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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about investigations conducted in cases of dementia?
Your Answer: Apolipoprotein E genotyping should be used where Alzheimer's is suspected
Correct Answer: I-FP-CIT SPECT should be used where Lewy body is suspected
Explanation:As an AI language model, I do not have the ability to perform investigations of provide medical advice. However, I can provide information on the NICE guidelines for investigations in people with dementia. The guidelines suggest routine blood tests to exclude reversible causes, such as full blood count, ESR, CRP, urea and electrolytes, calcium, HbA1c, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate levels. Other investigations that may be appropriate if clinically indicated include urine microscopy and culture, chest X-ray, ECG, syphilis serology, and HIV testing. Structural imaging and CSF analysis may also be necessary to exclude other cerebral pathologies and establish the subtype diagnosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred over CT if the subtype is unclear and vascular is suspected. FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT may be considered if the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia of dementia with Lewy bodies is suspected. However, it is important to note that Apolipoprotein E genotyping and electroencephalography should not be used to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the most accurate approximation of the 1 year prevalence of late onset schizophrenia?
Your Answer: 0.40%
Explanation:Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Among the Elderly
Depression:
Contrary to popular belief, studies have shown that rates of depression among the elderly in the general population are lower than in younger adults. However, elderly individuals who seek medical attention have a higher prevalence of depressive symptoms, with one study in London reporting a point prevalence of around 30%. Suicide risk factors in the elderly include a history of attempts, depressive disorder, access to lethal means, physical illness of disability, chronic pain, recent losses, and social isolation. Physician education in recognizing and treating depression and restricting access to lethal means have been found to reduce suicide rates.Personality Disorder:
There is limited information on the prevalence of personality disorders in the general population, but rates tend to decrease with age.Psychosis:
Very late-onset schizophrenia, with onset after the age of 60, has a 1-year prevalence of 0.1 to 0.5%. It is more common in women and has been associated with sensory impairment. Genetic factors appear to be less important than in earlier onset schizophrenia.Alcohol Misuse:
Studies have shown that men have higher rates of alcohol misuse than women in the elderly population. However, precise figures and prevalence rates are unreliable, and standard assessment tools may not be valid in this group.Dementia:
Dementia incidence is similar across all continents and regions of the world, with Alzheimer’s accounting for 60-70% and vascular dementia accounting for 15-20% of all dementia cases. Age is the strongest risk factor for dementia, with approximately 48% of people aged 95 and over having dementia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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A middle-aged patient in a psychiatric hospital is prescribed quetiapine for treatment-resistant aggressive behaviour. What potential adverse effects are associated with antipsychotic use in this age group?
Your Answer: Stroke
Explanation:Elderly individuals who take antipsychotic medications have a higher likelihood of experiencing a stroke.
Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 67-year-old man experiences difficulty with recalling recent events and struggles to identify familiar objects. He is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease and a CT scan is ordered. What is the most probable result of the scan?
Your Answer: Decreased hippocampal volume
Explanation:Individuals diagnosed with Alzheimer’s dementia exhibit reduced volumes of the hippocampus and entorhinal cortex, which are crucial for memory consolidation and recall. Additionally, they may display widespread cerebral atrophy and enlarged ventricles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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On an MRI, the region of the brain that is commonly observed to be abnormal in Alzheimer's dementia is:
Your Answer: Medial temporal lobe
Explanation:Medial temporal lobe atrophy is associated with Alzheimer’s disease.
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is not considered a type of frontotemporal lobar degeneration?
Your Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.
The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).
As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.
In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about Transient Global Amnesia?
Your Answer: Attacks are generally accompanied by focal neurological symptoms
Correct Answer: Attacks are often precipitated by a Valsalva manoeuvres
Explanation:Transient global amnesia typically affects individuals aged 40 to 80 and can be triggered by physical activities such as swimming, heavy lifting, of straining to defecate, as well as psychological stressors like arguments. The condition is characterized by sudden onset of severe anterograde amnesia, accompanied by repetitive questioning, but without any focal neurological symptoms. Patients remain alert and attentive, but disoriented to time and place. Episodes usually last between 1 to 8 hours, but no longer than 24 hours. There is no specific treatment for a typical episode. During an episode, patients are unable to form new memories, resulting in profound anterograde amnesia, while retrograde amnesia may also be present, lasting from a few hours to years.
Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes
Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.
Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.
Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following options is considered the least appropriate for managing behavioral difficulties associated with dementia, as per the Maudsley Guidelines?
Your Answer: Promethazine
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about the cognitive decline linked with Huntington's disease?
Your Answer: Cognitive impairment presents late in in the course of Huntington's
Correct Answer: Cognitive impairment is usually a feature of Huntington's
Explanation:Huntington’s disease is categorized as a type of dementia that affects the subcortical region of the brain. Cognitive decline is a prominent feature of the disease and typically manifests early on. However, the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors has not been shown to improve cognitive function in individuals with Huntington’s disease. A study published in Neurology in 2008 investigated the effects of donepezil on both motor and cognitive function in individuals with Huntington’s disease. The results showed no significant improvement in either area.
