00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for his annual medication review. He...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for his annual medication review. He has hypertension and gout and is currently taking allopurinol 300 mg, amlodipine 10 mg and atorvastatin 20 mg. His home blood pressure readings average at 150/88 mmHg. His recent blood tests of glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c), renal profile and lipids are normal. Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate to add to his current regime?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      The patient’s hypertension is not well controlled despite being on the maximum dose of a calcium-channel blocker. According to NICE guidance, the next step in treatment should be a thiazide-like diuretic or an ACE inhibitor. However, as the patient has a history of recurrent gout, a diuretic is not advisable, and an ACE inhibitor such as ramipril is the most appropriate choice.

      Aspirin 75 mg was previously recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease in patients with multiple risk factors. However, current advice is to only consider prescribing aspirin after a careful risk assessment in patients with a high risk of stroke or myocardial infarction. Routine prescribing of antiplatelets for primary prevention is no longer recommended due to the risk of gastrointestinal bleed outweighing the benefits.

      NICE no longer recommends initiating thiazide diuretics for hypertension treatment. Patients already established on this medication and whose BP is well controlled should continue. However, thiazide-like diuretics or ACE inhibitors are preferred as second-line treatment for hypertension in patients already on a calcium-channel blocker.

      Diltiazem and amlodipine are both calcium-channel blockers, and medication from a different class of antihypertensives should be added.

      Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic recommended as a second-line treatment for hypertension not controlled on the maximum dose of a calcium-channel blocker. However, as the patient has a history of recurrent gout, which can be exacerbated by thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics, an ACE inhibitor would be a more suitable choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with a tiny lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with a tiny lump in her right breast. Upon examination, a smooth fluctuant lump is found in the right upper quadrant of the breast. The patient is referred to the breast clinic for an ultrasound scan, which reveals a 2cm cyst in the right upper quadrant of the breast. What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Monitor with 6-monthly ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Aspiration of the cyst

      Explanation:

      Aspirating breast cysts is necessary due to the potential risk of breast cancer, particularly in younger women. Merely monitoring the cysts with ultrasound or mammogram without aspiration is not a suitable approach. There is no need for wide local excision at this point. Providing false reassurance to the patient is not advisable.

      Benign breast lesions have different features and treatments. Fibroadenomas are firm, mobile lumps that develop from a whole lobule and usually do not increase the risk of malignancy. Breast cysts are smooth, discrete lumps that may be aspirated, but blood-stained or persistently refilling cysts should be biopsied or excised. Sclerosing adenosis, radial scars, and complex sclerosing lesions cause mammographic changes that may mimic carcinoma, but do not increase the risk of malignancy. Epithelial hyperplasia may present as general lumpiness or a discrete lump, and atypical features and family history of breast cancer increase the risk of malignancy. Fat necrosis may mimic carcinoma and requires imaging and core biopsy. Duct papillomas usually present with nipple discharge and may require microdochectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Typically, which form of lung disease develops in people with a1-antitrypsin deficiency? ...

    Correct

    • Typically, which form of lung disease develops in people with a1-antitrypsin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Explanation:

      Emphysema: Imbalance between Proteases and Anti-Proteases in the Lungs

      Emphysema is a lung disease that results from an imbalance between proteases and anti-proteases within the lung. This imbalance is often caused by a1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is associated with the development of emphysema in young people with no history of smoking and a positive family history. The interplay between environmental and genetic factors determines the onset of emphysema. Patients typically present with worsening dyspnoea, and weight loss, cor pulmonale, and polycythaemia occur later in the course of the disease. Chest radiographs show bilateral basal emphysema with paucity and pruning of the basal pulmonary vessels. Early onset of liver cirrhosis, often in combination with emphysema, is also associated with a1-antitrypsin deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has a long-standing history of heavy...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has a long-standing history of heavy menstrual bleeding, which has worsened over the past six months. She denies experiencing dysmenorrhea, intermenstrual bleeding, or postcoital bleeding. She has completed her family and does not desire any more children. Her gynecological exam is unremarkable, and her cervical screening is current. What is the preferred treatment option?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for menorrhagia is the intrauterine system (Mirena).

