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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old man returned from a vacation visiting his parents in Pakistan on...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man returned from a vacation visiting his parents in Pakistan on a long-haul flight 4 weeks ago. He is experiencing a persistent productive cough, haemoptysis and night sweats.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Persistent cough, haemoptysis, night sweats, and fever are classic symptoms of tuberculosis (TB), which accounts for 60% of respiratory cases in the UK. Acute bronchitis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a viral infection and resolves without treatment within three weeks. Lung cancer may present with productive cough and haemoptysis, but the patient’s age and immigrant status make TB more likely. Pulmonary embolism is a minor risk factor in this case, and whooping cough is a respiratory tract infection that affects both children and adults. Paroxysmal coughing followed by a whoop is a characteristic feature of whooping cough. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when making a differential diagnosis of respiratory symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a patient infected with the hepatitis C virus.
      Select the single most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer: Test for anti-HCV at 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: Test for HCV RNA at 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Transmission and Treatment of Hepatitis C

      Hepatitis C virus is not as easily transmitted through a needlestick as hepatitis B virus, with a risk of transmission estimated at only 3%. Currently, there is no post-exposure vaccine available and neither immunoglobulin nor any antiviral agent has been proven effective in preventing transmission. Studies have shown that high anti-HCV titre immunoglobulin did not prevent transmission. Healthcare workers exposed to a source known to be positive for anti-HCV or HCV RNA should have their serum tested for HCV RNA at 6 and 12 weeks and for anti-HCV at 12 and 24 weeks.

      In the treatment of hepatitis C infection, peg-interferon α and ribavirin are commonly used. These treatments have been found to be particularly effective in people infected with virus of genotypes 2 and 3.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 3 - As part of a medication review for a 75-year-old patient, who had a...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a medication review for a 75-year-old patient, who had a previous admission complicated by C. difficile infection, which of the following commonly prescribed medications should be potentially discontinued due to its association with an increased risk of C. difficile infection?

      Your Answer: Ferrous fumarate

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) have been identified as a risk factor for C. difficile infection (CDI), with evidence suggesting that they increase the likelihood of infection more than H2 antagonists. As a result, patients with CDI or those at high risk of infection, such as those who have previously experienced CDI, should have their use of PPIs reviewed. Other factors that increase the risk of CDI include advancing age, the use of antibiotics (especially broad-spectrum antibiotics and multiple courses), inflammatory bowel disease, extended hospital stays, immunosuppression, and gastrointestinal surgery.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old man returns from a 4-month voluntary placement teaching in Malawi. At...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man returns from a 4-month voluntary placement teaching in Malawi. At the end of his trip he spent 2 weeks on holiday on the shores of Lake Malawi. He tells you that he was quite well while on holiday, apart from severe pruritus, which he assumed was due to insect bites, but over the last 2 weeks he has had macroscopic haematuria. He has no other symptoms of note. His blood pressure is 120/80. He attended the nurse minor injuries unit over the previous weekend and was given trimethoprim with no obvious benefit.
      Select the single most appropriate initial management of this patient.

      Your Answer: Request urine microscopy to exclude schistosomiasis

      Explanation:

      Schistosomiasis: A Parasitic Disease Endemic in Africa and Asia

      Schistosomiasis is a parasitic disease that is endemic in many parts of Africa and Asia. It is caused by trematodes that spend part of their life cycle in aquatic snails. The primary mode of infection in humans is through swimming or wading in water. The disease can cause haematuria or bloody diarrhoea, and in some cases, a systemic reaction known as Katayama fever.

      Chronic schistosomiasis can be difficult to diagnose as it may present months to years after exposure. It should be suspected in anyone with unexplained haematuria or bloody diarrhoea who has been exposed to water in endemic areas. If suspected, microscopy for eggs should be requested on urine or stool.

      Untreated schistosomiasis can lead to bladder cancer, strictures, chronic liver disease, portal hypertension, and pulmonary hypertension. Treatment is with praziquantel. Schistosomiasis is the third most prevalent parasitic disease in the world and has a significant impact on human health, second only to malaria among tropical diseases.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 5 - A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath. He has been experiencing a dry cough for the past two weeks. He works as a financial analyst and drinks about 15 units of alcohol per week. He recently went on a trip to Amsterdam with his friends. He has also developed a skin rash consisting of pink rings with pale centers.

      Upon admission, his blood work shows:
      - Sodium: 129 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
      - Urea: 8.5 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 155 µmol/L

      A chest x-ray reveals diffuse reticular infiltrates and a small left-sided pleural effusion. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Typical presentation of mycoplasma pneumonia includes flu-like symptoms that progressively worsen and a dry cough. During examination, the patient may exhibit erythema multiforme, indicating the presence of the infection. This type of pneumonia is commonly acquired within the community. Although Streptococcus pneumoniae is also a possible cause, it is not the focus of this particular case.

      Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.

      Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old nursing student asks if she should be vaccinated against Chickenpox. She...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old nursing student asks if she should be vaccinated against Chickenpox. She cannot recall having had the disease, although her mother tells her that she thinks her siblings have had it.
      Select the single most appropriate course of action in this situation.

      Your Answer: Test for varicella antibodies and, if negative, vaccinate her

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox Immunisation for Healthcare Workers

      Most children in the UK will develop Chickenpox during their childhood, and it is rare for a child to avoid the disease if their siblings have it. However, for healthcare workers, it is important to be immune to prevent the spread of the disease to patients, especially those who are immunocompromised. To determine immunity, a varicella antibody test should be conducted. If the test is negative, the individual should be vaccinated with a live attenuated vaccine, as recommended by the Green Book guidelines. It is important to note that the vaccine is contraindicated for those who are immunocompromised themselves. While there are currently no plans to make Chickenpox immunisation routine for British children, healthcare workers and those in contact with immunocompromised individuals should take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of the disease.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 7 - Your practice manager is ordering influenza vaccinations for the forthcoming vaccination programme ahead...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice manager is ordering influenza vaccinations for the forthcoming vaccination programme ahead of the winter. She asks you about storage of the intranasal influenza vaccination for adults.
      Which of the following is the correct advice to give?

      Your Answer: The nasal applicator can be stored at room temperature (up to 25°C) but the vaccine itself should be stored separately between 0 and +4°C

      Correct Answer: It should be stored specifically between +2°C and +8°C in line with the storage of the intramuscular influenza vaccines

      Explanation:

      Vaccine Storage and Sensitivity

      To maintain the potency and effectiveness of vaccines, it is important to store them properly. Vaccines can be sensitive to changes in temperature and exposure to light, which can reduce their shelf life and potency. Excessive heat can cause a decline in potency, while freezing can increase reactogenicity and reduce vaccine potency. Freezing can also lead to cracks in vaccine containers, which can result in contamination.