Psychiatric and Behavioural Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a condition that affects individuals with a triad of symptoms, including motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. While the symptoms typically begin in the third and fourth decades of life, individuals with a high number of CAG repeats may experience symptoms before the age of 20, known as juvenile Huntington’s disease.
The psychiatric symptoms of Huntington’s disease can include depression, apathy, dementia, psychosis, anxiety, mania, sexual dysfunction, and even suicide. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life and require appropriate treatment. Advances in psychiatric treatment have been made to address these symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals with Huntington’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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Which condition is primarily associated with cortical dementia rather than subcortical dementia?
Your Answer: Pick's disease
Explanation:Distinguishing Cortical and Subcortical Dementia: A Contested Area
Attempts have been made to differentiate between cortical and subcortical dementia based on clinical presentation, but this remains a contested area. Some argue that the distinction is not possible. Cortical dementia is characterized by impaired memory, visuospatial ability, executive function, and language. Examples of cortical dementias include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. On the other hand, subcortical dementia is characterized by general slowing of mental processes, personality changes, mood disorders, and abnormal movements. Examples of subcortical dementias include Binswanger’s disease, dementia associated with Huntington’s disease, AIDS, Parkinson’s disease, Wilson’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Despite ongoing debate, questions on this topic may appear in exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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An older female patient complained of a specific disturbance in memory that occurred whilst having sex. This episode lasted 6 hours and she was fully conscious throughout. She made a full recovery following the event. Select the most likely diagnosis.
Encephalitis
1%
Cerebrovascular accident
7%
Transient global amnesia
81%
Complex partial seizure
2%
Dissociative Amnesia
9%Your Answer: Transient global amnesia
Explanation:Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes
Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.
Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.
Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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What type of dementia is categorized as subcortical?
Your Answer: AIDS dementia complex
Explanation:Distinguishing Cortical and Subcortical Dementia: A Contested Area
Attempts have been made to differentiate between cortical and subcortical dementia based on clinical presentation, but this remains a contested area. Some argue that the distinction is not possible. Cortical dementia is characterized by impaired memory, visuospatial ability, executive function, and language. Examples of cortical dementias include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. On the other hand, subcortical dementia is characterized by general slowing of mental processes, personality changes, mood disorders, and abnormal movements. Examples of subcortical dementias include Binswanger’s disease, dementia associated with Huntington’s disease, AIDS, Parkinson’s disease, Wilson’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Despite ongoing debate, questions on this topic may appear in exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the defining characteristic of delirium?
Your Answer: Impairment of consciousness
Explanation:Delirium is primarily characterized by a disturbance in consciousness, often accompanied by a widespread decline in cognitive abilities. Other common symptoms include changes in mood, perception, behavior, and motor function, such as tremors and nystagmus. This information is based on Kaplan and Sadock’s concise textbook of psychiatry, 10th edition, published in 2008.
Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the accuracy of the NICE guidelines for investigating dementia?
Your Answer: Testing for syphilis serology should be done routinely in cases of suspected dementia
Correct Answer: FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT should be used where the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia is suspected
Explanation:As an AI language model, I do not have the ability to perform investigations of provide medical advice. However, I can provide information on the NICE guidelines for investigations in people with dementia. The guidelines suggest routine blood tests to exclude reversible causes, such as full blood count, ESR, CRP, urea and electrolytes, calcium, HbA1c, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate levels. Other investigations that may be appropriate if clinically indicated include urine microscopy and culture, chest X-ray, ECG, syphilis serology, and HIV testing. Structural imaging and CSF analysis may also be necessary to exclude other cerebral pathologies and establish the subtype diagnosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred over CT if the subtype is unclear and vascular is suspected. FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT may be considered if the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia of dementia with Lewy bodies is suspected. However, it is important to note that Apolipoprotein E genotyping and electroencephalography should not be used to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A middle-aged individual develops depression shortly after suffering a stroke and is currently taking warfarin. What medication is advised in this situation?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:For patients with post stroke depression who are taking warfarin, citalopram is the recommended treatment option. However, caution should be exercised if the stroke was hemorrhagic as SSRIs can increase the risk of de novo hemorrhagic stroke, especially when combined with antiplatelet drugs of warfarin. In such cases, citalopram or escitalopram may be preferred as they have the lowest potential for interaction. It is not clear how direct-acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs) interact with SSRIs, but citalopram or escitalopram may still be preferred as they do not affect the enzymes associated with DOAC metabolism.
Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 16
Correct
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What is a true statement about transient global amnesia?
Your Answer: Repetitive questioning is a common feature
Explanation:Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes
Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.
Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.
Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 17
Correct
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Which condition is primarily associated with cortical dementia rather than subcortical dementia?
