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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of feeling sad and low since giving birth to her daughter 2 weeks ago. She reports difficulty sleeping and believes that her baby does not like her and that they are not bonding, despite breastfeeding. She has a strong support system, including the baby's father, and has no history of depression. She denies any thoughts of self-harm or substance abuse, and you do not believe the baby is in danger. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      The recommended first line treatment for moderate to severe depression in pregnancy or post-natal period for women without a history of severe depression is a high intensity psychological intervention, such as CBT, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. If this is not accepted or symptoms do not improve, an antidepressant such as a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI) or tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) should be used. Mindfulness may be helpful for women with persistent subclinical depressive symptoms. Social services should only be involved if there is a risk to someone in the household. The British National Formulary (BNF) advises against using zopiclone while breastfeeding as it is present in breast milk.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      28.2
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  • Question 2 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father. She has been experiencing coryza and a fever of 38C for the past 3 days. This morning her father noticed a red rash on both cheeks and pallor surrounding her mouth. What is the most probable organism responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus type 1

      Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      The cause of the boy’s symptoms, which include a red rash following coryza and fever, is erythema infectiosum, also known as slapped-cheek syndrome. This infection is caused by parvovirus b19, a common organism responsible for childhood infections.

      The table provides information on various childhood infections including chickenpox, measles, mumps, rubella, erythema infectiosum, scarlet fever, and hand, foot and mouth disease. Each infection has its own unique features such as fever, rash, and systemic upset. Chickenpox starts with fever and an itchy rash that spreads from the head and trunk. Measles has a prodrome of irritability and conjunctivitis, followed by a rash that starts behind the ears and spreads to the whole body. Mumps causes fever, malaise, and parotitis. Rubella has a pink maculopapular rash that starts on the face and spreads to the whole body, along with suboccipital and postauricular lymphadenopathy. Erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, causes lethargy, fever, and a slapped-cheek rash. Scarlet fever is a reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci and causes fever, malaise, tonsillitis, and a rash with fine punctate erythema. Hand, foot and mouth disease causes mild systemic upset, sore throat, and vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 26-year-old male comes to his doctor's office at the request of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male comes to his doctor's office at the request of his friends. Upon examination, he discloses that he thinks everyone can hear his thoughts, as if he were a radio station, and that he hears voices commenting on his actions. The doctor observes that he has a blunted affect, alogia, and avolition. Additionally, the doctor notes that the patient repeats the final word of any inquiry posed to him.

      What term describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echolalia

      Explanation:

      Echolalia is when someone repeats the speech of another person, including any questions asked. This is often seen in individuals with schizophrenia, particularly catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by negative symptoms such as a lack of emotional expression, poverty of speech, and poor motivation. The patient in question exhibits two of Schneider’s first-rank symptoms: thought broadcasting and third-person auditory hallucinations, and is therefore diagnosable with schizophrenia. Copropraxia refers to the involuntary performance of obscene or forbidden gestures or inappropriate touching, while echopraxia involves the meaningless repetition or imitation of others’ movements. Finally, a neologism is a word that has been made up.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - You are examining a nuclear medicine scan of a 63-year-old man with chronic...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining a nuclear medicine scan of a 63-year-old man with chronic lower gastrointestinal bleeding and suspect a vascular malformation in the distal sigmoid colon. Can you identify the artery that supplies blood to the sigmoid colon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Arterial Supply of the Large Intestine

      The large intestine is supplied by two unpaired branches off the aorta – the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries. The superior mesenteric artery originates from the anterior surface of the abdominal aorta just below the coeliac trunk. It supplies the caecum, appendix, ascending colon, and part of the transverse colon. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper third of the rectum.

      The ileocolic and right colic arteries, branches of the superior mesenteric artery, supply the ascending colon up to the hepatic flexure. The middle colic artery, also a branch of the superior mesenteric artery, supplies the transverse colon. The left colic and superior sigmoid arteries, branches of the inferior mesenteric artery, supply the descending and sigmoid colon. The superior rectal artery, a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery, supplies the proximal part of the rectum, while the middle and inferior parts are supplied by the middle rectal and inferior rectal arteries, respectively.

      The marginal artery of the colon, also known as the marginal artery of Drummond, is an important connection between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries. It forms a continuous arterial circle or arcade along the inner border of the colon, providing collateral flow in the event of occlusion or significant stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 5 - What is the name of the neuron that sends signals from the peripheral...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the neuron that sends signals from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Afferent

      Explanation:

      Afferent Neurones

      Afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory signals from the periphery, such as receptors, organs, and other neurones, to the central nervous system, which includes the brain and spinal cord. These neurones are often referred to as sensory neurones. It is important to note that afferent neurones are not the same as bipolar, efferent, interneurone, or multipolar neurones.

