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Question 1
Correct
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As a junior doctor in an inpatient psychiatric unit, you have assessed a 25-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Your consultant has initiated treatment with olanzapine and baseline blood tests have been conducted. According to NICE guidelines, what further investigation is recommended for this patient?
Your Answer: ECG
Explanation:Patients starting antipsychotic medications should have a baseline ECG, along with weight, waist circumference, pulse and BP measurements, blood tests (including fasting glucose, HbA1c, lipids and prolactin), assessment of movement disorders and nutritional status. An ECG may also be necessary if the medication’s summary of product characteristics recommends it, if the patient has a high risk of cardiovascular disease, has a personal history of cardiovascular disease, or is being admitted as an inpatient. As olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic that can cause QT prolongation, an ECG is particularly important for this patient because she is currently hospitalized.
Monitoring patients who are taking antipsychotic medication is a crucial aspect of their treatment. In addition to regular clinical follow-ups, extensive monitoring is required to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends a range of tests and assessments to be carried out at various intervals. At the start of therapy, a full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) should be conducted. Clozapine, in particular, requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially on a weekly basis. Lipids and weight should be measured at the start of therapy, after three months, and annually thereafter. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin levels should be checked at the start of therapy, after six months, and annually thereafter. Blood pressure should be measured at baseline and frequently during dose titration. An electrocardiogram should be conducted at baseline, and cardiovascular risk assessment should be carried out annually. For more detailed information, please refer to the BNF, which also provides specific recommendations for individual drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has been using diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for allergy relief. She reports using it frequently and her doctor suspects she may be experiencing symptoms of the anticholinergic syndrome (ACS).
Which of the following statements accurately describes the anticholinergic syndrome?Your Answer: Constricted pupils occur
Correct Answer: Hot, dry skin occurs
Explanation:Understanding Anticholinergic Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment
Anticholinergic syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is an inhibition of cholinergic neurotransmission at muscarinic receptor sites. It can be caused by the ingestion of various medications, intentional overdose, inadvertent ingestion, medical non-compliance, or geriatric polypharmacy. The syndrome produces central nervous system effects, peripheral nervous system effects, or both, resulting in a range of symptoms.
Symptoms of anticholinergic syndrome include flushing, dry skin and mucous membranes, mydriasis with loss of accommodation, altered mental status, fever, sinus tachycardia, decreased bowel sounds, functional ileus, urinary retention, hypertension, tremulousness, and myoclonic jerking. Hot, dry skin and constricted pupils are also common manifestations.
Treatment for anticholinergic syndrome involves stabilizing the patient in A&E and removing the toxin from the gastrointestinal tract. This can be done with a single dose of activated charcoal by mouth or nasogastric tube. Gastric lavage, followed by activated charcoal administration, is acceptable for patients presenting with altered mental state and within 1 hour of ingestion.
Physostigmine salicylate is the classic antidote for anticholinergic toxicity. While most patients can be safely treated without it, it is recommended when tachydysrhythmia is present. However, physostigmine is contraindicated in patients with cardiac conduction disturbances on ECG.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and treatment of anticholinergic syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients who may present with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner with his mother, having just woken up from a nap and experienced twitching of the left side of his mouth. He complains of a ‘buzzing’ sensation in his lips. His speech is unclear and he drooled from the left side of his mouth. His symptoms resolved within two minutes and he remained conscious throughout the episode.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy (BRE)
Explanation:Types of Epilepsy: Characteristics and Differences
Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures. There are different types of epilepsy, each with its own set of clinical features and diagnostic criteria. Here are some of the most common types of epilepsy and their distinguishing characteristics:
Benign Rolandic Epilepsy (BRE)
BRE, also known as childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes, is characterized by seizures that often occur during sleep or just before waking. Children may experience paraesthesia of their lips, tongue, or the inside of their mouth, which can interfere with speech and cause drooling. Twitching of one side of the mouth or face often develops, followed by twitching in the limbs on the same side. Seizures typically last less than two minutes, and the child remains conscious.Absence Seizures
Absence seizures are a form of generalized epilepsy that impairs consciousness. Children are most commonly affected, and the seizures usually last only a few seconds but may occur many times a day. During the absence, the child stops activity and stares blankly, not responding to questions. There may be lip-smacking or facial tics. An EEG will reveal a characteristic spike-and-wave activity.Temporal Lobe Epilepsy (TLE)
TLE is characterized by partial and/or focal seizures that may be simple or complex, with some loss of awareness. The clinical features of TLE reflect the function of the temporal lobe, primarily speech, taste, smell, and memory. Presentations may include déjà vu, gastrointestinal disturbance, amnesia during an attack, olfactory or gustatory hallucinations, and abnormal sensations crawling up the body. Repetitive vocalizations, automatism, and lip-smacking may be seen.Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME)
JME describes generalized epilepsy that impairs consciousness. JME usually presents in later childhood, with a peak onset at 10–16 years. The defining seizure is myoclonic and usually occurs in the first hour after waking. These seizures occur as sudden jerks, which commonly involve the arms and/or trunk. However, any muscle may be affected. The patient is generally conscious while myoclonic jerks are occurring. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures often accompany myoclonic seizures in JME, which may lead to reduced consciousness.Infantile Spasms
Infantile spasms develop in the first year of life, with peak -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You assess a 28-year-old female patient in the ED who has been admitted due to an acute exacerbation of her asthma. What is the most indicative feature of a life-threatening attack in this case?
