigue, bloating, and abdominal discomfort...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of fatigue, bloating, and abdominal discomfort that has been ongoing for several months. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found. Blood tests reveal mild normocytic anemia and positive IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGA).

      What would be the most suitable course of action for the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue gluten-containing diet and refer for intestinal biopsy

      Explanation:

      The gold standard for diagnosing coeliac disease is endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all patients suspected of having the condition based on serology results. Therefore, the correct course of action for this patient presenting with abdominal discomfort, bloating, and fatigue, along with a positive tTGA blood test and likely anaemia, is to continue consuming gluten and refer for intestinal biopsy. It is important for patients to consume gluten in their diet for at least 6 weeks prior to serology testing and biopsy. Commencing iron tablets is not the most appropriate action as the anaemia is likely secondary to malabsorption resulting from coeliac disease. Initiating a gluten-free diet is also not appropriate until a diagnosis has been confirmed, as it may result in a false negative result on biopsy.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old man presents to the GP with a 3-week history of nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the GP with a 3-week history of nausea, particularly worse after eating. He has not experienced any weight loss, upper abdominal pain or reflux. His past medical history includes a fractured right ankle in his twenties. He has no relevant family history. He is a social smoker and drinks around 2 pints with his friends at the weekend. The GP orders bloods which show:

      Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 550 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 9.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 5.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 75 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 3 mg/L (< 5)

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non urgent referral for endoscopy

      Explanation:

      A non-urgent referral to GI is necessary for patients who have both raised platelet count and nausea due to dyspepsia. In this case, the patient, who is 58 years old, meets the criteria for such referral.

      While ondansetron is effective for chemically mediated nausea, metoclopramide or domperidone may be more appropriate for patients with reduced gastric motility.

      PPI trial is typically used as a second line management for dyspepsia patients who do not require endoscopy referral.

      Reassurance should not be given to patients who meet the criteria for non-urgent endoscopy referral, such as this man with dyspepsia symptoms and abnormal blood results.

      Urgent endoscopy referral is not necessary for patients who only present with nausea.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.

      For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.

      Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old man has a bilirubin concentration of 55 μmol/l (normal value <21...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has a bilirubin concentration of 55 μmol/l (normal value <21 μmol/l). He has suffered from episodic jaundice in the past but is otherwise fit and well. His diagnosis is Gilbert syndrome.
      Which of the following is associated with Gilbert syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: γ-glutamyltransferase in the normal range

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gilbert Syndrome: Symptoms, Risks, and Diagnosis

      Gilbert syndrome is a common, benign condition that causes mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. It is familial and occurs in 5-10% of adults in Western Europe. While some patients may experience symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and abdominal pain, many are asymptomatic. Jaundice is usually mild and can worsen with physical exertion, fasting, or dehydration. However, liver function tests, including γ-glutamyltransferase, should be normal.

      Unlike other liver conditions, Gilbert syndrome doesn’t cause abnormal liver histology or conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. It is also not a risk factor for kernicterus at birth.

      Diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome is based on clinical presentation and elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels. Fasting can actually increase bilirubin levels in this condition. Therefore, it is important to rule out other liver disorders if abnormal liver function tests or histology are present.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, risks, and diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and management for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus complains of diarrhoea, fatigue and weight loss for the past three months. She has been on a gluten-free diet for the last four weeks and feels better. She wants to confirm if she has coeliac disease. What is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask her to reintroduce gluten for the next 6 weeks before further testing

      Explanation:

      Before undergoing testing, patients need to consume gluten for a minimum of 6 weeks. Failure to do so may result in negative results for serological tests and jejunal biopsy, especially if the patient is adhering to a gluten-free diet. To ensure accurate results, patients should consume gluten in multiple meals every day for at least 6 weeks before undergoing further testing.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old man presents with a history of epigastric pain typical of dyspepsia...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a history of epigastric pain typical of dyspepsia which had been present for three months, together with weight loss of 2 stone over the same period.

      He had been treated with a proton pump inhibitor but had not benefited from this therapy. More recently he had noticed a difficulty when trying to eat solids and frequently vomited after meals.

