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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man is brought to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is brought to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department by ambulance. He has become increasingly unwell over the past few days with vomiting and diarrhea. His wife tells you that he was started on a medication by his GP six months ago for pain and stiffness around his shoulders, upper arms, and hips. She describes this medication as being '6 small blue tablets.' He has been unable to take these tablets for the past few days. On examination, he is pale and sweaty and appears confused. His observations are as follows: temperature 37.2°C, HR 130 bpm, BP 90/50, RR 22, SaO2 97% on 2 L oxygen, GCS 13. He has intravenous access in situ, and his BM stick glucose is 2.5.
      Which of the following medications are the 'small blue tablets' most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with an Addisonian crisis, which is a rare but potentially catastrophic condition if not diagnosed promptly. The most likely underlying rheumatological diagnosis in this case is polymyalgia rheumatica, and it is likely that the GP started the patient on prednisolone medication.

      Addison’s disease occurs when the adrenal glands underproduce steroid hormones, affecting the production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids. The main causes of Addison’s disease include autoimmune adrenalitis (accounting for 80% of cases), bilateral adrenalectomy, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (hemorrhage into the adrenal glands), and tuberculosis.

      An Addisonian crisis is most commonly triggered by the deliberate or accidental withdrawal of steroid therapy in patients with Addison’s disease. Other factors that can precipitate a crisis include infection, trauma, myocardial infarction, cerebral infarction, asthma, hypothermia, and alcohol abuse.

      The clinical features of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, hypotension (especially orthostatic hypotension), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced axillary and pubic hair, depression, and hyperpigmentation (particularly in palmar creases, buccal mucosa, and exposed areas). In an Addisonian crisis, the main features are usually hypoglycemia and shock, characterized by tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered consciousness, and coma.

      Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by increased ACTH levels (as a compensatory response to stimulate the adrenal glands), elevated serum renin levels, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Diagnostic investigations may include the Synacthen test, plasma ACTH level, plasma renin level, and adrenocortical antibodies.

      Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Typically, patients require hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also need thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and a MedicAlert bracelet, being aware of the possibility of an Addisonian crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old woman who is currently experiencing a high level of stress comes...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman who is currently experiencing a high level of stress comes in with abdominal pain. The pain intensifies at night but subsides when she gets up to have a glass of milk. The pain has gotten worse over the past few days, and she has had two instances of vomiting blood this morning.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duodenal ulcer

      Explanation:

      Peptic ulcer disease is a fairly common condition that can affect either the stomach or the duodenum. However, the duodenum is more commonly affected, and in these cases, it is caused by a break in the mucosal lining of the duodenum.

      This condition is more prevalent in men and is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 20 and 60. In fact, over 95% of patients with duodenal ulcers are found to be infected with H. pylori. Additionally, chronic usage of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is often associated with the development of duodenal ulcers.

      When it comes to the location of duodenal ulcers, they are most likely to occur in the superior (first) part of the duodenum, which is positioned in front of the body of the L1 vertebra.

      The typical clinical features of duodenal ulcers include experiencing epigastric pain that radiates to the back, with the pain often worsening at night. This pain typically occurs 2-3 hours after eating and is relieved by consuming food and drinking milk. It can also be triggered by skipping meals or experiencing stress.

      Possible complications that can arise from duodenal ulcers include perforation, which can lead to peritonitis, as well as gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Gastrointestinal hemorrhage can manifest as haematemesis (vomiting blood), melaena (black, tarry stools), or occult bleeding. Strictures causing obstruction can also occur as a result of duodenal ulcers.

      In cases where gastrointestinal hemorrhage occurs as a result of duodenal ulceration, it is usually due to erosion of the gastroduodenal artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease presents with symptoms suggestive of acute limb ischemia. After conducting a series of tests, the medical team suspects that an embolus is the likely cause.
      Which of the following investigations would be the most beneficial in determining the origin of the embolus?

      Your Answer: Popliteal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Acute limb ischaemia refers to a sudden decrease in blood flow to a limb, which puts the limb at risk of tissue damage. This condition is most commonly caused by either a sudden blockage of a partially blocked artery due to a blood clot or by an embolus that travels from another part of the body. It is considered a surgical emergency, as without prompt surgical intervention, the affected limb may suffer extensive tissue death within six hours.