      The nasal influenza vaccine should be stored between +2°C and +8°C and protected from light, similar to the intramuscular influenza vaccine. Refrigeration with close temperature monitoring is necessary to achieve this. However, the nasal influenza vaccine can be left out of the refrigerator for up to 12 hours before use, as long as it is not exposed to temperatures above 25°C. If it has not been used within 12 hours, it should be disposed of rather than re-refrigerated for future use. Proper vaccine storage is crucial to ensure their effectiveness and safety.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman complains of discharging itchy eyes.
    Select from the list the single...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman complains of discharging itchy eyes.
      Select from the list the single feature that would most suggest a bacterial cause.

      Your Answer: Eyes glued together in the morning by discharge

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conjunctivitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Conjunctivitis, commonly known as pink eye, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin layer that covers the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. While viral conjunctivitis is more common in children, bacterial conjunctivitis is less common but more prevalent in adults. The most common causes of bacterial conjunctivitis are Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and Moraxella catarrhalis, while adenovirus is the most common cause of viral conjunctivitis.

      Symptoms of bacterial conjunctivitis include itchy eyes, mucopurulent discharge, and a positive history of infectious conjunctivitis. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a watery discharge and the presence of follicles. Bacterial conjunctivitis is usually bilateral, but if symptoms persist on one side, a review of the diagnosis is necessary.

      There is an ongoing debate about the use of antibiotics in treating bacterial conjunctivitis, as the condition is self-limiting, and the benefits of antibiotics are marginal. Current guidelines do not recommend staying away from school or work.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for conjunctivitis is crucial in managing the condition effectively. If you experience any of the symptoms mentioned above, seek medical attention promptly to receive the appropriate treatment.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection and...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection and is prescribed a course of amoxicillin. She comes back after 2 weeks with complaints of dysuria, pruritus vulvae, and a white vaginal discharge.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vulvovaginal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Treating Vulvovaginal Candidiasis

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is a common condition that affects approximately 75% of women in their reproductive years. It is caused by an overgrowth of yeast in the vaginal area and can be triggered by various factors such as pregnancy, diabetes, and the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. While routine culture is not necessary for diagnosis, it is important to rule out underlying conditions such as type 2 diabetes in older women.

      Treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis typically involves the use of topical or oral antifungal medications such as azoles or triazoles. In cases where an azole has failed, nystatin may be more effective, especially if the infection is caused by Candida glabrata rather than Candida albicans. It is also important to note that approximately 10% of women with vulvovaginal candidiasis have a mixed infection with bacteria, which may require additional testing and treatment.

      Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for vulvovaginal candidiasis can help women effectively manage this common condition.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 10 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presents to you with a 1 week...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presents to you with a 1 week history of fever, right sided abdominal pain and general malaise. She has no significant past medical history and has recently travelled to South America, returning 4 weeks ago. During examination, Sarah is found to be pyrexial. She complains of pain in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen and there is hepatomegaly.

      Upon further questioning, Sarah states that she is not sexually active and denies any history of intravenous drug use. Liver function tests reveal a significantly raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and alkaline phosphatase (ALP). A full liver screen confirms the diagnosis.

      Sarah is prescribed medication for symptomatic management and she makes a full recovery within 3 months.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Acute hepatitis A is characterized by symptoms similar to those of other forms of acute viral hepatitis, including flu-like symptoms, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly, and abnormal liver function tests. It is difficult to differentiate hepatitis A from other forms of viral hepatitis based on medical history, physical examination, or routine laboratory tests. However, a history of exposure or risk factors, such as travel to regions with high prevalence, can increase suspicion. Unlike hepatitis C and D, which are transmitted through blood, hepatitis A is transmitted through the fecal-oral route.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old patient has a 3-day history of general malaise associated with nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient has a 3-day history of general malaise associated with nausea, diarrhoea and headache. On examination the patient looks unwell and has red/bluish petechiae on the extensor surfaces of both legs that do not blanch on pressure.
      Select the single most important immediate management option.

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Prehospital Antibiotic Treatment for Suspected Meningococcal Infection

      Health authorities in many countries recommend that general practitioners initiate prehospital antibiotic treatment, such as benzylpenicillin, in suspected cases of meningococcal infection. The primary objective of this strategy is to halt the rapid growth of meningococci in the bloodstream before intravascular inflammation becomes irreversible or causes severe complications. Patients who live far from the hospital and experience rapidly progressing symptoms, resulting in compromised circulation and extensive haemorrhagic skin lesions, are most likely to benefit from this approach if implemented early enough. Retrospective studies conducted in England and Wales indicate that prehospital penicillin treatment can reduce case fatality. In cases of penicillin allergy, cefotaxime is a viable alternative.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that has not responded to penicillin. On examination his temperature is 38.8 °C, he has grey plaques on his tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. You ask for a Monospot® test (test for heterophile antibody).
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the heterophile antibody test.

      Your Answer: Antibody titres correlate with the severity of the disease

      Correct Answer: It may be negative early in the course of the disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Monospot® Test for Infectious Mononucleosis

      The Monospot® test is a rapid diagnostic tool used to detect infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. This test is based on the detection of heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to the virus. While the test is highly specific, it may not be sensitive during the incubation period or early stages of the illness. Additionally, the test doesn’t correlate with the severity of the disease and may not be positive after active infection has subsided.

      The Monospot® test relies on the agglutination of horse red blood cells by heterophile antibodies in the patient’s serum. An alternative test, the Paul-Bunnell test, uses sheep red blood cells. However, heterophile antibody tests may be less sensitive in children under 12 years of age and may produce false-negative results in young children and elderly patients. False-positive results may also occur due to other infections, malignancies, or connective tissue diseases.

      In summary, the Monospot® test is a useful tool for diagnosing infectious mononucleosis, but it should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP after discovering a tick on her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP after discovering a tick on her right arm following a hike in the woods. She reports feeling fine and there is no apparent rash upon inspection.

      What is the optimal method for removing the tick?

      Your Answer: Fine-tipped tweezers

      Explanation:

      To effectively remove a tick, it is best to use fine-tipped tweezers. The tick should be grasped as close to the skin as possible and pulled upwards with firm pressure. It is important to avoid using blunt-nose tweezers, petroleum jelly, or heat from a hot match as these methods can increase the risk of infection or cause the tick to regurgitate into the bite. After removal, the area should be thoroughly cleaned.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 14 - A 4-year-old girl has developed diarrhoea and vomiting, in common with many of...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl has developed diarrhoea and vomiting, in common with many of the children at her preschool. When you examine her she seems mildly unwell but there are no signs of sepsis or significant dehydration.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding her management.

