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Question 1
Correct
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A 32-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of breathlessness and bradycardia. During the consultation, it is observed that he has bilateral ptosis. He has no contact with his family and has never met his father, but he is aware that his sister has a muscle condition and lost a child in infancy. The patient reports having difficulty releasing someone's hand after shaking it at work.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:Neuromuscular Disorders: Symptoms and Differences
Myotonic Dystrophy: An Overview
Myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects the muscles and nervous system. It is characterized by myopathic facies, myotonia in the hands, and cardiac conduction defects. The congenital form of the disease can be fatal.Spinal Muscular Atrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Spinal muscular atrophy is a genetic disorder that causes progressive muscle weakness and atrophy. It primarily affects the spinal nerves and doesn’t typically present with ptosis.Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that presents in early childhood with progressive proximal muscular dystrophy. Ptosis is not a typical sign.Facioscapulohumeral Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is a genetic disorder that causes weakness in the orbicularis oculi muscles, leading to difficulty in keeping eyelids closed. Ptosis is not typically seen at presentation.Becker Muscular Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Becker muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that presents with progressive proximal dystrophy. It usually presents at a younger age than myotonic dystrophy, with patients becoming progressively weaker between the ages of 20 and 60 years. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A GP receives a shared care document from the dementia specialist team, requesting him to take over the prescribing of donepezil for a patient with Alzheimer's disease. If the patient's repeat prescription includes which medication, it may pose the most significant potential contraindication to donepezil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:The acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine and galantamine) can cause bradycardia, SA block or AV block, which are important potential side effects. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing these medications to patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications such as beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers or digoxin. Other possible side effects include gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea), agitation, hallucinations, syncope, and less commonly gastrointestinal ulcers, seizures, conduction disorders, urinary retention and extrapyramidal symptoms. The BNF also lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.
Currently, only specialists with expertise in prescribing these medications (such as Psychiatrists, Elderly Care specialists, Neurologists) are authorized to initiate their use. However, GPs may be asked to take over prescribing and monitoring of these medications under Shared Care Agreements. Therefore, it is important for GPs to be aware of the potential prescribing issues.
Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.
In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 74-year-old woman who had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis two months ago for which she takes apixaban. She presents to her GP following a 20-minute episode of unilateral arm weakness that occurred 2 hours ago and has now completely resolved. Her neurological examination is normal.
What should her initial management be?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate referral to the emergency department for imaging
Explanation:If a patient is suspected of having a TIA and is taking warfarin, a DOAC, or has a bleeding disorder, they must be admitted immediately for imaging to rule out a haemorrhage.
For patients without these conditions, administering 300 mg of aspirin immediately and then evaluating them by a specialist within 24 hours is recommended. The primary secondary prevention method is taking clopidogrel 75 mg once daily.
Referring patients to neurology as a routine measure would cause an unnecessary delay in treatment.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.
Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.
Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old dairy farmer presents with a small white lesion on his left cheek. It has grown slowly over several months and it now has a central ulcer.
What is the most likely nature of this lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Basal cell papilloma (seborrhoeic keratosis)
Explanation:Lesion on the Face: Indications of Basal Cell Carcinoma
The presence of a slow-growing lesion on the face, with a central ulcer located above a line drawn from the angle of the mouth to the ear lobe, is a strong indication of basal cell carcinoma. This type of cancer tends to develop slowly, and the presence of an ulcer in the center of the lesion is a common characteristic. On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma grows much faster than basal cell carcinoma. It is important to note that seborrhoeic keratoses have a papillary warty surface, which is different from the appearance of basal cell carcinoma. Proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing any type of skin lesion, especially those that may indicate the presence of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea.
What is the most appropriate first investigation to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin level
Explanation:Investigating Secondary Amenorrhoea with Galactorrhoea
Any patient who presents with secondary amenorrhoea, the absence of menstrual periods for at least three consecutive months, should first have pregnancy ruled out before further investigation. This is because pregnancy can cause secondary amenorrhoea and may also lead to galactorrhoea, the production of breast milk in a non-lactating individual.
