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Question 1
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor in the endocrine department, if you were to assess a patient with hypoparathyroidism resulting in hypocalcaemia, what findings may you discover during your investigation?
Your Answer: Muscle weakness
Correct Answer: Chvostek's sign: percussion over the facial nerve
Explanation:Hypocalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs
Hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. Since calcium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, many of the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia are related to neuromuscular excitability. The most common features of hypocalcaemia include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. In chronic cases, patients may experience depression and cataracts.
An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show a prolonged QT interval, while Trousseau’s sign may be present when the brachial artery is occluded by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining pressure above systolic. This causes wrist flexion and fingers to be drawn together, and is seen in around 95% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 1% of normocalcaemic people. Chvostek’s sign, which is seen in around 70% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 10% of normocalcaemic people, involves tapping over the parotid gland to cause facial muscles to twitch.
In summary, hypocalcaemia can cause a range of symptoms and signs related to neuromuscular excitability, including muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia, depression, and cataracts. Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign are also commonly observed in patients with hypocalcaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a complaint of feeling tired and lethargic for the past six months. She also reports a weight gain of approximately 10 kg during this time. Upon conducting a blood test, the following results were obtained: Hb 141 g/l, Na+ 141 mmol/l, Bilirubin 7 µmol/l, Platelets 331 * 109/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, ALP 71 u/l, WBC 4.6 * 109/l, Urea 3.9 mmol/l, ALT 31 u/l, Neuts 3.1 * 109/l, Creatinine 86 µmol/l, γGT 51 u/l, Lymphs 1.2 * 109/l, TSH 0.1 mu/l, Albumin 41 g/l, Eosin 0.2 * 109/l, free-T4 3 nmol/l, and CRP 4.1 mg/l. What would be the most appropriate next investigation to determine the cause of her fatigue?
Your Answer: 9am cortisol measurement
Correct Answer: MRI brain and pituitary
Explanation:When a patient has normal blood tests except for low thyroid function, which is indicated by low TSH and low free-T4, and presents with symptoms of hypothyroidism, it may be a case of secondary hypothyroidism caused by pituitary failure. This is a rare condition that requires imaging of the pituitary gland to rule out any anatomical or vascular causes, such as a tumor.
Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.
In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the endocrine clinic with thyroid function test results indicating palpitations, excessive sweating, unintentional weight loss, and a notable thyroid goitre that is tender upon palpation. The test results show a TSH level of 9.4 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 6.4 pmol/L (normal range: 9.0-18). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Grave's disease
Correct Answer: Subacute (De Quervain's) thyroiditis
Explanation:Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old with type 1 diabetes presents to the Emergency Department feeling unwell. She reports experiencing vomiting and diarrhoea for the past 2 days and has not been taking her full insulin doses due to loss of appetite. Her capillary glucose level is 37 mmol/l and urinalysis shows 4+ ketones. An arterial blood gas test is conducted, revealing the following results:
pH 7.12
pO2 13 kPa
pCO2 3.5 kPa
HCO3 13
Na 129 mmol/l
K 6.1 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV 0.9% NaCl bolus
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is admitted to the acute medical unit with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) which has failed to improve despite a course of antibiotics and steroids. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension and takes aspirin, simvastatin, amlodipine, and metformin. His random blood glucose on admission is 12.3mmol/l and a HbA1c test is ordered, which shows an IFCC-HbA1c of 45 mmol/mol and HbA1c of 6.3%. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Make no changes to diabetes medictions
Explanation:The HbA1c is a reliable indicator of good glycaemic control and should be used to determine any necessary changes to diabetes medications. It reflects average glucose levels over a period of 2-3 months, rather than a single reading. It is possible that the recent use of steroids has temporarily worsened glycaemic control in this case.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology clinic after experiencing a heart attack a year ago. He was diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes during his hospitalization. The patient reports gaining 5kg in the last 6 months and wonders if any of his medications could be causing this weight gain. Which of his prescribed drugs may be contributing to his recent weight gain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Weight gain is a common side effect of sulfonylureas.
Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.
One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the most probable adverse effect experienced by patients who are taking gliclazide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight gain
Explanation:Weight gain is the most frequent side-effect observed in patients who take sulfonylureas, although they may experience all of the aforementioned side-effects.
Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.
One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood tests are taken and the following results are obtained:
Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l
What would be the best initial approach to manage this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for IV normal saline
Explanation:The primary treatment for hypercalcaemia is IV fluid therapy.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.
Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism is admitted to the Emergency Department after experiencing chest pain. He is diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome and iron-deficiency anemia. A percutaneous coronary intervention is performed, and a coronary artery stent is inserted. Endoscopies of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract are performed and reported as normal. Upon discharge, he is prescribed aspirin, clopidogrel, ramipril, lansoprazole, simvastatin, and ferrous sulfate in addition to his regular levothyroxine. Six weeks later, he reports feeling constantly fatigued to his GP, who orders routine blood tests. The results show a TSH level of 8.2 mu/l, which is elevated compared to the patient's previous two years of TSH levels within range. Which of the newly prescribed drugs is most likely responsible for the raised TSH?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferrous sulphate
Explanation:To avoid reduced absorption of levothyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be administered four hours apart.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) approximately 8 years ago and is currently taking gliclazide and atorvastatin. He has a history of bladder cancer, which was successfully treated 2 years ago. The patient recently tried metformin, but discontinued it due to gastrointestinal side-effects. He works as an accountant, does not smoke, and has a BMI of 31 kg/m². His annual blood work reveals the following results:
- Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
- Urea: 4.3 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 104 µmol/l
- HbA1c: 62 mmol/mol (7.8%)
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's diabetes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add sitagliptin
Explanation:Due to his history of bladder cancer and obesity, pioglitazone is not recommended and contraindicated. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most suitable option. Exenatide, which typically leads to weight loss, is beneficial for obese individuals with diabetes, but it does not meet the NICE criteria for body mass index of 35 kg/m².
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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