      Bipolar neurones are simply neurones that have only two extensions, such as those found in the retina or the ganglia of the vestibulocochlear nerve. Efferent neurones, on the other hand, transmit impulses from the central nervous system to the periphery, which is the opposite action of afferent neurones. Interneurones are neurones that connect afferent and efferent neurones in neural pathways. Finally, multipolar neurones are neurones that have a large number of dendrites, usually one long axon, and are found mostly in the brain and spinal cord for the integration of multiple incoming signals.

      In summary, afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory signals from the periphery to the central nervous system. They are distinct from other types of neurones, such as bipolar, efferent, interneurone, and multipolar neurones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old man comes to see his GP with complaints of worsening urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to see his GP with complaints of worsening urinary symptoms. He reports frequent urges to urinate throughout the day and has experienced occasional incontinence. He denies any hesitancy, dribbling, or weak stream. Despite trying bladder retraining, he has seen little improvement.

      During the examination, the GP notes that the man's prostate is smooth, regular, and not enlarged. A recent PSA test came back normal. The patient has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Antimuscarinic drugs are a recommended treatment for patients experiencing an overactive bladder, which is characterized by storage symptoms like urgency and frequency without any voiding symptoms. If lifestyle measures and bladder training fail to alleviate symptoms, the next step is to try an antimuscarinic agent like oxybutynin, which works by blocking contractions of the detrusor muscle. Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, is not suitable for this patient as it is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and associated voiding symptoms. Furosemide, which increases urine production during the day and reduces it at night, is not appropriate for this patient as he does not have nocturia and it may even worsen his overactive bladder symptoms. Mirabegron, a beta-3 agonist that relaxes the detrusor muscle and increases bladder storage capacity, is a second-line medication used if antimuscarinics are not effective or well-tolerated.

      Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a urinalysis to check for infection and haematuria, perform a digital rectal examination to assess the size and consistency of the prostate, and possibly conduct a PSA test after proper counselling. Patients should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.

      For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be offered. If there are mixed symptoms of voiding and storage not responding to an alpha-blocker, an antimuscarinic drug may be added. For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered, and antimuscarinic drugs may be prescribed if symptoms persist. Mirabegron may be considered if first-line drugs fail. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night, furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon, and desmopressin may be helpful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 7 - Which ethical principle is violated when the truth about a patient's illness is...

    Incorrect

    • Which ethical principle is violated when the truth about a patient's illness is not disclosed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autonomy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Autonomy, Informed Consent, Justice, Bolam Principle, and Beneficence in Medical Practice

      In medical practice, it is crucial to uphold the patient’s autonomy by providing them with all the necessary information about their illness. Failure to do so would mean taking away their ability to make decisions for themselves, leaving their relatives and healthcare providers to make decisions on their behalf. This is a violation of their autonomy, which is a fundamental principle in medical ethics.

      Informed consent is an essential aspect of medical practice that relies on providing patients with all the information generated from the investigations they have consented to. This principle ensures that patients are fully aware of the risks and benefits of any medical procedure or treatment, allowing them to make informed decisions about their healthcare.

      Justice is another critical principle in medical ethics that requires healthcare providers to balance conflicting interests and make decisions that are fair and equitable for all patients. This principle goes beyond personal feelings, prejudices, and desires to ensure that all patients receive the same level of care and treatment.

      The Bolam principle is a legal standard used to judge a doctor’s actions, which must be considered appropriate and reasonable by a responsible body of their peers in similar circumstances. This principle ensures that doctors are held accountable for their actions and that patients receive the best possible care.

      Finally, beneficence is a principle that requires all choices to be made in the patient’s best interest, with the aim of doing good. This principle ensures that healthcare providers prioritize the patient’s well-being above all else, making decisions that are in their best interest.

      In conclusion, upholding the principles of autonomy, informed consent, justice, Bolam principle, and beneficence is crucial in medical practice. These principles ensure that patients receive the best possible care and that healthcare providers act ethically and responsibly in all situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman, presenting with a 4-month history of severe mood swings, breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman, presenting with a 4-month history of severe mood swings, breast tenderness and reduced cognitive ability to perform functions at work, comes for a review with her diary of symptoms corresponding to a period of three cycles. She attends work regularly during these episodes and goes out with friends, but does not enjoy it as much and is less productive.
      Going through the diary, symptoms occur during the luteal phase and resolve 2–3 days into menstruation.
      Blood tests, including thyroid function tests, are normal. She has tried the progesterone implant, which made her symptoms worse; therefore, she is not currently using any contraception.
      A diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is made.
      Which of the following is the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)

      Explanation:

      Management of Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) is a diagnosis of exclusion, characterized by cyclical psychological, behavioral, and physical symptoms during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. The exact causes are not yet identified, but studies suggest that the effects of hormones on serotonin and GABA signaling may have a significant role, in addition to psychological and environmental factors.