If pregnancy is ruled out, the next step is to measure prolactin levels. Hyperprolactinaemia, a condition where there is an excess of prolactin in the blood, can cause both secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of hyperprolactinaemia, which can include pituitary tumors, medication side effects, or other medical conditions.
In summary, investigating secondary amenorrhoea with galactorrhoea requires ruling out pregnancy and measuring prolactin levels to determine the underlying cause of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is being discharged from the hospital after a flare-up of ulcerative proctosigmoiditis. His symptoms improved after a 5-day course of intravenous corticosteroids, which had since been tapered down to oral prednisolone before discharge.
He contacts you, concerned that he was not informed by the discharging team whether he should continue taking prednisolone to prevent a relapse or not. He is running out of medication soon and is unsure of what to do. You reach out to the on-call gastroenterologist for guidance.
What would be the recommended first-line treatment for maintaining remission?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daily rectal +/- oral mesalazine
Explanation:The first-line treatment for maintaining remission in patients with ulcerative colitis who have proctitis or proctosigmoiditis is a daily rectal aminosalicylate, with the addition of an oral aminosalicylate if necessary. Topical and/or oral aminosalicylates are also the first-line treatment for inducing and maintaining remission in mild-moderate ulcerative colitis, with the route of administration depending on the location of the disease. If aminosalicylates fail to induce remission, a short-term course of oral or topical corticosteroids may be added. Severe colitis requires hospital admission and treatment with IV corticosteroids, with the addition of IV ciclosporin if necessary. Surgery is the last resort. Twice-weekly corticosteroid enemas, daily azathioprine, and daily low-dose oral prednisolone for 3 months are not correct treatments for maintaining remission in ulcerative colitis.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old baby girl has been brought into the GP by her father. They visited three weeks ago because the baby was experiencing vomiting and regurgitation after feeds. They were given alginate suspension at the time but this has not helped. Today, the baby is still experiencing troublesome symptoms and is now refusing feeds.
What would be the next appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4-week trial of omeprazole suspension
Explanation:If an infant with GORD is experiencing troublesome symptoms even after a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy, the recommended course of action is to prescribe a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor. This is in line with NICE guidelines.
Opting for a 2-week trial of omeprazole is not advisable as it may not be sufficient to alleviate the symptoms.
Continuing with alginate suspension alone is not appropriate as the symptoms have worsened since starting the treatment.
Ranitidine is no longer recommended due to the presence of small amounts of the carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NMDA) in formulations from multiple manufacturers. Nitrosamines, which are carcinogens commonly found in smoked fish, are linked to high rates of oesophageal and gastric cancer in East Asian countries.
If metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, is used, it should be done so with caution and under the supervision of a specialist.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her parents who are worried about her experiencing recurrent episodes of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and nausea for the past two months. Upon further inquiry, the pain is severe, occurs in the mornings, is intermittent, and can happen during vacations. Her weight is at the 50th percentile, and there are no abnormalities found during the examination. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal migraine
Explanation:Abdominal Migraine: Recurrent Episodes of Midline Abdominal Pain in Children
Abdominal migraine is a disorder that mainly affects children and is characterized by recurrent episodes of midline abdominal pain. The pain can last from 1-72 hours and is of moderate to severe intensity. During the attacks, patients may experience anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Marked pallor is commonly noted, and some patients may appear flushed. The pain is severe enough to interfere with normal daily activities, and many children describe their mood during the attack as one of intense misery. However, patients are completely symptom-free between attacks.
Abdominal migraine is an idiopathic disorder, meaning that the cause is unknown. It is unlikely to be school avoidance as the symptoms are episodic and can occur outside of school times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are a new partner in an inner city practice, having recently completed GP training. A teenage patient presents in a very poor state of health. She is very thin and has multiple injection site marks. She tells you she has previously been prescribed methadone and is seeking to restart this.