      Your Answer: He should stay away from nursery until 2 days after his symptoms have settled

      Explanation:

      Childhood Diarrhoea: Causes and Treatment

      Childhood diarrhoea is commonly caused by viruses, with rotavirus being the most prevalent. Other viruses such as norovirus, echoviruses, and enteroviruses can also cause diarrhoea. Rotavirus causes outbreaks of diarrhoea and vomiting during the winter and spring, affecting mainly children under 1 year old. Adults usually have some immunity to the virus, but the elderly can be susceptible. Rotavirus vaccine is now included in childhood vaccination programmes. Ciprofloxacin is not recommended for children and is ineffective against viruses. Loperamide can reduce the duration of diarrhoea, but its adverse effects are unclear and it should not be prescribed. According to NICE guidance, children should avoid school or nursery for at least 48 hours after their symptoms have settled and avoid public swimming pools for 2 weeks. Childhood diarrhoea can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment and prevention measures.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday to Spain with diarrhoea. This began...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday to Spain with diarrhoea. This began on the third night of a long weekend trip to Madrid. She has been opening her bowels more than eight times per day over the past 24 hours. There had been associated nausea which was stopping her from maintaining an adequate fluid intake, but she is now tolerating fluids by mouth.

      On examination her BP is 130/78 lying, and 126/76 standing with a corresponding increase in her pulse rate. Her mouth looks dry and she has poor skin turgor. Her abdomen is soft and minimally tender and there are very active bowel sounds.

      Which one of the following represents the most appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer: Admission for IV rehydration

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Travellers’ Diarrhoea

      Travellers’ diarrhoea is commonly caused by E. coli and typically lasts for 72 hours. In healthy individuals, oral rehydration salts and paracetamol can effectively manage the symptoms. However, if the patient is unable to tolerate oral fluids and is significantly dehydrated, hospital admission may be necessary.

      In severe cases of campylobacter or salmonella, where the patient is already weakened by chronic illness, ciprofloxacin may be prescribed. Meanwhile, metronidazole may be used as an option for giardiasis.

      It is important to note that travellers’ diarrhoea can be prevented by practicing good hygiene, such as washing hands frequently and avoiding contaminated food and water sources.

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  • Question 16 - A 6-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a fever and headache. Upon examination, the child appears ill, with a central capillary refill of 4 seconds, a heart rate of 150 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 45 breaths/min, a temperature of 38ºC, and a non-blanching rash on his right leg and torso.

      What is the recommended course of action for the parents?

      Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old previously healthy medical student presents to his GP a few weeks...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old previously healthy medical student presents to his GP a few weeks after returning from his elective in South America. He reports experiencing ongoing watery diarrhea and has observed some weight loss. Despite submitting a stool sample, the results come back negative. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis: A Common Cause of Traveller’s Diarrhoea

      Giardiasis is a type of infection caused by the flagellate protozoan Giardia lamblia, which is usually acquired from contaminated water supplies. The infection is spread through the faecal-oral route and typically causes watery diarrhoea. Unlike other types of diarrhoea, giardiasis doesn’t cause haemorrhagic diarrhoea.

      Diagnosing giardiasis can be difficult, even when looking for cysts in stool cultures, which are frequently negative. As a result, repetitive samples are often required. Chronic infection can lead to malabsorption, and a duodenal biopsy can demonstrate partial villous atrophy. The infection is treated with metronidazole.

      Traveller’s diarrhoea in a previously healthy person with a negative stool sample is a typical presentation of giardiasis. While Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis can also present in this way, even without abdominal pain or bloody diarrhoea, the travel history makes giardiasis a much more likely diagnosis. Amoebic dysentery and shigellosis, on the other hand, typically cause profuse, bloody diarrhoea.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 18 - You are working at a prestigious clinic in the south of England and...

    Incorrect

    • You are working at a prestigious clinic in the south of England and your next patient is a 37-year-old male. He expresses his concern about having Lyme disease after reading an online article. He reports experiencing intermittent malaise, joint aches, muscle aches, and headaches for the past two years. He also mentions having swollen cervical lymph glands and feeling hot and sweaty at night. As an avid hiker and mountain-biker, he believes he may have been bitten by ticks in the past. However, he denies ever having a rash like erythema migrans. What would be your initial approach to managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Watchful waiting

      Correct Answer: Perform ELISA

      Explanation:

      When there is suspicion of Lyme disease in a patient without a history of erythema migrans, ELISA is the recommended initial investigation according to NICE Guidance. If the ELISA result is positive, immunoblot should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. However, if there is a high suspicion of Lyme disease despite the absence of erythema migrans, treatment should be initiated while waiting for the ELISA result. In patients with erythema migrans, treatment should be started immediately. The patient’s symptoms may not be specific to Lyme disease, but ELISA is still the first-line investigation.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her rheumatoid arthritis is planning a 4-week holiday to a remote jungle region of Asia. She has completed her childhood vaccination programme and received a polio booster six years ago. However, she has heard that she requires further travel vaccinations. Her travel agent has suggested the items below, but she is a bit concerned about the safety of these given her medical history.
      Which vaccine would be contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Considerations for Immunocompromised Individuals

      Live vaccines, such as rubella, measles, mumps, BCG, yellow fever, and oral polio vaccine, should not be administered to individuals who are immunocompromised. However, the hepatitis, typhoid Vi, and tetanus vaccines, which are formaldehyde-inactivated virus, polysaccharide antigen, and adsorbed toxoid, respectively, pose no risk to these individuals. Although their efficacy may be reduced in immunocompromised individuals, inactivated polio vaccine is available if needed. It is important to note that polio has been eradicated in the Americas since 1991. The main concern for immunocompromised individuals is the yellow fever vaccine.

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  • Question 20 - Giuseppe is a 39-year-old man who has been advised by a colleague that...

    Correct

    • Giuseppe is a 39-year-old man who has been advised by a colleague that immunisations should be offered to men who have sex with men (MSM).

      Giuseppe has been in a relationship with his boyfriend for the past 6 months and has another male sexual partner.

      What immunisations should Giuseppe be recommended for?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Men who engage in sexual activity with other men should be offered immunization against hepatitis A, according to the Green Book guidelines. It is recommended that MSM with multiple sexual partners be informed about the risks of hepatitis A and the importance of maintaining good personal hygiene. Immunization should be offered to these individuals, especially during periods of outbreaks. Additionally, MSM should also be offered vaccination for hepatitis B and HPV. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C, hepatitis D, gonorrhea, or genital herpes. However, these STIs can be treated with medication.

      Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.

      While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).

      It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.

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  • Question 21 - The practice nurse is seeking advice on malaria prophylaxis for a 26-year-old female...

    Incorrect

    • The practice nurse is seeking advice on malaria prophylaxis for a 26-year-old female patient who is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception and has a history of anxiety treated with sertraline two years ago. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer: Barrier methods should be used in addition to the combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Mefloquine may not be prescribed due to the history of anxiety

      Explanation:

      Strengthened Warnings on the Neuropsychiatric Side-Effects of Mefloquine

      Mefloquine, also known as Lariam, is a medication used for the prevention and treatment of certain types of malaria. However, there has been a long-standing concern about its potential neuropsychiatric side-effects. Recently, a review has led to the strengthening of warnings regarding these risks.

      Patients taking mefloquine may experience side-effects such as nightmares or anxiety, which could be a sign of a more serious neuropsychiatric event. There have also been reports of suicide and deliberate self-harm in patients taking this medication. Adverse reactions may persist for several months due to the long half-life of mefloquine.

      It is important to note that mefloquine should not be used in patients with a history of anxiety, depression, schizophrenia, or other psychiatric disorders. If patients experience any neuropsychiatric side-effects while taking mefloquine, they should stop the medication and seek medical advice. These warnings aim to ensure the safe use of mefloquine in the prevention and treatment of malaria.

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  • Question 22 - A 19-year-old male student presents with a purulent urethral discharge and tests positive...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male student presents with a purulent urethral discharge and tests positive for Chlamydia. He has had a number of partners over the past 12 months. Who should be contacted as part of routine contact tracing?

      Your Answer: All partners from the 4 weeks prior to the onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      For symptomatic men, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the 4 weeks before the onset of symptoms. For women and asymptomatic men, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the last 6 months or the most recent sexual partner.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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  • Question 23 - What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)? ...

    Correct

    • What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)?

      Your Answer: Deranged liver function is common in infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Infectious Mononucleosis: Symptoms, Transmission, and Complications

      Infectious mononucleosis, commonly known as mono, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). While many patients may not show any symptoms, studies suggest that 90% of people over the age of 25 have antibodies to EBV. The virus is transmitted through droplet exchange and can continue to be excreted for several months.

      Symptoms of mono include deranged liver function, mild hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly, which can cause tenderness over the spleen. Jaundice is rare in young adults but can occur in up to 30% of infected elderly patients. It is important for patients to avoid contact sports for at least a month after infection to prevent the risk of splenic rupture.

      It is crucial to note that ampicillin and amoxicillin should not be given to any patient who may have infectious mononucleosis, as they can cause an itchy maculopapular rash. The illness is typically self-limiting and of short duration, but fatigue and myalgia may persist for several months after the acute infection has resolved.

      In conclusion, infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection that can cause various symptoms and complications. It is important to take precautions to prevent transmission and seek medical attention if symptoms persist.

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  • Question 24 - A 24-year-old woman has plantar warts. Her mother has read that they are...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman has plantar warts. Her mother has read that they are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). She is aware of the link with cervical cancer and is concerned.
      Select from the list the type of HPV infection that is most commonly associated with the development of cervical cancer.

      Your Answer: Plantar warts

      Correct Answer: Asymptomatic infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Human Papillomavirus (HPV) and its Association with Cancer

      Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a virus that infects the skin and mucosae of the upper respiratory and anogenital tracts. With about 100 types of HPV, 40 of them infect the genital tract. HPV is classified as either ‘high-risk’ or ‘low-risk’ types, depending on their association with cancer. HPV16 is responsible for over 50% of all cervical cancers, while HPV18 is responsible for over 15%. Although most high-risk infections are transient and cause no clinical problems, persistent infection by a high-risk HPV type is the most important factor for the development of cancer. Types 6 and 11 are associated with anogenital warts and are included in one of the HPV vaccines (Gardasil®) along with types 16 and 18. It is recommended that individuals receive the HPV vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.

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  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old girl from the travelling community comes to you with a 4-day...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl from the travelling community comes to you with a 4-day history of fever, myalgia, malaise, and headache. She reports that her face has been swelling for the past two days and the pain has increased while chewing food. Upon examination, you notice that her parotid glands are tender and bilaterally swollen. Her temperature is 38.5ºC, heart rate 120 beats/minute, and blood pressure 110/70 mmHg. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Supportive treatment- advise rest, fluids and simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is suffering from mumps, which may be more prevalent in travelling communities due to lower vaccination rates. Supportive care is the recommended treatment for mumps, as antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and steroids are not advised. While immediate vaccination is not necessary for this patient, it may be beneficial to assess their immunisation status for other diseases such as rubella and measles and administer appropriate vaccinations. Additionally, those who have been in contact with the patient should be offered the measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine. Hospitalisation is not required. This information is sourced from NICE CKS Mumps.

      Understanding Mumps: Causes, Symptoms, Prevention, and Management

      Mumps is a viral infection caused by RNA paramyxovirus that typically occurs during the winter and spring seasons. The virus spreads through droplets and affects respiratory tract epithelial cells, parotid glands, and other tissues. The infection is contagious, and a person can be infectious seven days before and nine days after the onset of parotid swelling. The incubation period for mumps is usually 14-21 days.

      The clinical features of mumps include fever, malaise, and muscular pain. The most common symptom is parotitis, which causes earache and pain while eating. Initially, the swelling is unilateral, but it becomes bilateral in around 70% of cases.

      Prevention of mumps is possible through the MMR vaccine, which has an efficacy rate of around 80%. Management of mumps involves rest and the use of paracetamol to alleviate high fever and discomfort. Mumps is a notifiable disease, and healthcare professionals must report cases to the relevant authorities.

      Complications of mumps include orchitis, which is uncommon in pre-pubertal males but occurs in around 25-35% of post-pubertal males. It typically occurs four or five days after the onset of parotitis. Other complications include hearing loss, meningoencephalitis, and pancreatitis.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, prevention, and management of mumps is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection and minimizing its complications. Vaccination and early diagnosis are essential in controlling the disease.

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  • Question 26 - An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to have >100,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli/ml urine during a routine health examination.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Treat with oral trimethoprim for 3 days

      Correct Answer: No antibiotics are indicated

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic Bacteriuria and Treatment Considerations

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common occurrence in non-pregnant women, affecting approximately 3% of the population. While it doesn’t require treatment as it poses no risk of morbidity or mortality, treatment may increase the frequency of symptomatic infections. However, treatment is necessary if there are comorbid factors such as diabetes, renal transplantation, invasive GU investigations, or a renal stone.

