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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents with slurred speech. Upon examination, he displays bilateral partial ptosis and frontal balding. Additionally, he experiences difficulty releasing his grip after shaking hands. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: Myotonia dystrophica
Explanation:Myotonic Dystrophy: A Progressive Multi-System Disorder
Myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is caused by a mutation in the DMPK gene on chromosome 19, which leads to a CTG repeat. The length of this repeat determines the age of onset and severity of symptoms. Myotonic dystrophy can affect skeletal muscles, the heart, gastrointestinal and uterine smooth muscles, the eyes, and the endocrine and central nervous systems.
Symptoms of myotonic dystrophy include ptosis, frontal balding, cataracts, cardiomyopathy, impaired intellect, testicular atrophy, diabetes mellitus, and dysarthria. The age of onset can range from birth to old age, with some patients presenting with symptoms in late adulthood. There is no cure for the weakness that is the main cause of disability, but medications such as phenytoin, quinine, or procainamide may be helpful for myotonia.
It is important to differentiate myotonic dystrophy from other conditions that present with similar symptoms. Myotonia congenita, for example, presents in childhood with myotonia but does not have the other features associated with myotonic dystrophy. Duchenne muscular dystrophy also presents in childhood and has a much shorter life expectancy. Eaton-Lambert syndrome and myasthenia gravis are other conditions that can cause weakness but do not have the characteristic features of myotonic dystrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl informs you during her appointment that her cousin was recently diagnosed with Bell's palsy and she has some inquiries about it. Which cranial nerve is primarily impacted by Bell's palsy?
Your Answer: Cranial nerve IV
Correct Answer: Cranial nerve VII
Explanation:Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions in Eye and Facial Movement
Cranial nerves play a crucial role in eye and facial movement. Cranial nerve VII, also known as the facial nerve, is affected in Bell’s palsy, causing a lower motor neuron VIIth nerve palsy that affects one side of the face. Cranial nerve IV, or the trochlear nerve, supplies the superior oblique muscle of the eye, and injury to this nerve causes vertical diplopia. Cranial nerve III, or the oculomotor nerve, supplies several muscles that control eye movement and the levator palpebrae superioris. Cranial nerve V, or the trigeminal nerve, provides sensation in the face and controls the muscles of mastication. Finally, cranial nerve VI, or the abducens nerve, supplies the lateral rectus muscle and lesions of this nerve cause lateral diplopia. Understanding the functions of these cranial nerves is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect eye and facial movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a complaint of headache for the past few months. She reports feeling a tight band-like sensation all over her head, which is present most days but has not interfered with her work. She experiences fatigue due to the headache but denies any associated nausea or vomiting. She occasionally takes paracetamol and ibuprofen, which provide some relief. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic tension headache
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are most consistent with chronic tension headache, which is a common cause of non-pulsatile headache that affects both sides of the head. There may be tenderness in the scalp muscles. Treatment typically involves stress relief measures such as massage or antidepressants. Chronic headache is defined as occurring 15 or more days per month for at least 3 months. Other types of headache, such as cluster headache, trigeminal neuralgia, and migraine, have more specific features that are not present in this case. Medication overuse headache is unlikely given the patient’s occasional use of paracetamol and ibuprofen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 49-year-old man with a long history of sarcoidosis presents for review. He has been intermittently treated with varying doses of oral prednisolone and chloroquine. On this occasion, he complains of drooping and weakness affecting the left-hand side of his face, blurred vision, thirst and polyuria. On examination, he has a left facial nerve palsy.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 119 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 195 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 149 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 15.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Ca2+ corrected 2.21 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Random glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 36 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Which of the following diagnoses fit best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Neurosarcoidosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Neurological Symptoms: Neurosarcoidosis, Bacterial Meningitis, Bell’s Palsy, Viral Meningitis, and Intracerebral Abscess
A man with a history of sarcoidosis presents with neurological symptoms, including polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision. These symptoms suggest the possibility of cranial diabetes insipidus, a consequence of neurosarcoidosis. Hypercalcemia and hyperglycemia are ruled out as potential causes based on normal glucose and calcium levels. Treatment for neurosarcoidosis typically involves oral corticosteroids and immunosuppressant agents.