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at the emergency department complaining of vomiting and abdominal pain. Upon examination, she appears dehydrated. The following are some of her blood test results:
      pH 7.23 (7.35-7.45)
      pCO2 2.1 kPa (4.5-6.0)
      pO2 11.2 kPa (10-14)
      Na+ 135 mmol/L (135-145)
      K+ 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      Bicarbonate 13 mmol/L (22-28)
      Glucose 22.4 mmol/L (<11.1)
      Ketones 3.6 mmol/L (<0.6)

      Question: What should be done with her regular insulin during her treatment?

      Your Answer: Stop both long-acting and short-acting insulin

      Correct Answer: Continue long-acting insulin and stop short-acting insulin

      Explanation:

      In the management of DKA, it is important to continue the patient’s regular long-acting insulin while stopping their short-acting insulin. Fixed-rate insulin and fluids should also be administered. Continuing short-acting insulin may lead to hypoglycaemia, so it should be stopped until the patient is stable. Increasing the dose of both long-acting and short-acting insulin is not recommended.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. Upon examination, reduced breath sounds and dullness to percussion are noted in the right axilla. His heart rate is 98 bpm, blood pressure is 100/75 mmHg, respiratory rate is 30 per minute, and his oxygen saturation is 93% on room air. Blood tests, including an arterial blood gas with the patient on 2L/minute oxygen via a nasal cannula, reveal the following results:

      Hb 142 g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l
      Platelets 502 * 109/l K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      WBC 15.8 * 109/l Urea 6.9 mmol/l
      Neuts 14.2 * 109/l Creatinine 90 µmol/l
      Lymphs 1.6 * 109/l CRP 205.4 mg/l
      pH 7.29
      pO2 12.5 kPa
      pCO2 2.2 kPa
      HCO3- 13 mmol/l
      Base excess -7.2
      Lactate 3.1 mmol/l

      A chest x-ray shows consolidation of the right middle zone with blunting of the right costophrenic angle. The left lung field is clear. Based on these findings, what is the most likely acid-base disorder present in this patient?

      Your Answer: An uncompensated metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: A partially compensated metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario has an acute sepsis with a right middle lobe pneumonia as the likely cause. The blood gas results show an acidosis with low bicarbonate and high lactate, indicating a metabolic cause. However, the pCO2 is low due to tachypnea, which suggests respiratory compensation for the metabolic acidosis. If the pH were normal, it would be considered a fully compensated acidosis, but since the patient is still acidotic, it is classified as a partial compensation. Normal blood gas ranges for pH, pO2, pCO2, and HCO3- are 7.35-7.45, 10.0-14.0 kPa, 4.5-6.0 kPa, and 22-26 mmol/l, respectively. A mixed acidosis would show both low bicarbonate and high pCO2, while an uncompensated metabolic acidosis would have low bicarbonate and normal pCO2, and an uncompensated respiratory acidosis would have high pCO2 and normal bicarbonate.

      Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation Made Easy

      Arterial blood gas interpretation can be a daunting task for healthcare professionals. However, the Resuscitation Council (UK) has provided a simple 5-step approach to make it easier. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, which is indicated by a PaO2 level of less than 10 kPa on air. The third step is to check if the patient is acidaemic or alkalaemic, which is determined by the pH level. A pH level of less than 7.35 indicates acidaemia, while a pH level of more than 7.45 indicates alkalaemia.

      The fourth step is to assess the respiratory component by checking the PaCO2 level. A PaCO2 level of more than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level of less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth and final step is to evaluate the metabolic component by checking the bicarbonate level or base excess. A bicarbonate level of less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess of less than -2mmol/l indicates metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level of more than 26 mmol/l or a base excess of more than +2mmol/l indicates metabolic alkalosis.

      To make it easier to remember, healthcare professionals can use the ROME acronym. Respiratory is opposite, which means that low pH and high PaCO2 indicate acidosis, while high pH and low PaCO2 indicate alkalosis. Metabolic is equal, which means that low pH and low bicarbonate indicate acidosis, while high pH and high bicarbonate indicate alkalosis. By following this simple approach, healthcare professionals can easily interpret arterial blood gas results and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a 24-hour history...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of cough and wheeze, following a week of mild fever and coryzal symptoms. The infant appears otherwise healthy and has no significant medical history. Upon respiratory examination, diffuse wheezing is noted. Vital signs reveal:
      Respiratory rate 52/min
      Blood pressure 92/54 mmHg
      Temperature 38.2ºC
      Heart rate 120 bpm
      Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this infant's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supportive management only

