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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old woman presents with a 3 month history of colicky abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with a 3 month history of colicky abdominal pain after eating, and diarrhoea. She has lost 7 kg in weight over the last few months. A recent gastroscopy and colonoscopy were normal. Her past medical history includes angina and a right carotid endarterectomy at the age of 62 years. Her current medication includes aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and losartan. right carotid endarterectomy at the age of 62 years. Her current medication includes aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and losartan. Blood tests revealed: Haemoglobin (Hb) 118 g/l, Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 80 fl, White cell count (WCC) 12.3 x 109/L, Platelets 210 x 109/L, Na+ 133 mmol/L, K+ 5.2 mmol/L, Urea 8.1 mmol/L, Creatinine 134 mmol/L. Select the most appropriate further investigations.

      Your Answer: Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is 74 years old. She has had a recent gastroscopy and colonoscopy. She has a history of angina and a right CEA. She is having colicky abdominal pain after meals and weight loss, which points to a possible diagnosis of chronic mesenteric ischemia. Thus, you would want to do a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen to look for this. A 24 hour cardiac monitor would also be helpful to look for any abnormal rhythm that could be a potential aetiology of her disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30 yr. old male patient presented with palpitations that occur randomly at...

    Correct

    • A 30 yr. old male patient presented with palpitations that occur randomly at rest. There have however been episodes of fast palpitations and dizziness on exertion. On examination there was a systolic murmur at the apex as well as a prominent apex beat and the chest was clear. Which of the following is LEAST likely to suggest a diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

      Your Answer: A history of hypertension for 10 years

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an autosomal dominant condition. Patients present with sudden cardiac death, dyspnoea, syncope and presyncope, angina, palpitations, orthopnoea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, Congestive heart failure and dizziness. Physical findings include double or triple apical impulse, prominent a wave in the JVP, an ejection systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur and a holosystolic murmur at the apex and axilla of mitral regurgitation.
      ECG shows ST-T wave abnormalities and LVH, axis deviation (right or left), conduction abnormalities (P-R prolongation, bundle-branch block), sinus bradycardia with ectopic atrial rhythm, atrial enlargement, abnormal and prominent Q wave in the anterior precordial and lateral limb leads.
      2D echocardiography shows abnormal systolic anterior leaflet motion of the mitral valve, LVH, left atrial enlargement, small ventricular chamber size, septal hypertrophy with septal-to-free wall ratio greater than 1.4:1, mitral valve prolapse and mitral regurgitation, decreased midaortic flow, partial systolic closure of the aortic valve in midsystole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 51-year-old man was admitted with right-sided hemiparesis and right upper motor neurone...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old man was admitted with right-sided hemiparesis and right upper motor neurone facial nerve palsy. He was known to be on warfarin for a mitral valve replacement and had been adequately anticoagulated. He was also taking furosemide and had recently been started on St John’s wort for low mood. On examination, his pulse was 90 bpm and regular, and his blood pressure was 150/80 mmHg. Cardiac examination demonstrated normal prosthetic valve sounds with an ejection systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. CT scan showed evidence of a left middle cerebral artery infarction. What is the possible explanation for the presentation?

      Your Answer: St John’s wort reduces the activity of warfarin

      Explanation:

      St John’s wort interferes with warfarin by increasing its breakdown and decreasing its effectiveness. This leads to the need for adjustment in the dose of warfarin and careful attention to monitoring if the patient decides to continue with the drug. Ideally, an alternative antidepressant should also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Choose the part of the antibody to which immune cells bind: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the part of the antibody to which immune cells bind:

      Your Answer: Fc region

      Explanation:

      Fc Receptors include the IgG receptors (FcγR), high-affinity IgE receptor (FcεRI), IgA and IgA/IgM receptors, and neonatal Fc receptor for IgG (FcRn). In particular, the FcγRs have been well known to play an important role in many biologic processes including those associated with the response to infection and cancer as well as in the pathogenesis of immune-mediated diseases. Fc receptors, the receptors for the Fc region of immunoglobulins, play an essential role in antibody-dependent immune responses. Fc receptors are detected on many types of hematopoietic cells including macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, and NK cells. Plasma cells produce five classes of antibodies, IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG and IgM. Fc receptors with an Ig superfamily related structure exist that correspond to each of these classes of immunoglobulins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism?

      Your Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:
      Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.

      Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching of fingers especially in response to cold weather. Lab results are as follows: Anti Jo-1: positive, ANA: positive, CK: 2000 U/L, ESR: 60mm/hr, EMG: myopathic changes. Presence of which of the following signifies the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon

      Correct Answer: Interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. It may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. It may also be associated with malignancy for example small cell lung carcinoma.
      Dermatomyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are prominent, for example a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids.
      It typically affects middle-aged, female: male 3:1. Features include proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia, dysphagia, dysphonia. Investigations: elevated creatine kinase, other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) are also elevated in 85-95% of patients, EMG, muscle biopsy. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever. Interstitial lung disease plays a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with polymyositis and is considered a major risk factor for premature death in patients with myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis...