Bacterial meningitis, which presents with headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia, is ruled out as there is no evidence of infection. Bell’s palsy, an isolated facial nerve palsy, does not explain the patient’s other symptoms. Viral meningitis, which also presents with photophobia, neck stiffness, and headache, is unlikely as the patient’s white blood cell count is normal. An intracerebral abscess, which typically presents with headache and fever, is unlikely to produce the other symptoms experienced by the patient.
In summary, the differential diagnosis for this patient’s neurological symptoms includes neurosarcoidosis, bacterial meningitis, Bell’s palsy, viral meningitis, and intracerebral abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the Emergency Department following three events which occurred earlier in the day. The father describes multiple events throughout the day whereby his daughter has been sitting on the floor and suddenly stops what she is doing, becoming somewhat vacant. She would not respond to anything that he said. He describes the events lasting for around five seconds and they end quite rapidly. She is not aware of these events and cannot recall any odd feelings. The father is very worried and is sure that this is not normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Typical absence seizure
Explanation:Understanding Absence Seizures: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Absence seizures are a type of seizure that typically begins in childhood, between the ages of four and seven years. They can occur several times every day and are characterized by an immediate distraction from what is being done and vacant staring into space, accompanied by unresponsiveness lasting for around 5–10 seconds. The event will usually terminate as quickly as it commences, with the child immediately carrying on with whatever they were doing.
Diagnosing absence seizures can be challenging, as they can be mistaken for daydreaming or other types of seizures. Atypical absence seizures have been reported to start slowly and also gradually fade away, while focal dyscognitive seizures are more likely to include focal automatic behaviors such as lip smacking and mumbling.
To differentiate between absence seizures and other conditions, clinical tests such as hyperventilation and electroencephalogram (EEG) can be implemented. It is also important to consider the duration of the seizure and any accompanying symptoms, such as myoclonic jerks or confusion.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of absence seizures is crucial for proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 38-year-old office worker is becoming increasingly worried that she may be experiencing early signs of Alzheimer's disease, which her mother was diagnosed with at a young age. She reports frequently misplacing her phone and struggling to recall names of colleagues she has worked with for years. She wants to learn more about the initial clinical features of the disease to see if they align with her symptoms.
What is a typical clinical characteristic of the early stage of Alzheimer's disease?Your Answer: Retention of executive function
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Dementia and Their Symptoms
Executive function, which involves planning, reasoning, and problem-solving, is typically retained in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. However, in subcortical dementias like Lewy body disease (LBD), patients often lose this cognitive skill early on. Frontotemporal dementia, on the other hand, is more commonly associated with impulsivity and disinhibition, as well as personality changes. Episodic confusion is a hallmark of LBD, where patients may have good and bad days. Finally, bradykinesia and rigidity are signs of parkinsonism, which can be seen in both LBD and Parkinson’s disease. Understanding these different symptoms can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are asked to give a presentation to a group of third-year medical students about the different types of dementia and how they may present.
Which of the following is characteristic of frontotemporal dementia?Your Answer: Personality and mood are unaffected
Correct Answer: Confabulation and repetition
Explanation:Understanding Fronto-Temporal Dementia: Symptoms and Features
Fronto-temporal dementia is a complex disorder that affects both the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. Its diagnosis can be challenging, especially in the early stages of the disease. To better understand this condition, it is helpful to examine its symptoms and features based on the affected brain regions.
Frontal lobe dysfunction is characterized by changes in personality and behavior, such as loss of tact and concern for others, disinhibition, emotional instability, distractibility, impulsivity, and fixed attitudes. However, some patients may exhibit opposite behaviors and become increasingly withdrawn.
Temporal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, affects speech and language abilities, leading to dysphasia, confabulation, repetition, and difficulty finding words and names (semantic dementia).
Other features of fronto-temporal dementia include earlier onset (typically between 40-60 years old), slow and insidious progression, relatively preserved memory in the early stages, and loss of executive function as the disease advances. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, hallucinations, paranoia, and delusions are rare, and personality and mood remain largely unaffected.