      Explanation:

      If the patient’s respiratory distress worsened or their feeding was impacted, they would be admitted. It is important to note that amoxicillin is not effective in treating bronchiolitis, but may be used for uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia or acute otitis media. Dexamethasone is commonly used for croup, but this diagnosis is unlikely as the patient does not have a barking cough, hoarse voice, or inspiratory stridor. Inhaled racemic adrenaline is also used for croup. Nebulised salbutamol is not necessary for this patient as they are stable and require only supportive management.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of decreased vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of decreased vision in his left eye. He reports that he first noticed it approximately 4 hours ago and is experiencing pain, particularly when he moves his eye. Additionally, he notes that everything appears to be a strange color.

      During the examination, the swinging light test reveals normal constriction of both pupils when the light is directed into the right eye. However, when the light is directed into the left eye, there is a reduced constriction of both pupils.

      What is the most common disease that could be causing this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest optic neuritis, which is commonly caused by multiple sclerosis. This condition involves inflammation of the optic nerve, resulting in pain on movement, reduced visual acuity, and an RAPD due to reduced response to light in the affected eye. Multiple sclerosis is a demyelinating disease that can cause various symptoms, including optic neuritis, by damaging the myelin sheaths of nerves.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune condition that primarily affects the joints but can also cause extra-articular manifestations throughout the body. In the eye, it tends to cause scleritis, episcleritis, and keratoconjunctivitis sicca, but not optic neuritis.

      Behçet’s disease is another inflammatory disorder that affects multiple parts of the body, but its ocular manifestation is anterior uveitis, not optic neuritis.

      Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease that involves inflammation of the lower GI tract. It can also cause extraintestinal manifestations, including scleritis and anterior uveitis in the eye.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following contraceptives may lead to a decrease in bone mineral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following contraceptives may lead to a decrease in bone mineral density among women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depo Provera (injectable contraceptive)

      Explanation:

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 7-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are concerned because he still wets his bed every night. A urine culture is normal; urine is negative for glucose and protein.
      What would be the most appropriate approach to managing this child's bedwetting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance to parents with general advice

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common issue among children. While it can sometimes be caused by an underlying medical condition, such as a urinary tract infection or diabetes, in most cases it is simply a developmental issue that will resolve on its own over time.

      It is important to have a medical evaluation to rule out any underlying medical conditions, but once those have been ruled out, treatment is generally not recommended until the child is at least six years old. In the meantime, parents can use star charts and enuresis alarms to help motivate their child to stay dry at night.

      It is also important to consider any psychological issues that may be contributing to the problem. Parents should ask their child about their school performance, friendships, and home life, and try to speak to the child alone if possible to get a better understanding of any stressors that may be affecting them.

      There is no need for a referral for an ultrasound scan unless there is a suspicion of a structural abnormality. Desmopressin nasal spray can be prescribed for short-term relief, but oral imipramine is no longer recommended. Prophylactic antibiotics are also not indicated for nocturnal enuresis.

      Overall, parents should be reassured that bedwetting is a common issue that many children experience, and with time and patience, it will likely resolve on its own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner with his daughter. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner with his daughter. She reports that her father’s behavior has changed over the past year. He used to be a very sociable and outgoing man but recently he has become withdrawn and uninterested in his hobbies. He has also become forgetful and has difficulty completing tasks that he used to do easily. The patient tells you that he does not think there is anything wrong with him and he is just getting older.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Dementia: A Brief Overview

      Dementia is a broad term used to describe a decline in cognitive function that interferes with daily activities. However, there are different types of dementia, each with unique characteristics. Here are some key features to help differentiate between frontotemporal dementia, Alzheimer’s disease, Huntington’s disease, normal-pressure hydrocephalus (NPH), and Parkinson’s disease.

      Frontotemporal Dementia
      This type of dementia is rare and typically affects individuals between the ages of 55 and 65. Early personality and behavior changes are core symptoms, while memory impairment is not typical. Other key features include a gradual progression, decline in social conduct, emotional blunting, and loss of insight.

      Alzheimer’s Disease
      Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, affecting individuals over the age of 65. Memory loss is a key early symptom, followed by agitation and obsessive behavior later in the disease course.