Your Answer: Respiratory rate of 42 / min
Correct Answer: Peak flow of 30% best or predicted
Explanation:Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.
Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 50-year-old man visits his doctor for routine blood tests before starting a statin medication. During the tests, his renal function is discovered to be impaired, and he is referred for further evaluation.
Na+ 135 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Urea 15 mmol/l
Creatinine 152 µmol/l
What sign would suggest that the man's condition is chronic rather than acute?Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Distinguishing between Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
One of the most effective ways to differentiate between acute kidney injury (AKI) and chronic kidney disease (CKD) is through the use of renal ultrasound. In most cases, patients with CKD will have small kidneys that are bilateral. However, there are some exceptions to this rule, including individuals with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, diabetic nephropathy in its early stages, amyloidosis, and HIV-associated nephropathy.
In addition to renal ultrasound, there are other features that can suggest CKD rather than AKI. For example, individuals with CKD may experience hypocalcaemia due to a lack of vitamin D. By identifying these distinguishing factors, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with kidney disease. Proper diagnosis is crucial, as the treatment and management of AKI and CKD differ significantly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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In a 20-year-old man with primary generalised epilepsy, what is the most suitable initial oral treatment option?
Your Answer: Valproate
Explanation:First-Line Treatments for Seizures: A Guide to Medications
When it comes to treating seizures, there are several medications available. However, not all medications are suitable for every type of seizure. Here is a breakdown of some commonly used medications and their recommended uses:
Valproate: This medication is recommended as a first-line treatment for children, young people, and adults with newly diagnosed generalized tonic-clonic seizures. However, it is important to be aware of the teratogenic and developmental risks associated with valproate.
Carbamazepine: This medication is recommended as a first-line treatment for new-onset focal seizures, but not for generalized seizures.
Topiramate: While topiramate is not routinely used as a first-line treatment for any type of seizure, it can be used as an adjunct.
Phenytoin: This medication is useful as a rescue medication in status epilepticus, but should not be considered first-line for any seizure type due to troublesome long-term side effects.
Phenobarbital: This medication is now rarely used for seizures due to its unacceptable side effects when compared to more modern alternatives.
Overall, the first-choice treatments for primary generalized epilepsy are lamotrigine and valproate. For partial (localization-related) epilepsy, carbamazepine, valproate, lamotrigine, and oxcarbazepine are all reasonable first choices.
In summary, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best medication for an individual’s specific type of seizure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week history of vomiting after every feed and then appearing very hungry afterwards. His weight has remained at 4 kg for the past two weeks, and for the past two days, the vomiting has become projectile. His birthweight was 3.6 kg. He is exclusively breastfed. A small mass can be palpated in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of vomiting and poor weight gain in infants
Vomiting and poor weight gain are common symptoms in infants, but they can be caused by different conditions that require specific management. One possible cause is pyloric stenosis, which results from an enlarged muscle at the outlet of the stomach, leading to projectile vomiting, dehydration, and failure to thrive. Another possible cause is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which may also involve vomiting, but not projectile, and may respond to conservative measures such as frequent feeds and upright positioning, or medication such as Gaviscon® or proton pump inhibitors. Cow’s milk protein allergy is another potential cause, which may present with a range of symptoms, including vomiting, but not projectile, and may require an exclusion diet for the mother if breastfeeding. Gastroenteritis is a common cause of vomiting and diarrhoea in infants, but it usually resolves within a few days and does not cause an abdominal mass. Finally, volvulus is a rare but serious condition that involves a twisted bowel, leading to acute obstruction and ischaemia, which requires urgent surgical intervention. Therefore, a careful history, examination, and investigations, such as ultrasound or blood tests, may help to differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 39-year-old man complains of nasal obstruction and loud snoring. He reports that these symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past two months. Specifically, he feels that his left nostril is blocked while his right nostril feels normal. He denies any history of nosebleeds and reports feeling generally healthy. Upon examination, a large nasal polyp is observed in the left nostril. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to ENT
Explanation:It is crucial to refer him to an ENT for a comprehensive examination as unilateral polyps are a warning sign.
Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.
The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her migraine prophylaxis medication and its potential effects on her unborn child. She reports that her migraines used to occur 1-2 times per week, but since starting the medication, they have decreased to 1-2 times per month. Which medication commonly used for migraine prophylaxis is associated with congenital abnormalities, specifically cleft lip and palate?
Your Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:If a person experiences more than 2 migraine attacks a month, they should be offered migraine prophylaxis. Propranolol and topiramate are both options for this, but propranolol is preferred for women of child-bearing age due to the risk of cleft lip/cleft palate in infants if topiramate is used during the first trimester of pregnancy. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not typically prescribed for migraines, and if a patient using it becomes pregnant, it will not harm the fetus. Triptan medications like sumatriptan and zolmitriptan are used for acute migraine treatment and should be taken as soon as a migraine starts. They may also be used for menstrual migraine prophylaxis, but should be avoided during pregnancy due to limited safety data.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A father with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency seeks guidance concerning his young son. Considering the x-linked recessive pattern of inheritance for this condition, what is the likelihood that his son will also exhibit the disease?
Your Answer: 1 in 2
Correct Answer: No increased risk
Explanation:Conditions that are X-linked recessive do not show transmission from male to male.
Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance
X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.
In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction (MI).
Which of the following options has not been shown to have a beneficial effect on mortality after an MI?Your Answer: Timolol
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction (MI) Care
After a myocardial infarction (MI), certain medications are recommended to reduce mortality and manage symptoms. Nitrates, such as isosorbide mononitrate, offer no mortality benefit but can be used for angina symptoms. β-blockers, like timolol, provide both mortality and anti-anginal benefits and should be continued for at least 12 months post-MI. Statins, specifically atorvastatin 80 mg, are recommended for secondary prevention to reduce mortality. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as ramipril, offer good mortality benefit, but angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can be used if the patient cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors. Aspirin, in combination with another antiplatelet therapy, is recommended for 12 months post-MI. Studies have shown that tirofiban, timolol, and ramipril reduce mortality after an MI, while isosorbide mononitrate showed no benefit. The MIRACL study found that atorvastatin reduced cardiovascular events by 17% when given for 3 months post-MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Correct
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A General Practice is conducting an audit on the number of elderly patients with gastrointestinal symptoms who were referred for endoscopy without a clear clinical indication.
Which of the following intestinal diseases necessitates blood tests and small intestinal biopsy for a precise diagnosis?Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Diagnosing Gastrointestinal Conditions through Biopsy Findings
Biopsy findings play a crucial role in diagnosing various gastrointestinal conditions. However, some conditions require additional proof to confirm the diagnosis. Here are some examples:
Coeliac disease: Biopsy findings may show changes in the small intestine, but they are non-specific. Positive serology for anti-endomysial or anti-gliadin antibodies is needed for confirmation.
Abetalipoproteinemia: This condition can be diagnosed on biopsy findings alone. Clear enterocytes due to lipid accumulation are characteristic.
Intestinal lymphangiectasia: Biopsy findings alone can diagnose primary intestinal lymphangiectasia, which is evidenced by the dilatation of lymphatics of the intestinal mucosa without any evidence of inflammation.
Mycobacterium avium (M avium) infection: Foamy macrophages containing numerous acid-fast bacilli are characteristic of M avium infection and can be diagnosed through biopsy findings alone.
Whipple’s disease: Biopsy findings alone can diagnose Whipple’s disease, which is characterised by swollen macrophages containing numerous periodic acid Schiff (PAS) positive granules due to the glycogen content of bacterial cell walls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old baby girl starts to experience frequent vomiting after feedings. Prior to this, she had been growing at a steady rate. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Common Neonatal Gastrointestinal Disorders
There are several common gastrointestinal disorders that can affect newborns. These include pyloric stenosis, necrotising enterocolitis (NEC), congenital duodenal atresia, Hirschsprung’s disease, and tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF).
