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  • Question 1 - A 26 year old woman visits the clinic with an acute asthma attack....

    Correct

    • A 26 year old woman visits the clinic with an acute asthma attack. Which lung function abnormality is she most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Increased residual volume

      Explanation:

      Asthma is a condition characterized by airway hyperresponsiveness, which results in reversible increases in bronchial smooth muscle tone, and variable amounts of inflammation of the bronchial mucosa.
      During an acute asthma attack, the already inflamed airways narrow further due to bronchospasm, which leads to increased airway resistance. Because of the increased smooth muscle tone during an asthma attack, the airways also tend to close at abnormally high lung volumes, trapping air behind occluded or narrowed small airways. Thus the acute asthmatic will breathe at high lung volumes, his functional residual capacity will be elevated, and he will inspire close to total lung capacity. The accessory muscles of respiration are often used to maintain the lungs in a hyperinflated state.

      During episodes of acute asthma, pulmonary function tests reveal an obstructive pattern. This includes a decrease in the rate of maximal expiratory air flow (a decrease in FEV1 and the FEV1/FVC ratio) due to the increased resistance, and a reduction in forced vital capacity (FVC) correlating with the level of hyperinflation of the lungs. Because these patients breathe at such high lung volumes (near the top of the pressure-volume curve, where lung compliance greatly decreases), they must exert significant effort to create an extremely negative pleural pressure, and consequently fatigue easily. Overinflation also reduces the curvature of the diaphragm, making it less efficient in generating further negative pleural pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 61-year-old gentleman presents with heart failure and pedal oedema. The oedema occurs...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old gentleman presents with heart failure and pedal oedema. The oedema occurs due to:

      Your Answer: Increased release of renin

      Explanation:

      The oedema is an effect of the a decreased cardiac output that increases renin release which leads to vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient is started on imipramine for depression. Which combination of side-effects is...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is started on imipramine for depression. Which combination of side-effects is most likely to be associated with the intake of this class of antidepressants?

      Your Answer: Dry mouth + urinary frequency

      Correct Answer: Blurred vision + dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Blurring of vision and dry mouth are antimuscarinic side-effects that are more common with imipramine than other types of tricyclic antidepressants.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are used less commonly now for depression due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose. They are however used widely in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required.

      Mechanism of action: Tricyclic antidepressants impose their therapeutic effects by inhibiting presynaptic reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system (this, may give rise to seizures).

      Common side-effects:
      Drowsiness
      Dry mouth
      Blurred vision
      Constipation
      Urinary retention

      Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used in the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headaches (both tension and migraine).
      Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose
      Amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Choose the correct statement regarding relative risk: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement regarding relative risk:

      Your Answer: It is the usual outcome measure of cohort studies

      Explanation:

      Relative Risk = (Probability of event in exposed group) / (Probability of event in not exposed group). The relative risk is mistaken by some, with the odds ratio and absolute risk. Relative risk is the ratio of the probability of an event occurring with an exposure versus the probability of the event occurring without the exposure. Thus to calculate the relative risk, we must know the exposure status of all individuals (either exposed or not exposed). This implies that relative risk is only appropriate for cases where the exposure status and incidence of disease can be accurately determined such as prospective cohort studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - If a patient has HIV what is the most likely cause of persistent...

    Correct

    • If a patient has HIV what is the most likely cause of persistent watery diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Cryptosporidium

      Explanation:

      When you have a patient with HIV and diarrhoea on the exam, think Cryptosporidium. In those who are immunocompetent this organism doesn’t usually cause symptoms, but in immunocompromised people like those with HIV, it causes infection and diarrhoea. Typically those with CD4 counts of <100 cells/µL1 have the greatest risk for prolonged, severe, or extraintestinal cryptosporidiosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right sided weakness. Past history reveals a DVT following the birth of her daughter, and two miscarriages. Head CT confirms an ischaemic stroke in the territory of left middle cerebral artery. What would be the most likely finding on echocardiography?

      Your Answer: Normal

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from antiphospholipid syndrome. The clinical criteria consist of vascular thrombosis and pregnancy morbidity. Vascular thrombosis is defined as one or more clinical episodes of arterial, venous, or small-vessel thrombosis in any tissue or organ confirmed by findings from imaging studies, Doppler studies, or histopathology. ASD, VSDs would cause paradoxical emboli and stroke, however the recurrent pregnancy loss in this case is strongly suggestive of antiphospholipid syndrome. The ECG would be normal in most cases associated with anti phospholipid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old lady presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old lady presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant pain. She has also noticed that her skin seems slightly yellower over the last week or so and you notice a yellow tinge to her sclera. On further questioning, she complains of itching of her arms. Her only past medical history of note includes ulcerative colitis for which she takes mesalazine. Given her presentation, what is the best investigation to diagnose the most likely underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography)

      Explanation:

      With biliary obstructive symptoms in a patient with ulcerative colitis, one should immediately think of primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). PSC is characterized by inflammation and fibrosis of the intrahepatic and extrahepatic ducts. The best diagnostic test for PSC is ERCP. ANCA antibiotics may be positive, but not the best test to DIAGNOSE THE CONDITION. The same can be said of serum transaminase levels– they will be abnormal but nonspecific. While a liver ultrasound may be helpful, it is not the best test. Liver biopsy would be used to stage the PSC later.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which of the following statements is true concerning organophosphate poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine is useful in the management of organophosphate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The principal action of organophosphates is the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase’s, therefore leading to the accumulation of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors (miosis, hypersalivation, sweating, diarrhoea, excessive bronchial secretions), nicotinic receptors (muscle fasciculations and tremor) and in the central nervous system (anxiety, loss of memory, headache, coma).