      Pregnancy is an absolute indication for treatment as asymptomatic bacteriuria increases the risk of pyelonephritis, pre-eclampsia, prematurity, and perinatal death. However, a single finding of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not an indication for renal tract investigation.

      For individuals with long-term urinary catheters in place, administering antibiotics may cause additional problems. These patients invariably have bacteriuria, and the bacteria may be more difficult to treat, leading to the development of a yeast infection. Therefore, treatment considerations should be carefully evaluated in such cases.

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  • Question 27 - A 23-year-old nurse is undergoing communicable disease immunity screening before starting work. The...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old nurse is undergoing communicable disease immunity screening before starting work. The test results are as follows:

      - Negative for HBsAg
      - Positive for anti-HBs
      - Positive for anti-HBc (IgG)

      What is the nurse's hepatitis B status based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Resolved infection - natural immunity

      Explanation:

      The patient has evidence of a past hepatitis B infection that has been resolved. This is indicated by the absence of hepatitis B surface antigen and the presence of positive anti-HBs and IgG anti-HBc. It is important to note that natural immunity is demonstrated by the presence of both anti-HBs and anti-HBc, while artificial immunity is only indicated by positive anti-HBs. The patient is not currently infected and is not a carrier.

      Understanding Hepatitis B Serology

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology can be a challenging task, but it is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its absence suggests acute disease.

      Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either from exposure or vaccination. It is negative in chronic disease.

      Anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and lasts for about six months, while IgG anti-HBc persists.

      HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication. It results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      For example, if someone has previously been immunized against hepatitis B, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B in the past but are not carriers, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now carriers, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive.

      In summary, understanding hepatitis B serology requires careful interpretation of various markers and their combinations. By doing so, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage this potentially serious condition.

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  • Question 28 - Conjunctivitis has only one correct statement. What is it? ...

    Incorrect

    • Conjunctivitis has only one correct statement. What is it?

      Your Answer: It should be treated with antibiotic eye drops

      Correct Answer: Simple bacterial conjunctivitis commonly resolves without treatment

      Explanation:

      Managing Conjunctivitis in Children: Antibiotics Not Always Necessary

      As of April 2010, ophthalmia neonatorum is no longer a notifiable disease. A randomized controlled trial published in the Lancet in 2005 compared placebo with chloramphenicol drops in children with conjunctivitis and concluded that prescribing antibiotic drops for conjunctivitis in children should be stopped. Instead, children should be advised to keep the eye clean and return for review if no better after one week. The Health Professionals Alliance’s guidance on infection control in schools and other childcare settings doesn’t recommend any time away for children with conjunctivitis. Simple bacterial conjunctivitis usually lasts 10-14 days and is self-limiting. A review if no better at one week to exclude corneal involvement or other complications is recommended. Adenoviral conjunctivitis is highly contagious and often rapidly becomes bilateral.

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  • Question 29 - A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is pregnant with twins wants advice about air travel while pregnant. It will be a ten-hour flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.

      What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated twin pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 37 of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 28 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Flying while pregnant with twins

      When it comes to flying while pregnant with twins, there are certain restrictions that airlines impose. Unlike a single, uncomplicated pregnancy where the limit is week 37, most airlines will not allow pregnant women carrying twins or more to fly after week 32. This is due to the increased risks of certain medical conditions while travelling in the air that are compounded by pregnancy, as well as the higher risk of going into labor.

      Aside from these restrictions, pregnant women should also be advised on DVT prophylaxis, especially for flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, in-seat exercises, keeping hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.

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  • Question 30 - What is the single correct statement about the management of Chickenpox? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the single correct statement about the management of Chickenpox?

      Your Answer: All pregnant women who have contact with Chickenpox should be treated with aciclovir to avoid congenital Chickenpox infection

      Correct Answer: Children on long-term steroids should be treated with aciclovir at the onset of the rash

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of Varicella Infections in Different Populations

      Varicella, commonly known as Chickenpox, is a viral infection that primarily affects children. In healthy children, treatment is not necessary unless they are systemically unwell, which may indicate a bacterial infection. However, immunocompromised individuals should be treated at the first signs of disease.

      For healthy individuals at increased risk of severe varicella infections, such as those older than 14 years, oral acyclovir may be considered. This medication, taken at a dose of 800 mg five times a day for seven days, can reduce the duration of lesions and other symptoms.

      Pregnant women who are not immune to varicella are at risk of passing the infection to their children. The infectivity period lasts from a few days before the onset of lesions until the lesions crust over. School exclusion is typically required for five days.

      Overall, understanding the appropriate treatment and prevention measures for varicella infections in different populations is crucial for managing this common childhood illness.

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  • Question 31 - A 42-year-old man comes back from a two week business trip to Kenya....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes back from a two week business trip to Kenya. Six weeks after his return, he visits his GP with complaints of malaise, headaches, and night sweats. During the examination, the doctor observes a symmetrical erythematous macular rash on his trunk and limbs along with cervical and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dengue fever

      Correct Answer: Acute HIV infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion

      HIV seroconversion is a process that occurs in individuals who have been recently infected with the virus. It is characterized by symptoms that resemble those of glandular fever, such as sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, and mouth ulcers. In some rare cases, it can also lead to meningoencephalitis. The severity of the symptoms is associated with the long-term prognosis of the patient, with more severe symptoms indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Diagnosing HIV seroconversion can be challenging, as antibodies to the virus may not be present in the early stages of infection. However, HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the process of HIV seroconversion is crucial for early detection and treatment of the virus, as well as for preventing its spread to others. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking medical attention promptly, individuals can receive the care they need to manage the virus and improve their long-term outcomes.

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  • Question 32 - A 19-year-old man is concerned about blood-borne viruses after getting a tattoo while...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man is concerned about blood-borne viruses after getting a tattoo while backpacking abroad. He wants to get tested for HIV and hepatitis B and C, but you advise him that the tests may not show any infection yet. When should he return for an HIV blood test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to conduct HIV testing in asymptomatic patients 4 weeks after a potential exposure. This is the optimal time frame for detecting most infections through tests for antibodies and p24 antigen. Additionally, it may be beneficial to perform an HIV test upon presentation in case of a prior infection (although 1 week may be too soon for detection), and a follow-up test at 12 weeks should be offered to confirm the absence of infection.