      For moderate PMS, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of new-generation combined oral contraceptives, which prevent the natural cyclical change in hormones seen in the physiological menstrual cycle. Continuous use, rather than cyclical, showed better improvement. Response is unpredictable, and NICE suggests a trial of three months, and then to review.

      Referral to a specialist clinic is reserved for women who have severe PMS, resistant to medication, that cannot be managed in the community. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, has been used successfully in the treatment of women with severe PMS symptoms or in women with moderate PMS that fails to respond to other treatments.

      Lifestyle modification advice is given to patients with mild PMS, including regular exercise, restriction in alcohol intake, smoking cessation, regular meals, regular sleep, and stress reduction. St John’s wort, an over-the-counter herbal remedy, has shown improvement of symptoms in some studies, but its safety profile is unknown, and it can interact with prescribed medication. Its use is at the discretion of the individual, but the patient needs to be warned of the potential risks.

      Management Options for Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - Sarah is a 75-year-old woman who presents for a follow-up of her left...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 75-year-old woman who presents for a follow-up of her left wrist in fracture clinic 3-weeks after a fall on an outstretched hand. Her X-ray at the time of injury was unremarkable but her wrist was immobilised in a Futuro splint as she was tender in the anatomical snuffbox. Subsequent imaging today shows a fracture of the proximal scaphoid pole.
      What is the recommended definitive treatment for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical fixation

      Explanation:

      Surgical fixation is necessary for all proximal scaphoid pole fractures, including Colin’s injury. Referral to physiotherapy would not be sufficient for managing this type of fracture, as the risk of avascular necrosis is high. Removing the Futuro splint without further intervention would also be inappropriate, as imaging has shown that the fracture has not yet healed. However, if the fracture were an undisplaced scaphoid fracture not involving the proximal pole, immobilization of the wrist in a Futuro splint or below-elbow cast for an additional 6 weeks would be appropriate.

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) continues to be breathless...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) continues to be breathless at rest despite maximal inhaler therapy, pulmonary rehabilitation and home oxygen therapy. He has been reviewed for lung volume reduction surgery but was deemed unsuitable. He is referred for consideration of lung transplantation.
      His FEV1 is 30% predicted, he has not smoked for 12 years, and his past medical history includes bowel cancer, for which he underwent partial colectomy and adjunctive chemotherapy six years previously without evidence of recurrence on surveillance, and pulmonary tuberculosis age 37, which was fully sensitive and treated with six months of anti-tuberculous therapy. The patient’s body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m2.
      What feature in this patient’s history would make him ineligible for listing for lung transplantation at this time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FEV1 30% predicted

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Lung Transplantation in a Patient with COPD

      Lung transplantation is a potential treatment option for patients with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, certain factors may make a patient ineligible for the procedure.

      One important factor is the patient’s forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) percentage predicted. The International Society for Heart and Lung Transplantation recommends a minimum FEV1 of less than 25% predicted for lung transplantation. In addition, patients must have a Body mass index, airflow Obstruction, Dyspnea and Exercise capacity (BODE) index of 5 to 6, a PaCO2 > 6.6 kPa and/or a PaO2 < 8 kPa. A previous history of pulmonary tuberculosis is also a contraindication to lung transplantation, as active infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis can complicate the procedure. The patient’s body mass index (BMI) is another important consideration. A BMI greater than 35 kg/m2 is an absolute contraindication to transplant, while a BMI between 30 and 35 kg/m2 is a relative contraindication. Age is also a factor, with patients over 65 years old being considered a relative contraindication to lung transplantation. However, there is no absolute age limit for the procedure. Finally, a previous history of malignancy may also impact a patient’s eligibility for lung transplantation. If the malignancy has a low risk of recurrence, such as basal cell carcinoma, patients may be considered for transplant after two years. For most other cancers, a five-year period without recurrence is required. In this case, the patient’s previous malignancy occurred six years ago and would not be an absolute contraindication to transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with a swollen and tender...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with a swollen and tender left leg. She had been diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) on her right leg 3 months ago and was prescribed warfarin, which has maintained her INR at 2.0–3.0. The Doppler scan confirmed a positive DVT on her left leg this time, and she has been referred to haematology for further investigations. What is the most appropriate plan for her anticoagulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue warfarin, aim INR target 3.5

