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Question 1
Correct
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A 63 year old woman reports colicky abdominal pain and foul smelling diarrhoea on the 4th day following a cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis. Her surgery was complicated as the gallbladder spilled stones intraoperatively. She has been on ciprofloxacin therapy ever since her surgery. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:Clostridioides difficile (C. difficile; formerly known as Clostridium difficile) is a gram-positive rod-shaped bacillus that is commonly involved in antibiotic-associated diarrhoea. As the bacterial spores are difficult to eradicate and easily transmitted (via faecal-oral transmission), the C. difficile infection rate is particularly high among hospitalized patients and residents in long-term care facilities.
Colonization with C. difficile occurs following antibiotic treatment of other diseases, as the bacteria is particularly resistant to antibiotics. The resulting damage to the intestinal flora promotes infection, which may be accompanied by high fever, abdominal pain, and characteristically foul-smelling diarrhoea. The most severe form of C. difficile infection is pseudomembranous colitis, which may lead to ileus, sepsis, and toxic megacolon. In most cases, however, colonization results in asymptomatic carriage rather than symptomatic infection.
Diagnosis is usually made via detection of the C. difficile toxin and/or corresponding genes in stool samples. C. difficile infections are treated with oral vancomycin or oral fidaxomicin. Following diagnosis, strict adherence to hygiene measures and patient isolation is essential, especially in hospitals and other healthcare settings. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 62 year old woman who has undergone a right hip hemiarthroplasty for a fractured femoral neck, is found to have low serum sodium of 124mmol/L a few days postoperatively. Which of the following is the least likely cause of her deranged labs?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Vomiting
Explanation:Vomiting usually results in hypokalaemia, and hyponatremia would least likely occur as a result of it. Hyponatremia is a common postoperative finding among patients and hence serum sodium must be carefully monitored. Addison disease, SIADH, diuretic therapy can all cause hyponatremia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 3
Correct
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A 47-year-old male is recovering in hospital following a total hip replacement. He develops profuse and watery diarrhoea. Several other patients have been suffering from similar symptoms. Infection with which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?
Your Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile) colitis results from a disturbance of the normal bacterial flora of the colon, colonization by C difficile, and the release of toxins that cause mucosal inflammation and damage. Antibiotic therapy is the key factor that alters the colonic flora. C difficile infection (CDI) occurs primarily in hospitalized patients.
The diagnosis of C difficile colitis should be suspected in any patient with diarrhoea who has received antibiotics within the previous 3 months, has been recently hospitalized, and/or has an occurrence of diarrhoea within 48 hours or more after hospitalization. In addition, C difficile can be a cause of diarrhoea in community dwellers without previous hospitalization or antibiotic exposureThe following recommendations on Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) were released on February 2018 by the Infectious Diseases Society of America (ISDA) and Society for Healthcare Epidemiology of America (SHEA).
Diagnosis (adults)
Patients with unexplained and new-onset ≥3 unformed stools in 24 hours are the preferred target population for testing for CDI.
Use a stool toxin test as part of a multistep algorithm (i.e., glutamate dehydrogenase [GDH] plus toxin; GDH plus toxin, arbitrated by nucleic acid amplification test [NAAT]; or NAAT plus toxin) rather than NAAT alone for all specimens when there are no pre-agreed institutional criteria for patient stool submission.
Use NAAT alone or a multistep algorithm for testing (i.e., GDH plus toxin; GDH plus toxin, arbitrated by NAAT; or NAAT plus toxin) rather than a toxin test alone when there are pre-agreed institutional criteria for patient stool submission.
Do not perform repeat testing (within 7 days) during the same episode of diarrhoea and do not test stool from asymptomatic patients, except for epidemiologic studies -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 62 year old man presents with sudden onset of palpitations. ECG shows broad complex tachycardia at a rate of 150 beats per minute. The blood pressure is 120/82 mmHg and there is no evidence of heart failure. The doctor wants to prescribe a rate controlling medication. Which of the following should be avoided in this case?
Your Answer: Adenosine
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:The use of intravenous diltiazem or verapamil is contraindicated in patients with ventricular tachycardia. The IV administration of a calcium channel blocker can precipitate cardiac arrest in such patients.