      Huntington’s Disease
      Huntington’s disease is a neurodegenerative condition that is often inherited. Symptoms include memory impairment, depression, clumsiness, mood swings, and difficulty concentrating. However, this patient’s symptoms are more consistent with early frontotemporal dementia.

      Normal-Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)
      NPH is a reversible cause of dementia characterized by gait abnormality, memory impairment, and incontinence. It may be mistaken for Parkinson’s disease, but symptoms will not improve with levodopa.

      Parkinson’s Disease
      While dementia and hallucinations may develop during the course of Parkinson’s disease, it is primarily a movement disorder characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following side-effects is more prevalent with atypical rather than conventional...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side-effects is more prevalent with atypical rather than conventional antipsychotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight gain

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is a common side effect of atypical antipsychotics.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 58-year-old man has been treated for many years with amlodipine for hypertension....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man has been treated for many years with amlodipine for hypertension. Now this is not adequately controlling his blood pressure, and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor treatment is planned. On routine baseline blood tests, prior to commencing treatment, the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 49 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2).
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examine the patient, and perform urinalysis

      Explanation:

      Managing a Patient with Suspected Chronic Kidney Disease

      When a patient presents with suspected chronic kidney disease (CKD), it is important to perform a thorough examination and urinalysis to confirm the diagnosis. While patients with CKD stages 1-3 may not exhibit symptoms, those in stages 4-5 may experience endocrine/metabolic derangements or disturbances in water or electrolyte balance. Anaemia is often one of the first signs of CKD, but the lack of physical findings on examination does not exclude kidney disease. Initial screening for proteinuria can be done with a standard urine dipstick, and further testing may be necessary if the test is positive. Referral to a nephrology outpatient may be necessary, depending on the severity of the CKD. ACE inhibitors should only be started once the patient’s baseline renal function has been established, and blood tests should be rechecked in 2 weeks. Immediate admission is only necessary for patients with CKD stage 5 who present with acute indications for dialytic therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She had a runny nose for two days and has had a cough for three days. She has not been feeding as much as usual.
      On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C. Her respiratory rate is slightly raised. On auscultation of the chest, she has a widespread wheeze and crepitations. Her other observations are within normal limits.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between respiratory illnesses in children: A guide

      When a child presents with respiratory symptoms, it can be difficult to determine the underlying cause. Here, we will discuss the key features of several common respiratory illnesses in children and how to differentiate between them.

      Bronchiolitis is characterized by coryzal symptoms followed by a persistent cough, tachypnea, chest recession, and wheezing or crepitations on auscultation. A low-grade fever and reduced feeding may also be present.

      Croup is a viral upper airway infection that causes a barking cough, predominantly inspiratory stridor, hoarse voice, intercostal or sternal indrawing, fever, and coryzal symptoms.

      Asthma typically presents with shortness of breath, cough, wheeze, and chest tightness, and is more common in children over two years old.

      Acute epiglottitis is an insidious but rapidly progressive airway emergency that causes fever, sore throat, odynophagia, muffled voice, dysphagia, dyspnea, respiratory distress, dysphonia, and stridor. The child may sit in a tripod position to maximize airway opening.

      A viral upper respiratory tract infection may cause coryzal symptoms, cough, and fever, but crepitations on auscultation would not be expected.

      By understanding the key features of these respiratory illnesses, healthcare providers can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old man of black African-Caribbean origin with a history of eczema visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man of black African-Caribbean origin with a history of eczema visits his GP complaining of red, itchy, dry skin behind his knees. The GP prescribes a course of betamethasone and advises the patient to use emollients as well. The patient is warned to follow the instructions carefully and not to apply the betamethasone for more than one week. What is the most probable adverse effect that the patient may experience from this treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin depigmentation

      Explanation:

      Topical corticosteroids can lead to patchy depigmentation in patients with darker skin, which is a potential adverse effect. These medications are commonly used to reduce inflammation in skin conditions like psoriasis and eczema. However, if used for an extended period or in high doses, they can cause local side effects such as skin thinning, excessive hair growth, and depigmentation. Therefore, the correct answer is depigmentation. Dry skin is not a typical side effect of topical steroid use, but it can occur with other topical preparations like benzoyl peroxide and topical retinoids. While systemic side effects like weight gain, hyperglycemia, hypertension, and mood changes are possible with corticosteroids, they are rare with topical use. Hyperglycemia is therefore an incorrect answer. Reduced hair growth at the application site is also incorrect, as corticosteroids can actually increase hair growth and may be used to treat alopecia.

      Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment

      Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms.

      To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the finger tip rule can be used. One finger tip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand.
      The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. These recommendations vary depending on the area of the body being treated. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure safe and effective use of topical steroids for eczema treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old woman with epilepsy complains of hair loss and tremors. Her husband...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with epilepsy complains of hair loss and tremors. Her husband reports that she has become more irritable since starting her medication.
      Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate (Epilim®)

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Anticonvulsants and Analysis of Symptoms Associated with Different Medications

      Anticonvulsants are commonly used to treat seizures, but they can also have side effects. One of the most common side effects of sodium valproate is hair loss, along with aggression and tremors. Levetiracetam is commonly associated with aggression and tremors, but rarely with alopecia. Carbamazepine is rarely associated with aggression or alopecia, and lamotrigine is commonly associated with aggression and tremors but not hair loss. Phenytoin is commonly associated with tremors but not the other symptoms mentioned. This analysis can help identify which medication may be causing certain symptoms. Other common side effects of anticonvulsants include fatigue, skin rashes, and gastrointestinal issues. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider about any concerns regarding medication side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth...

    Incorrect

    • Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth or in adolescence and adulthood, a teenager seeks genetic counselling. His mother and brother have PKU, while his father is a carrier but does not have the disease. The teenager himself does not have PKU. What is the probability that he is a carrier of the disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autosomal-Recessive Inheritance and Phenylketonuria (PKU)

      Autosomal-recessive diseases require both parents to carry the gene, with one parent having the disease and the other being a carrier. In the case of Phenylketonuria (PKU), a specific enzyme deficiency leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine and a deficiency of tyrosine, resulting in reduced melanin and pigmented areas of the brain being affected. PKU is tested for at birth using the Guthrie test and can be treated by removing phenylalanine from the diet.

      In the given scenario, the teenager’s mother has the disease and his father is a carrier. This means there is a 100% chance that the teenager has at least one abnormal copy of the gene, making him a carrier. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of autosomal-recessive diseases to identify carriers and prevent mental retardation in affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dysuria and increased urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency. She is in good health otherwise and does not show any signs of sepsis. During a urine dip test at the doctor's office, blood, leukocytes, protein, and nitrites are detected. The patient has a medical history of asthma, which she manages with salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers, hypertension, which she treats with amlodipine 10mg daily and ramipril 5mg daily, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease. Which antibiotic should be avoided when treating this patient's urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      When prescribing antibiotics for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), it is important to consider the patient’s level of renal function. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat urinary tract infections, should be avoided in patients with CKD stage 3 or higher due to the risk of treatment failure and potential side effects caused by drug accumulation. Nitrofurantoin requires adequate glomerular filtration to be effective, and an eGFR of less than 40-60ml/min means the drug is unlikely to work. Additionally, nitrofurantoin can cause side effects such as peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, and pulmonary reactions and fibrosis, particularly in patients with impaired renal function. Amoxicillin and co-amoxiclav are safer options for patients with CKD, although dose reduction may be necessary in severe cases. Ciprofloxacin also requires dose reduction in CKD to avoid crystalluria. Patients taking nitrofurantoin should be aware that the drug may cause urine discoloration, and it is generally safe to use during pregnancy except at full term.

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      When it comes to prescribing medication for patients with renal failure, it is important to be aware of which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin should be avoided, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin. These drugs can potentially harm the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs can be used with dose adjustment. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as medications like digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, furosemide, and opioids, may require a lower dose in patients with chronic kidney disease. It is important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose as needed.

      Finally, there are some drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics like erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as medications like diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease. However, it is still important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose if necessary.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of each drug. By avoiding certain drugs, adjusting doses of others, and monitoring patients closely, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man presents with haematuria and severe left flank pain. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with haematuria and severe left flank pain. He is agitated and unable to find a position that relieves the pain. On examination, his abdomen is soft with tenderness over the left lumbar region. He has no fever.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Common Renal Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Renal tract calculi, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), acute pyelonephritis, renal cell carcinoma (RCC), and acute glomerulonephritis (GN) are common renal conditions that can cause various symptoms and have distinct characteristics.