      On examination he had a palpable mass in the epigastrium and his full blood count revealed a haemoglobin of 85 g/L (130-180).

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of stomach

      Explanation:

      Alarm Symptoms of Foregut Malignancy

      The presence of alarm symptoms in patients over 55 years old, such as weight loss, bleeding, dysphagia, vomiting, blood loss, and a mass, are indicative of a malignancy of the foregut. It is crucial to refer these patients for urgent endoscopy, especially if dysphagia is a new onset symptom.

      However, it is unfortunate that patients with alarm symptoms are often treated with PPIs instead of being referred for further evaluation. Although PPIs may provide temporary relief, they only delay the diagnosis of the underlying tumor. Therefore, it is important to recognize the significance of alarm symptoms and promptly refer patients for appropriate diagnostic testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 35 year old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)....

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She has previously visited the gastroenterology clinic and all tests, including colonoscopy, were normal. Her main concerns are abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. Despite taking antispasmodics, regular movicol, and following a dietician advice, she still experiences symptoms. She has tried other laxatives before, but with little improvement. What would be the most suitable next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Linaclotide

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis and management of IBS have been addressed by NICE in their guidance. The first line of pharmacological treatment includes antispasmodics such as Hyoscine or mebeverine, loperamide for diarrhea, and laxatives for constipation. Lactulose should be avoided. If the above treatments have not helped, second-line options include tricyclic antidepressants such as up to 30 mg amitriptyline. Third-line options include serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors. Linaclotide can be considered if the patient has had constipation for at least 12 months and has not benefited from different laxatives. Other management options include dietary advice and psychological treatments. However, acupuncture and reflexology are not recommended for managing IBS.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - The treatment room nurse requests your assistance in evaluating a 67-year-old male patient...

    Incorrect

    • The treatment room nurse requests your assistance in evaluating a 67-year-old male patient who has been experiencing a non-healing skin ulcer in his natal cleft. Despite various attempts, there has been no improvement in the condition. The patient has a medical history of angina, benign prostatic hypertrophy, and asthma. Which medication among his current prescriptions is the most probable cause of this non-healing ulcer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      Nicorandil can lead to anal ulceration. This is because ulceration is a known side effect of nicorandil, which can cause ulcers in the skin, mucosa, and eyes. It can also cause gastrointestinal ulcers that may result in complications such as perforation, haemorrhage, fistula, or abscess. If ulceration occurs, nicorandil treatment should be discontinued, and alternative medication should be considered.

      Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina. It works by activating potassium channels, which leads to vasodilation. This process is achieved through the activation of guanylyl cyclase, which results in an increase in cGMP. However, there are some adverse effects associated with the use of nicorandil, including headaches, flushing, and the development of ulcers on the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Additionally, gastrointestinal ulcers, including anal ulceration, may also occur. It is important to note that nicorandil should not be used in patients with left ventricular failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain. The pain was burning in nature and was localised to her epigastric area. A stool test for Helicobacter pylori was done, which came back as positive. Accordingly, she was treated with eradication therapy for one week. Despite the treatment, her symptoms have continued. She would like to be tested to check the bacteria has been eradicated. She is not keen on being referred for an endoscopy.

      Which of the following investigations should she be referred for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old man typically takes his medication without water. He reports experiencing pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man typically takes his medication without water. He reports experiencing pain in his lower sternum when swallowing.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline-Induced Oesophagal Ulcer: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prevention

      Doxycycline-induced oesophagal ulcer is a condition that affects mostly young people with no history of oesophagal dysfunction. The most common symptoms include heartburn, midsternal pain, and dysphagia. Fortunately, the symptoms usually resolve within a few days of stopping doxycycline. However, in severe cases, complete recovery may take longer than two weeks.

      To minimize the risk of oesophagitis, it is best to take doxycycline with a meal. Alternatively, it can be taken with a large glass of water or other fluid, and the patient should then remain upright for at least 30 minutes. It is also worth noting that doxycycline can be taken with food with minimal effect on absorption.