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

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  • Question 33 - A 32-year-old traveller returned from the tropics 5 days ago. She felt unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old traveller returned from the tropics 5 days ago. She felt unwell on the plane, complaining of headache, loss of appetite and sweats. Her temperature was 39.5°C 2 days ago; however, it is now normal.
      Select the most appropriate investigation.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeated thick and thin blood smears

      Explanation:

      Malaria: Diagnosis and Management

      Malaria is a febrile illness caused by Plasmodium species, which can lead to periodic febrile paroxysms every 48 or 72 hours, with asymptomatic intervals and a tendency to relapse. The symptoms and signs of malaria are nonspecific, making it difficult to diagnose. Therefore, it is important to exclude malaria by conducting repeated thick and thin blood smears in patients with acute fever and a history of exposure. If the patient is severely ill or symptoms persist, a therapeutic trial of antimalarial chemotherapy should not be delayed. This article discusses the diagnosis and management of malaria.

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  • Question 34 - influenza is a viral respiratory illness that can cause mild to severe symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • influenza is a viral respiratory illness that can cause mild to severe symptoms and can lead to complications such as pneumonia.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aerosol transmission can occur before the onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Understanding influenza: From Epidemics to Pandemics

      influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a highly contagious respiratory illness caused by influenza viruses. The incubation period of influenza is typically two days, but can range from one to four days. Aerosol transmission may occur one day before the onset of symptoms, making it easy for the virus to spread.

      Up to 15% of the population can develop influenza in any given year, with an average of 50-200 GP consultations for influenza or flu-like illnesses per 100,000 of the population per week. An epidemic is declared when the GP consultation rate for new cases of influenza or flu-like illness exceeds 400 per 100,000 population per week.

      Clinicians usually diagnose influenza based on clinical criteria alone when the virus is circulating in the community. Investigations are typically reserved for community surveillance purposes.

      The influenza virus undergoes minor mutations to one or both of its surface antigens, known as antigenic drift. This causes seasonal epidemics, where people have only partial immunity from previous infection or vaccination. As a result, the vaccine requires annual changes.

      An influenza pandemic is an epidemic of an influenza virus that spreads on a worldwide scale and infects a large proportion of the human population. This occurs due to the emergence of influenza A virus that is genetically significantly different from the circulating human influenza A viruses, known as antigenic shift. These pandemics occur irregularly, with the 1918 Spanish flu being the most serious pandemic in history with a high mortality.

      Understanding the nature of influenza, from its epidemics to pandemics, is crucial in developing effective prevention and control strategies.

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  • Question 35 - A 32-year-old construction worker presents to the clinic after being bitten by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker presents to the clinic after being bitten by a dog on his left hand. What would be the most suitable antibiotic treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.

      On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.

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  • Question 36 - A 35-year-old man has multiple, painful, vesicles and erosions on an erythematous base...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has multiple, painful, vesicles and erosions on an erythematous base in an area on the left side of the abdomen corresponding to the T10 dermatome. Lesions have been present for a week. He had similar lesions on the opposite flank 18 months before. He also has a solitary verrucous papule on the shaft of the penis. He has had multiple unprotected sexual exposures with commercial sex workers.
      Select from the list the single most important investigation in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV test

      Explanation:

      Unusual Symptoms and Recommended Tests for a Man with Recurrent Shingles and Penile Wart

      The man in question is experiencing a recurrent attack of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, which is an unusual occurrence. This symptom is often associated with HIV infection, where opportunistic infections become prevalent as the disease progresses. Other symptoms that may occur include oral candida, oral hairy leukoplakia, recurrent ulcerating herpes simplex, seborrhoeic dermatitis, tinea infections, warts, and molluscum contagiosum.

      To screen for syphilis, a treponemal enzyme immunoassay for immunoglobulin M (EIA IgM) test is recommended. Additionally, a full sexual health screen should be offered to the patient, along with an HIV test. It is important to note that the patient will already have varicella zoster IgG from their original Chickenpox infection.

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  • Question 37 - A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up after being hospitalized for erysipelas of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up after being hospitalized for erysipelas of his leg. He was feeling ill and needed intravenous antibiotics. He is now finishing his course of oral antibiotics. He has no reported allergies to medications.

      What medication is expected to be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      For individuals with cellulitis or erysipelas, an antibiotic is necessary. These conditions are characterized by acute inflammation and swelling, with erysipelas having more superficial lesions with a distinct raised margin.

      When selecting an antibiotic, consider the severity of symptoms, the location of the infection, the risk of complications, and previous antibiotic use. If the individual was admitted to the hospital due to systemic illness, oral flucloxacillin is the preferred treatment for erysipelas. However, co-amoxiclav should be used for cellulitis near the eyes or nose.

      Ciprofloxacin should only be used for specific indications due to its association with Clostridium difficile infection. Doxycycline is not the first choice, and if there is a penicillin allergy, clarithromycin or erythromycin should be used instead of flucloxacillin for erysipelas or cellulitis.

      Erythromycin is not the first-line choice, but it may be appropriate if there is a history of penicillin allergy.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

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  • Question 38 - A 42-year-old mother is curious about her child's immunisations.

    When is the meningococcal...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old mother is curious about her child's immunisations.

      When is the meningococcal C vaccine given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 months and 3 months

      Explanation:

      UK Immunisation Schedule and Meningococcal Serogroup C Vaccine

      We have provided a reference to the current UK immunisation schedule at the end of this text. It is a two-page A4 summary that we suggest you save and print for future reference. According to the schedule, the meningococcal serogroup C (MenC) vaccine is given to infants at one year old and as part of the MenACWY vaccine at age fourteen. However, the infant dose of MenC conjugate vaccine is no longer administered at three months of age.

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  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient with a known HIV infection. What is the likelihood of the phlebotomist contracting HIV?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.30%

      Explanation:

      Compared to hepatitis B and C, the transmission rate of HIV is relatively low.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 40 - A 35-year-old man comes in with a swollen red finger and tenderness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes in with a swollen red finger and tenderness in his left armpit, one day after being bitten by his pet dog. What is the most effective treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Infected Dog Bites

      Dog bites have a 10% chance of becoming infected, with the most common organisms being anaerobic mouth flora and Pasteurella multocida. Capnocytophaga spp. and Streptococcus pyogenes are also possible. The recommended treatment is co-amoxiclav, which is effective against all likely organisms. Herpes simplex infection is rare in dog bites, but monkey bites can transmit the virus. Fungal infections in dogs do not typically infect bites, so fluconazole is not necessary. Flucloxacillin is ineffective against anaerobic bacteria, and metronidazole doesn’t cover aerobic Gram-negative organisms.