Marked hemodynamic deterioration and ventricular fibrillation have occurred in patients with wide-complex ventricular tachycardia (QRS >= 0.12 seconds) treated with IV verapamil. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 57 year old woman arrives at the clinic due to a pathological fracture of the proximal femur. Which of the following primary sites is the most likely source of her disease?
Your Answer: Kidney
Correct Answer: Breast
Explanation:Breast cancer frequently metastasizes to the skeleton, interrupting the normal bone remodelling process and causing bone degradation. Breast cancer is the commonest cause of lytic bone metastasis in women of this age, especially from amongst those options given.
Osteolytic lesions are the end result of osteoclast activity; however, osteoclast differentiation and activation are mediated by osteoblast production of RANKL (receptor activator for NFκB ligand) and several osteoclastogenic cytokines. Osteoblasts themselves are negatively affected by cancer cells as evidenced by an increase in apoptosis and a decrease in proteins required for new bone formation. Thus, bone loss is due to both increased activation of osteoclasts and suppression of osteoblasts. The clinical outcomes of bone pain, pathologic fractures, nerve compression syndrome, and metabolic disturbances leading to hypercalcemia and acid/base imbalance severely reduce the quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male who has a long term history of alcohol misuse is admitted with a history of an attack of vomiting after an episode of binge drinking. After vomiting, he developed sudden onset left-sided chest pain, which is pleuritic in nature. On examination, he is profoundly septic and drowsy with severe epigastric tenderness and left sided chest pain. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Myocardial infarct
Correct Answer: Boerhaaves syndrome
Explanation:Boerhaave’s syndrome is also known as spontaneous oesophageal rupture or effort rupture of the oesophagus. Although vomiting is thought to be the most common cause, other causes include weightlifting, defecation, epileptic seizures, abdominal trauma, compressed air injury, and childbirth, all of which can increase the pressure in the oesophagus and cause a barogenic oesophageal rupture.
It usually follows excessive alcohol intake or overeating, or both, because either of these can induce vomiting.
The rupture is transmural.
A provider should suspect Boerhaave’s syndrome when a patient presents with retrosternal chest pain with or without subcutaneous emphysema when associated with heavy alcohol intake and severe or repeated vomiting. Up to one-third of patients do not present with these symptoms. The actual clinical presentation of Boerhaave syndrome will depend on the level of the perforation, the degree of leakage, and the time since the onset of the injury. Typically, the patient will present with pain at the site of perforation, usually in the neck, chest, epigastric region, or upper abdomen. Cervical perforations can present with neck pain, dysphagia, or dysphonia; intra-thoracic perforations with chest pain; and intra-abdominal perforations with epigastric pain radiating to the shoulder or back. History of increased intra-oesophageal pressure for any reason followed by chest pain should prompt consideration of this condition. Physical exam findings may include abnormal vitals (tachycardia, tachypnoea, fever), decreased breath sounds on the perforated side, mediastinal emphysema, and Hamman’s sign (mediastinal “crackling” accompanying every heartbeat) in left lateral decubitus position. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man with a history of carcinoma of the distal oesophagus undergoes an Ivor-Lewis oesophagogastrectomy. The next day a pale opalescent liquid is noticed in the right chest drain. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chyle leak
Explanation:Chyle leakage is one of the most challenging complications following an esophagectomy and can lead to hypovolemia, metabolic and nutritional depletion, infection, and even death. The leakage occurs in 1.1 to 3.7% of esophagectomy patients; mortality occurs in excess of 50% of patients. Surgeons administer a lipid rich material prior to surgery to facilitate its identification if it occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 64 year old man registered at the hernia clinic, suddenly presents with speech problems and left sided weakness which has lasted longer than 5 minutes. The head CT shows no signs of intracerebral bleed. Which of the following would be the next most appropriate step of management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral for thrombolysis
Explanation:Patients treated with moderate-dose intravenous thrombolysis within 3 hours after the onset of stroke symptoms benefit substantially from therapy, despite a modest increase in the rate of symptomatic haemorrhage. This patient is within 3h of symptom onset of a stroke, therefore he should be urgently referred to the medical team for thrombolysis, before Aspirin is given. According to the current guidelines, in order to limit the
risk of an intracranial haemorrhagic complication, no antiplatelet treatment should be administered in the 24 hours that follow treatment of an ischemic stroke by intravenous thrombolysis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident. A FAST scan in the emergency department shows free intrabdominal fluid. A laparotomy is performed during which there is evidence of small liver laceration that has stopped bleeding and a tear to the inferior pole of the spleen. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Attempt measures to conserve the spleen
Explanation:Spleen injuries are among the most frequent trauma-related injuries. At present, they are classified according to the anatomy of the injury. The optimal treatment strategy, however, should take into consideration the hemodynamic status, the anatomic derangement, and the associated injuries. The management of splenic trauma patients aims to restore the homeostasis and the normal physiopathology especially considering the modern tools for bleeding management.