Your Answer: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Explanation:Distinguishing Cortical and Subcortical Dementia: A Contested Area
Attempts have been made to differentiate between cortical and subcortical dementia based on clinical presentation, but this remains a contested area. Some argue that the distinction is not possible. Cortical dementia is characterized by impaired memory, visuospatial ability, executive function, and language. Examples of cortical dementias include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. On the other hand, subcortical dementia is characterized by general slowing of mental processes, personality changes, mood disorders, and abnormal movements. Examples of subcortical dementias include Binswanger’s disease, dementia associated with Huntington’s disease, AIDS, Parkinson’s disease, Wilson’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Despite ongoing debate, questions on this topic may appear in exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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In an elderly patient, which medication is the most probable cause of delirium?
Your Answer: Interferon α
Correct Answer: Pethidine
Explanation:Compared to other opioids, pethidine has a greater likelihood of causing delirium. This is possibly due to its tendency to build up in the body when kidney function is compromised, leading to the formation of a metabolite that possesses anticholinergic properties.
Risk Factors for Delirium
Delirium is a common condition that affects many elderly individuals. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing delirium. These risk factors include age, cognitive impairment, severe medical illness, previous history of delirium of neurological disease, psychoactive drug use, polypharmacy, and anticholinergic drug use.
Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Certain classes of drugs, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics, are strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia. Long-acting benzodiazepines are more troublesome than shorter-acting ones. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients. Pethidine, a member of the opioid class, appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other opioids due to its accumulation in individuals with impaired renal function and conversion to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.
Overall, it is important to be aware of these risk factors and to carefully monitor medication use in elderly individuals to prevent the development of delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 75 year old woman admitted to hospital with a broken hip develops depression whilst on the ward. She is on a beta blocker for atrial fibrillation and ibuprofen for osteoarthritis. What would be the most suitable antidepressant for her?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Choosing an antidepressant for older individuals can be challenging as there is no perfect option. TCAs, particularly older ones, are not recommended due to the risk of cardiac conduction abnormalities and anticholinergic effects. While SSRIs are generally better tolerated, they do carry an increased risk of bleeding, which is a concern in this case. Additionally, older individuals are more prone to developing hyponatremia, postural hypotension, and falls with SSRIs. NICE recommends considering mirtazapine as it has less serotonin reuptake inhibition, making it a potentially suitable option. Ultimately, the decision must balance the risks of bleeding from SSRIs with the risks of arrhythmia from TCAs.
SSRI and Bleeding Risk: Management Strategies
SSRIs have been linked to an increased risk of bleeding, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with a history of bleeding, and those taking medications that predispose them to bleeding. The risk of bleeding is further elevated in patients with comorbidities such as liver of renal disease, smoking, and alcohol of drug misuse.
To manage this risk, the Maudsley recommends avoiding SSRIs in patients receiving NSAIDs, aspirin, of oral anticoagulants, of those with a history of cerebral of GI bleeds. If SSRI use cannot be avoided, close monitoring and prescription of gastroprotective proton pump inhibitors are recommended. The degree of serotonin reuptake inhibition varies among antidepressants, with some having weaker of no inhibition, which may be associated with a lower risk of bleeding.
NICE recommends caution when using SSRIs in patients taking aspirin and suggests considering alternative antidepressants such as trazodone, mianserin, of reboxetine. In patients taking warfarin of heparin, SSRIs are not recommended, but mirtazapine may be considered with caution.
Overall, healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of SSRI use in patients at risk of bleeding and consider alternative antidepressants of gastroprotective measures when appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is accurate about how CADASIL is presented?
Your Answer: Psychiatric manifestations are the initial presentation in 40% of cases
Correct Answer: The most common presentation is that of stroke of migraine
Explanation:CADASIL: A Guide to a Comparatively Unrecognised Condition in Psychiatry
CADASIL, of Cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy, is a hereditary form of multi-infarct dementia that is progressive in nature. It has a prevalence of about 2 per 100,000 and typically presents at a young age, with onset occurring around 35-40 years old. The initial presentation of CADASIL is often neurological, with stroke of migraine being the primary symptoms in one-third of cases. Psychiatric manifestations are the initial presentation in 15% of cases, with mood disorders and subcortical dementia being the most common forms of psychiatric presentation. This condition is not widely recognized in psychiatry, making it important for healthcare professionals to be aware of its symptoms and potential psychiatric manifestations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 21
Correct
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How can subcortical dementia be best defined and identified?
Your Answer: AIDS dementia complex
Explanation:Distinguishing Cortical and Subcortical Dementia: A Contested Area
Attempts have been made to differentiate between cortical and subcortical dementia based on clinical presentation, but this remains a contested area. Some argue that the distinction is not possible. Cortical dementia is characterized by impaired memory, visuospatial ability, executive function, and language. Examples of cortical dementias include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. On the other hand, subcortical dementia is characterized by general slowing of mental processes, personality changes, mood disorders, and abnormal movements. Examples of subcortical dementias include Binswanger’s disease, dementia associated with Huntington’s disease, AIDS, Parkinson’s disease, Wilson’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Despite ongoing debate, questions on this topic may appear in exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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What is the most useful tool for evaluating mild cognitive impairment?