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right INR Target for Recurrent DVT: A Guide

      When it comes to treating recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT), determining the appropriate international normalized ratio (INR) target is crucial. While a target of 2.5 (2.0-3.0) is recommended for first presentations of DVT, the target should be increased to 3.5 for recurrent cases. However, if the patient’s INR has been stable within the target range, there is no need to switch to low-molecular-weight heparin. Additionally, antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel have limited use in venous thromboembolism. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that their patients receive the most effective treatment for recurrent DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 12 - A concerned mother brings her 4-year-old child to the Emergency Department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned mother brings her 4-year-old child to the Emergency Department with a ‘barking cough’. The child has been experiencing ‘noisy breathing’ and a fever for the past 48 hours. The child is eating and drinking, but not as much as usual. The child is urinating regularly and has no significant medical history. Upon examination, the child is alert, well, and smiling. The child is clearly suffering from a cold. There is no stridor, and vital signs are normal. The chest is clear, without signs of recession. The diagnosis is croup.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give a single dose of dexamethasone orally, and discharge home with clear advice on the signs of worsening croup

      Explanation:

      Croup is a viral illness that affects young children, causing a sudden-onset barking cough and upper airway inflammation. Mild cases can be treated with a single dose of oral dexamethasone, while moderate to severe cases require admission and nebulised adrenaline. This child has mild croup and should be given a single dose of oral dexamethasone before being discharged home with clear instructions on when to seek further medical attention. If the child develops any signs of respiratory distress, they should be taken to the Emergency Department immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old male has been treated for 3 flares of gout over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male has been treated for 3 flares of gout over the last year and would like some medication to prevent this from reoccurring. His past medical history includes: gout, Crohn's disease, hypertension and depression. His regular medications are: paracetamol, omeprazole, ramipril, azathioprine and sertraline.

      Which medication would pose a risk of bone marrow suppression for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      The combination of azathioprine and allopurinol can lead to a serious interaction that results in bone marrow suppression. This is particularly concerning for patients with Crohn’s disease who are already taking azathioprine, as both medications inhibit xanthine oxidase.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 14 - An 89-year-old patient presents to the Cardiology clinic. She has been seen previously...

    Incorrect

    • An 89-year-old patient presents to the Cardiology clinic. She has been seen previously for worsening congestive heart failure symptoms, but today she reports that her mobility and breathlessness have greatly improved, thanks to a new medication she has been prescribed. Routine blood tests report the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 122 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 187 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 115 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      What is the cause of her biochemical abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of the Na+K+2Cl− symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms and Side-Effects of Different Diuretics

      Loop diuretics like furosemide and bumetanide inhibit the Na+K+2Cl− symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to hyponatraemia, hypochloraemia and hypokalaemia. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, antagonizes aldosterone, causing natriuresis, diuresis and potassium conservation, but also hyperkalaemia. Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase, leading to the excretion of sodium, chloride and bicarbonate, and is mainly used in acute open angle closure glaucoma. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+/Cl− cotransporter in the late distal convoluted tubules, causing hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia and other side-effects. ACE inhibitors like ramipril and enalapril block the production of angiotensin II, causing vasodilation and hyperkalaemia, and are used in hypertension, symptomatic heart failure and secondary prophylaxis following a myocardial infarction. Common side-effects of these diuretics include hyperkalaemia, hypokalaemia, hyperuricaemia, hyperglycaemia, gout, postural hypotension, and altered liver function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 15 - What are the stimuli that trigger the release of insulin from beta cells...

    Incorrect

    • What are the stimuli that trigger the release of insulin from beta cells in the pancreas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GLP-1, amino acids and glucagon

      Explanation:

      Factors that Stimulate Insulin Release

      Insulin release is not only stimulated by a rise in plasma glucose but also by other factors. Insulin is stored in secretory granules in beta cells and is rapidly released when a meal is ingested. The main mechanism that stimulates insulin release is an increase in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production within the beta cell, resulting from an increase in glucose availability. This closes a KATP channel in the cell membrane, which depolarizes the membrane and causes an influx of calcium. The increase in intracellular calcium stimulates the mobilization of insulin-containing secretory granules to the membrane and releases the hormone into the circulation.

      GLP-1, a gut hormone released in response to food ingestion, has an important incretin effect. This effect amplifies glucose-stimulated insulin release in pancreatic beta cells. It is believed to result from the action of GLP-1 on a separate K+ channel in the beta cell. A number of newer medications used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus work via the incretin effect.