The trend in the management of splenic injury continues to favour nonoperative or conservative management. This varies from institution to institution but usually includes patients with stable hemodynamic signs, stable haemoglobin levels over 12-48 hours, minimal transfusion requirements (2 U or less), CT scan injury scale grade of 1 or 2 without a blush, and patients younger than 55 years.
Surgical therapy is usually reserved for patients with signs of ongoing bleeding or hemodynamic instability. In some institutions, CT scan–assessed grade V splenic injuries with stable vitals may be observed closely without operative intervention, but most patients with these injuries will undergo exploratory laparotomy for more precise staging, repair, or removal.A retrospective analysis by Scarborough et al compared the effectiveness of nonoperative management with immediate splenectomy for adult patients with grade IV or V blunt splenic injury. The study found that both approaches had similar rates of in-hospital mortality (11.5% in the splenectomy group vs 10.0%), however, there was a higher incidence of infectious complications in the immediate splenectomy group. The rate of failure in the nonoperative management was 20.1% and symptoms of a bleeding disorder, the need for an early blood transfusion, and grade V injury were all early predictors of nonoperative management failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old male presents with central chest pain and vomiting. He has drunk a bottle of vodka. On examination, there is some mild crepitus in the epigastric region. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal perforation
Explanation:Boerhaave syndrome classically presents as the Mackler triad of chest pain, vomiting, and subcutaneous emphysema due to oesophageal rupture, although these symptoms are not always present.
The classic clinical presentation of Boerhaave syndrome usually consists of repeated episodes of retching and vomiting, typically in a middle-aged man with recent excessive dietary and alcohol intake.
These repeated episodes of retching and vomiting are followed by a sudden onset of severe chest pain in the lower thorax and the upper abdomen. The pain may radiate to the back or to the left shoulder. Swallowing often aggravates the pain.
Typically, hematemesis is not seen after oesophageal rupture, which helps to distinguish it from the more common Mallory-Weiss tear.
Swallowing may precipitate coughing because of the communication between the oesophagus and the pleural cavity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A young lady is stabbed in the chest when she was leaving a party and she develops a cardiac arrest in the A&E department. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thoracotomy
Explanation:Answer: Thoracotomy
Cardiac arrest after penetrating chest trauma may be an indication for emergency thoracotomy. A successful outcome is possible if the patient has a cardiac tamponade and the definitive intervention is performed within 10 minutes of loss of cardiac output.
EMERGENCY “CLAM SHELL” THORACOTOMYIndication:
Penetrating chest/epigastric trauma associated with cardiac arrest (any rhythm).
Contraindications:
Definite loss of cardiac output for greater than 10 minutes.Any patient who has a cardiac output, including hypotensive patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old motorist was involved in a road traffic accident in which he collided head-on with another car at high speed. He was wearing a seatbelt and the airbags were deployed. When rescuers arrived, he was conscious and lucid but died immediately after. What could have explained his death?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic transection
Explanation:Aortic transection was the underlying cause of death in this patient.
Aortic transection, or traumatic aortic rupture, is typically the result of a blunt aortic injury in the context of rapid deceleration. This condition is commonly fatal as blood in the aorta is under great pressure and can quickly escape the vessel through a tear, resulting in rapid haemorrhagic shock and death. A temporary haematoma may prevent the immediate death. Injury to the aorta during a sudden deceleration commonly originates near the terminal section of the aortic arch, also known as the isthmus. This portion lies just distal to the take-off of the left subclavian artery at the intersection of the mobile and fixed portions of the aorta. As many as 80% of the patients with aortic transection die at the scene before reaching a trauma centre for treatment.