Your Answer: CAMCog
Explanation:Mild Cognitive Impairment: A Transitional Zone between Normal Function and Alzheimer’s Disease
Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a clinical syndrome that describes individuals who do not meet the criteria for dementia but have a high risk of progressing to a dementia disorder. MCI is a transitional zone between normal cognitive function and clinically probable Alzheimer’s disease (AD). The diagnosis of MCI is based on self and/of informant report and impairment on objective cognitive tasks, evidence of decline over time on objective cognitive tasks, and preserved basic activities of daily living/minimal impairment in complex instrumental functions.
When individuals with MCI are followed over time, some progress to AD and other dementia types, while others remain stable of even recover. The principal cognitive impairment can be amnestic, single non-memory domain, of involving multiple cognitive domains. There is evidence that deficits in regional cerebral blood flow and regional cerebral glucose metabolism could predict future development of AD in individuals with MCI.
Currently, there is no evidence for long-term efficacy of approved pharmacological treatments in MCI. However, epidemiological studies have indicated a reduced risk of dementia in individuals taking antihypertensive medications, cholesterol-lowering drugs, antioxidants, anti-inflammatories, and estrogen therapy. Randomized clinical trials are needed to verify these associations.
Two clinical screening instruments, the CAMCog (part of the CAMDEX) and the SISCO (part of the SIDAM), allow for a broad assessment of mild cognitive impairment. MCI represents a critical stage in the progression of cognitive decline and highlights the importance of early detection and intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 23
Correct
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A 60-year old man whose brother was diagnosed with Alzheimer's wants to know the likelihood of him developing the disorder compared to the general population. What is his increased risk?
Your Answer: 3 times higher
Explanation:Familial Risk of Alzheimer’s Disease
The risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease is increased for first-degree relatives of patients who develop the disorder before the age of 85. This risk is three to four times higher than the risk for individuals without a family history of the disease. It is important for healthcare professionals to advise relatives of patients with Alzheimer’s disease about their increased genetic risk and provide appropriate support and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is true about dementia that occurs at an early age?
Your Answer: There is a positive family history in up to 10% of patients with early onset frontotemporal dementia
Correct Answer: The majority of early onset Alzheimer's cases are sporadic rather than inherited
Explanation:While inherited causes of Alzheimer’s are prevalent among younger individuals, the majority of cases are attributed to sporadic causes.
Early-Onset Dementia: A Less Common but Broader Differential Diagnosis
Early-onset dementia refers to the occurrence of dementia before the age of 65, which accounts for only 2% of all people with dementia in the UK. However, the differential diagnosis for early-onset dementia is broader, and younger people are more likely to have a rarer form of dementia. The distribution of diagnoses of dementia differs dramatically between older and younger patients, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause of dementia in both groups. However, it only accounts for a third of cases in younger people, while frontotemporal dementia occurs much more commonly in younger populations. Rarer causes of dementia also occur with greater frequency in the younger population.
It is worth noting that the majority of Alzheimer’s cases are sporadic in early-onset, but inherited cases are more common. Vascular dementia is the second most common dementia in those under 65, and frontotemporal dementias occur more frequently in the younger population, with up to 50% of patients having a positive family history.
In summary, early-onset dementia is a less common but important condition to consider, as it presents a broader differential diagnosis and may have a genetic component. Understanding the distribution of diagnoses in younger populations can aid in early detection and appropriate management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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A 70 year old woman is referred by her general practitioner due to a concern about cognitive impairment confirmed by a score of 20 on the MMSE. Her MRI shows atrophy and white matter hyperintensities. What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?
Your Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:The CT scan commonly shows mixed dementia in patients with Alzheimer’s, making it challenging to distinguish from vascular dementia even with imaging. NICE recommends using AChE-I for mixed dementia cases. A previous Cochrane review (Rands 2000) found no proof to support the use of aspirin in vascular dementia.
Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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What is the recommended treatment for a stroke patient experiencing pathological crying?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Pathological Crying
Pathological crying, also known as pseudobulbar affect, is a condition characterized by sudden outbursts of crying of laughing in response to minor stimuli without any changes in mood. This condition can occur in response to nonspecific and inconsequential stimuli, and lacks a clear association with the prevailing mood state. Pathological crying can result from various neurological conditions, including strokes and multiple sclerosis.
When it comes to treating pathological crying post-stroke, citalopram is often the recommended treatment due to its efficacy in open label studies. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest that TCAs of SSRIs may be effective for MS, while valproic acid and the combination of dextromethorphan and low dose quinidine have also shown efficacy.
Understanding the neuroanatomy of pathological laughing and crying is important for diagnosing and treating this condition. Further research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms and develop more effective treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the recommended approach by NICE for managing distress in patients with delirium?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Delirium Management
Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.
Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 28
Correct
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A 75 year old woman on risperidone for schizophrenia becomes depressed. She is a frail woman prone to pneumonia for which she takes erythromycin given that she is allergic to penicillin. An ECG done in clinic reveals that she has a QTc interval of 410 msec. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for her depression?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Sertraline is often the preferred choice as a first-line antidepressant in older individuals, according to the Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines. It is important to note that erythromycin and risperidone have the potential to increase the QTc interval, which may be a concern for this patient if he develops pneumonia and requires erythromycin treatment. Therefore, sertraline would be the best option in this case as it does not tend to cause QTc prolongation. It is worth noting that citalopram is an exception among SSRIs, as it has been associated with a dose-related increase in QTc interval. Other antidepressants, such as fluoxetine and mirtazapine, do not affect QTc interval, while trazodone and tricyclic antidepressants have the potential to prolong QTc interval.
Antidepressants in the Elderly: Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition Summary
Antidepressants have a similar response rate in the elderly as in younger adults, but factors such as physical illness, anxiety, and reduced executive functioning can affect prognosis. SSRIs and TCAs are equally effective, but TCAs have higher withdrawal rates in the elderly. NICE recommends starting with an SSRI, then trying another SSRI of a newer generation antidepressant if there is no response. If this fails, an antidepressant from a different class can be considered, but caution is needed with TCAs and MAOIs due to adverse effects and drug interactions. There is no ideal antidepressant for elderly patients, and choice should be based on individual cases. SSRIs are generally better tolerated than TCAs, but increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeds, hyponatremia, and falls. Agomelatine is effective and well-tolerated in older patients, but requires frequent liver function tests. Fish oils are probably not effective, and highly anticholinergic medicines increase the risk of dementia. Elderly patients may take longer to respond to antidepressants, and it is recommended that they continue taking them for at least 2 years following remission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Among the given antidepressants, which one is more likely to cause delirium in an elderly patient?
Your Answer: Trazodone
Correct Answer: Imipramine
Explanation:Delirium and cognitive impairment are most likely caused by tertiary amine tricyclics.
Risk Factors for Delirium
Delirium is a common condition that affects many elderly individuals. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing delirium. These risk factors include age, cognitive impairment, severe medical illness, previous history of delirium of neurological disease, psychoactive drug use, polypharmacy, and anticholinergic drug use.
Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Certain classes of drugs, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics, are strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia. Long-acting benzodiazepines are more troublesome than shorter-acting ones. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients. Pethidine, a member of the opioid class, appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other opioids due to its accumulation in individuals with impaired renal function and conversion to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.
Overall, it is important to be aware of these risk factors and to carefully monitor medication use in elderly individuals to prevent the development of delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which antipsychotic medication is approved for treating aggression in individuals with dementia?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Risperidone is the sole atypical antipsychotic approved for managing short-term aggression in dementia patients who have not responded to behavioral interventions. However, antipsychotics carry risks of adverse effects, including heightened confusion and falls. In elderly individuals, traditional antipsychotics may cause extrapyramidal side effects and QTc prolongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is referred to your clinic. Her husband has noticed that she has become more forgetful over the last six months and has also noticed that there are episodes of confusion.
There is a history of repeated falls but no serious head injury. She does not drink alcohol but has a tremor and is slow in her movements. Her elderly husband is also perplexed as she frequently states that she sees a bird in the living room, which he cannot see.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Progressive supranuclear palsy
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:The individual is exhibiting typical symptoms of Lewy body dementia, such as cognitive decline, fluctuating confusion, Parkinson’s-like motor symptoms, frequent falls, and early onset visual hallucinations. Treatment with the cholinesterase inhibitor rivastigmine has been found to be effective in managing the associated delusions and hallucinations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes to you with complaints of feeling low and having trouble sleeping. Upon further discussion and using a validated symptom measure, you diagnose him with moderate depression. He has a history of cerebrovascular disease and is currently on aspirin, ramipril, and simvastatin. What would be the best course of action in this case?
Your Answer: Start citalopram
Correct Answer: Start citalopram + lansoprazole
Explanation:SSRI and Bleeding Risk: Management Strategies
SSRIs have been linked to an increased risk of bleeding, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with a history of bleeding, and those taking medications that predispose them to bleeding. The risk of bleeding is further elevated in patients with comorbidities such as liver of renal disease, smoking, and alcohol of drug misuse.
To manage this risk, the Maudsley recommends avoiding SSRIs in patients receiving NSAIDs, aspirin, of oral anticoagulants, of those with a history of cerebral of GI bleeds. If SSRI use cannot be avoided, close monitoring and prescription of gastroprotective proton pump inhibitors are recommended. The degree of serotonin reuptake inhibition varies among antidepressants, with some having weaker of no inhibition, which may be associated with a lower risk of bleeding.