Pyloric stenosis is characterised by hypertrophy of the circular pyloric muscle, and typically presents with non-bilious, projectile vomiting in the third or fourth week of life. Constipation and dehydration may also occur, and biochemistry may show hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. Boys are more likely to be affected, especially if born into a family with affected girls.
NEC is a condition primarily seen in premature infants, where portions of the bowel undergo necrosis. Symptoms include bilious vomiting, distended abdomen, and bloody stools, with late signs including bowel perforation and multi-organ failure.
Congenital duodenal atresia is a congenital absence or complete closure of a portion of the lumen of the duodenum, and presents with bile-stained vomiting, abdominal distension, and inability to pass meconium.
Hirschsprung’s disease is characterised by the failure of ganglion cells to migrate into the hindgut, leading to functional intestinal obstruction. Symptoms include abdominal distension, bile-stained vomiting, and failure to pass meconium.
TOF refers to a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia. Symptoms include choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding, excess mucus, and recurrent lower respiratory tract infections. Other congenital anomalies may also be present.
Overall, early recognition and management of these neonatal gastrointestinal disorders is crucial for optimal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A man with a 5-year history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attends the clinic for a routine check-up and to receive the results of his latest CD4 count and viral load. He is currently taking lopinavir, tenofovir and 3TC medications as part of his antiretroviral treatment. Management of HIV aims to reduce the patient’s viral load and improve their CD4 count.
Above what level in the blood should you aim to keep this patient's CD4 count?Your Answer: > 150 cells/mm3
Correct Answer: > 350 cells/mm3
Explanation:A man with a 5-year history of HIV is on antiretroviral treatment with atazanavir, emtricitabine, and tenofovir. The aim of this treatment is to reduce viral load (< 50 copies/ml), improve CD4 count (above 350 cells/mm3), reduce transmission, and increase quality of life without unacceptable drug side-effects. During routine check-ups, the patient's CD4 count, HIV viral RNA load, renal and hepatic function, cholesterol, blood sugar, triglycerides, and lactate are assessed. The target level for this patient's CD4 count is above 350 cells/mm3. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 greatly exposes the patient to opportunistic infections. Antiretroviral treatment usually involves a combination of at least three drugs classified as nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs), non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs), protease inhibitors (PIs), or 'others'. These drugs may have side-effects such as lipoatrophy, hepatotoxicity, lipodystrophy syndrome, lactic acidosis, Steven-Johnson syndrome, drug-drug interactions, hyperbilirubinemia, peripheral neuropathy, bone marrow suppression, anaemia, pancreatitis, and insulin resistance/hyperglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of difficulty moving her eyes horizontally. She reports that this is more pronounced after she has been conversing.
What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Ocular Weakness: Myasthenia Gravis, Mononeuritis Multiplex, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, and Polymyositis
Ocular weakness can be caused by a variety of conditions, including myasthenia gravis (MG), mononeuritis multiplex, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), multiple sclerosis (MS), and polymyositis. MG is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, causing fatigable weakness of the periocular, facial, bulbar, and girdle muscles. Mononeuritis multiplex is a rare condition that involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, often caused by systemic disorders such as diabetes or granulomatosis with polyangiitis. GBS is an acute, post-infectious polyneuropathy that presents with progressive, ascending weakness, while MS is a chronic, immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the CNS that typically presents with relapsing-remitting disease and transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness. Polymyositis is a connective tissue disease that causes symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, often accompanied by dermatitis. Understanding the key features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female complains of persistent pain in her left knee. The pain usually occurs after running and is accompanied by occasional swelling and joint locking. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chondromalacia patellae
Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans
Explanation:Common Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults
Knee problems are common in children and young adults, especially those who are active in sports.
Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that is more common in teenage girls. It is characterized by the softening of the cartilage of the patella, which can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. This condition usually responds well to physiotherapy.Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle.
Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking of the knee.
Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella. The knee may also give way.
Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys. It causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. On examination, the area below the patella is tender. It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of central abdominal pain. He claims this is radiating to his back and that it started this afternoon. He is currently still in pain and has been started on some analgesia. His blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg and his heart rate is 100 bpm.