      Renal Calculi: Sudden onset of severe pain in the flank, nausea, vomiting, and costovertebral angle tenderness.

      ADPKD: Pain in the abdomen, flank or back, hypertension, and palpable, bilateral flank masses.

      Acute Pyelonephritis: Fever, costovertebral angle pain, nausea, vomiting, and gross haematuria.

      RCC: Usually mild flank pain, haematuria, palpable flank mass, and hypercalcaemia manifestations.

      Acute GN: Sudden onset of haematuria, proteinuria, red blood cell casts in the urine, hypertension, and oedema.

      Timely diagnosis and management are crucial for these conditions to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives with preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives with preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation. What is the primary intervention to prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer dexamethasone to the mother

      Explanation:

      Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS) is a condition that primarily affects premature newborns due to a lack of surfactant. This deficiency causes an increase in alveolar surface tension, leading to reduced compliance and increased breathing effort. The production of surfactant in the fetus is aided by natural maternal glucocorticosteroids, and synthetic steroids are the first-line treatment for preventing NRDS in high-risk pregnancies. Tocolytics, which can delay preterm labor, are not typically used, but may be considered in certain cases to allow time for maternal steroids to take effect. While curosurf, continuous positive airway pressure, and extracorporeal membrane oxygenation can be effective treatments for NRDS, they are not used as preventative measures.

      Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants

      Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.

      The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.

      Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old young woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old young woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever and joint pains. Blood tests show the presence of raised antibody titres and the presence of cold agglutinins. A diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is made.
      Which of the following drugs would you prescribe as first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The British Thoracic Society recommends using macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin or erythromycin as empirical treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in both children and adults if first-line β-lactam antibiotics are ineffective or in cases of severe disease. Atypical infections are often diagnosed late in the illness, making early targeted therapy difficult. M. pneumoniae pneumonia tends to occur in outbreaks in the UK, so being aware of these outbreaks can help guide treatment. Benzylpenicillin is used to treat various infections, including throat infections, otitis media, and cellulitis. Cefuroxime is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used to treat susceptible infections caused by both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, including respiratory tract infections, Lyme disease, and urinary tract infections. Rifampicin is used in combination with other drugs to treat brucellosis, Legionnaires’ disease, serious staphylococcal infections, endocarditis, and tuberculosis. Co-trimoxazole is used to treat Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and can be administered orally for mild-to-moderate pneumonia or intravenously in dual therapy with steroids for severe pneumonia. It can also be used for PCP prophylaxis in HIV-positive patients, with primary prophylaxis recommended for those with a CD4 count of <£200 and secondary prophylaxis essential after the first infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 47-year-old woman presents to the Stroke Clinic for review after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presents to the Stroke Clinic for review after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). It is suspected that the patient’s TIA was caused by an issue with her carotid arteries.
      A magnetic resonance angiogram (MRA) is requested followed by catheter angiography. The MRA shows a right internal carotid with narrowed eccentric lumen, surrounded by a crescent-shaped mural thrombus and thin annular enhancement. The catheter angiogram shows a ‘string sign’ in the right internal carotid.
      What internal carotid abnormality is most likely the cause of this patient’s TIA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid-artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Cervico-cerebral arterial dissections (CADs) are a common cause of strokes in younger patients, accounting for almost 20% of strokes in those under 45 years old. The majority of cases involve the extracranial internal carotid artery, while extracranial vertebral dissections make up about 15% of cases. A high level of suspicion is necessary to diagnose CAD, and confirmation can be obtained through various imaging techniques such as Doppler ultrasonography, magnetic resonance imaging/magnetic resonance angiography (MRA), computed tomography angiography (CTA), or catheter angiography. CTA can reveal several characteristic features of CAD, including an abnormal vessel contour, enlargement of the dissected artery, an intimal flap, and a dissecting aneurysm. The traditional method of diagnosing arterial dissections is catheter angiography, which typically shows a long segment of narrowed lumen known as the string sign. Other conditions such as carotid-artery pseudoaneurysm, carotid-artery aneurysm, carotid-artery occlusion, and carotid-artery stenosis can also be identified through imaging techniques, but they are not evident in this particular angiogram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 59-year-old woman comes in for a routine check-up with her primary care...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman comes in for a routine check-up with her primary care physician. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking metformin and sitagliptin. During her last visit, her blood pressure was measured at 161/88 mmHg and she was advised to undergo 7 days of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.