    Correct

    • What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis of bronchial asthma?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of mast-cell degranulation

      Explanation:

      Sodium cromoglycate principally acts by inhibiting the degranulation of mast cells triggered by the interaction of antigen and IgE.
      The inhibitory effect on mast cells appears to be cell-type specific since cromoglycate has little inhibitory effect on mediator release from human basophils.
      Thus, it inhibits the release of histamine, leukotrienes, and slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis from mast cells by inhibiting degranulation following exposure to reactive antigens.

      Adverse effects include cough, flushing, palpitation, chest pain, nasal congestion, nausea, fatigue, migraine, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A number of tests have been ordered for a 49 year old male...

    Correct

    • A number of tests have been ordered for a 49 year old male who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). He was referred to the clinic because he has increased shortness of breath. One test in particular is transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (TLCO), which is elevated. Which respiratory complication of SLE is associated with this finding?

      Your Answer: Alveolar haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Alveolar haemorrhage (AH) is a rare, but serious manifestation of SLE. It may occur early or late in disease evolution. Extrapulmonary disease may be minimal and may be masked in patients who are already receiving immunosuppressants for other symptoms of SLE.

      DLCO or TLCO (diffusing capacity or transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (CO)) is the extent to which oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood.
      Factors that can increase the DLCO include polycythaemia, asthma (can also have normal DLCO) and increased pulmonary blood volume as occurs in exercise. Other factors are left to right intracardiac shunting, mild left heart failure (increased blood volume) and alveolar haemorrhage (increased blood available for which CO does not have to cross a barrier to enter).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb...

    Correct

    • A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb joint pain and lower backache for the past 2 weeks. He remembers getting a mild gastrointestinal infection while in Spain 6 weeks ago that settled spontaneously. There has been eye irritation that has now settled. Past surgical history includes an appendectomy 3 years back. Vital examination shows a temperature of 37.5 C. Lab results reveal a normal WBC and raised ESR. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor is likely to be negative

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. There usually is no rash and the diagnosis is unrelated to the presence of rheumatoid factor. This is a clinical diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera? ...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Raised ESR

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia vera (PV) is associated with a low ESR.

      PV, also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance. PV is associated with a low ESR.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25 yr. old female presented with a history of sudden collapse. She...

    Correct

    • A 25 yr. old female presented with a history of sudden collapse. She had been playing netball and had suddenly collapsed. This collapse had been accompanied by a brief period of loss of consciousness. She experienced palpitations for a brief period prior to losing consciousness. On examination her BP was 120/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm, which was regular. The rest of the examination was also normal. She had similar experience of collapse, about two years ago. She was well except for these two incidents and she has not been on any medication. All the investigations done at the first presentation (2 years ago), including FBC, ECG and echocardiography were normal. Her ECG done at this presentation revealed QT prolongation of 0.50 s. FBC, CXR and other investigations were normal. Which of the following is the best way of managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Start on a beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are drugs of choice for patients with LQTS. The protective effect of beta-blockers is related to their adrenergic blockade, which diminishes the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. They may also reduce the QT interval in some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode of diarrhoea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic–uraemic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli causing diarrhoea in these cases as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and dyspnoea over the past month. She has a history of toxic multinodular goitre successfully treated with radioiodine. On examination, she has a firm asymmetrical swelling of the thyroid gland. Laryngoscopy demonstrates a right vocal cord paralysis and apparent external compression of the trachea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anaplastic thyroid cancer

      Explanation:

      Thyroid malignancies are divided into papillary carcinomas (80%), follicular carcinomas (10%), medullary thyroid carcinomas (5-10%), anaplastic carcinomas (1-2%), primary thyroid lymphomas (rare), and primary thyroid sarcomas (rare).
      HĂĽrthle cell carcinoma is a rare thyroid malignancy that is often considered a variant of follicular carcinoma.
      – Papillary and Follicular carcinoma are slow-growing tumours
      – Sporadic cases of Medullary thyroid carcinoma also typically manifest with painless solitary thyroid nodules in the early stages.
      – Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma has the most aggressive biologic behaviour of all thyroid malignancies and has one of the worst survival rates of all malignancies in general. It manifests as a rapidly growing thyroid mass in contrast to a well-differentiated carcinoma, which are comparatively slow-growing. Patients commonly present with associated symptoms due to local invasion. Hoarseness and dyspnoea resulting from the involvement of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and airway occur in as many as 50% of patients.
      – Almost all patients with primary thyroid lymphoma have either a clinical history or histological evidence of chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis. The risk of primary thyroid lymphoma increases 70-fold in patients with chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis compared with the general population. Regional and distant lymphadenopathy is common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2 hours. He was on insulin for diabetes mellitus and he was dependent on haemodialysis because of end stage renal failure. He had undergone haemodialysis 48 hours prior to this presentation. His ECG showed an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite thrombolysis and other appropriate treatment, he continued to have chest pain after 6 hours from the initial presentation. His blood pressure was 88/54 mmHg and he had bibasal crepitations. His investigation results are given below. Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (137-144), Serum potassium 6.6 mmol/l (3.5-4.9), Serum urea 50 mmol/l (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 940 ÎĽmol/l (60-110), Haemoglobin 10.2g/dl (13.0-18.0), Troponin T >24 g/l (<0.04), Left ventricular ejection fraction was 20%. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV furosemide