His past medical history includes amputation of the big toe on the left lower limb and femoral-popliteal bypass on the right. He smokes around 20 cigarettes daily.
Which of the following tests should be done urgently to determine the underlying cause of his symptomatology?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen
Correct Answer: Bedside abdominal ultrasound (US)
Explanation:Bedside Abdominal Ultrasound for Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm: Diagnosis and Management
This patient is likely experiencing a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), a life-threatening medical emergency. Bedside abdominal ultrasound (US) is the best initial diagnostic test for ruling out AAA as a cause of abdominal or back pain, as it provides an instant, objective measurement of aortic diameter. An AAA is a dilatation of the abdominal aorta greater than 3 cm in diameter, with a significant risk of rupture at diameters greater than 5 cm. Risk factors for AAA include smoking and co-existing vascular disease. Symptoms of a ruptured AAA include pain, cardiovascular failure, and distal ischemia. Once diagnosed, a CT angiogram is the gold-standard imaging for planning surgery to repair the aneurysm. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography and liver function tests are not indicated in this case, while serum amylase or lipase should be measured in all patients presenting with acute abdominal or upper back pain to exclude acute pancreatitis as a differential diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Correct
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A 7-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are concerned because he still wets his bed every night. A urine culture is normal; urine is negative for glucose and protein.
What would be the most appropriate approach to managing this child's bedwetting?Your Answer: Reassurance to parents with general advice
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common issue among children. While it can sometimes be caused by an underlying medical condition, such as a urinary tract infection or diabetes, in most cases it is simply a developmental issue that will resolve on its own over time.
It is important to have a medical evaluation to rule out any underlying medical conditions, but once those have been ruled out, treatment is generally not recommended until the child is at least six years old. In the meantime, parents can use star charts and enuresis alarms to help motivate their child to stay dry at night.
It is also important to consider any psychological issues that may be contributing to the problem. Parents should ask their child about their school performance, friendships, and home life, and try to speak to the child alone if possible to get a better understanding of any stressors that may be affecting them.
There is no need for a referral for an ultrasound scan unless there is a suspicion of a structural abnormality. Desmopressin nasal spray can be prescribed for short-term relief, but oral imipramine is no longer recommended. Prophylactic antibiotics are also not indicated for nocturnal enuresis.
Overall, parents should be reassured that bedwetting is a common issue that many children experience, and with time and patience, it will likely resolve on its own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following types of anti-anginal medication do patients frequently develop tolerance to?
Your Answer: Verapamil
Correct Answer: Standard release isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 20
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman, who is known to have rheumatoid arthritis, complains that she has had recurrent haemoptysis for over five years. She has never smoked and only takes a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent. According to her, she coughs up phlegm every day and at times this contains streaks of fresh blood. She has no known respiratory disease, but tends to get frequent chest infections that are relieved by a course of antibiotics.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Understanding Bronchiectasis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by permanent and irreversible dilatations of the bronchial walls. It can be caused by various factors, including cystic fibrosis, immune system deficiencies, lung infections, foreign body aspiration, and smoking. Common symptoms of bronchiectasis include high sputum production, recurrent chest infections, and haemoptysis. A high-resolution computed tomography (HR-CT) scan of the lungs is usually used to diagnose bronchiectasis. Treatment involves a multidisciplinary approach, including chest physiotherapy, patient education, antibiotic treatment, and bronchodilators. While treatment of the underlying cause may be necessary, it does not provide reversal of the existing bronchiectasis. Other conditions, such as atypical pneumonia, lung cancer, tuberculosis, and pulmonary embolism, may have similar symptoms but require different diagnoses and treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman complains of abdominal bloating and is found to have shifting dullness on examination. What is a risk factor for ovarian cancer?
Your Answer: BRCA2 gene
Explanation:The risk factors for ovarian cancer are associated with a higher frequency of ovulations.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of breast tissue enlargement. He is feeling very self-conscious and anxious about his upcoming summer vacation. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.
There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.
It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old patient was discovered to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm during a routine medical check-up. The patient is currently receiving treatment for hypertension and high cholesterol but is otherwise healthy and medically capable. The aneurysm was infra-renal and had a diameter of 4.9 cm.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan every two years
Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan every three months
Explanation:Screening and Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are screened for initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened as AAA is predominantly found in men.
If the initial scan shows an AAA of less than 3 cm, patients are discharged. If it is between 3 and 4.4 cm, they are invited back for yearly screening. If it is between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, patients receive an ultrasound scan every three months. If the aneurysm is above 5.5 cm, patients are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration for repair.
Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly, as clinical trials have shown that the risk of rupture is increased when the aneurysm is larger than 5.5 cm. Immediate surgery is only performed on those aneurysms that are leaking or ruptured.
Surveillance is required to ensure the aneurysm remains below 5.5 cm. Patients with an aneurysm over 4.5 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months. Once the aneurysm reaches 5.5 cm, patients are referred for consideration of elective surgery.
Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Screening and Treatment Guidelines
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious health concern that require careful management. This article outlines the screening and treatment guidelines for AAAs.
Screening for AAAs is done initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened. Patients with an AAA less than 3 cm are discharged, while those with an AAA between 3 and 4.4 cm are invited back for yearly screening. Patients with an AAA between 4.5 and 5.4 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months, while those with an AAA over 5.5 cm are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration of elective surgery.
Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 72 year old man presents with a 6 day history of vomiting and diarrhoea. His blood results show Na+ 142 mmol/l, K+ 5.9 mmol/l, urea 14 mmol/l, and creatinine 320 mmol/l. His renal function was normal on routine blood tests 2 months ago. What finding is most indicative of acute tubular necrosis in this patient?
Your Answer: Low urinary sodium
Correct Answer: Raised urinary sodium
Explanation:The patient is experiencing acute kidney injury, which can be categorized into three causes: pre-renal, renal, and post-renal. Pre-renal causes are due to inadequate renal perfusion, such as dehydration, haemorrhage, heart failure, or sepsis. In this case, the kidneys are still able to concentrate urine and retain sodium, resulting in high urine osmolality and low urine sodium. Renal causes are most commonly caused by acute tubular necrosis, which damages tubular cells due to prolonged ischaemia or toxins. In this scenario, the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine or retain sodium, leading to low urine osmolality and high urine sodium. Acute glomerulonephritis and acute interstitial nephritis are rarer causes of renal injury. Post-renal causes are due to obstruction of the urinary tract, which can be identified through hydronephrosis on renal ultrasound.
Distinguishing between Acute Tubular Necrosis and Prerenal Uraemia in Acute Kidney Injury
Acute kidney injury can be caused by various factors, including prerenal uraemia and acute tubular necrosis. It is important to distinguish between the two in order to provide appropriate treatment. Prerenal uraemia occurs when the kidneys hold on to sodium to preserve volume, leading to decreased blood flow to the kidneys. On the other hand, acute tubular necrosis is caused by damage to the kidney tubules, often due to ischemia or toxins.
To differentiate between the two, several factors can be considered. In prerenal uraemia, urine sodium levels are typically less than 20 mmol/L, while in acute tubular necrosis, they are usually greater than 40 mmol/L. Urine osmolality is also a useful indicator, with levels above 500 mOsm/kg suggesting prerenal uraemia and levels below 350 mOsm/kg suggesting acute tubular necrosis.
Fractional sodium excretion and fractional urea excretion are also important measures. In prerenal uraemia, the fractional sodium excretion is typically less than 1%, while in acute tubular necrosis, it is usually greater than 1%. Similarly, the fractional urea excretion is less than 35% in prerenal uraemia and greater than 35% in acute tubular necrosis.
Other factors that can help distinguish between the two include response to fluid challenge, serum urea:creatinine ratio, urine:plasma osmolality, urine:plasma urea ratio, and specific gravity. By considering these factors, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat acute kidney injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Sexual Health Clinic with a thick green discharge from his penis. Culture of the discharge is positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Your Answer: High-dose intramuscular ceftriaxone
Explanation:The preferred treatment for gonococcal infections is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone, with the dosage based on the patient’s weight. This medication is highly effective against susceptible N. gonorrhoeae and more effective than oral cephalosporins. A test of cure is necessary after treatment to ensure the infection has been cleared. Ciprofloxacin should only be used if the organism’s susceptibility to the antibiotic is known. Dual antibiotic use is no longer recommended, but presumptive treatment for chlamydia may be administered if the patient’s sexual history or symptoms suggest co-infection. Intravenous antibiotics are not necessary for uncomplicated cases, but severe cases of pelvic inflammatory disease may require hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics. Penicillin is not indicated for gonorrhoea treatment due to high antimicrobial resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman visits her GP on a Friday afternoon with concerns about her chances of getting pregnant. She engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) on Sunday at 9 pm, which was five days ago. The patient has no medical history of note and is not taking any regular medications. However, she reports experiencing abnormal discharge and intermenstrual bleeding for the past two weeks. What emergency contraception method would you suggest?