A widened mediastinum may be seen on the X-ray of a person with aortic rupture.
Other types of thoracic trauma include:
1. Tension pneumothorax and pneumothorax
2. Haemothorax
3. Flail chest
4. Cardiac tamponade
5. Blunt cardiac injury
6. Pulmonary contusion
7. Diaphragm disruption
8. Mediastinal traversing wounds -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old aid worker becomes unwell whilst helping at the scene of a recent earthquake. He develops vomiting and soon afterwards, profuse watery diarrhoea. What is the most likely infective organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vibrio cholera
Explanation:The passage of extremely loose and watery stools is characteristic of Vibrio cholera infection. Most of the other gastroenteric infections do not produce such watery motions.
Vibrio cholerae is a Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacterium. It’s natural habitat is brackish or saltwater. Some strains of V. cholerae cause the disease cholera.
Transmission occurs through the ingestion of contaminated water or food. Sudden large outbreaks are usually caused by a contaminated water supply. Outbreaks and endemic and sporadic cases are often attributed to raw or undercooked seafood.
Symptoms of the disease include sudden onset of effortless vomiting and profuse watery diarrhoea. Correction of fluid and electrolyte losses are the mainstay of treatment. Most cases resolve shortly afterwards, and therefore, antibiotics are not generally indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 21 year old female presents to the clinic with axillary lymphadenopathy and symptoms suggestive of Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following tests should be done?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Excision biopsy of a lymph node
Explanation:Answer: Excision biopsy of a lymph node
Hodgkin lymphoma is an uncommon cancer that develops in the lymphatic system, which is a network of vessels and glands spread throughout your body. In Hodgkin lymphoma, B-lymphocytes (a particular type of lymphocyte) start to multiply in an abnormal way and begin to collect in certain parts of the lymphatic system, such as the lymph nodes (glands). The affected lymphocytes lose their infection-fighting properties, making you more vulnerable to infection. The most common symptom of Hodgkin lymphoma is a painless swelling in a lymph node, usually in the neck, armpit or groin.
A histologic diagnosis of Hodgkin lymphoma is always required. An excisional lymph node biopsy is recommended because the lymph node architecture is important for histologic classification.Features of Hodgkin lymphoma include the following:
Asymptomatic lymphadenopathy may be present (above the diaphragm in 80% of patients)
Constitutional symptoms (unexplained weight loss [>10% of total body weight] within the past 6 months, unexplained fever >38º C, or drenching night sweats) are present in 40% of patients; collectively, these are known as B symptoms
Intermittent fever is observed in approximately 35% of cases; infrequently, the classic Pel-Ebstein fever is observed (high fever for 1-2 week, followed by an afebrile period of 1-2 week)
Chest pain, cough, shortness of breath, or a combination of those may be present due to a large mediastinal mass or lung involvement; rarely, haemoptysis occurs
Pruritus may be present
Pain at sites of nodal disease, precipitated by drinking alcohol, occurs in fewer than 10% of patients but is specific for Hodgkin lymphoma
Back or bone pain may rarely occur
A family history is also helpful; in particular, nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma (NSHL) has a strong genetic component and has often previously been diagnosed in the family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man sustains a severe facial fracture, and reconstruction is planned. Which of the following investigations will facilitate preoperative planning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computerised tomography of the head
Explanation:Significant facial fractures may have an intracranial effect. Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the head allows delineation of the injury extent, and a 3D reconstruction of images can be done. An Orthopantomogram (OPT) provides good images of mandible and surrounding bony structures but cannot give intracranial details. X-ray of the skull lacks the details important in modern practice.
Craniomaxillofacial (CMF) injuries in the UK are due to:
1. Interpersonal violence (52%)
2. Motor vehicle accidents (16%)
3. Sporting injuries (19%)
4. Falls (11%) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman undergoes a mastectomy and latissimus dorsi flap reconstruction for breast cancer. For optimal cosmetic results, a McGhan breast implant is placed under the myocutaneous flap. Three weeks postoperatively, the patient continues to suffer from recurrent wound infections resistant to multiple courses of antibiotics. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis
Explanation:Staphylococcus epidermidis tends to colonise plastic devices (such as the breast implant in this scenario) and forms a biofilm which allows colonisation with other bacterial agents. It is extremely difficult to eradicate the infection once established, and the usual treatment is removal of the device.