      Three amino acids, arginine, glycine, and alanine, also stimulate insulin release. This occurs due to the co-transport of amino acid with Na+ into the beta cell via a symporter, rather than an effect on the KATP channel. The addition of protein to a meal evokes a larger insulin response than pure carbohydrate. Glucagon, despite the majority of its actions being antagonistic to those of insulin, also stimulates insulin release. This is thought to be so that sufficient insulin is available to allow tissue uptake of newly-released glucose from hepatic gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain that feels heavy. The pain does not radiate, and there are no other risk factors for atherosclerosis. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are normal, including pulse, temperature, and oxygen saturation. The patient appears sweaty, but cardiovascular and respiratory exams are unremarkable. The patient experiences tenderness over the sternum at the site of the chest pain, and the resting electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient

      Explanation:

      Management of Chest Pain in a Patient with Risk Factors for Cardiac Disease

      Chest pain is a common presenting complaint in primary care and emergency departments. However, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with risk factors for cardiac disease. Here are some management strategies for a patient with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease:

      Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient. A normal troponin assay would make a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome unlikely, but further investigation may be required to determine if the patient has underlying coronary artery disease.

      Do not discharge the patient with a diagnosis of costochondritis based solely on chest wall tenderness. This should only be used in low-risk patients with tenderness that accurately reproduces the pain they have been feeling on minimal palpation.

      Do not discharge the patient if serial resting ECGs are normal. A normal ECG does not rule out an acute cardiac event.

      Admit the patient to the Coronary Care Unit for monitoring and further assessment only if the 12-h troponin comes back elevated.

      Do not discharge the patient and arrange an outpatient exercise tolerance test until further investigation has been done to rule out an acute cardiac event.

      In summary, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease. Further investigation, such as a 12-h troponin assay, may be required before deciding on appropriate management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with anorexia, fatigue, nausea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with anorexia, fatigue, nausea and generalised pain. He has a medical history notable for palliate prostate cancer for which he has refused treatment, and remains independent. Routine blood results confirm your suspicions:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 89 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Corrected Ca2+ 3.1 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      You commence treatment with intravenous fluid and the recommended intravenous drug infusion.
      In which principal way will this medication correct the biochemical abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit the release of calcium from bones

      Explanation:

      Treating Hypercalcaemia with Bisphosphonates

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of serum calcium concentration, with the majority of cases being secondary to cancer and bone metastases or primary hyperparathyroidism. Treatment varies depending on the severity of the condition, with moderate hypercalcaemia requiring intervention. In this scenario, a patient with palliative prostatic cancer presents with moderate hypercalcaemia and requires treatment.

      The first step in treatment is intravenous fluid resuscitation for volume repletion, followed by an intravenous bisphosphonate infusion, such as pamidronate. Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone resorption, which reduces the amount of calcium released into the circulation. This is achieved through a dual action, where bisphosphonates bind to calcium phosphate crystals in bone and inhibit their breakdown, as well as inhibiting the action of osteoclasts, the cells primarily involved in bone breakdown. The action of bisphosphonates may take a few days to be evident, depending on the agent used.

      It is important to note that treatment regimes may vary between hospitals, and it is essential to follow local guidelines when treating hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia, such as calcium supplementation, Addison’s disease, acromegaly, Paget’s disease, and sarcoidosis, present more rarely. Mild hypercalcaemia is defined as a serum calcium concentration of 2.65-3.00 mmol/l, moderate hypercalcaemia as 3.01-3.40 mmol/l, and severe hypercalcaemia as >3.40 mmol/l.

      In conclusion, bisphosphonates are an effective treatment for hypercalcaemia, inhibiting the release of calcium from bones and reducing serum calcium concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 18 - A 38-year-old construction worker complains of sudden onset groin pain on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old construction worker complains of sudden onset groin pain on the left side that radiates from the flank. The pain is intermittent but excruciating when it occurs and is not related to movement. The patient's examination, observations, and blood tests are normal, but a urine dip reveals ++ blood. The patient reports that his job involves heavy lifting and he rarely takes breaks. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ureteric calculus

      Explanation:

      The young man is experiencing pain on his right side, from his lower back to his groin, and has microscopic blood in his urine. It is suggested that he may be frequently dehydrated due to his job. Based on these symptoms, it is highly likely that he has a kidney stone on his right side, which is causing the colicky pain. Although his job involves heavy lifting, there is no indication of a visible lump during examination, making a hernia unlikely.