      During this visit, her average ambulatory blood pressure is recorded as 158/74 mmHg. All other observations are stable and her cardiorespiratory examination is unremarkable. Her blood sugar level is 6.2 mmol/L.

      What medication would be recommended to manage this patient's blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old man attending the respiratory clinic receives a suspected diagnosis of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man attending the respiratory clinic receives a suspected diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation to confirm diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spirometry

      Explanation:

      Investigations for COPD: Spirometry is Key

      COPD is a chronic obstructive airway disease that is diagnosed through a combination of clinical history, signs, and investigations. While several investigations may be used to support a diagnosis of COPD, spirometry is the most useful and important tool. A spirometer is used to measure functional lung volumes, including forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). The FEV1:FVC ratio provides an estimate of the severity of airflow obstruction, with a normal ratio being 75-80%. In patients with COPD, the ratio is typically <0.7 and FEV1 <80% predicted. Spirometry is essential for establishing a baseline for disease severity, monitoring disease progression, and assessing the effects of treatment. Other investigations, such as echocardiography, chest radiography, ECG, and peak flow, may be used to exclude other pathologies or assess comorbidities, but spirometry remains the key investigation for diagnosing and managing COPD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man with psoriatic arthritis presents with a severely painful red eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with psoriatic arthritis presents with a severely painful red eye. The pain has been affecting his sleep for a few days. On examination, his visual acuity is normal but there is inflammation of the scleral, episcleral and conjunctival vessels. Both pupils are equal and react normally to light. There is no blanching of the episcleral vessels when 2.5% phenylephrine is applied to the eye.
      Which of the following is this patient most likely to be suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scleritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Ocular Inflammatory Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment

      Scleritis: A severe inflammation of the sclera, often associated with underlying inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include severe eye pain, watering, photophobia, and affected visual acuity. Treatment requires systemic medication such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroids, or immunosuppressants.

      Sjögren Syndrome: An association of dry eye and/or dry mouth with rheumatoid arthritis or other connective-tissue disorders. Pain is not a feature, but conjunctival hyperemia may be present.

      Anterior Uveitis: Inflammation of the iris with or without ciliary body involvement, often seen in patients with inflammatory bowel disease or ankylosing spondylitis. Symptoms include an acutely painful red eye with photophobia and a small, irregular, poorly reactive pupil.

      Conjunctivitis: Inflammation of the conjunctival vessels, causing sore red eyes with a sticky discharge. Pain is not a feature, and scleral and episcleral vessels are not affected. Often caused by bacterial or viral infections or irritants/allergens, it is usually self-limiting but may require topical antibiotics.

      Episcleritis: A mild inflammation of the episclera, often seen as an extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include mild eye irritation, redness, and sometimes photophobia. Application of 2.5% phenylephrine causes episcleral vessels to blanch, distinguishing it from scleritis. Visual acuity is unaffected, and it is usually self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released from the hospital after fracturing her hip. The patient is worried that she may have inherited osteoporosis and wants to know what steps she should take. She has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medications, and has never experienced any fractures. She is a smoker, consuming approximately 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 3-4 units of alcohol daily.

      What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Due to her positive family history, smoking, and excess alcohol intake, this woman is at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis. Therefore, it is recommended that she undergo a FRAX assessment without delay, rather than waiting until the age of 65 as typically recommended for women without such risk factors.

      Assessing the Risk of Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012 for assessing the risk of fragility fracture. Women aged 65 years and older and men aged 75 years and older should be assessed, while younger patients should be assessed in the presence of risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, history of falls, and low body mass index.

      NICE recommends using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors.