      The leading cause of acute limb ischaemia is the sudden blockage of a previously narrowed artery segment, accounting for 60% of cases. The second most common cause is an embolus, which makes up 30% of cases. Emboli can originate from sources such as a blood clot in the left atrium of the heart in patients with atrial fibrillation (which accounts for 80% of peripheral emboli), a clot formed on the heart wall after a heart attack, or from prosthetic heart valves. It is crucial to differentiate between these two causes, as the treatment and prognosis differ.

      To properly diagnose acute limb ischaemia, several important investigations should be arranged. These include a hand-held Doppler ultrasound scan, which can help determine if there is any remaining blood flow in the arteries. Blood tests such as a full blood count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, blood glucose level, and thrombophilia screen should also be conducted. If there is uncertainty in the diagnosis, urgent arteriography may be necessary.

      In cases where an embolus is suspected as the cause, additional investigations are needed to identify its source. These investigations may include an electrocardiogram to detect atrial fibrillation, an echocardiogram to assess the heart’s structure and function, an ultrasound of the aorta, and ultrasounds of the popliteal and femoral arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25 year old female presents to the emergency department with a sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female presents to the emergency department with a sore throat, fever, altered voice, and difficulty opening her mouth. Upon examination, you diagnose her with a peritonsillar abscess and decide to perform a needle aspiration. What is a well-known complication of this procedure?

      Your Answer: Lemierre’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Accidental puncture of internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The internal carotid artery is situated approximately 2.5 cm behind and to the side of the tonsil. When performing an aspiration procedure for a peritonsillar abscess, there is a risk of puncturing this artery. In the UK, it is common for emergency department doctors to refer the task of draining a peritonsillar abscess to the on-call ENT team due to their lack of familiarity and experience with the procedure. However, the RCEM learning platform considers the management of uncomplicated peritonsillar abscess to be within the scope of emergency department practice, making it important for doctors to be knowledgeable about the procedure and its potential complications. It is worth noting that Lemierre’s syndrome, which is infective thrombophlebitis of the jugular vein, is a complication of deep neck infections and not directly related to the aspiration procedure.

      Further Reading:

      A peritonsillar abscess, also known as quinsy, is a collection of pus that forms between the palatine tonsil and the pharyngeal muscles. It is often a complication of acute tonsillitis and is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The exact cause of a peritonsillar abscess is not fully understood, but it is believed to occur when infection spreads beyond the tonsillar capsule or when small salivary glands in the supratonsillar space become blocked.

      The most common causative organisms for a peritonsillar abscess include Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, and anaerobic organisms. Risk factors for developing a peritonsillar abscess include smoking, periodontal disease, male sex, and a previous episode of the condition.

      Clinical features of a peritonsillar abscess include severe throat pain, difficulty opening the mouth (trismus), fever, headache, drooling of saliva, bad breath, painful swallowing, altered voice, ear pain on the same side, neck stiffness, and swelling of the soft palate. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation, but imaging scans such as CT or ultrasound may be used to assess for complications or determine the best site for drainage.

      Treatment for a peritonsillar abscess involves pain relief, intravenous antibiotics to cover for both aerobic and anaerobic organisms, intravenous fluids if swallowing is difficult, and drainage of the abscess either through needle aspiration or incision and drainage. Tonsillectomy may be recommended to prevent recurrence. Complications of a peritonsillar abscess can include sepsis, spread to deeper neck tissues leading to necrotizing fasciitis or retropharyngeal abscess, airway compromise, recurrence of the abscess, aspiration pneumonia, erosion into major blood vessels, and complications related to the causative organism. All patients with a peritonsillar abscess should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You evaluate a 25-year-old woman who is worried about her weight. She has...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 25-year-old woman who is worried about her weight. She has been attempting without success to shed pounds for the past year and believes her cravings are to blame. She has a previous medical history of depression and self-harm, which is managed with sertraline. During the examination, her body mass index is measured at 22, and you observe calluses on her knuckles. Additionally, there are multiple healed linear scars present on both forearms.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by purging. Unlike anorexia nervosa, most individuals with bulimia nervosa have a normal body mass index. The clinical features of bulimia nervosa include binge eating, vomiting after binge episodes, a preoccupation with weight and body image, an obsession with eating, an irresistible craving for food, periods of starvation, and the misuse of diuretics, laxatives, and thyroid hormones. Often, patients may develop calluses on their knuckles from scraping against their teeth while inducing vomiting. Repeated episodes of vomiting can also lead to dental enamel erosion. Additionally, there is a strong correlation between bulimia nervosa and depression as well as deliberate self-harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 52 year old male is brought into the emergency room after an...