      The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old man develops a wrist drop after suffering a spiral fracture of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man develops a wrist drop after suffering a spiral fracture of the humerus while playing football. As a result, he is unable to extend his wrist and his hand hangs flaccidly. Which nerve is the most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord in the neck and supply the upper limb. Damage to these nerves can occur due to trauma or compression at various points along their course. The radial nerve, which carries fibres from C5 to C8 and a sensory component from T1, can be injured in the axilla, upper arm, elbow or wrist. A lesion at the spiral groove of the humerus can result in a wrist drop. The musculocutaneous nerve, which arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus, can be affected by damage to the shoulder and brachial plexus or compression by the biceps aponeurosis and tendon. The axillary nerve, which supplies the deltoid, teres minor and triceps brachii, can be injured in dislocations of the shoulder joint, compression of the axilla with a crutch or fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus. The median nerve, which innervates all of the flexors in the forearm except the flexor carpi ulnaris and that part of the flexor digitorum profundus that supplies the medial two digits, can be compressed in the carpal tunnel. The ulnar nerve, which supplies the little finger and the adjacent half of the ring finger, can be trapped in the cubital tunnel on the medial side of the elbow. Pinching of the ulnar nerve can cause paraesthesiae in the fourth and fifth digits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 14-year-old girl is brought into paediatric casualty with decreased level of consciousness....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought into paediatric casualty with decreased level of consciousness. She has no past medical history. Her 7-year-old sister was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Family history is also otherwise unremarkable. Urgent arterial blood gas analysis reveals a surprising finding of blood glucose level of 2.1 mmol/l. This is confirmed on urgent formal blood glucose testing. She is transferred to the hospital’s high dependency unit (HDU) for monitoring and treatment. Blood tests taken shortly after admission reveal elevated insulin and low C-peptide levels.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factitious hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Factitious Hypoglycaemia and Differential Diagnosis

      Factitious hypoglycaemia is a condition where an individual deliberately induces hypoglycaemia by using insulin or oral hypoglycaemic agents. In contrast to endogenous insulin, synthetic insulin does not contain C-peptide as part of its formulation. Therefore, elevated insulin with an inappropriately low C-peptide level indicates exogenous insulin administration. This condition is often associated with psychological factors, and the individual may be seeking attention or sympathy.

      Differential diagnosis includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, which presents with hyperglycaemia rather than hypoglycaemia. Familial insulinoma syndrome is a rare condition that leads to elevated C-peptide levels. Maturity onset diabetes of the young is another subset of diabetes that presents with hyperglycaemia. Insulinoma, on the other hand, presents with hypoglycaemia, elevated insulin, and elevated C-peptide levels.

      It is crucial to differentiate factitious hypoglycaemia from other conditions to provide appropriate treatment and support for the individual. A thorough medical evaluation and psychological assessment may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her sister. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her sister. The patient is unresponsive, but the sister reports that the patient had an argument with her partner 4 hours ago and has since ingested at least 7 full packets of aspirin, with the intention of ending her life. The patient has a history of suicidal ideation. Along with other tests, a venous blood gas is taken upon arrival and again after 12 hours. What acid-base abnormalities would be present in this patient at t=0 and t=12?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: t=0: respiratory alkalosis, t=12: metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing aspirin (salicylate) poisoning, which initially results in respiratory alkalosis. It is important for the clinician to consider the possibility of the patient having consumed more aspirin than reported, as well as other substances. A comprehensive toxicological workup, including a salicylate level, paracetamol level, and urine toxicology screen, should be conducted alongside standard care.

      Salicylate overdose causes a biphasic response, with the initial stimulation of the CNS respiratory center leading to tachypnea and a subsequent decrease in PaCO2, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. This is followed by an anion gap metabolic acidosis, caused by the accumulation of organic acids, including lactic acid and ketoacids, as well as weak acid metabolites of aspirin. The timeframe for this shift is not definitive, but typically occurs within 12 hours.

      Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 22 - A 38-year-old female patient visits her doctor's office for a follow-up appointment. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female patient visits her doctor's office for a follow-up appointment. She was recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism and is currently taking a daily dose of 100 micrograms of thyroxine. The doctor has access to the patient's thyroid function and other test results from the previous week.

      Which test would be most effective in monitoring the patient's progress and treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels

      Explanation:

      Thyroxine and TSH Levels in Hypothyroidism

      Thyroxine is a medication that can help reduce the high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) that are often seen in individuals with hypothyroidism. When TSH levels are high, it indicates that the thyroid gland is not producing enough thyroid hormones, which can lead to a range of symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression. By taking thyroxine, individuals with hypothyroidism can help regulate their TSH levels and improve their overall health.