      Correct Answer: Coronary angiography and rescue PCI

      Explanation:

      According to the history the patient has cardiogenic shock and pulmonary oedema. On-going ischaemia is indicated by persisting symptoms. So the most appropriate management is coronary angiography and rescue PCI. There are no indications for blood transfusion at this moment and it will aggravate the pulmonary oedema. Haemodialysis, beta blockers and furosemide cannot be given due to low blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been treated for essential hypertension, with Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg once daily and triamterene 150 mg once daily.   Routine investigations show: Serum sodium 134 mmol/L (137-144) Serum potassium 5.9 mmol/L (3.5-4.9) Serum urea 7.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) Serum creatinine 100 ÎĽmol/L (60-110)   Her blood pressure is measured at 134/86 mmHg. Her electrocardiogram is normal. The GP has stopped the triamterene today.   Which of these is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Repeat urea and electrolytes in one week

      Explanation:

      Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalaemia, therefore, it was stopped in this patient. With all other lab results returning normal values and a normal ECG, management will simply require repeating the U & E after one week since the Triamterene has already be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline...

    Correct

    • A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline phosphatase at 290 U/L (normal range 35-120). Plain radiographs reveal sclerotic lesions of the bone. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bony metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma. The other cancers listed in the options are osteolytic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his stomach. He states it is 'obvious' he has cancer despite previous negative investigations. Which disorder is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Explanation:

      Illness anxiety disorder (IAD) is a recent term for what used to be diagnosed as hypochondriasis, or hypochondrial disorder. People diagnosed with IAD strongly believe they have a serious or life-threatening illness despite having no, or only mild, symptoms.

      Symptoms of IAD may include:
      -Excessive worry over having or getting a serious illness.
      -Physical symptoms are not present or if present, only mild. If another illness is present, or there is a high risk for developing an illness, the person’s concern is out of proportion.
      -High level of anxiety and alarm over personal health status.
      -Excessive health-related behaviours (e.g., repeatedly checking body for signs of illness) or shows abnormal avoidance (e.g., avoiding doctors’ appointments and hospitals).
      -Fear of illness is present for at least six months (but the specific disease that is feared may change over that time).
      -Fear of illness is not due to another mental disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with T1N1M1 malignancy in the left breast,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with T1N1M1 malignancy in the left breast, with metastases detectable in the lower thoracic vertebrae and the left lung. Before the initiation of treatment of this patient with trastuzumab, which is the most important investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Echo

      Explanation:

      Before the initiation of trastuzumab, an echocardiography is a must to rule out any pre-existing cardiac abnormalities as trastuzumab is cardiotoxic.

      Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is a monoclonal antibody directed against the HER2/neu receptor. It is used mainly in metastatic breast cancer although some patients with early disease are now also given trastuzumab.

      Adverse effects include:
      Flu-like symptoms and diarrhoea are common.
      Cardiotoxicity:
      – Risk increases when anthracyclines are used concomitantly.
      – Trastuzumab-induced cardiac dysfunctions are regarded as less severe and largely reversible because primary cardiomyocyte do not show ultrastructure changes unlike those associated with anthracycline-induced cardiotoxicity.
      – Primary myocyte injury does not occur in patients who were treated with trastuzumab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started on chemotherapy. Two days following his first treatment session, he presents to the A&E with nausea, vomiting, and myalgia. On examination, he appears clinically dehydrated. A diagnosis of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is suspected. Which of the following would be consistent with the diagnosis of TLS?

      Your Answer: Low phosphate

      Correct Answer: Low corrected calcium

      Explanation:

      Out of the aforementioned markers, low corrected calcium is the only biochemistry result consistent with the diagnosis. All of the other markers are elevated in TLS.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. As phosphate precipitates calcium, the serum concentration of calcium becomes low. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups
      should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.

      TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
      1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
      2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 26 yr. old male was being investigated further following several hypertensive episodes....

    Correct

    • A 26 yr. old male was being investigated further following several hypertensive episodes. There was a marked difference in his systolic blood pressures between the right brachial and the right femoral arteries. Which of the following is most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      From the given physical findings (the difference in BP between the radial and femoral arteries), the most probable diagnosis is coarctation of the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (3/4) 75%
Haematology & Oncology (1/3) 33%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Rheumatology (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Passmed