NICE recommends caution when using SSRIs in patients taking aspirin and suggests considering alternative antidepressants such as trazodone, mianserin, of reboxetine. In patients taking warfarin of heparin, SSRIs are not recommended, but mirtazapine may be considered with caution.
Overall, healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of SSRI use in patients at risk of bleeding and consider alternative antidepressants of gastroprotective measures when appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 33
Incorrect
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What alternative method does NICE recommend for distinguishing between Alzheimer's disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia in the absence of HMPAO SPECT?
Your Answer: F-DOPA PET
Correct Answer: FDG PET
Explanation:The first recommended imaging technique is HMPAO SPECT, while FDG PET is considered as a secondary option.
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 34
Correct
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A senior citizen is referred to the memory clinic by their GP due to mild cognitive impairment. You rule out reversible causes and confirm that they are not prescribed any medications which might contribute to cognitive impairment.
The senior citizen is concerned about progression to Alzheimer's disease.
What would you advise has the best evidence to improve their cognitive performance at this stage?Your Answer: Exercise
Explanation:Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a condition where individuals experience cognitive impairment but are still able to perform daily activities with minimal difficulty. However, those with MCI are at a higher risk of developing dementia compared to those without the condition. While there are currently no pharmacological options available, regular exercise has been shown to be the most effective intervention for MCI. It is important to note that some individuals with MCI may remain stable of even return to normal neurological function. These findings were reported in a practice guideline update summary by Peterson in the journal Neurology.
Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 35
Correct
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What is the maximum duration for which Risperidone can be prescribed for persistent aggression in Alzheimer's patients?
Your Answer: 6 weeks
Explanation:Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 36
Correct
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You receive a call from a doctor in the emergency department regarding a middle-aged female patient with a history of depression under psychiatric care who has presented with a gastrointestinal bleed. The doctor is inquiring about the potential contribution of any medications to the bleed. Which medication would you consider as the most likely culprit?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:SSRI and Bleeding Risk: Management Strategies
SSRIs have been linked to an increased risk of bleeding, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with a history of bleeding, and those taking medications that predispose them to bleeding. The risk of bleeding is further elevated in patients with comorbidities such as liver of renal disease, smoking, and alcohol of drug misuse.
To manage this risk, the Maudsley recommends avoiding SSRIs in patients receiving NSAIDs, aspirin, of oral anticoagulants, of those with a history of cerebral of GI bleeds. If SSRI use cannot be avoided, close monitoring and prescription of gastroprotective proton pump inhibitors are recommended. The degree of serotonin reuptake inhibition varies among antidepressants, with some having weaker of no inhibition, which may be associated with a lower risk of bleeding.
NICE recommends caution when using SSRIs in patients taking aspirin and suggests considering alternative antidepressants such as trazodone, mianserin, of reboxetine. In patients taking warfarin of heparin, SSRIs are not recommended, but mirtazapine may be considered with caution.
Overall, healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of SSRI use in patients at risk of bleeding and consider alternative antidepressants of gastroprotective measures when appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 37
Correct
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What is the most suitable course of action for a man with advanced multiple sclerosis who experiences pathological crying and has not shown improvement with citalopram?
Your Answer: Dextromethorphan and quinidine
Explanation:According to the 13th edition of the Maudsley Guidelines, the effectiveness of dextromethorphan and quinidine in treating pseudobulbar affect has been demonstrated. Out of the options provided, this is the only one that has been supported by evidence.
Pathological Crying
Pathological crying, also known as pseudobulbar affect, is a condition characterized by sudden outbursts of crying of laughing in response to minor stimuli without any changes in mood. This condition can occur in response to nonspecific and inconsequential stimuli, and lacks a clear association with the prevailing mood state. Pathological crying can result from various neurological conditions, including strokes and multiple sclerosis.
When it comes to treating pathological crying post-stroke, citalopram is often the recommended treatment due to its efficacy in open label studies. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest that TCAs of SSRIs may be effective for MS, while valproic acid and the combination of dextromethorphan and low dose quinidine have also shown efficacy.
Understanding the neuroanatomy of pathological laughing and crying is important for diagnosing and treating this condition. Further research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms and develop more effective treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 38
Correct
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Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the risk of suicide in older adults?