    Correct

    • A 52 year old male is brought into the emergency room after an accident at a construction site resulting in a severe blunt abdominal injury. The patient is experiencing hypotension. The surgical team is preparing for immediate transfer to the operating room. The consultant requests you to prepare intravenous ketamine for rapid sequence induction. What would be the appropriate initial dose of IV ketamine for this patient?

      Your Answer: 1.5 mg/kg IV

      Explanation:

      The recommended dose of ketamine for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) is typically 1.5 mg/kg administered intravenously. This dosage is commonly used in UK medical centers. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), intravenous induction doses of ketamine range from 0.5 to 2 mg/kg for longer procedures and 1 to 4.5 mg/kg for shorter procedures. Ketamine is known to cause an increase in blood pressure, making it a suitable option for individuals with hemodynamic compromise.

      Further Reading:

      There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.

      Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.

      Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.

      Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.

      Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a severe, widespread, bright red rash covering her...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a severe, widespread, bright red rash covering her entire torso, face, arms and upper legs. The skin is scaling and peeling in places and feels hot to touch. She was recently prescribed a new medication by her doctor a few days ago and is concerned that this might be the cause.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Correct Answer: Exfoliative erythroderma

      Explanation:

      Erythroderma is a condition characterized by widespread redness affecting more than 90% of the body surface. It is also known as exfoliative erythroderma due to the presence of skin exfoliation. Another term used to describe this condition is the red man syndrome.

      The clinical features of exfoliative erythroderma include the rapid spread of redness to cover more than 90% of the body surface. Scaling of the skin occurs between days 2 and 6, leading to thickening of the skin. Despite the skin feeling hot, patients often experience a sensation of coldness. Keratoderma, which is the thickening of the skin on the palms and soles, may develop. Over time, erythema and scaling of the scalp can result in hair loss. The nails may become thickened, ridged, and even lost. Lymphadenopathy, or enlarged lymph nodes, is a common finding. In some cases, the patient’s overall health may be compromised.

      Exfoliative erythroderma can be caused by various factors, including eczema (with atopic dermatitis being the most common underlying cause), psoriasis, lymphoma and leukemia (with cutaneous T-cell lymphoma and Hodgkin lymphoma being the most common malignant causes), certain drugs (more than 60 drugs have been implicated, with sulphonamides, isoniazid, penicillin, antimalarials, phenytoin, captopril, and cimetidine being the most commonly associated), idiopathic (unknown cause), and rare conditions such as pityriasis rubra pilaris and pemphigus foliaceus. Withdrawal of corticosteroids, underlying infections, hypocalcemia, and the use of strong coal tar preparations can also precipitate exfoliative erythroderma.

      Potential complications of exfoliative erythroderma include dehydration, hypothermia, cardiac failure, overwhelming secondary infection, protein loss and edema, anemia (due to loss of iron, B12, and folate), and lymphadenopathy.

      Management of exfoliative erythroderma should involve referring the patient to the medical on-call team and dermatology for admission. It is important to keep the patient warm and start intravenous fluids, such as warmed 0.9% saline. Applying generous amounts of emollients and wet dressings can help alleviate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are participating in an expedition medicine training program organized by your emergency...

    Correct

    • You are participating in an expedition medicine training program organized by your emergency department. The training session is centered around identifying and treating altitude illnesses. When it comes to acute mountain sickness (AMS), which of the following instruments is recommended for evaluating the severity of AMS?

      Your Answer: Lake Louise score

      Explanation:

      The Lake Louise score is widely accepted as the standard method for evaluating the seriousness of Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS). The scoring system, outlined below, is used to determine the severity of AMS. A score of 3 or higher is indicative of AMS.

      Further Reading:

      High Altitude Illnesses

      Altitude & Hypoxia:
      – As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
      – Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
      – At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.

      Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
      – AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
      – Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
      – Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
      – Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
      – The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
      – Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
      – Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
      – Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.

      High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
      – HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
      – It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
      – Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
      – Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
      – Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.

      High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
      – HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
      – It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
      – Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
      – Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
      – Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 6 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by his father. The boy tugged on the tablecloth and a hot bowl of soup spilled onto his right leg, causing a scald. The boy is in tears and holding onto his right leg. The patient's father mentions that he gave the boy acetaminophen before coming to the emergency department. What is the most suitable additional pain relief to provide?