It is important to note that fronto-temporal dementia can present differently in late onset cases (70-80 years old) and does not typically involve bradykinesia, a hallmark symptom of Parkinson’s disease. Rapid progressive loss of memory and cognitive abilities is also not typical of fronto-temporal dementia, as the disease tends to progress slowly over time.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and features of fronto-temporal dementia can aid in its early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia resulting in multiple hospitalisations is referred to you in a psychiatry ward. She reports feeling generally unwell for several weeks, with increasing stiffness in her jaws and arms. She has been on haloperidol for the past few years with good symptom control. During examination, her temperature is 38.5°C and BP is 175/85 mmHg. What drug treatments would you consider for her condition?
Your Answer: Lithium
Correct Answer: Dantrolene
Explanation:Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome vs Serotonin Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications that can occur at any point during treatment. Concurrent use of lithium or anticholinergics may increase the risk of NMS. Symptoms include fever, rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. Treatment involves discontinuing the offending medication and using antipyretics to reduce body temperature. Dantrolene, bromocriptine, or levodopa preparations may also be helpful.
Serotonin syndrome is a differential diagnosis for NMS, but the two can be distinguished through a thorough history and examination. NMS develops over days and weeks, while serotonin syndrome can develop within 24 hours. Serotonin syndrome causes neuromuscular hyperreactivity, such as myoclonus, tremors, and hyperreflexia, while NMS involves sluggish neuromuscular response, such as bradyreflexia and rigidity. Hyperreflexia and myoclonus are rare in NMS, and resolution of NMS takes up to nine days, while serotonin syndrome usually resolves within 24 hours.
Despite these differences, both conditions share common symptoms in severe cases, such as hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, leukocytosis, elevated CK, altered hepatic function, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, a thorough history and physical examination are crucial in distinguishing between the two syndromes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving following two unprovoked seizures in 48 hours. What advice do you give the patient regarding their ability to drive their car?
Your Answer: They must inform the DVLA and will be unfit to drive for at least six months
Explanation:If an individual experiences a seizure, they must inform the DVLA. Depending on the circumstances, they may be unfit to drive for six months or up to five years if they drive a bus or lorry. It is important to note that the DVLA must always be informed of any neurological event that could affect driving ability. An assessment by a DVLA medical examiner is not conducted, but a private or NHS neurologist should evaluate the individual’s fitness to drive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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What is the correct vertebral level and corresponding structure?
Your Answer: C4 and bifurcation of the carotid artery
Explanation:Anatomy Landmarks and Openings
The human body has several anatomical landmarks and openings that are important to know for medical professionals. The carotid artery, which supplies blood to the brain, bifurcates at the level of C4. The manubriosternal joint, also known as the angle of Louis, is located at the T4/5 intervertebral disk level. The aortic opening, which allows the aorta to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T12. The caval opening, which allows the inferior vena cava to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T8. Finally, the oesophageal opening of the diaphragm is located at T10. To remember the order of these openings, medical professionals often use the mnemonic Voice Of America – Vena cava at T8, Oesophagus at T10, and Aorta at T12. these landmarks and openings is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hoarseness in her voice for a few weeks. She underwent a thyroidectomy a decade ago. During the examination, the doctor observed decreased breath sounds in the left upper lobe. The patient has a smoking history of 75 pack years and quit five years ago. A chest X-ray revealed an opacity in the left upper lobe. Which cranial nerve is likely to be impacted?
Your Answer: Hypoglossal
Correct Answer: Vagus
Explanation:Cranial Nerves and their Functions: Analysis of a Patient’s Symptoms
This patient is experiencing a hoarse voice and change in pitch, which is likely due to a compression of the vagus nerve caused by an apical lung tumor. The vagus nerve is the 10th cranial nerve and provides innervation to the laryngeal muscles. The other cranial nerves, such as the trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, and hypoglossal, have different functions and would not be affected by a left upper lobe opacity. Understanding the functions of each cranial nerve can aid in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following combinations of age and percentage of hearing loss is incorrect for the overall population?