What is your most appropriate response?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not prescribe and refer to specialist service
Explanation:Safe Prescribing of Methadone
It is crucial that doctors do not feel pressured to prescribe methadone without proper evaluation and consideration of the patient’s history. Methadone is a potent drug that can be dangerous if not prescribed correctly. Therefore, the prescriber must be experienced and competent in handling such cases.
Before prescribing methadone, the patient should undergo a drug screening, and their previous GP or drug team should be contacted. It is also advisable to involve a local drug worker in the patient’s care. Only after these steps should methadone be prescribed, and at a low dose, gradually increasing under the supervision of a pharmacist. The principle of start low, go slow should be followed to ensure the patient’s safety.
By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that methadone is prescribed safely and effectively, minimizing the risks associated with this potent drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old female visits her GP after experiencing a brief episode of right-sided weakness lasting 10-15 minutes. During examination, the GP discovers that the patient has atrial fibrillation. If the patient continues to have chronic atrial fibrillation, what is the most appropriate type of anticoagulation to use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant
Explanation:When it comes to reducing the risk of stroke in patients with AF, DOACs should be the first option. In the case of this patient, her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3, with 2 points for the transient ischaemic attack and 1 point for being female. Therefore, it is recommended that she be given anticoagulation treatment with DOACs, which are now preferred over warfarin.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a feeling of shortness of breath and choking, on lying down. Some six months earlier she had been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. On examination, she has a goitre. Plain radiography confirms retrosternal extension, which is presumed to be contributing to her shortness of breath. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is less than 0.04 mIU/l (normal range 0.17 - 3.2 mIU/l). Thyroid autoantibodies are negative.
Which of the following diagnoses best fits with this patients clinical picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxic multinodular goitre
Explanation:Toxic multinodular goitre is a condition that commonly affects women over 55 years of age and is more prevalent than Graves’ disease in the elderly. It is characterized by a goitre that obstructs and extends retrosternally, which may cause atrial fibrillation. The preferred treatment is surgery, but the patient should first be made euthyroid with carbimazole. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, is an autoimmune disorder that accounts for 75% of thyrotoxicosis cases. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, diffuse goitre, and eye changes. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is another autoimmune thyroiditis that initially causes hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism. It is characterized by the aggressive destruction of thyroid cells, resulting in a goitre and high levels of autoantibodies against thyroid peroxidase. Thyroglossal cyst is a cyst that forms from a persistent thyroglossal duct and presents as an asymptomatic midline neck mass. Thyroid carcinoma, on the other hand, presents as a non-tender thyroid nodule with normal thyroid function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old patient passes away in a nursing home. You were familiar with her and are requested to fill out the death certificate. She has been experiencing a gradual decline over the past few weeks and died peacefully in her sleep. What could be a possible cause of death under certain conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Old age
Explanation:Old age or frailty due to old age can only be listed as the cause of death if specific criteria are fulfilled. These include personally caring for the deceased over a long period, observing a gradual decline in their health and functioning, not being aware of any identifiable disease or injury contributing to the death, being certain that there is no other reason to report the death to the procurator fiscal, and the patient being 80 years or older. Other options such as terminal events or vague phrases like cardiovascular event are not appropriate as they do not identify a specific disease or pathological process.
Death Certification in the UK
There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.
When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.
Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is meant by the term 'power of the study' in the design of a randomised controlled trial?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The probability of a statistically significant treatment effect if the true treatment difference is at a prespecified level
Explanation:Understanding Power Analysis in Statistical Studies
Power analysis is a statistical tool used to determine the sample size required in a study to detect a significant difference at a predetermined level of significance and size of effect. It is an essential step in planning a study and helps researchers to avoid underpowered or overpowered studies.
The predetermined level of significance is usually set at 0.05, which means that there is a 5% chance of obtaining a significant result by chance alone. The size of effect is the difference between the treatment and control groups that is considered clinically significant.
It is important to note that the size of effect used in power analysis may not necessarily correspond to a clinically significant difference. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with experts in the field to determine an appropriate size of effect.