      Your Answer: Intranasal diamorphine 0.2 mls

      Correct Answer: Rectal diclofenac 1 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      For children experiencing moderate pain, diclofenac (taken orally or rectally), oral codeine, or oral morphine are suitable options for providing relief. The patient has already been given the appropriate initial analgesia for mild pain. Therefore, it is now appropriate to administer analgesia for moderate pain, following the next step on the analgesic ladder. Considering diclofenac, codeine, or oral morphine would be appropriate in this case.

      Further Reading:

      Assessment and alleviation of pain should be a priority when treating ill and injured children, according to the RCEM QEC standards. These standards state that all children attending the Emergency Department should receive analgesia for moderate and severe pain within 20 minutes of arrival. The effectiveness of the analgesia should be re-evaluated within 60 minutes of receiving the first dose. Additionally, patients in moderate pain should be offered oral analgesia at triage or assessment.

      Pain assessment in children should take into account their age. Visual analogue pain scales are commonly used, and the RCEM has developed its own version of this. Other indicators of pain, such as crying, limping, and holding or not-moving limbs, should also be observed and utilized in the pain assessment.

      Managing pain in children involves a combination of psychological strategies, non-pharmacological adjuncts, and pharmacological methods. Psychological strategies include involving parents, providing cuddles, and utilizing child-friendly environments with toys. Explanation and reassurance are also important in building trust. Distraction with stories, toys, and activities can help divert the child’s attention from the pain.

      Non-pharmacological adjuncts for pain relief in children include limb immobilization with slings, plasters, or splints, as well as dressings and other treatments such as reduction of dislocation or trephine subungual hematoma.

      Pharmacological methods for pain relief in children include the use of anesthetics, analgesics, and sedation. Topical anesthetics, such as lidocaine with prilocaine cream, tetracaine gel, or ethyl chloride spray, should be considered for children who are likely to require venesection or placement of an intravenous cannula.

      Procedural sedation in children often utilizes either ketamine or midazolam. When administering analgesia, the analgesic ladder should be followed as recommended by the RCEM.

      Overall, effective pain management in children requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both the physical and psychological aspects of pain. By prioritizing pain assessment and providing appropriate pain relief, healthcare professionals can help alleviate the suffering of ill and injured children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old girl presents very sick with severe acute asthma. She has received...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl presents very sick with severe acute asthma. She has received one dose of salbutamol through a spacer device, 20 mg of oral prednisolone, and a single dose of nebulized salbutamol and ipratropium bromide combined. She remains sick and has oxygen saturations on air of 90%. Her heart rate is 142 bpm, and her respiratory rate is 40/minute. Examination of her chest reveals widespread wheezing but good air entry.

      What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Further salbutamol nebuliser with 150 mg magnesium sulphate added

      Explanation:

      The BTS guidelines for managing acute asthma in children over the age of 2 recommend the following approaches:

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for acute asthma. Inhaled β agonists are preferred, and a pmDI + spacer is the recommended option for children with mild to moderate asthma. It is important to individualize drug dosing based on the severity of the condition and adjust it according to the patient’s response. If initial β agonist treatment does not alleviate symptoms, ipratropium bromide can be added to the nebulized β2 agonist solution. In cases where children with a short duration of acute severe asthma symptoms have an oxygen saturation level below 92%, it is advisable to consider adding 150 mg of magnesium sulfate to each nebulized salbutamol and ipratropium within the first hour.

      Long-acting β2 agonists should be discontinued if short-acting β2 agonists are required more frequently than every four hours.

      Steroid therapy should be initiated early in the treatment of acute asthma attacks. For children aged 2-5 years, a dose of 20 mg prednisolone is recommended, while children over the age of 5 should receive a dose of 30-40 mg. Children already on maintenance steroid tablets should receive 2 mg/kg prednisolone, up to a maximum dose of 60 mg. If a child vomits after taking the initial dose of prednisolone, the dose should be repeated. In cases where a child is unable to retain orally ingested medication, intravenous steroids should be considered. Typically, treatment with oral steroids for up to three days is sufficient, but the duration of the course should be adjusted based on the time needed for recovery. Tapering is not necessary unless the course of steroids exceeds 14 days.

      In cases where initial inhaled therapy does not yield a response in severe asthma attacks, the early addition of a single bolus dose of intravenous salbutamol (15 micrograms/kg over 10 minutes) should be considered. Aminophylline is not recommended for children with mild to moderate acute asthma, but it may be considered for those with severe or life-threatening asthma that is unresponsive to maximum doses of bronchodilators and steroids. The use of IV magnesium sulfate as a treatment for acute asthma in children is considered safe, although its role in management is not yet fully established.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology & Hepatology (2/2) 100%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Passmed