      It is important to be aware that other drugs can cause oesophagitis, including other tetracyclines, clindamycin, potassium chloride, bisphosphonates, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Therefore, it is crucial to consult a healthcare professional before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - Primary biliary cirrhosis is most characteristically associated with: ...

    Incorrect

    • Primary biliary cirrhosis is most characteristically associated with:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

      Explanation:

      The M rule for primary biliary cholangitis includes the presence of IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, specifically the M2 subtype, in middle-aged women.

      Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - What is the most accurate statement regarding gastrointestinal bleeding in patients who are...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate statement regarding gastrointestinal bleeding in patients who are using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is due to depletion of mucosal prostaglandin E (PGE) levels

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs and Gastrointestinal Bleeds: Risk Factors and Mechanisms

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief and inflammation management. However, their use is associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeds, particularly in patients with pre-existing gastric or duodenal ulcers. Even those without a history of ulcers are at risk, with the relative risk varying among different NSAID preparations. NSAIDs directly damage the gastric mucosal barrier by depleting mucosal PGE levels, which decreases the gastroduodenal defence mechanisms and cytoprotective effect of PGE, resulting in mucosal injury, erosions and ulceration.

      Several factors increase the risk of ulceration in the setting of NSAID use, including previous peptic ulcer disease, advanced age, female sex, high doses or combinations of NSAIDs, long-term NSAID use, concomitant use of anticoagulants, and severe comorbid illnesses. Even low-dose aspirin, with increasing use, is a major cause of upper gastrointestinal problems, particularly bleeding. It is important to note that NSAIDs may have adverse effects in all parts of the gastrointestinal tract, not only the stomach or duodenum; the oesophagus, small intestine and colon may also be affected. Endoscopic evidence of peptic ulceration is found in 20% of NSAID users even in the absence of symptoms.

      In conclusion, while NSAIDs are effective in managing pain and inflammation, their use is associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeds. Patients with pre-existing gastric or duodenal ulcers are particularly at risk, but other factors such as advanced age, high doses or combinations of NSAIDs, and concomitant use of anticoagulants also increase the risk. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of NSAID use and consider alternative pain management strategies in high-risk patients.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old woman presents with complaints of 'heartburn'. She has a medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with complaints of 'heartburn'. She has a medical history of angina and type 2 diabetes. Her current medications include clopidogrel 75 mg OD, bisoprolol 5 mg OD, ramipril 7.5 mg OD, atorvastatin 20 mg ON, and metformin 500 mg TDS. She quit smoking five years ago when her angina was diagnosed and doesn't consume alcohol.

      The patient reports experiencing retrosternal burning that worsens after meals and occasionally causes a 'sickly' feeling in the back of her mouth. She has been experiencing symptoms predominantly during the day but occasionally at night as well. She denies any dysphagia or odynophagia and her weight is stable. She has not experienced any vomiting and her bowel habits are normal with no rectal bleeding or black stools.

      The patient reports having similar symptoms on and off for many years and saw a colleague about three to four months ago with the same symptoms. She tried an over-the-counter alginate antacid PRN, which provided slight relief. She has been using the alginate preparation once or twice a day on average. Over the last three to four months, she has experienced symptoms every day. Her colleague had conducted some investigations, which showed a normal full blood count and negative Helicobacter pylori stool antigen testing.

      Given her history of angina, the differential diagnosis includes this condition, but the patient's anginal pains are clearly different. The most likely diagnosis is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). General and abdominal examination today are normal.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently under the 2 week wait referral system

      Explanation:

      Treatment of GORD with PPIs and Antacids

      When managing GORD patients, mild symptoms occurring less than once a week can be treated with antacids as needed. However, for patients with more frequent symptoms, especially those experiencing daily discomfort, a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is recommended. Referral for endoscopy is usually unnecessary unless there are alarm features such as unintentional weight loss, dysphagia, GI bleeding, persistent vomiting, or signs of anemia.

      Initial treatment for GORD involves a high dose PPI for eight weeks (for endoscopically proven oesophagitis) or four weeks for uninvestigated reflux. The PPI should be taken once daily 30-60 minutes before the first meal of the day. Lansoprazole is an example of a suitable PPI that doesn’t interact with other medications. If there is a partial response, the dose can be increased to twice daily, and the timing of the dose can be adjusted if nocturnal symptoms are troublesome.