Staphylococcus epidermidis is a gram-positive facultative anaerobic bacterium. It is part of the normal human flora, typically the skin flora, and less commonly the mucosal flora. It is also one of the most frequently detected pathogens in infections following implant surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 7 year old boy arrives at the clinic complaining of recurrent anal pruritis. Examination reveals a small worm like structure protruding from the anal orifice. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enterobius vermicularis
Explanation:Pinworm infection is caused by a small, thin, white roundworm called Enterobius vermicularis. Although pinworm infection can affect all people, it most commonly occurs among children, institutionalized persons, and close-contacts. Pruritus is the main symptom, as there is a lack of tissue invasion. It is rare for individuals to have any signs of systemic sepsis. Pinworm infection is treatable with over-the-counter or prescription medication, but reinfection, which occurs easily, should be prevented
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 64 year old man with a history of recurrent anal cancer undergoes a salvage abdominoperineal excision of the anus and rectum. He was treated with radical chemotherapy prior to the procedure. At the conclusion of the surgery, there is a 10cm by 10cm perineal skin defect. Which of the following closure options would be most appropriate in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pedicled myocutaneous flap
Explanation:As a reconstructive option after extensive surgery, pedicled musculocutaneous flaps offer several advantages in the setting of previous radiotherapy. Rotational skin flaps will comprise of irradiated tissue and thus won’t heal well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man has a tissue defect measuring 3 x 1 cm, following the excision of a lipoma from the scapula. What should be the best option for managing the wound?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct primary closure
Explanation:This wound should be managed by primary closure as there is minimal associated tissue loss and the surgery is minor and uncontaminated.
Primary wound closure is the fastest type of closures, and is also known as healing by primary intention. Wounds that heal by primary closure have a small, clean defect that minimizes the risk of infection and requires new blood vessels and keratinocytes to migrate only a small distance. Standard methods of suturing are usually sufficient for primary wound closure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old female with haematemesis is admitted to accident and emergency in hypovolaemic shock. She undergoes resuscitation including administration of packed red cells. The blood transfusion centre will not release certain blood products unless a ‘massive bleeding’ protocol is initiated. Which of the following is not a definition of massive bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ongoing blood loss of 100 mL/min
Explanation:Various definitions of massive blood transfusion (MBT) have been published in the medical literature such as:
– Replacement of one entire blood volume within 24 h
– Transfusion of >10 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) in 24 h
– Transfusion of >20 units of PRBCs in 24 h
– Transfusion of >4 units of PRBCs in 1 h when on-going need is foreseeable
– Replacement of 50% of total blood volume (TBV) within 3 h.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 59 year old man presents with septicaemia 48 hours after undergoing a difficult colonoscopy to assess the extent of a caecal carcinoma. His abdomen is soft and non tender. Blood cultures grow gram positive cocci. Which of the following organisms is likely responsible for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus bovis
Explanation:Streptococcus bovis (S. bovis) bacteria are associated with colorectal cancer and adenoma. S. bovis is currently named S. gallolyticus. 25-80% of patients with S. bovis/gallolyticus bacteraemia have concomitant colorectal tumours. Colonic neoplasia may arise years after the presentation of bacteraemia or infectious endocarditis of S. bovis/gallolyticus. The presence of S. bovis/gallolyticus bacteraemia and/or endocarditis is also related to the presence of villous or tubular-villous adenomas in the large intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 20 year old man is involved in a car accident where he is thrown out of the car. He is seen with distended neck veins and a weak pulse on admission. The trachea is central. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hemopericardium
Explanation:Answer: Hemopericardium
Hemopericardium refers to the presence of blood within the pericardial cavity, i.e. a sanguineous pericardial effusion. If enough blood enters the pericardial cavity, then a potentially fatal cardiac tamponade can occur. There is a very long list of causes but some of the more common are:
-ruptured myocardial infarction
-ruptured left ventricular aneurysm
-aortic dissection
-pericarditis
-trauma
-blunt/penetrating/deceleration
-iatrogenic, e.g. pacemaker wire insertion
-cardiac malignancies
-ruptured coronary artery aneurysm
-post-thrombolysisCardiac tamponade is a clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space, resulting in reduced ventricular filling and subsequent hemodynamic compromise. The condition is a medical emergency, the complications of which include pulmonary oedema, shock, and death.