Your Answer: Alzheimer's disorder
Explanation:Epidemiology of Mental Disorders Among the Elderly
Depression:
Contrary to popular belief, studies have shown that rates of depression among the elderly in the general population are lower than in younger adults. However, elderly individuals who seek medical attention have a higher prevalence of depressive symptoms, with one study in London reporting a point prevalence of around 30%. Suicide risk factors in the elderly include a history of attempts, depressive disorder, access to lethal means, physical illness of disability, chronic pain, recent losses, and social isolation. Physician education in recognizing and treating depression and restricting access to lethal means have been found to reduce suicide rates.Personality Disorder:
There is limited information on the prevalence of personality disorders in the general population, but rates tend to decrease with age.Psychosis:
Very late-onset schizophrenia, with onset after the age of 60, has a 1-year prevalence of 0.1 to 0.5%. It is more common in women and has been associated with sensory impairment. Genetic factors appear to be less important than in earlier onset schizophrenia.Alcohol Misuse:
Studies have shown that men have higher rates of alcohol misuse than women in the elderly population. However, precise figures and prevalence rates are unreliable, and standard assessment tools may not be valid in this group.Dementia:
Dementia incidence is similar across all continents and regions of the world, with Alzheimer’s accounting for 60-70% and vascular dementia accounting for 15-20% of all dementia cases. Age is the strongest risk factor for dementia, with approximately 48% of people aged 95 and over having dementia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 39
Incorrect
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What signs of symptoms would indicate a subcortical cause rather than a cortical cause when evaluating a patient with early dementia?
Your Answer: Absence of dysarthria
Correct Answer: Calculation preserved
Explanation:Although the distinction between cortical and subcortical dementia is now considered arbitrary and there is limited evidence to support it, the college continues to include it as a question.
Distinguishing Cortical and Subcortical Dementia: A Contested Area
Attempts have been made to differentiate between cortical and subcortical dementia based on clinical presentation, but this remains a contested area. Some argue that the distinction is not possible. Cortical dementia is characterized by impaired memory, visuospatial ability, executive function, and language. Examples of cortical dementias include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. On the other hand, subcortical dementia is characterized by general slowing of mental processes, personality changes, mood disorders, and abnormal movements. Examples of subcortical dementias include Binswanger’s disease, dementia associated with Huntington’s disease, AIDS, Parkinson’s disease, Wilson’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Despite ongoing debate, questions on this topic may appear in exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 40
Correct
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A 67-year-old female with a history of dementia is brought in by her family due to an increase in aggressive behavior. She appears to be in good physical health. What is the most suitable treatment for her outbursts of aggression?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Non-drug approaches should be the first line of defense in managing aggression in Alzheimer’s disease, including identifying triggers and utilizing behavioral techniques. However, in some cases, drug treatment may be necessary. Atypical neuroleptics like quetiapine and haloperidol are not recommended due to increased risk of death of stroke and potential cognitive decline. Risperidone is licensed for short-term treatment of persistent aggression in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease if non-pharmacological alternatives have been tried and there is a risk of harm. Valproate has been used for calming effects, but evidence of its efficacy is limited. Benzodiazepines are not recommended due to increased risk of falls and worsening cognitive decline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 41
Incorrect
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An 87-year-old male is admitted with increasing confusion and lethargy, and his family have been particularly concerned that he has been unable to look after himself.
He has a recent history of hypertension and diabetes for which he takes lisinopril, metformin and amlodipine. On examination, he has a temperature of 36.2°C, and is confused in time and place.
His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg and his pulse 60 bpm regular. Abdominal examination reveals little but PR examination reveals that the rectum is loaded with faeces. Examination of the CNS reveals blunted tendon reflexes but no focal neurology. Initial investigations reveal:
Haemoglobin 130 g/L (120-160)
MCV 98 fL (80-100)
Platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400)
White cell count 7.2 ×109/L (4-11)
Sodium 135 mmol/L (135-145)
Potassium 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 120 mmol/L (60-110)
Glucose 10.5 mmol/L (4-7)
Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Blood cultures
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:The patient has a brief history of growing confusion and struggling to cope, with primary symptoms of confusion, constipation, hypothermia, and reduced tendon reflexes. The tests indicate a higher than normal mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mild hyponatremia. These symptoms are consistent with hypothyroidism, and the most suitable test would be thyroid function tests, which should show a decrease in free thyroxine (T4) and an increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 42
Correct
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What is the most accurate prediction for the median length of time that patients with dementia survive after being diagnosed?
Your Answer: 6 years
Explanation:Epidemiological Findings on Dementia
Dementia is a disease that primarily affects older individuals, with a doubling of cases every five years. While the median survival time from diagnosis to death is approximately 5-6 years, 2% of those affected are under 65 years of age. In the UK, early onset dementia is more prevalent in men aged 50-65, while late onset dementia is marginally more prevalent in women. Approximately 60% of people with dementia live in private households, with 55% having mild dementia, 30% having moderate dementia, and 15% having severe dementia. These international and UK-specific epidemiological findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 43
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes the use of cholinesterase inhibitors for treating dementia caused by Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: They are more effective than placebo in treating cognitive problems
Explanation:Dementia with Parkinson’s Disease: Understanding Cognitive Symptoms
Dementia with Parkinson’s disease is a syndrome that involves a decline in memory and other cognitive domains, leading to social and occupational dysfunction. Along with motor problems, non-motor symptoms such as cognitive, behavioral, and psychological issues can also arise. There is debate over whether Lewy body dementia and dementia due to Parkinson’s are different conditions. Drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can interfere with cognitive function, and people with this type of dementia tend to have marked problems with executive function. Cholinesterase inhibitors can improve cognitive performance, but they are not well tolerated and can cause side effects. Understanding the cognitive symptoms of dementia with Parkinson’s disease is crucial for effective clinical management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 44
Correct
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Which antipsychotic has the strongest evidence to support its use in preventing postoperative delirium?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 45
Incorrect
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An older adult with Lewy body dementia who is prescribed donepezil, develops distressing visual hallucinations and delusions and has begun to attack members of his care team. Non-pharmacological attempts to manage him have been exhausted.