Your Answer: Aged 80-89: approximately 50% affected
Explanation:Age and Hearing Loss
As people age, the likelihood of experiencing hearing loss increases. In fact, the percentage of the population with a significant hearing loss rises with each passing decade. For those in the 80-89-year-old age group, it is estimated that between 70-80% of them will have a degree of hearing loss greater than 25 dB. This means that the majority of individuals in this age range will have difficulty hearing and may require hearing aids or other assistive devices to communicate effectively. It is important for individuals of all ages to take steps to protect their hearing, such as avoiding loud noises and wearing ear protection when necessary, in order to minimize the risk of hearing loss as they age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old teacher comes to the general practitioner (GP) worried about her risk of developing Alzheimer's disease. Her father has been diagnosed with an advanced form of the condition, and although she has no symptoms, the patient is anxious, as she has heard recently that the condition can be inherited.
Which one of the following statements regarding Alzheimer's disease is true?Your Answer: It accounts for 30–40% of all cases of dementia
Correct Answer: It is more common in women than men
Explanation:Myth Busting: Common Misconceptions About Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is a complex and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about the disease that need to be addressed:
1. It is more common in women than men: While it is true that women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s disease, it is not entirely clear why. It is thought that this may be due to the fact that women generally live longer than men.
2. The familial variant is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder: This is incorrect. The familial variant of Alzheimer’s disease is typically inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder.
3. It accounts for 30-40% of all cases of dementia: Alzheimer’s disease is actually responsible for approximately 60% of all cases of dementia.
4. The onset is rare after the age of 75: Onset of Alzheimer’s disease typically increases with age, and it is not uncommon for people to develop the disease after the age of 75.
5. It cannot be inherited: This is a myth. While not all cases of Alzheimer’s disease are inherited, there are certain genetic mutations that can increase a person’s risk of developing the disease.
It is important to dispel these myths and educate ourselves about the true nature of Alzheimer’s disease. By understanding the facts, we can better support those affected by the disease and work towards finding a cure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia and multiple hospitalisations presents in a psychiatry ward with a few weeks of feeling unwell and stiffness in her jaws and arms. She has been on haloperidol for symptom control. Her temperature is 38.5°C and BP is 175/85 mmHg. What is the most crucial investigation to conduct?
Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Correct Answer: Serum creatine phosphokinase
Explanation:Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications that can occur at any point during treatment. The risk of NMS may increase when these medications are taken alongside lithium or anticholinergics. Symptoms of NMS include fever, rigidity, altered mental status, autonomic dysfunction, and elevated creatine phosphokinase concentration. The latter is always elevated and reflects muscle damage caused by intense muscle contractions.
Treatment for NMS involves discontinuing the use of the medication that caused the syndrome and reducing body temperature with antipyretics. Dantrolene, bromocriptine, or levodopa preparations may also be beneficial. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if any of these symptoms occur during antipsychotic treatment. By doing so, patients can receive prompt treatment and avoid potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit, after his parents witnessed him having a seizure. He has no history of seizures. The seizure lasted 30 seconds, and his parents described both his arms and legs shaking. There was no incontinence or tongue biting. For the last week he has had a flu-like illness, and the parents have recorded temperatures of 39.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). You suspect a diagnosis of febrile seizures.
What advice should you give the parents about the risk of future seizures?Your Answer: The child could seize again, but the risk of developing epilepsy is low
Explanation:Understanding Febrile Seizures and the Risk of Epilepsy
Febrile seizures are a common occurrence in young children, often caused by a sudden spike in body temperature. While they are not epilepsy, parents should be aware that their child may be at a greater risk of developing epilepsy in the future. The risk for a simple febrile seizure is between 2.0-7.5%, while a complex febrile seizure increases the risk to 10-20%. Risk factors include a family history of febrile seizures or epilepsy, human herpes virus 6 infection, and deficiencies in iron or zinc. During a seizure, it is important to remove any objects that could cause harm and cushion the child’s head. If the seizure lasts for more than 5 minutes, emergency services should be contacted and medication administered. While paracetamol can help bring down the fever, it does not prevent future seizures. It is important for parents to understand the potential risks and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Correct
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What condition is Tinel's sign utilized to diagnose?
Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Tinel’s Sign for Median Nerve Compression
Tinel’s sign is a diagnostic test used to identify median nerve compression. It involves tapping firmly over the ventral aspect of the wrist, specifically over the carpal tunnel, which produces an electric shock along the course of the median nerve. The test is performed by tapping over the creases on the inner side of the wrist between the two bones on either side of the base of the palm.