      To monitor the effectiveness of thyroxine treatment, doctors often use TSH as a key monitoring test. The goal is to get TSH levels into the normal range, which indicates that the thyroid gland is producing enough hormones. Other tests that may be used in the initial investigation and diagnosis of hypothyroidism include triiodothyronine, free thyroxine (T4), thyroid peroxidase antibody, and protein-bound iodine levels. By using a combination of these tests, doctors can get a better of a patient’s thyroid function and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 62-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes comes in for...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up. Her most recent early morning urinary albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 4 mg/mmol (normal for women: < 3.5 mg/mmol). What should be the target blood pressure for managing her diabetic nephropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 130/80 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Blood Pressure Targets for Patients with Diabetes

      Blood pressure targets vary depending on the type of diabetes and the presence of co-morbidities. For patients with type II diabetes and signs of end-organ damage, the target is 130/80 mmHg. Ideal blood pressure for most people is between 90/60 mmHg and 120/80 mmHg. Patients with type I diabetes without albuminuria or > 2 features of metabolic syndrome have a target of 135/85 mmHg. Type II diabetics without signs of end-organ damage have a target of 140/80 mmHg. For patients over 80 years old, the target is 150/90 mmHg. It is important for patients with diabetes to work with their healthcare provider to determine their individual blood pressure target.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 24 - Over the last 150 years, the life expectancy of people in all countries...

    Incorrect

    • Over the last 150 years, the life expectancy of people in all countries throughout the world has continued to increase. What is the estimated maximum lifespan for a human being?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 131-140 years

      Explanation:

      The Limits of Human Lifespan

      Life Expectancy and Maximum Lifespan

      Life expectancy has been increasing steadily in both developing and developed countries. In fact, it is estimated that 50% of baby girls born in the UK at the turn of the millennium will live to be over 100 years old. This is a remarkable achievement, but it is important to note that it is not the same as the maximum human lifespan.

      The Ceiling of Human Lifespan

      Despite the advances in medicine and technology, the maximum human lifespan has remained unchanged for over 500 years. It is believed that this is due to a combination of genetic programming and environmental factors. Scientists estimate that the maximum human lifespan is around 140 years old. While there have been a few individuals who have lived beyond this age, they are extremely rare.

      The Possibility of Immortality

      If the ceiling of human lifespan could be broken, it would have significant implications for the concept of immortality. While it may not be possible to achieve true immortality, an increase in lifespan to hundreds of years would be a significant step forward. However, it is important to remember that we are still far from achieving this goal.

      Conclusion

      Life expectancy is increasing, but the maximum human lifespan remains unchanged. While it is possible that we may one day break through the ceiling of human lifespan, we are not there yet. In the meantime, we should focus on improving the quality of life for those who are living longer and finding ways to prevent age-related diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 25 - A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a retired teacher with occasional international travel. On examination, his body weight was 40 kg with some oral ulcers.
      Tests revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 1.2 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.4 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
      Eosinophils 0.8 × 109/l 0.1–0.4 × 109/l
      Urine Protein 2+
      Cholesterol 4.5 <5.2 mmol/l
      Which of the following tests is next indicated for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD4 count

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of HIV Nephropathy

      HIV infection is a high possibility in a patient with risk factors and presenting with emaciation, oral ulcers, and lymphopenia. A CD4 count and HIV serological testing should be done urgently. HIV nephropathy is a common complication, with focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis being the most common pathological diagnosis. Other variants include membranoproliferative nephropathy, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, and IgA nephropathy. Treatment involves ACE inhibitors and antiretroviral therapy, with dialysis being necessary in end-stage disease. Renal biopsy is required to confirm the diagnosis, but HIV testing should be performed first. Serum IgA levels are elevated in IgA nephropathy, while serum complement levels and anti-nuclear factor are needed in SLE-associated nephropathy or other connective tissue diseases or vasculitis. However, the lack of systemic symptoms points away from these diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 26 - You assess a client who complains of excessive sweating.
    What is the physiological...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a client who complains of excessive sweating.
      What is the physiological process through which sweating results in heat dissipation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased conduction

      Explanation:

      The Effect of Humidity on Heat Loss

      Sweating is a natural response of the body to regulate its temperature. When sweat evaporates from the skin, it takes away heat and cools the body. However, the effectiveness of this process is affected by the humidity in the air. High humidity reduces the rate of evaporation, which means less heat is taken away from the body. As a result, individuals may feel hotter and more uncomfortable in humid conditions.