In summary, power analysis is a crucial step in planning a study and helps researchers to determine the appropriate sample size needed to detect a significant difference at a predetermined level of significance and size of effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are visiting 84-year-old Mr. Smith who has metastatic lung cancer and has been experiencing nausea and vomiting for the past week. He reports regular nausea, oesophageal reflux, and occasional large volumes of vomit, which provide temporary relief.
Upon conducting a thorough assessment, you suspect that his symptoms are caused by gastric stasis and decide to initiate an anti-emetic.
What is the most suitable medication to begin in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, dopamine (D2) receptor antagonists such as metoclopramide or domperidone should be used as the first-line treatment for nausea and vomiting caused by gastric dysmotility and stasis in palliative care. Cyclizine, an antihistaminic and anticholinergic anti-emetic, would not be appropriate for this condition. Hyoscine butylbromide is another anticholinergic anti-emetic that can be used. Levomepromazine, a broad-spectrum anti-emetic, is useful for persistent nausea and vomiting that is not controlled by other anti-emetics, as well as for mechanical obstruction.
Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Mechanistic Approach to Prescribing
Nausea and vomiting in palliative care can have multiple causes, but identifying the most prominent one is crucial in guiding the choice of anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In general, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting in palliative care. There are two approaches to choosing drug therapy: empirical and mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s nausea and vomiting.
For reduced gastric motility, pro-kinetic agents such as metoclopramide and domperidone are useful. However, metoclopramide should not be used when pro-kinesis may negatively affect the gastrointestinal tract. For chemically mediated nausea and vomiting, the chemical disturbance should be corrected first. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while anticholinergics such as hyoscine can be useful. For raised Intracranial pressure, cyclizine and dexamethasone are recommended. For vestibular causes, cyclizine is the first-line treatment, while atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine or risperidone can be used in refractory cases. If anticipatory nausea is the clear cause, a short-acting benzodiazepine such as lorazepam can be useful.
NICE CKS recommends that oral anti-emetics are preferable and should be used if possible. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred. The intravenous route can be used if intravenous access is already established. By using a mechanistic approach to prescribing, healthcare professionals can tailor anti-emetic therapy to the specific cause of nausea and vomiting in palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You think that an 80-year-old man has dementia.
Which one of the following is more suggestive of vascular dementia than Alzheimer's?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emotional lability
Explanation:Emotional lability in Vascular Dementia
Emotional lability, which refers to sudden and exaggerated changes in mood or emotions, is a common symptom in patients with vascular dementia. This type of dementia is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain, leading to damage in different areas of the brain. Emotional lability can manifest as sudden outbursts of anger, crying spells, or inappropriate laughter.
On the other hand, other symptoms such as memory loss, confusion, and difficulty with language and communication are more suggestive of Alzheimer’s disease. It is important to differentiate between the two types of dementia as they have different underlying causes and may require different treatment approaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with lethargy, abdominal bloating and loose stools. He has lost 5 kg in weight over the last six months. Examination confirms a thin teenager with obvious pallor.
What is the most appropriate test to investigate possible malabsorption?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs)
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease Testing: Differentiating Between IgA tTGAs, IgA Gliadin Antibodies, IgA EMAs, HLA Genetic Testing, and IgG tTGAs
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. While small-bowel biopsy is the most reliable way to diagnose coeliac disease, IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs) are the preferred initial investigation. This test is highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease, but should not be performed on children younger than two years as it may give a false negative result.
It is important to note that around 0.4% of the population has selective IgA deficiency, which can lead to a false-negative result. In such cases, the laboratory should measure IgA levels. Some laboratories may do this routinely when measuring tTGAs.
IgA gliadin antibodies are not commonly used to diagnose coeliac disease. Instead, IgA EMAs are autoantibodies against tissue transglutaminase type 2 (tTGA2) and are highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease. However, IgA EMAs should be measured if IgA tTG is only weakly positive.