The specificity of Tinel’s sign is high at 94%, meaning that it accurately identifies those with median nerve compression. However, the sensitivity of the test ranges from 44-70%, indicating that it may not identify all cases of median nerve compression. Despite this limitation, Tinel’s sign remains a useful tool for diagnosing median nerve compression and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 27-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache that has been progressively worsening over the past two to three months. She also reports experiencing blurred vision. The patient has a history of depression, which she attributes to her weight problem and bad skin. However, she has been actively trying to address these issues by joining Weight Watchers and receiving treatment for her acne from her GP for the past four months. On examination, the patient is overweight and has moderately severe acne. She is afebrile, and there are no signs of nuchal rigidity. The oropharynx is benign, and the neurological examination is normal, except for blurred disc margins bilaterally and a limited ability to abduct the left eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH), previously known as benign intracranial hypertension or pseudotumour cerebri, is a condition that typically affects young obese women. Other risk factors include the use of oral contraceptive pills, treatments for acne such as tetracycline, nitrofurantoin, and retinoids, as well as hypervitaminosis A. The condition is characterized by a severe headache, loss of peripheral vision, and impaired visual acuity if papilloedema is severe. Patients may also experience a reduction in colour vision and develop a CN VI palsy.
A CT scan is often normal, and the diagnosis is confirmed by finding an elevated CSF opening pressure of more than 20 cm H2O. CSF protein, glucose, and cell count will be normal. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing permanent vision loss. Therefore, if you experience any of the symptoms mentioned above, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old motorcyclist was brought to the Emergency Department after being in a road traffic accident and found alone on the road. Upon examination, he seems drowsy and is making grunting sounds, his pupils are equal and reactive to light, his eyes open to pain, and he withdraws his hand when the nurses attempt to insert a cannula. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?
Your Answer: 10
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used by clinicians to objectively measure a patient’s conscious state, particularly in cases of head injury. It provides a common language for healthcare professionals to discuss a patient’s condition. The GCS score is calculated based on the patient’s best eye, verbal, and motor responses, with a maximum score of 15/15 for a fully conscious and alert patient.
The calculation for the GCS score is as follows: for eyes, the score ranges from 1 to 4 depending on whether the patient’s eyes open spontaneously, in response to speech, in response to pain, or not at all. For verbal response, the score ranges from 1 to 5 depending on whether the patient is oriented, confused, uses inappropriate words or sounds, or has no verbal response. For motor response, the score ranges from 1 to 6 depending on whether the patient obeys commands, localizes pain, withdraws from pain, exhibits abnormal flexion or extension, or has no response.
If the GCS score is 8 or below, the patient will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway. This usually means intubation. Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to accurately calculate the GCS score and take appropriate action based on the score.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Clinic with progressive bilateral upper leg weakness. He experiences difficulty climbing stairs and is unable to participate in school sports due to severe muscle cramps during exertion. There is a family history of muscle problems on his mother's side of the family, and the paediatrician suspects a genetic muscular dystrophy. What is the most suitable initial investigation?
Your Answer: Genetic testing
Correct Answer: Creatine kinase
Explanation:Investigations for Suspected Muscular Dystrophy
Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that causes progressive muscle weakness and wasting. The most likely diagnosis for a patient with suspected muscular dystrophy is Becker muscular dystrophy, which typically presents with symmetrical proximal muscle weakness between the ages of 7 and 11. Here are some investigations that can be done to confirm the diagnosis:
Creatine kinase: Patients with muscular dystrophy will have elevated creatine kinase, making this an appropriate initial investigation in its workup.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): An ECG would be an important investigation to perform in patients with muscular dystrophy, as both Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophies are complicated by cardiomyopathy. However, it would be done once the diagnosis is confirmed.
Genetic testing: Genetic testing is conducted in patients with suspected muscular dystrophy to confirm the diagnosis and determine the chromosomal abnormality. It would not, however, be the initial investigation and is time-consuming and costly. Before genetic testing, patients and their family should receive genetic counselling so that they are aware of the potential ramifications of abnormal results.
Muscle biopsy: A muscle biopsy is an important investigation in the workup of suspected muscular dystrophy, to confirm the diagnosis. It would not be an initial investigation, however, and would be considered after bloods, including creatine kinase.