      If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement, the results will be categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the FRAX assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorised into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. Patients assessed using QFracture are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast Asia. He and his colleagues frequently ate at street food stalls during their trip, often consuming seafood. He complains of feeling unwell, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin and dark urine. He had a fever initially, but it disappeared once the jaundice appeared. During the examination, he has an enlarged liver and tenderness in the upper right quadrant. His ALT and AST levels are ten times the upper limit of normal, while his bilirubin level is six times the upper limit of normal, but his ALP is only slightly elevated. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history of foreign travel suggests that the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. This virus is typically contracted through ingestion of contaminated food, particularly undercooked shellfish. While rare, outbreaks of Hepatitis A can occur worldwide, especially in resource-poor regions. Symptoms usually appear 2-6 weeks after exposure and can be more severe in older patients. Liver function tests often show elevated levels of ALT and AST. Diagnosis is confirmed through serologic testing for IgM antibody to HAV. Treatment involves supportive care and management of complications. Salmonella infection, Hepatitis B, gallstones, and pancreatic carcinoma are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and clinical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old woman is admitted with acute confusion caused by a urinary tract...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is admitted with acute confusion caused by a urinary tract infection. Despite treatment with antibiotics, environmental changes, and reassurance, she continues to be agitated. You are contemplating prescribing haloperidol. What is one condition that may be significantly exacerbated by the use of haloperidol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      If possible, antipsychotics should be avoided as they can exacerbate Parkinson’s disease symptoms. Instead, a low dose of oral lorazepam may be considered as an alternative.

      Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to hospital. It is more common in patients over the age of 65, those with a background of dementia, significant injury, frailty or multimorbidity, and those taking multiple medications. The condition is often triggered by a combination of factors, such as infection, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and underlying medical conditions.

      The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but may include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep, and poor attention. Treatment involves identifying and addressing the underlying cause, modifying the patient’s environment, and using sedatives such as haloperidol or olanzapine. However, managing the condition can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen Parkinsonian symptoms. In such cases, careful reduction of Parkinson medication may be helpful, and atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine and clozapine may be preferred for urgent treatment.

      Overall, acute confusional state is a complex condition that requires careful management and individualized treatment. By addressing the underlying causes and providing appropriate sedation, healthcare professionals can help patients recover from this condition and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You have diagnosed a 68-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease stage G3b (estimated...

    Incorrect

    • You have diagnosed a 68-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease stage G3b (estimated glomerular filtration rate or eGFR = 32 ml/min per 1.73m2) with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) confirmed on mid-stream urine culture and sensitivity:
      Escherichia coli: heavy growth
      resistant to trimethoprim
      sensitive to nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav
      Which of the following antibiotics is it most appropriate to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Best Antibiotic for a UTI: A Case Study

      A patient presents with symptoms of a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) and a urine culture confirms the presence of bacteria. However, the causative organism is resistant to the first-line agents nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim, and the patient’s renal function contraindicates the use of nitrofurantoin.

      The next best option would be to use amoxicillin, as long as the organism is susceptible to it. Other suitable options include pivmecillinam and fosfomycin, if there is a high risk of resistance. Ciprofloxacin and co-amoxiclav are not appropriate for the treatment of a lower UTI.

      In summary, choosing the best antibiotic for a UTI requires consideration of the patient’s renal function and the susceptibility of the causative organism. Amoxicillin, pivmecillinam, and fosfomycin are suitable alternatives when first-line agents are not effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old man with known gallstones awaiting elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy attends his general...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with known gallstones awaiting elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy attends his general practice surgery, complaining of a fever. He also has flu-like symptoms and pain in his abdomen.
      On examination, his temperature is 38.5 °C. His pulse is 120 bpm. He has yellow sclera and an abdomen which is soft but tender in the right upper quadrant.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Causes of Obstructive Jaundice: A Medical Overview

      Obstructive jaundice is a condition characterized by the yellowing of the skin and eyes due to the blockage of the bile ducts. Ascending cholangitis is a common cause of this condition, often associated with gallstone disease. Patients with this condition may experience fever, tachycardia, and abdominal pain. Influenza, on the other hand, rarely causes localized pain in the right upper quadrant and is unlikely to result in obstructive jaundice. Pancreatic cancer typically presents with painless jaundice, while acute hepatitis is often associated with a history of travel or high-risk behaviors. Biliary colic, which is caused by gallstones, can lead to colicky pain after eating. Understanding the different causes of obstructive jaundice is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Medicine (1/2) 50%
Reproductive Medicine (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/1) 0%
Passmed