Symptoms vary with the acuteness and underlying cause of the tamponade. Patients with acute tamponade may present with dyspnoea, tachycardia, and tachypnoea. Cold and clammy extremities from hypoperfusion are also observed in some patients. Other symptoms and signs may include the following:
Elevated jugular venous pressurePulsus paradoxus
Chest pressure
Decreased urine output
Confusion
Dysphoria
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old chef presents to the hospital with profuse bloody diarrhoea. He also complains of frequent urge to defecate and pain before and during defecation. A sigmoidoscopy is arranged which reveals necrosis and ulceration of the descending colon mucosa. What is the most likely underlying cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infection with enteroinvasive E. coli
Explanation:Necrosis and ulcers of the colon are a feature of infection with enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC). It presents with a dysentery-type illness similar to shigellosis.
E. coli have different strains that cause a wide range of conditions. The four main types are:
1. Enteropathogenic E. coli—cause watery diarrhoea, vomiting, and low-grade fever
2. Enteroinvasive E. coli—cause dysentery, large bowel necrosis, and ulcers
3. Enterotoxigenic E. coli—cause traveller’s diarrhoea
4. Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli 0157:H7—cause haemorrhagic colitis, haemolytic uremic syndrome, and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old African man is admitted to the hospital with acute severe abdominal pain. He has just flown to UK after a long-haul flight, and the pain developed mid-flight. On examination, there is tenderness in the left upper abdominal quadrant. His blood tests, done on his arrival, show:Hb: 5 g/dLWCC: 20 x 10^9/LRetic count: 30% What is the most likely underlying cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sickle cell anaemia
Explanation:The combination of a high reticulocyte count and severe anaemia indicates aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell anaemia. Another differential can be that of a transient aplastic crisis due to parvovirus. This is less likely as it causes reticulocytopenia rather than reticulocytosis.
Parvovirus B19 infects erythroid progenitor cells in the bone marrow and causes temporary cessation of red blood cell production. People who have underlying haematologic abnormalities such as sickle cell anaemia are at risk of cessation of red blood cell production if they become infected. This can result in a transient aplastic crisis. It is more common in people of African, Indian, and Middle Eastern backgrounds. Typically, these patients have a viral prodrome followed by anaemia, often with haemoglobin concentrations falling below 5.0 g/dL and reticulocytosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness burn to her right arm, which she got when a firework that she was playing with exploded. Which statement is not characteristic of the situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted
Explanation:Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted
Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis. Third-degree burns may also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. The burn site appears white or charred. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed. These are not normally painful until after skin grafting is done since the nerve endings have been destroyed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female undergoes an ERCP for jaundice. 36 hours following the procedure she develops a fever and rigours. A blood culture is taken, which of the following organisms is most likely to be cultured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:One of the most serious post-ERCP complications is cholangitis leading to subsequent septicaemia. Enteric bacteria enter the biliary tree by the hematogenous route or following endoscopic or radiologic manipulation. Improperly disinfected endoscopes and accessories may also introduce infection into the biliary tree. The most common organisms responsible for infection after ERCP are the Enterobacteriaceae (especially Escherichia coli and Klebsiella species), alpha-haemolytic streptococci, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterococcus, and Staphylococcus epidermidis. In most patients with acute cholangitis, a single organism is isolated from blood cultures.
Acute cholangitis is a clinical syndrome characterized by fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain that develops as a result of stasis and infection in the biliary tract. It is also referred to as Charcot’s Triad. Cholangitis was first described by Charcot as a serious and life-threatening illness; however, it is now recognized that the severity can range from mild to life-threatening.
Risk factors for post-ERCP infection include the use of combined percutaneous and endoscopic procedures, stent placement in malignant strictures, the presence of jaundice, low case volume, and incomplete or failed biliary drainage. Patients who are immunocompromised are more likely to experience an infectious complication.