HLA genetic testing is not recommended for diagnosing coeliac disease in primary care. Coeliac disease is strongly associated with the genes HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8, but testing for these genes is not necessary for diagnosis.
Finally, IgG tTGAs should only be considered in people who are IgA deficient to avoid the risk of a false-negative IgA tTGA result.
In summary, understanding the differences between these tests is crucial in accurately diagnosing coeliac disease and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following tumors is most likely to spread to the bone in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate
Explanation:Metastasis to the bone is most frequently observed in cases of primary tumours of the prostate.
Bone Metastases: Common Tumours and Sites
Bone metastases occur when cancer cells from a primary tumour spread to the bones. The most common tumours that cause bone metastases are prostate, breast, and lung cancer, with prostate cancer being the most frequent. The most common sites for bone metastases are the spine, pelvis, ribs, skull, and long bones.
Aside from bone pain, other features of bone metastases may include pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, and raised levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Pathological fractures occur when the bone weakens due to the cancer cells, causing it to break. Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is too much calcium in the blood, which can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and confusion. ALP is an enzyme that is produced by bone cells, and its levels can be elevated in the presence of bone metastases.
A common diagnostic tool for bone metastases is an isotope bone scan, which uses technetium-99m labelled diphosphonates that accumulate in the bones. The scan can show multiple irregular foci of high-grade activity in the bones, indicating the presence of metastatic cancer. In the image provided, the bone scan shows multiple osteoblastic metastases in a patient with metastatic prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient complains of gastrointestinal symptoms. What feature in the history would be the least indicative of a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 62-year-old female
Explanation:The new NICE guidelines identify onset after the age of 60 as a warning sign.
Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. To diagnose IBS, a patient must have experienced abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. A positive diagnosis of IBS is made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucous. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.
It is important to enquire about red flag features such as rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS in 2008 to help healthcare professionals provide the best care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A seven-year-old boy comes to the GP with his mother, who reports a persistent eczema patch on his right cheek that has worsened despite his regular use of emollient and topical hydrocortisone treatment. The patch has become excruciatingly painful overnight and has spread to his chin. The boy has had eczema since he was a baby but is otherwise healthy.
During the examination, the GP observes a dry, reddish skin patch on the right cheek and a larger, more inflamed patch on the left that extends to the chin. The area is warm and tender to the touch. The patient's vital signs are normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Same-day referral to paediatrics
Explanation:When a child presents with rapidly worsening and painful eczema that is not responding to usual treatment, it may be an early sign of eczema herpeticum. This is a medical emergency that requires urgent assessment and treatment with antivirals to prevent systemic complications. Therefore, the most appropriate action is same-day referral to paediatrics. Oral aciclovir, oral flucloxacillin, and topical clobetasol are not the most appropriate actions in this case. Mild cases may respond to oral antivirals, but a thorough assessment is necessary, and IV antiviral treatment may be required for facial involvement. Definitive treatment for eczema herpeticum is antivirals, not antibiotics or topical steroids.
Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children who have atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The affected area usually shows monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions with a diameter of 1-3 mm.
Due to its life-threatening potential, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted for intravenous aciclovir treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you notice numerous umbilicated papules all over his face, neck, trunk, and genitals. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy substance. Your diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What is the most crucial aspect of managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical steroid application
Explanation:Molluscum Contagiosum: Symptoms, Treatment, and Underlying Causes
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by a DNA pox virus. It is characterized by small, dome-shaped papules with a central punctum that may appear umbilicated. Squeezing the lesions can release a cheesy material. While the infection usually resolves on its own within 12-18 months, patients may opt for treatment if they find the rash unsightly. Squeezing the lesions can speed up resolution.
However, if a patient presents with hundreds of widespread lesions, it is important to investigate any underlying immunodeficiency problems. This may include conditions such as HIV/AIDS. Further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the extensive rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man on your patient roster has been experiencing recurrent angina episodes for the past few weeks despite being prescribed bisoprolol at the highest dose. You are contemplating adding another medication to address his angina. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg, and his heart rate is 84 beats/min, which is regular. There is no other significant medical history.