Your Answer: Levonorgestrel
Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate
Explanation:Ulipristal, also known as EllaOne, is a form of emergency hormonal contraception that can be taken within 120 hours after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of hot flashes that are disrupting her sleep. She is experiencing irregular and lighter periods. She has not undergone a hysterectomy and is interested in hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for her?
Your Answer: Systemic combined cyclical HRT
Explanation:What are the main factors to consider when determining the appropriate HRT regime? How would you classify a patient who is still having periods? What is the recommended HRT regime for this patient?
To determine the correct HRT regime, it is important to consider whether the patient has a uterus, whether they are perimenopausal or menopausal, and whether a systemic or local effect is needed. A patient who is still having periods is considered perimenopausal, as menopause is defined as 12 months after the last menstrual period. For this patient, the recommended HRT regime would be combined oestrogen and progestogen cyclical HRT. Cyclical HRT is preferred in perimenopausal women as it produces predictable withdrawal bleeding, while continuous regimens can cause unpredictable bleeding. Systemic oestrogen-only HRT is not appropriate for a woman with a uterus as it increases the risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen cream or pessary would only provide a local effect and would be useful for urogenital symptoms such as vaginal dryness or dyspareunia.
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progestogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney failure has been instructed by his nephrologist to adhere to a 'renal diet'. He visits you to gain further knowledge about this. What is typically recommended to individuals with chronic kidney disease?
Your Answer: Low potassium diet
Explanation:Dietary Recommendations for Chronic Kidney Disease Patients
Chronic kidney disease patients are recommended to follow a specific diet to reduce the strain on their kidneys. This diet includes low levels of protein, phosphate, sodium, and potassium. The reason for this is that these substances are typically excreted by the kidneys, and reducing their intake can help ease the burden on the kidneys. By following this diet, patients can help slow the progression of their kidney disease and improve their overall health. It is important for patients to work with a healthcare professional or registered dietitian to ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs while following these dietary restrictions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP clinic with a complaint of painful blisters and ulcers on his glans, accompanied by pain during urination. He is sexually active and does not use protection during intercourse. His last unprotected sexual encounter was a week ago. What medication would be beneficial for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral aciclovir
Explanation:Male patients with gonorrhea typically experience urethral discharge and dysuria as symptoms, rather than painful ulcers.
Understanding Genital Herpes
Genital herpes is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). There are two strains of the virus, HSV-1 and HSV-2, which were previously thought to cause oral and genital lesions respectively. However, there is now considerable overlap between the two strains. The infection is characterized by painful genital ulceration, which may be accompanied by dysuria and pruritus. Primary infections are usually more severe than recurrent episodes and may present with systemic symptoms such as headache, fever, and malaise. Tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and urinary retention may also occur.
To diagnose genital herpes, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) are the preferred investigation method as they are considered superior to viral culture. HSV serology may be useful in certain situations, such as recurrent genital ulceration of unknown cause. Management of the infection involves general measures such as saline bathing, analgesia, and topical anaesthetic agents like lidocaine. Oral aciclovir is also prescribed, and some patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir.
In pregnant women, a primary attack of herpes occurring after 28 weeks gestation may require an elective caesarean section at term. Women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low. Understanding genital herpes and its management is crucial in preventing transmission and managing symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are conducting a neurological examination on a thirty-five-year-old patient who presents with recent onset of blurred vision, speech disturbance, pronounced reflexes, and upward plantars upon attempting the Babinski reflex. The patient denies any history of headache and fundoscopy reveals normal findings. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:The presence of Babinski sign suggests the presence of a condition affecting the upper motor neurons. When the sole of the foot is stimulated with a blunt object, an atypical reflex is observed where the toes move upwards.
When ankle jerks are absent and extensor plantars are present, it is usually due to a lesion that affects both the upper and lower motor neurons. This can be caused by various conditions such as subacute combined degeneration of the cord, motor neuron disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, syringomyelia, taboparesis (syphilis), or a lesion in the conus medullaris. These conditions can lead to a loss of reflexes in the ankle and a specific type of reflex in the foot that indicates damage to both the upper and lower motor neurons. It is important to identify the underlying cause of these symptoms in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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