Serum magnesium: Low magnesium levels can result in muscle twitching and weakness but would not be the most appropriate initial investigation in the workup of suspected muscular dystrophy. Patients with low magnesium often have a history of malabsorptive conditions or chronic diarrhoea and it would be unlikely for there to be a family history.
Investigations for Suspected Muscular Dystrophy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man is admitted at the request of his concerned family due to increased confusion. This has occurred over the past 3 months and has become steadily worse. He was living independently and had been an active local councillor. Now he is unable to identify his family members.
Examination findings: pleasantly confused, intermittent jerky movements of both upper arms.
The following investigations were performed:
CT brain: normal
Dementia screen: normal
Which one of the following diagnostic tests will assist most in diagnosis?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain
Correct Answer: Electroencephalogram
Explanation:Investigations for Rapid Cognitive Decline in a Middle-Aged Patient: A Case of Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
When a patient in their 60s presents with rapid cognitive decline and myoclonic jerks, the possibility of sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) should be considered. Despite negative findings from other investigations, a lumbar puncture and electroencephalogram (EEG) can support the diagnosis of sCJD. The EEG will show generalised bi- or triphasic periodic sharp wave complexes, while definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy. Doppler ultrasound of carotids is relevant for vascular dementia, but the steady decline in this case suggests sCJD. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is unlikely to aid diagnosis, and muscle biopsy is unnecessary as myoclonic jerks are a symptom of sCJD. Bone marrow biopsy is only useful if myelodysplastic syndrome is suspected, which is not the case here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has been referred to you due to a personality change that has been going on for a year. He has become loud, sexually flirtatious, and inappropriate in social situations. He has also been experiencing difficulties with memory and abstract thinking, but his arithmetic ability remains intact. There is no motor impairment, and his speech is relatively preserved. Which area of the brain is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Temporal lobe
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:Pick’s Disease: A Rare Form of Dementia
Pick’s disease is a type of dementia that is not commonly seen. It is characterized by the degeneration of the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. The symptoms of this disease depend on the location of the lobar atrophy, with patients experiencing either frontal or temporal lobe syndromes. Those with frontal atrophy may exhibit early personality changes, while those with temporal lobe atrophy may experience aphasia and semantic memory impairment.
Pathologically, Pick’s disease is associated with Pick bodies, which are inclusion bodies found in the neuronal cytoplasm. These bodies are argyrophilic, meaning they have an affinity for silver staining. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, EEG readings for Pick’s disease are relatively normal.
To learn more about Pick’s disease, the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke provides an information page on frontotemporal dementia. this rare form of dementia can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the symptoms and seek appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of a headache and homonymous superior quadrantanopia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Optic atrophy
Correct Answer: Temporal lobe tumour
Explanation:Homonymous Superior Quadrantanopia
Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is a condition that affects the upper, outer half of one side of the visual field in both eyes. This deficit is typically caused by the interruption of Meyer’s loop of the optic radiation. It can be an early indication of temporal lobe disease or a residual effect of a temporal lobectomy. To remember the different types of quandrantanopias, the mnemonic PITS can be used, which stands for Parietal Inferior Temporal Superior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What impact would a voltage-gated calcium channel inhibitor have on action potentials in the central nervous system?
Your Answer: Inhibition of presynaptic potentials
Correct Answer: Decrease of postsynaptic potentials
Explanation:Effects of Inhibition of Voltage-Gated Channels in the Central Nervous System
In the central nervous system, voltage-gated calcium channels play a crucial role in the release of neurotransmitters. On the other hand, action potentials involve sodium and potassium voltage-gated channels. If these channels are inhibited, the amount of neurotransmitter released would decrease, leading to a subsequent decrease in the postsynaptic potentials, both graded and action. It is important to note that the decrease in postsynaptic potentials is the only correct option from the given choices.
It is incorrect to assume that the inhibition of voltage-gated channels would lead to a decrease in action potential amplitude. This is because the amplitude of an action potential is an all-or-none event, and it is the frequency of action potentials that determines the strength of a stimulus. Similarly, the decrease in action potential conduction speed is also incorrect as it depends on the myelination of the axon. Moreover, it is incorrect to assume that inhibiting voltage-gated channels would increase the speed and amplitude of action potentials.