What would be the most suitable supplementary treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:If beta-blocker therapy is not effective in controlling angina, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine should be added. However, it is important to note that rate-limiting calcium-channel blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil should not be combined with beta-blockers as they can lead to severe bradycardia and heart failure. In cases where a calcium-channel blocker is contraindicated or not tolerated, potassium-channel activators like nicorandil or inward sodium current inhibitors like ranolazine may be considered. It is recommended to seek specialist advice before initiating ranolazine.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with a swollen, tender, and red glans penis that he has been experiencing for the past five days. He is unable to retract his foreskin fully and is experiencing pain while urinating. He has no history of sexual activity and has been treated for balanitis three times in the past year with saline baths and topical clotrimazole, despite testing negative for sexually transmitted and bacterial infections. He has a medical history of diabetes mellitus.
After treating the acute episode with saline baths and topical clotrimazole, what is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for circumcision
Explanation:Recurrent balanitis can be effectively treated with circumcision.
Balanitis, which is characterized by inflammation of the glans penis, can be caused by various factors such as sexually transmitted infections, dermatitis, bacterial infections, or fungal infections like Candida. In this case, the patient’s diabetes has made them susceptible to opportunistic fungal infections.
For acute infections, treatment involves addressing the underlying cause and using saline baths. Topical treatments like hydrocortisone, clotrimazole, miconazole, or nystatin cream may also be recommended depending on the cause of the infection.
However, if the balanitis keeps recurrent, circumcision is the most appropriate treatment option. This procedure can effectively prevent the condition from happening again.
Understanding Circumcision
Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.
The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.
There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.
Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man presents to the clinic with concerns about his ability to form relationships. He reports feeling depressed and struggling to connect with women. During his previous relationship, he sought treatment for erectile dysfunction at the clinic.
Upon physical examination, the patient has small testes and limited secondary sexual hair. He appears thin and has disproportionately long arms and legs in relation to his body.
What is true regarding his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He is at risk of osteoporosis
Explanation:Klinefelter’s Syndrome and its Associated Risks
Klinefelter’s Syndrome is a genetic condition that affects males, resulting in the lack of testosterone production. This deficiency increases the risk of osteoporosis, which can lead to fractures. Unfortunately, due to a lack of early diagnosis, some patients may present with osteoporotic fractures. In addition to osteoporosis, patients with Klinefelter’s Syndrome have an increased risk of testicular carcinoma, autoimmune disorders such as diabetes mellitus and SLE, and male breast cancer.
The mainstay of treatment for Klinefelter’s Syndrome is androgen replacement therapy. For those who want to father offspring, modern techniques such as microsurgical testicular sperm extraction may be used. It is important for individuals with Klinefelter’s Syndrome to be aware of these associated risks and to seek appropriate medical care to manage their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman of African origin comes in for a routine health check. She is a non-smoker, drinks 14 units of alcohol per week, is physically fit, active, and enjoys regular moderate exercise and a balanced diet. Her BMI is 26.8 kg/m2. Her average BP measured by home monitoring for 7 days is 160/95.