      If there is no response to PPI treatment, reconsideration of the diagnosis and specialist referral may be necessary. An H2 receptor antagonist can be added to a PPI for patients who have a partial response to PPI treatment. It is important to note that there have been concerns about an interaction between clopidogrel and some PPIs (such as omeprazole) due to a shared metabolic pathway. However, the BNF doesn’t suggest any issue with patients taking Lansoprasole with clopidogrel.

      Overall, the treatment of GORD involves a stepwise approach, starting with antacids and progressing to PPIs and other medications as needed. Regular monitoring and adjustment of treatment can help manage symptoms and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating and intermittently suffers from diarrhoea. She has been dealing with these symptoms for a few years and knows that some of her family members have had similar issues. Her condition has worsened since she arrived in the UK 2 years ago, but she denies any problems with adjusting to life here. On physical examination, there are no abnormalities detected.
      What is the most suitable initial management step for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet

      Explanation:

      Lactose intolerance is a common condition among people of Far-Eastern and African origin, affecting up to 85% and over 60% of these populations, respectively. This is due to a deficiency of the enzyme lactase, which breaks down lactose. In contrast, people from northern Europe are less likely to experience lactose intolerance as they have a higher lactose intake and are more likely to inherit the ability to digest lactose. Lactose intolerance can cause symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome, such as bloating and diarrhea, as undigested lactose is broken down by gut bacteria. Diagnosis can be confirmed through the lactose breath hydrogen test or by trialing a dairy-free diet. While a small intestinal mucosal biopsy can directly assay lactase activity, it is usually too invasive for a mild condition. Women with lactose intolerance should seek alternative sources of dietary calcium.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old gentleman presents with complaints of 'chest pains'. Upon further discussion, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman presents with complaints of 'chest pains'. Upon further discussion, he reports experiencing postprandial retrosternal burning for the past six months. The symptom has been persistent and occurring daily over that time. He has been using an over-the-counter alginate antacid at least once a day for the last four months, but it has not provided significant relief. A colleague prescribed a 3-month course of PPIs, which he has completed without any cessation of his symptoms.

      The patient is typically healthy with no significant medical history. He has been a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day since the age of 18 and drinks alcohol occasionally. He reports no dysphagia or odynophagia and his weight is stable. He has experienced occasional vomiting when symptomatic but no persistent vomiting. He denies any haematemesis and his bowel habit is stable with no rectal bleeding or black stools.

      Upon examination, he has some angular stomatitis and mild glossitis. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses. What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise he takes the alginate preparation after meals TDS and also at night

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Upper GI Endoscopy and GORD Treatment

      According to the latest NICE guidance NG12 (updated in October 2015), patients with certain symptoms should be referred for upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy. Urgent direct access upper GI endoscopy should be offered to those with dysphagia or aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent direct access upper GI endoscopy should be considered for those with haematemesis, treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, raised platelet count with certain symptoms, or nausea/vomiting with certain symptoms.

      For mild gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) symptoms occurring less than once a week, antacids can be used as needed. For more frequent symptoms, a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is recommended. Initial treatment is a high dose PPI for four weeks, taken once daily 30-60 minutes before the first meal of the day. If symptoms persist after one month, offer another month at full dose. Doubling the dose of PPI can be considered for severe symptoms. If there is no response to PPI treatment, reconsider the diagnosis and consider specialist referral. A H2 receptor antagonist can be added to a PPI for patients with a partial response to PPI treatment.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - Coeliac disease screening should be conducted for all patients diagnosed with? ...

    Incorrect

    • Coeliac disease screening should be conducted for all patients diagnosed with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 14-month old infant presents with episodes of severe colic, associated with pallor...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month old infant presents with episodes of severe colic, associated with pallor and drawing of the legs upwards. This has been going on for several weeks.

      The mother has brought the child to see you because she noticed that there seemed to be blood and mucous in the stool yesterday.