      This phenomenon is due to the fact that humidity affects the efficacy of heat loss via conduction. When the air is dry, sweat evaporates quickly, leading to increased heat conduction away from the skin. However, when the air is humid, the moisture in the air makes it harder for sweat to evaporate. This reduces the rate of heat loss and makes it more difficult for the body to regulate its temperature.

      Overall, the effect of humidity on heat loss is an important factor to consider when assessing the comfort level of individuals in different environments. this relationship can help us design better cooling systems and improve our ability to adapt to different weather conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 27 - A 4-month-old boy is being seen by his GP for an undescended testi....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old boy is being seen by his GP for an undescended testi. During the NIPE at birth, his right testi was found to be undescended. On examination today, only one testi is palpated in the scrotum. The patient is referred to the surgeons for further evaluation. What potential complication is this patient at an elevated risk of experiencing if the undescended testi is not addressed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testicular torsion

      Explanation:

      Undescended testicles can lead to testicular torsion, infertility, and testicular cancer if left untreated. It is recommended to wait up to three months for spontaneous descent, but intervention should occur by six months of age. Femoral hernias are rare in childhood, but undescended testicles may increase the risk of an inguinal hernia. Hydroceles are common at birth and resolve on their own, without known association to undescended testicles. While orchitis can occur in an undescended testis, there is no increased risk of orchitis due to lack of descent.

      Undescended Testis: Causes, Complications, and Management

      Undescended testis is a condition that affects around 2-3% of male infants born at term, but it is more common in preterm babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.

      To manage unilateral undescended testis, NICE CKS recommends considering referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.

      For bilateral undescended testes, it is crucial to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation. Proper management of undescended testis is essential to prevent complications and ensure the child’s overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He has no past medical history of note.

      In his parents' absence, he reveals that he took an overdose of paracetamol after a fight with his girlfriend, but did not intend to end his life.

      What is the most reliable indicator of the extent of liver damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: INR

      Explanation:

      Management of Paracetamol Overdose

      Paracetamol overdose is a common occurrence that requires prompt management. The first step is to check the paracetamol level four hours after ingestion and compare it against the Rumack-Matthew nomogram. If a large dose (more than 7.5 g) was ingested and/or the patient presents within eight hours of ingestion, gastric lavage may be necessary, and oral charcoal should be considered. N-acetylcysteine or methionine should be administered, and bowel movements should be monitored hourly.

      It is crucial to check the INR 12 hourly and look out for signs of poor prognosis, which may indicate the need for transfer to a liver unit. These signs include an INR greater than 2.0 within 48 hours or greater than 3.5 within 72 hours of ingestion, creatinine greater than 200 µmol/L, blood pH less than 7.3, signs of encephalopathy, and hypotension (SBP less than 80 mmHg).

      It is important to note that liver enzymes are not a reliable indicator of the degree of hepatocellular damage. Instead, synthetic function, as determined by INR or PT, is the best indicator. Proper management of paracetamol overdose can prevent severe liver damage and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant visits you for her booking...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant visits you for her booking appointment. She has a brother with Down syndrome and wants to know more about the screening program. You provide information about the combined test. What other blood markers, in addition to nuchal translucency, are measured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-hCG) and pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

      Explanation:

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old individual who has been smoking for their entire life visits their...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old individual who has been smoking for their entire life visits their GP with complaints of worsening breathlessness and symptoms of ptosis and constriction of the pupil. The GP refers them for a chest x-ray, which reveals the presence of an apical mass. What is the term used to describe the cause of this person's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancoast tumour

      Explanation:

      Horner’s Syndrome and Pancoast Tumour

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by ptosis and constriction of the pupil. However, in some cases, it can be a consequence of a Pancoast tumour, which is a neoplasm located at the apex of the lung that invades the chest wall and brachial plexus. This lady is likely to have a Pancoast tumour as she presents with Horner’s syndrome. On the other hand, Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition where the pupil is larger than normal and slow to react to direct light. Peyronie’s disease is a hardening of the corpora cavernosa of the penis caused by scar tissue, while Pott’s cancer is a scrotal cancer caused by coal tar exposure. Wilms’ tumour, on the other hand, is a malignant tumour of the kidney that usually occurs in childhood.

      In summary, Horner’s syndrome can be a consequence of a Pancoast tumour, which is a neoplasm located at the apex of the lung. Other conditions that present differently from Horner’s syndrome include Holmes-Adie syndrome, Peyronie’s disease, Pott’s cancer, and Wilms’ tumour. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
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