What is the most suitable initial course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:Treatment Recommendations for Hypertension
Patients diagnosed with hypertension with a blood pressure reading of >150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension) should be offered drug therapy. For patients younger than 55 years, an ACE inhibitor is recommended as the first-line treatment. However, patients over the age of 55 and black patients of any age should initially be treated with a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide diuretic. These recommendations aim to provide effective treatment options for patients with hypertension based on their age and race.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with end-stage lung cancer is being evaluated. He is presently on MST 60 mg bd to manage his pain. Due to his inability to take oral medications, it has been decided to initiate a syringe driver. What would be the appropriate dosage of diamorphine to prescribe for the syringe driver?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40 mg
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of severe pain and swelling around her vagina, making it difficult for her to sit, walk or have sexual intercourse. Upon examination, the left side of the labia majora appears red and inflamed, and a 4 cm tender, warm, tense mass is present at the four o'clock position in the vulvar vestibule. The patient is treated with marsupialisation.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bartholin's abscess
Explanation:Marsupialisation is the definitive treatment for Bartholin’s abscess, which presents with sudden pain and difficulty urinating. On examination, a hard mass with surrounding cellulitis is found at the site of the Bartholin’s glands in the vulvar vestibule. The abscess is caused by infection of the Bartholin’s cyst. Bartholin’s cyst, on the other hand, is caused by a buildup of mucous secretions from the Bartholin’s glands and is typically asymptomatic unless it grows larger. Inclusion cysts, which are caused by vaginal wall trauma, are usually small and found on the posterior vaginal wall. Skene’s gland cysts, which form when the duct is obstructed, may cause dyspareunia or urinary tract infection symptoms. Vesicovaginal fistulas, which allow urine to continuously discharge into the vaginal tract, require surgical treatment.
Understanding Bartholin’s Abscess
Bartholin’s glands are two small glands situated near the opening of the vagina. They are typically the size of a pea, but they can become infected and swell, resulting in a Bartholin’s abscess. This condition can be treated in a variety of ways, including antibiotics, the insertion of a word catheter, or a surgical procedure called marsupialization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Hospital episode statistics were audited and it was discovered that the length of hospital stays for acute medical admissions is highly positively skewed. The median was found to be 4 days and the interquartile range was 2-10 days. What percentage of patients stayed between 2 and 10 days?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding Common Statistical Percentages
The field of statistics uses various percentages to describe and analyze data. Here are some common percentages and what they represent:
50% – The interquartile range describes the middle 50% of values when ordered from lowest to highest.
25% – The lower quartile has one-quarter (25%) of values below it, and the upper quartile has one-quarter of values above it.
68% – This is the percentage of values that fall within one standard deviation of the mean in normally skewed data.
95% – This is the percentage of values that fall within two standard deviations of the mean in normally skewed data.
99.7% – This is the percentage of values that fall within three standard deviations of the mean in normally skewed data.
Understanding these percentages can help in interpreting and drawing conclusions from statistical data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the minimum steroid dosage that a patient should be on before being considered for osteoporosis prevention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Equivalent of prednisolone 7.5 mg or more each day for 3 months
Explanation:Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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The practice nurse has asked you to see a patient who has had a routine cervical smear test which shows atypical endometrial cells. She is 55 years old and has only had two periods in the last year.
She wants to know what course of action needs to be followed.
What is the correct course of action with a finding of atypical endometrial cells in a woman aged 55?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non urgent referral to a gynaecologist - likely to be an endometrial polyp.
Explanation:Atypical Endometrial Cells: Significance and Associated Risks
Diagnosis of atypical endometrial cells is of clinical significance as it may indicate the presence of significant uterine disease. In fact, more than one-third of women with histological follow-up have been found to have such conditions. Atypical endometrial cells may be associated with various conditions such as endometrial polyp, chronic endometritis, intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD), endometrial hyperplasia, and endometrial carcinoma. The risk of carcinoma is particularly concerning, and patients should be referred to a gynaecologist for further investigation. Urgent referral is recommended, and patients should be seen within two weeks of referral to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A mother is worried because her 2-year-old girl was exposed to measles two days ago.
Which one of the following statements is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immunisation with the live attenuated virus is advised within 72 hours to confer protection
Explanation:Measles Treatment and Complications
If a person has been exposed to measles within the past 72 hours, the measles vaccine is the preferred treatment option. This vaccine can provide lifelong immunity, although it is not 100% effective in preventing the disease. If the vaccine is not an option, immune globulin can be given within six days of exposure.
Complications from measles are common, with one-third of those infected experiencing issues such as pneumonia, otitis media, and diarrhea. However, the most serious complication is the development of subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis.
Measles typically begins with coryzal symptoms, followed by the appearance of a rash several days later.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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