Lastly, inhibiting presynaptic potentials is also incorrect as they depend on sodium/potassium voltage-gated ion channels. Therefore, it is essential to understand the effects of inhibiting voltage-gated channels in the central nervous system to avoid any misconceptions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her nausea and vomiting. However, she is now experiencing an oculogyric crisis and has a protruding tongue. Which antiemetic is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Extrapyramidal Effects of Antiemetic Drugs
Anti-nausea medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, and cyclizine can have extrapyramidal effects, which involve involuntary muscle movements. Metoclopramide is known to cause acute dystonic reactions, which can result in facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crisis. These effects are more common in young girls and women, as well as the elderly. However, they typically subside within 24 hours of stopping treatment with metoclopramide.
On the other hand, domperidone is less likely to cause extrapyramidal effects because it does not easily cross the blood-brain barrier. Cyclizine is also less likely to cause these effects, making it a safer option for those who are susceptible to extrapyramidal reactions. It is important to discuss any concerns about potential side effects with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty swallowing, and unsteadiness of gait. Upon neurological assessment, he is found to have nystagmus with the quick phase towards the right side and ataxia of the right upper and lower limbs. He reports no hearing loss. There is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the face, and the left side of the limbs and trunk. The patient exhibits drooping of the right side of the palate upon eliciting the gag reflex, as well as right-sided ptosis and miosis.
Which vessel is most likely to be affected by thromboembolism given these clinical findings?Your Answer: The right anterior inferior cerebellar artery
Correct Answer: The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Explanation:Arterial Territories and Associated Syndromes
The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery is commonly associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which presents with symptoms such as palatal drooping, dysphagia, and dysphonia. The right anterior choroidal artery, which supplies various parts of the brain, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, loss of sensation, and homonymous hemianopia when occluded. Similarly, occlusion of the left anterior choroidal artery can result in similar symptoms. The right labyrinthine artery, a branch of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, can cause unilateral deafness and vertigo when ischemia occurs. Finally, the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery can lead to ipsilateral facial paresis, vertigo, nystagmus, and hearing loss, as well as facial hemianaesthesia due to trigeminal nerve nucleus involvement. Understanding these arterial territories and associated syndromes can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A final-year medical student takes a history from a 42-year-old man who suffers from narcolepsy. Following this the student presents the case to her consultant, who quizzes the student about normal sleep regulation.
Which neurotransmitter is chiefly involved in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep regulation?Your Answer: Serotonin
Correct Answer: Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
Explanation:Neurotransmitters and Sleep: Understanding the Role of Noradrenaline, Acetylcholine, Serotonin, and Dopamine
Sleep architecture refers to the organization of sleep, which is divided into non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. NREM sleep is further divided into stages 1-4, with higher stages indicating deeper sleep. During sleep, individuals cycle between different stages of NREM and REM sleep. While the function of neurotransmitters in sleep is not fully understood, acetylcholine is believed to play a role in the progression of sleep stages, while noradrenaline is the primary regulator of REM sleep. Serotonin’s function in sleep is poorly understood, but studies have shown that its destruction can lead to total insomnia. Dopamine, on the other hand, is not implicated in the regulation of sleep in current neurotransmitter models. Abnormalities in cholinergic function can cause sleep fragmentation in individuals with dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 67-year-old male comes to the clinic with a complaint of sudden flailing of his left arm. During examination, it is observed that his left arm occasionally makes rapid, sudden, and uncontrollable thrusts. What is the diagnosis for this condition?
Your Answer: Hemiballismus
Explanation:Hemiballismus: A Sudden Thrusting Movement of the Right Arm
Hemiballismus is a medical condition characterized by a sudden, forceful movement of the right arm. This condition is caused by a lesion in the subthalamic nucleus on the opposite side of the brain. The lesion can be a result of a stroke or trauma.
The subthalamic nucleus is a small structure located deep within the brain that plays a crucial role in controlling movement. When it is damaged, it can cause involuntary movements, such as hemiballismus. This condition can be distressing for the patient and can interfere with their daily activities.
Treatment for hemiballismus typically involves addressing the underlying cause of the lesion, such as managing stroke risk factors or providing rehabilitation for trauma. Medications may also be prescribed to help control the involuntary movements. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary to remove the damaged tissue.