Prevention and/or reduction of the risk of post-ERCP infectious complications can be achieved by judicious use of preprocedural antibiotics and intraprocedural steps, such as minimizing or avoiding contrast injection in patients with known biliary obstruction or cholangitis, endoscopic decompression, including the placement of a biliary stent when complete drainage cannot be achieved, and prompt percutaneous drainage if endoscopic drainage is not possible or incomplete. Prophylactic preprocedural antibiotics should be given to patients with jaundice and suspected mechanical obstruction. In addition, patients with sclerosing cholangitis, pancreatic pseudocysts, and those who are immunocompromised should also receive preprocedural antibiotics
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A young lady is rushed to the A&E department after being stabbed on her way home. She coughs up blood and a drain is placed into the left chest which removes 750ml of frank blood. She fails to improve and has been given 4 units of blood. Her CVP is now 13. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thoracotomy in theatre
Explanation:Answer: Thoracotomy in theatre
A high CVP of 13 indicates cardiac tamponade. Cardiac tamponade is a clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space, resulting in reduced ventricular filling and subsequent hemodynamic compromise. The condition is a medical emergency, the complications of which include pulmonary oedema, shock, and death.
A pericardiotomy via a thoracotomy is mandatory for lifesaving cardiac decompression in acute traumatic cardiac tamponade in cases of ineffective drainage due to clot formation within the pericardial space. Wherever possible a patient needing surgery for penetrating chest trauma should be moved to an operating theatre where optimal surgical expertise and facilities are available. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man with gunshot to the abdomen is transferred to the operating theatre, following his arrival in the A&E department. He is unstable and his FAST scan is positive. During the operation, extensive laceration to the right lobe of the liver and involvement of the IVC are found, along with massive haemorrhage. What should be the most appropriate approach to blood component therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:There is strong evidence to support haemostatic resuscitation in the setting of massive haemorrhage due to trauma. This advocates the use of 1:1:1 ratio.
Uncontrolled haemorrhage accounts for up to 39% of all trauma-related deaths. In the UK, approximately 2% of all trauma patients need massive transfusion. Massive transfusion is defined as the replacement of a patient’s total blood volume in less than 24 hours or the acute administration of more than half the patient’s estimated blood volume per hour. During acute bleeding, the practice of haemostatic resuscitation has been shown to reduce mortality rates. It is based on the principle of transfusion of blood components in fixed ratios. For example, packed red cells, FFP, and platelets are administered in a ratio of 1:1:1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman is in the surgical intensive care unit. She suffered a flail chest injury several hours ago and was, subsequently, intubated and ventilated. However, for the past few minutes, she has become increasingly hypoxic and now requires increased ventilation pressures. What is the most likely cause of such deterioration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Explanation:A flail chest segment may lacerate the underlying lung and create a flap valve. Tension pneumothorax can, therefore, occur by intubation and ventilation in this situation.
Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition that develops when air is trapped in the pleural cavity under positive pressure, displacing mediastinal structures and compromising cardiopulmonary function. The development of a tension pneumothorax can be life-threatening during mechanical ventilation, since with each breath, the pressure within the pneumothorax becomes greater, compromising both ventilatory and cardiovascular function.
Signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax include:
1. Chest pain that usually has a sudden onset, is sharp, and may lead to feeling of tightness in the chest
2. Dyspnoea and progressive hypoxia
3. Tachycardia
4. Hyperventilation
5. Cough
6. FatigueOn examination, hyper-resonant percussion note and tracheal deviation are typically found.
CXR shows:
1. Lung collapse towards the hilum
2. Contralateral mediastinal deviation
3. Diaphragmatic depression and increased rib separation
4. Increased thoracic volume
5. Ipsilateral flattening of the heart borderManagement options for tension pneumothorax include
immediate needle decompression followed by definitive wide-bore chest drain insertion (without waiting for CXR results). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a significant laceration to the lateral aspect of the nose, associated with tissue loss. What should be the best management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rotational skin flap
Explanation:Nasal injuries can be challenging to manage and where there is tissue loss, it can be difficult to primarily close them and obtain a satisfactory aesthetic result. Debridement together with a rotational skin flap would produce the best results.
A rotation flap is a semi-circular skin flap that is rotated into the defect on a fulcrum point. It provides the ability to mobilize large areas of tissue with a wide vascular base for reconstruction. Rotation flaps may be pedicled or free. Pedicled flaps are more reliable but are limited in the range of movement. Free flaps have increased range but carry greater risk of breakdown as they require vascular anastomosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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