      On examination there is a sausage-shaped mass palpable on the right side of the abdomen.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Intussusception: A Common Cause of Intestinal Obstruction in Infants

      Intussusception is a condition where a section of the bowel folds into itself, causing an obstruction. It is most commonly seen in infants over one month old, with the typical age of presentation being between two months to two years. The most common site of intussusception is the ileum passing into the caecum/colon through the ileocaecal valve.

      Symptoms of intussusception include severe colic, pallor, and drawing of legs upwards during episodes of pain. A sausage-shaped mass may be palpable in the abdomen, and parents may notice the passage of a redcurrant jelly stool (blood-stained mucous). In severe cases, children may present with abdominal distention and shock.

      The cause of intussusception is not always clear, but viral infections causing enlargement of Peyer’s patches have been implicated in forming a lead point for the development of intussusception. In children over the age of two, a specific lead point (such as a Meckel’s diverticulum or polyp) is more likely.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has diarrhoea that has become troublesome.
      Select from the list the single most suitable preparation to relieve her diarrhoea.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatin

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Medications: Pancreatin, Cholestyramine, Loperamide, Co-Phenotrope, and Ispaghula Husk

      Pancreatin is a combination of digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas that aid in the breakdown of protein, fat, and starch. It is commonly used to treat conditions where the pancreas is not producing enough enzymes, such as pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, or after surgical removal of the pancreas. Pancreatin should be taken with food or with medications that reduce stomach acid.

      Cholestyramine is a medication that binds to bile in the gut, preventing its reabsorption. It is primarily used to treat itching in patients with advanced liver disease and to prevent diarrhea in individuals with Crohn’s disease who have had a portion of their small intestine removed.

      Loperamide and co-phenotrope are anti-motility drugs that can be used to treat uncomplicated acute diarrhea in adults. These medications slow down the movement of the gut, allowing for more water to be absorbed and reducing the frequency of bowel movements.

      Ispaghula husk is a bulk-forming laxative that absorbs water in the gut, increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. It is commonly used to treat constipation and other bowel irregularities.

      Overall, these medications can be effective in treating a variety of gastrointestinal conditions and symptoms. However, it is important to consult with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.

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  • Question 27 - Barbara is a 64-year-old woman who presents to your clinic with a one-month...

    Incorrect

    • Barbara is a 64-year-old woman who presents to your clinic with a one-month history of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids. She also reports pain while swallowing. Barbara is otherwise feeling well. She has a past medical history of hypertension and is a non-smoker.

      Upon examination, Barbara's throat appears normal, and there are no other abnormalities detected on neurological and abdominal examination.

      What is the most suitable course of action for managing Barbara's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Odynophagia is a worrying symptom that can be indicative of oesophageal cancer. According to NICE guidelines, individuals with dysphagia or those aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should be urgently referred for direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy within 2 weeks to assess for oesophageal cancer.

      In Albert’s case, as he is presenting with dysphagia and odynophagia, urgent upper GI endoscopy within 2 weeks is the appropriate course of action. While blood tests such as FBC and CRP may provide some clues towards a cancer diagnosis, the priority is to rule out malignancy through endoscopy.

      Referral to speech and language therapy would not be appropriate at this stage, as the focus is on diagnosing or ruling out cancer. Prescribing analgesia may provide some relief for odynophagia, but it would not address the underlying issue of dysphagia or the need to investigate for malignancy.

      While a barium swallow may be useful in investigating dysphagia and odynophagia, urgent upper GI endoscopy is the most appropriate investigation to assess for oesophageal cancer.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus. The most common presenting symptom is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss, vomiting, and other possible features such as odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, and cough.

      To diagnose oesophageal cancer, upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is used, and endoscopic ultrasound is preferred for locoregional staging. CT scanning of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is used for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT may be used for detecting occult metastases if metastases are not seen on the initial staging CT scans. Laparoscopy is sometimes performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. In addition to surgical resection, many patients will be treated with adjuvant chemotherapy.