In conclusion, hemiballismus is a medical condition that causes sudden, forceful movements of the right arm due to a lesion in the subthalamic nucleus. It can be caused by stroke or trauma and can be treated with medication, rehabilitation, or surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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During a Neurology rotation, a Foundation Year 1 (FY1) witnessed a physical examination where the neurologist conducted palpation on the pterion of the skull to check for a pulse. What is the name of the blood vessel that the neurologist was palpating for?
Your Answer: Middle meningeal artery
Correct Answer: Superficial temporal artery
Explanation:Palpable and Non-Palpable Blood Vessels in the Head and Neck Region
The head and neck region contains several blood vessels that can be palpated or felt through the skin, while others are located intracranially and cannot be palpated. Here are some of the blood vessels in the head and neck region and their characteristics:
Superficial Temporal Artery
The superficial temporal artery is located superficially to the pterion, which is the bony area of the skull where the frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones meet. Loss of pulsation in this area may indicate giant cell arthritis, an inflammatory condition of large arteries that can cause temple pain, jaw claudication, and sudden-onset blindness. Diagnosis is done through a biopsy of the temporal artery, and treatment involves high-dose steroids and biologics.Facial Artery
The facial artery can be felt as it crosses the inferior border of the mandible near the anterior margin of the masseter muscle.Middle Meningeal Artery
The anterior division of the middle meningeal artery is located under the pterion, but it cannot be palpated because of its intracranial position.Common Carotid Artery
The common carotid artery is located in the neck and can be felt in the anterior triangle of the neck, along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.Middle Meningeal Vein
The middle meningeal vein accompanies the middle meningeal artery, but it cannot be palpated because it is located intracranially.In summary, some blood vessels in the head and neck region can be palpated, while others are located intracranially and cannot be felt through the skin. Understanding the location and characteristics of these blood vessels is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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In which condition is a stiff neck not present in a toddler?
Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Measles
Explanation:Complications of Measles and Other Causes of Neck Stiffness
Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to various complications. These include respiratory problems such as croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and pneumonitis. Measles can also cause conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis, which occurs in 1 in 1000-2000 cases. Additionally, measles can make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia.
Apart from measles, other conditions can also cause neck stiffness. For instance, the involvement of the cervical spine in the arthritis of Still’s disease may lead to neck stiffness. Tuberculosis (TB) may cause tuberculous meningitis or Pott’s disease, both of which can cause neck stiffness. Another recognized cause of neck stiffness with an extended neck is retropharyngeal abscess.
In summary, measles can lead to various complications, including respiratory problems, conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis. It can also make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia. Other conditions such as Still’s disease, TB, and retropharyngeal abscess can also cause neck stiffness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with unsteadiness on her feet and frequent falls of two days’ duration.
On examination, she is noted to have loss of sensation and weakness of the proximal and distal muscles of the left lower limb. Her upper limbs and face have no weakness or sensory deficit.
Her GP refers her to the nearest Stroke Unit for assessment and management. Computed tomography (CT) scan confirms a thromboembolic cerebrovascular accident.
Which vessel is most likely to have been involved?Your Answer: The right anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch
Correct Answer: The left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch
Explanation:Understanding the Role of Cerebral Arteries in Neurological Symptoms
When assessing neurological symptoms, it is important to consider the involvement of different cerebral arteries. In the case of right-sided weakness and lower limb involvement without upper limb or facial signs, the left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch is likely affected. This artery supplies the medial aspect of the frontal and parietal lobes, which includes the primary motor and sensory cortices for the lower limb and distal trunk.
On the other hand, a left posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion is unlikely as it would not cause upper limb involvement or visual symptoms. Similarly, a right anterior cerebral artery distal occlusion would result in left-sided weakness and sensory loss in the lower limb.
A main stem occlusion in the left middle cerebral artery would present with right-sided upper limb and facial weakness, as well as speech and auditory comprehension difficulties due to involvement of Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas.
Finally, a right posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion would cause visual field defects and contralateral loss of sensation, but not peripheral weakness on the right-hand side. Understanding the role of cerebral arteries in neurological symptoms can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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