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  • Question 41 - A 20-year-old woman is surprised to find out she has Chlamydia despite not...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman is surprised to find out she has Chlamydia despite not experiencing any symptoms. You comfort her by explaining that it is typical for Chlamydia to be asymptomatic, which is why screening is recommended. What proportion of women with Chlamydia do not show symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Opportunistic chlamydia screening is crucial due to the significant number of men who carry the infection without showing any symptoms.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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  • Question 42 - You encounter a 26-year-old female patient who requests a Chlamydia test. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 26-year-old female patient who requests a Chlamydia test. She has no symptoms but has entered into a new relationship. You suggest that she visit the sexual health clinic for a comprehensive screening, but you agree to perform a Chlamydia test today.

      What is the preferred diagnostic test for detecting this organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

      Explanation:

      When it comes to diagnosing Chlamydia, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) are the preferred method. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often go unnoticed, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications like infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease. NAATs are also used to diagnose Gonorrhoea. Women can use a self-swab, while men can provide a urine sample. To treat Chlamydia, doctors typically prescribe azithromycin or doxycycline. Charcoal swabs are used to diagnose other infections, such as Candida.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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  • Question 43 - A sexually active 21-year-old Nigerian man presents with a 2-day history of small,...

    Incorrect

    • A sexually active 21-year-old Nigerian man presents with a 2-day history of small, painful ulcers on the glans penis and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Primary Genital Herpes Simplex Virus Infection from Other Genital Lesions

      Primary genital herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection caused by HSV type 2 is characterized by typical lesions. Unlike syphilis, which presents with a small, painless papule that quickly forms an ulcer, HSV lesions are usually painful and may be accompanied by flu-like symptoms. Enlarged lymph nodes are also common but are usually painful in HSV infection. In herpes zoster, vesiculation and ulceration occur in a dermatomal distribution, while scabies presents with a generalised itch and itchy nodules on the genitalia. Impetigo lesions are painless, superficial, and crusted or eroded, unlike the painful and often multiple lesions seen in primary genital HSV infection. Therefore, a careful examination and history-taking are essential to differentiate primary genital HSV infection from other genital lesions.

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  • Question 44 - A 35-year-old Indian woman comes to the clinic with a nodular rash all...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Indian woman comes to the clinic with a nodular rash all over her body, eyebrow loss, and burns on her hands. She experiences tenderness in her thickened ulnar nerves. A skin biopsy reveals the existence of multiple acid-fast bacilli (AFBs).
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leprosy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Leprosy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Challenges in the UK

      Leprosy, caused by Mycobacterium leprae, is a contagious disease that primarily affects the skin and nerves. While it is rare in the UK, it remains a significant cause of peripheral neuropathy worldwide. The disease progresses slowly, with an average incubation period of 7 years, and can range from mild to severe forms. Diagnosis requires the presence of skin patches or hypopigmented areas with reduced sensation, thickened peripheral nerves, and the detection of acid-fast bacilli in skin smears or biopsies. However, in countries where leprosy is rare, diagnosis can be delayed due to lack of familiarity with the disease. Understanding the symptoms and challenges of diagnosing leprosy is crucial for effective management and prevention.

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  • Question 45 - A 24-year-old male presents with a purulent urethral discharge. A sample of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male presents with a purulent urethral discharge. A sample of the discharge reveals a Gram-negative diplococcus, but sensitivities are not yet available. What is the most suitable initial antimicrobial therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular ceftriaxone stat dose

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, while ciprofloxacin should only be considered if the organism is confirmed to be susceptible, as resistance is becoming more common. Penicillin, which was previously the preferred treatment, is now seldom used due to widespread resistance.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

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  • Question 46 - A 25 year-old man has been feeling sick for 10 days with fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old man has been feeling sick for 10 days with fever, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Choose from the options the one symptom that would indicate primary HIV infection over infectious mononucleosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maculopapular rash

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Primary HIV Infection: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Approximately 70% of individuals with HIV infection experience symptoms during seroconversion, but very few are diagnosed when seen in general practice. Early diagnosis is crucial for a better response to treatment. Primary HIV infection presents with symptoms resembling glandular fever, including fever, sweats, malaise, lethargy, anorexia, nausea, myalgia, arthralgia, headaches, sore throat, diarrhea, generalized lymphadenopathy, a macular erythematous truncal eruption, and thrombocytopenia. These symptoms start 2-6 weeks after exposure and usually resolve within two weeks, although it can take longer.

      The most specific features of primary HIV infection are a maculopapular or morbilliform rash affecting predominantly the upper part of the body and mucosal ulcers affecting the mouth and genital areas. In infectious mononucleosis, any rash is macular and very transient. Rash occurs in about 50% and ulcers in nearly 40% of patients. Less commonly, gastrointestinal symptoms predominate, including abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, hepatitis, and even gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Rare presentations include encephalopathy, pneumonitis, and rhabdomyolysis associated with acute renal failure. Sometimes, acute, severe immunosuppression may occur during the primary infection.

      When considering infectious mononucleosis, GPs need to think about HIV as well. It is also a possibility in patients with unexplained fever who have been in countries with high HIV prevalence. The diagnosis should be considered in patients presenting with a blotchy rash on the trunk, or oral or perianal ulcers, and if infections that can occur when the CD4 count drops (e.g., candidiasis or herpes zoster) are present.

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  • Question 47 - A 3-year-old girl has a temperature of 39.6ºC and a rash consisting of...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl has a temperature of 39.6ºC and a rash consisting of numerous dusky pink macules and papules. She became unwell 6 days ago, when her mother noticed that she had a dry cough, red eyes and a temperature. The rash started 2 days ago, appearing on her face initially, but then spreading to the trunk and limbs. She was in contact with a girl with a similar rash 2 weeks ago. There is no significant past medical history. She had not received all her childhood immunisations because of parental concerns regarding vaccine safety.
      Select the single most likely cause of her rash.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measles virus

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Measles from Other Childhood Illnesses

      Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that typically presents with a prodrome of coryzal symptoms, dry cough, conjunctivitis, and fever before the appearance of a rash. Koplik’s spots may also be present on the buccal mucosa. However, other childhood illnesses can present with similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them. Rubella, for example, has a longer incubation period and is typically milder with no significant respiratory symptoms. Parvovirus B19 can mimic rubella with its slapped-cheek appearance. Infectious mononucleosis may present with a sore throat and lymphadenopathy, but any rash is fine and transient. Mumps may rarely cause a rash, but other symptoms are more prominent. It is crucial to accurately diagnose these illnesses to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further spread of infection.