What would be the most effective approach in managing this individual?Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Cholinesterase Inhibitors are the preferred medication for treating visual hallucinations in LBD, but if they don’t work, antipsychotic drugs may be necessary. For Lewy Body psychosis, clozapine is the most effective option, although quetiapine is also a viable alternative. In Parkinson’s disease dementia with psychosis, a review by the Movement Disorder Society found that clozapine was effective and had an acceptable risk with proper monitoring. Quetiapine was considered investigational due to a lack of supporting evidence, while olanzapine was deemed unlikely to be effective and had an unacceptable risk due to its demonstrated worsening of motor function.
Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 46
Incorrect
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What is the recommended approach by NICE for managing distress in patients with delirium?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Delirium Management
Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.
Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 47
Correct
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Which of the following behavioral signs is absent in individuals with semantic dementia?
Your Answer: Reduced sociability
Explanation:FTD is more likely to impact social behavior, resulting in decreased sociability. Meanwhile, SD primarily affects conceptual knowledge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 48
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What is a true statement about mild cognitive impairment (MCI)?
Your Answer: MCI represents a middle ground between normality and dementia
Explanation:Mild cognitive impairment is a stage that occurs between normal ageing and dementia, marking a transition from one to the other.
Mild Cognitive Impairment: A Transitional Zone between Normal Function and Alzheimer’s Disease
Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a clinical syndrome that describes individuals who do not meet the criteria for dementia but have a high risk of progressing to a dementia disorder. MCI is a transitional zone between normal cognitive function and clinically probable Alzheimer’s disease (AD). The diagnosis of MCI is based on self and/of informant report and impairment on objective cognitive tasks, evidence of decline over time on objective cognitive tasks, and preserved basic activities of daily living/minimal impairment in complex instrumental functions.
When individuals with MCI are followed over time, some progress to AD and other dementia types, while others remain stable of even recover. The principal cognitive impairment can be amnestic, single non-memory domain, of involving multiple cognitive domains. There is evidence that deficits in regional cerebral blood flow and regional cerebral glucose metabolism could predict future development of AD in individuals with MCI.
Currently, there is no evidence for long-term efficacy of approved pharmacological treatments in MCI. However, epidemiological studies have indicated a reduced risk of dementia in individuals taking antihypertensive medications, cholesterol-lowering drugs, antioxidants, anti-inflammatories, and estrogen therapy. Randomized clinical trials are needed to verify these associations.
Two clinical screening instruments, the CAMCog (part of the CAMDEX) and the SISCO (part of the SIDAM), allow for a broad assessment of mild cognitive impairment. MCI represents a critical stage in the progression of cognitive decline and highlights the importance of early detection and intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 49
Correct
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What treatment option has the strongest evidence for managing dementia in individuals with Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Rivastigmine
Explanation:It is difficult to provide a definitive answer to this question as there is currently no consensus on the matter. However, the limited evidence available suggests that both rivastigmine and donepezil may be effective, although donepezil may be associated with higher dropout rates.
Dementia with Parkinson’s Disease: Understanding Cognitive Symptoms
Dementia with Parkinson’s disease is a syndrome that involves a decline in memory and other cognitive domains, leading to social and occupational dysfunction. Along with motor problems, non-motor symptoms such as cognitive, behavioral, and psychological issues can also arise. There is debate over whether Lewy body dementia and dementia due to Parkinson’s are different conditions. Drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can interfere with cognitive function, and people with this type of dementia tend to have marked problems with executive function. Cholinesterase inhibitors can improve cognitive performance, but they are not well tolerated and can cause side effects. Understanding the cognitive symptoms of dementia with Parkinson’s disease is crucial for effective clinical management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 50
Correct
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How can we differentiate between cortical and subcortical dementia?
Your Answer: Impaired executive function
Explanation:Distinguishing Cortical and Subcortical Dementia: A Contested Area
Attempts have been made to differentiate between cortical and subcortical dementia based on clinical presentation, but this remains a contested area. Some argue that the distinction is not possible. Cortical dementia is characterized by impaired memory, visuospatial ability, executive function, and language. Examples of cortical dementias include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. On the other hand, subcortical dementia is characterized by general slowing of mental processes, personality changes, mood disorders, and abnormal movements. Examples of subcortical dementias include Binswanger’s disease, dementia associated with Huntington’s disease, AIDS, Parkinson’s disease, Wilson’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Despite ongoing debate, questions on this topic may appear in exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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