      Removal from the source of the organophosphate, adequate decontamination, supplemental oxygen and atropine are the initial treatment measures. Pralidoxime, an activator of cholinesterase, should be given to all symptomatic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression. Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.

      Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).

      Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.

      Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes:
      Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension
      Central nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.
      Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rash
      Endocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.
      Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
      Genitourinary: Urinary tract infection
      Hepatic: Abnormal hepatic function tests
      Neuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle cramps
      Ophthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbance
      Otic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitus
      Renal: Acute renal failure

      Other options:
      Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours.
      Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 24-year-old gentleman presents with visual loss in his right eye, and this...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old gentleman presents with visual loss in his right eye, and this is diagnosed as optic neuritis. Which one of the following statements would be seen in an afferent pupillary defect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accommodation response is unaffected

      Explanation:

      Afferent pupillary defect is simply a delayed pupillary response to light. Accommodation is otherwise unaffected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most likely have which of the following hand conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nail dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Nail dystrophy (pitting of nails, onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis), dactylitis, sausage shaped fingers are most commonly seen with psoriatic arthropathy. There is asymmetric joint involvement most commonly distal interphalangeal joints. Uveitis and sacroiliitis may also occur. Arthritis mutilans may occur but is very rare. Cutaneous lesions may or may not develop. When they do, its usually much after the symptoms of arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started on Ramipril to prevent development of renal disease. He reports to his GP that he has developed a troublesome cough since starting the medication. He has no symptoms of lip swelling, wheeze and has no history of underlying respiratory disease.   What increased chemical is thought to be the cause of his cough?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradykinin

      Explanation:

      Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II as well as preventing the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to blood vessel dilatation and decreased blood pressure. However, bradykinin also causes smooth muscles in the lungs to contract, so the build-up of bradykinin is thought to cause the dry cough that is a common side-effect in patients that are on ACE inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 60 yr. old female presented after an acute overdose of amiodarone. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old female presented after an acute overdose of amiodarone. Her blood pressure was 110/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 35 bpm. She was given 500mcg of atropine but there was no response. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoprenaline

      Explanation:

      Permanent pacing is not indicated as the bradycardia is reversible. Temporary pacing is the definite treatment. Isoprenaline can be used until temporary pacing is available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old real estate broker presents with a tremor. Which one of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old real estate broker presents with a tremor. Which one of the following features would suggest a diagnosis of essential tremor rather than Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched

      Explanation:

      Difficulty in initiating movement (bradykinesia), postural instability and unilateral symptoms (initially) are typical of Parkinson’s. Essential tremor symptoms are usually worse if arms are outstretched and eased by rest and alcohol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value? (TP =...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value? (TP = true positive; FP = false positive; TN = true negative; FN = false negative)

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TP / (TP + FP)

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value is the probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease.

      Positive predictive value = true positive / ( true positive + false positive)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The increased risk of oesophageal malignancy in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus is approximately:...

    Incorrect

    • The increased risk of oesophageal malignancy in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus is approximately:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50 - 100 times risk

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is the transformation of the normal squamous epithelium of the oesophagus to columnar, intestinal type epithelium. It is often seen in patients with reflux and there is a 50-100 fold increased risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for 2 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 145/80 mmHg. On auscultation reversed splitting of the second heart sound and bibasal crepitations were detected. What would be the most likely finding on his ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following features is not associated with an oculomotor nerve palsy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is not associated with an oculomotor nerve palsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miosis

      Explanation:

      Oculomotor nerve palsy is an eye condition resulting from damage to the third cranial nerve or a branch thereof. A complete oculomotor nerve palsy will result in a characteristic down and out position in the affected eye. This is because the lateral rectus (innervated by the sixth cranial nerve) and superior oblique (innervated by the fourth cranial or trochlear nerve), is unantagonized by the paralyzed superior rectus, inferior rectus and inferior oblique. The affected individual will also have a ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, and mydriasis (pupil dilation), not miosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5 BP: 125/75mmHg Pulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/L, Platelets 380 × 109/L, Sodium 145 mmol/L, Potassium 4.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 89 μmol/L, Rheumatoid factor: Negative, Antinuclear antibody: Negative, Anti-dsDNA: Negative, ASO titre: Not detected. Electrocardiogram (ECG): Sinus rhythm. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.
      In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 23-year-old woman presents with lethargy. Her blood picture shows: Hb: 10.4 g/dL,...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents with lethargy. Her blood picture shows: Hb: 10.4 g/dL, Plts: 278 x 10^9/L, WCC: 6.3 x 10^9/L, MCV: 68 fL. Blood film: Microcytic hypochromic RBCs, marked anisocytosis and basophilic stippling noted, HbA2: 3.9%. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-thalassaemia trait

      Explanation:

      Thalassaemias are a group of genetic disorders characterised by decreased production of either alpha or beta chains of haemoglobin (Hb). Beta thalassaemia trait is an autosomal recessive condition in which a disproportionate hypochromic, microcytic anaemia occurs—microcytosis is disproportionate to the Hb level. It is usually asymptomatic.

      Microcytic anaemia in a female should raise the possibility of either gastrointestinal blood loss or menorrhagia. However, there is no history to suggest this in the aforementioned patient. This, combined with characteristic disproportionate microcytosis and raised HbA2 levels ( >3.5%), point towards beta thalassaemia trait.

      Basophilic stippling is also seen in lead poisoning but the raised HbA2 levels cannot be explained in such a case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
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