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  • Question 28 - A 56-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of acid reflux. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of acid reflux. Upon testing positive for Helicobacter pylori, he undergoes triple therapy with amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole. He is also taking ramipril and amlodipine for his hypertension. After completing the course of amoxicillin and clarithromycin, he continues on omeprazole.

      Several months later, he returns to his GP with complaints of muscle aches. His blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb: 150 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180)
      - Platelets: 215 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - WBC: 5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Na+: 142 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - K+: 3.9 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 24 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29)
      - Urea: 4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 75 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - Calcium: 2.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate: 1.2 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
      - Magnesium: 0.53 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)
      - Creatine kinase: 51 U/L (normal range: 35-250)

      Which medication is most likely responsible for the patient's muscle aches?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia, a condition that can lead to muscle weakness, is a potential side effect of long-term use of proton pump inhibitors. Although rare, this effect may occur after 3 months or more commonly after 1 year of therapy. However, clarithromycin, ramipril, amlodipine, and amoxicillin are not associated with hypomagnesaemia.

      Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that work by blocking the H+/K+ ATPase in the stomach parietal cells. This action is irreversible and helps to reduce the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole.

      Despite their effectiveness in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, PPIs can have adverse effects. These include hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia, which are low levels of sodium and magnesium in the blood, respectively. Prolonged use of PPIs can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, leading to an increased risk of fractures. Additionally, there is a potential for microscopic colitis and an increased risk of C. difficile infections.

      It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of PPIs with your healthcare provider and to use them only as directed. Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels and bone density may also be necessary for those on long-term PPI therapy.

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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started on a gluten-free diet.
      Select from the list the single most correct statement about her management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomysial antibodies disappear if the diet is maintained

      Explanation:

      Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet

      Coeliac disease is a condition where the immune system reacts to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. The resulting damage to the intestinal mucosa can cause a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhoea. However, starting a gluten-free diet can lead to rapid improvement.

      The diet involves avoiding all foods containing wheat, barley, or rye, such as bread, cake, and pies. Oats can be consumed in moderate quantities if they are free from other contaminating cereals, as they do not damage the intestinal mucosa in most coeliac patients. Rice, maize, potatoes, soya, jam, syrup, sugar, and treacle are all allowed. Gluten-free flour, bread, biscuits, and pasta can be prescribed on the NHS, and Coeliac UK provides a list of prescribable products.

      To monitor the response to the diet, serial tTGA or EMA antibodies can be used. If these antibodies continue to be present in the blood, it suggests dietary lapses.

      Supplements of calcium, vitamin D, iron, and folic acid are only necessary if dietary intake is inadequate, which is often the case, particularly in elderly patients. Most patients with coeliac disease have some degree of hyposplenism, which warrants immunisation against influenza, pneumococcus, and H. influenza type B. However, lifelong prophylactic antibiotics are not needed.

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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her diabetic annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her diabetic annual review. She reports feeling constantly fatigued for the past few months. Her blood work shows normal thyroid, liver, and renal function. However, her full blood count indicates a mild anemia with a hemoglobin level of 105 g/L and MCV of 80 fL. Her HbA1c is 52 mmol/mol, and her urine dipstick test is negative for ketones. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. The patient denies any gastrointestinal symptoms, has regular bowel movements, and has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous. Her weight is stable, and she doesn't experience abdominal pain or bloating. There is no known family history of gastrointestinal pathology or malignancy. Further blood tests confirm iron deficiency anemia. The patient follows a regular gluten-containing diet. What is the most appropriate initial serological test to perform for coeliac disease in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA endomysial antibody (EMA) testing

      Explanation:

      Serological testing for coeliac disease is used to determine if further investigation is necessary. The preferred first choice test is IgA transglutaminase, with IgA endomysial antibodies used if the result is equivocal. False negative results can occur in those with IgA deficiency, so this should be ruled out. HLA testing may be considered in specific situations but is not necessary for initial testing. If there is significant clinical suspicion of coeliac disease despite negative serological testing, referral to a specialist should still be offered. Accuracy of testing depends on following a gluten-containing diet for at least six weeks prior to testing. A clinical response to a gluten-free diet is not diagnostic of coeliac disease.

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      • Gastroenterology
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