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  • Question 48 - A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic after cutting her hand while preparing...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic after cutting her hand while preparing dinner. Upon examination, you note a three inch laceration on her left hand which is cleaned and sutured. She recalls receiving a tetanus booster shot approximately 10 years ago and has received a total of five tetanus vaccines throughout her life. What is the appropriate recommendation for tetanus prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be given tetanus immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination Not Required for Low-Risk Wound

      This woman’s wound is clean and low-risk, with a very low chance of being contaminated with tetanus bacteria. Fortunately, she has already received five doses of the tetanus vaccine in the past, which means she should not require any further vaccination. It is important to note that tetanus vaccination is crucial for individuals who have not received the vaccine or have not completed the recommended doses. However, in this case, the woman can rest assured that she is protected against tetanus and can focus on proper wound care to promote healing.

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  • Question 49 - A 67-year-old woman has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, continues to smoke and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, continues to smoke and is housebound due to her disability.
      Which vaccination should she receive annually?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: influenza

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Annual influenza Vaccination

      influenza vaccines are designed to protect against the two subtypes of human influenza A (H3N2 and H1N1) and influenza B viruses. However, due to changes in the surface antigens of the virus, the composition of the vaccine must be modified annually. To ensure global recommendations on vaccine composition and surveillance for potential pandemic viruses, the World Health Organisation maintains a network of collaborating laboratories.

      Annual re-immunisation is particularly recommended for those at the highest risk of morbidity, including patients in chronic care facilities (especially the elderly), those with chronic cardiopulmonary, lung or renal diseases, diabetes mellitus, haemoglobinopathies, and those who are immunocompromised. It is also offered annually to patients aged 65 and over.

      While protection may be less effective in the elderly than in children, immunisation has been shown to reduce the incidence of bronchopneumonia, mortality, and hospital admission. In children aged 1-5, it has been shown to reduce influenza-associated respiratory illness in the 1- to 15-year age group by up to 90%, and may reduce influenza-associated otitis media by up to 30%.

      In conclusion, annual influenza vaccination is crucial for protecting vulnerable populations and reducing the spread of the virus.

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  • Question 50 - A woman wants advice about air travel while pregnant. She wants to visit...

    Incorrect

    • A woman wants advice about air travel while pregnant. She wants to visit her mother who is unwell. The flight will be 6 hours in duration. She will be 28 weeks pregnant at the time of the flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.

      What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated single pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 24 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Airline Restrictions for Pregnant Passengers

      Most airlines have restrictions on pregnant passengers flying beyond a certain gestation period. For single, uncomplicated pregnancies, the limit is usually week 37, while for those carrying twins or more, it is week 32. This is due to the increased risks of medical conditions and the possibility of going into labor while in the air.

      In addition to these restrictions, pregnant passengers should also be advised on how to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, doing in-seat exercises, staying hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.

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  • Question 51 - A 42-year-old man seeks guidance on how to prevent motion sickness during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man seeks guidance on how to prevent motion sickness during a lengthy bus trip. Which medication is the most effective for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      The order of effectiveness for treating motion sickness is hyoscine, followed by cyclizine, and then promethazine.

      Understanding Motion Sickness and Its Management

      Motion sickness is a condition characterized by nausea and vomiting that occurs when there is a mismatch between what the eyes see and what the vestibular system senses. This discrepancy can happen when a person is in a moving vehicle, such as a car, boat, or plane. The brain receives conflicting signals from the eyes and the inner ear, which can lead to discomfort and other symptoms.

      To manage motion sickness, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends the use of hyoscine, which is available in a transdermal patch. However, this medication has limitations due to its side effects. Non-sedating antihistamines like cyclizine or cinnarizine are preferred over sedating preparations like promethazine. These medications can help alleviate the symptoms of motion sickness and make travel more comfortable for those who are prone to this condition.

      In summary, motion sickness is a common problem that affects many people during travel. By understanding the causes and symptoms of this condition, individuals can take steps to manage it effectively. With the right medication and other strategies, it is possible to reduce the discomfort and inconvenience of motion sickness and enjoy travel without any issues.

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  • Question 52 - A 25-year-old woman is breastfeeding her 3-month-old baby and has developed a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is breastfeeding her 3-month-old baby and has developed a fever with a red, tender area near her right nipple.
      Select the single correct statement.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An abscess may develop and would need draining

      Explanation:

      Managing Mastitis: Tips for Breastfeeding Mothers

      Mastitis is a common condition among breastfeeding mothers, which can lead to an abscess if left untreated. To prevent this complication, it is important to continue feeding from the affected breast to avoid engorgement. Contrary to popular belief, feeding from an infected breast doesn’t cause infection in the baby. However, the milk may taste slightly different, and the baby may refuse to feed. In such cases, expressing milk from the infected side is recommended. White patches inside a baby’s mouth are a sign of thrush and are not caused by mastitis. To manage the pain and discomfort associated with mastitis, a breastfeeding mother can take both paracetamol and ibuprofen. By following these tips, mothers can effectively manage mastitis and continue to breastfeed their babies.

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  • Question 53 - A 72-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and frequency. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and frequency. She has a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, previous Clostridium difficile infection, and chronic kidney disease stage 4. Her regular medications include ramipril, amlodipine, furosemide, and aspirin. She has reported allergies to statins and co-trimoxazole. Upon urine dipstick examination, nitrites and leucocytes are detected, leading to a diagnosis of urinary tract infection. What would be the most appropriate antibiotic to initiate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      The most suitable antibiotic for this patient’s urinary tract infection is amoxicillin. According to the BNF, trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin are recommended as first-line treatments, while amoxicillin or a cephalosporin are considered alternatives. However, in this case, the patient is allergic to co-trimoxazole, which contains trimethoprim and sulphamethoxazole, making it unsuitable. Additionally, the patient has CKD 4, which contraindicates nitrofurantoin, and cefaclor is not recommended due to its association with Clostridium difficile. Doxycycline is not a recommended treatment for UTI. Therefore, amoxicillin is the most appropriate antibiotic for this patient.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

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  • Question 54 - What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No vaccine is available but treatment is successful in the majority of patients

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 55 - A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic with a cough, fever, diarrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the clinic with a cough, fever, diarrhoea and myalgia. The cough is non-productive and has been getting gradually worse since he returned from holiday in Italy one week ago. His wife is concerned because over the past 24 hours he has become more drowsy and febrile. He is normally fit and well but drinks around 15 units of alcohol per week.

      On examination pulse is 80/min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% on room air and temperature is 38.2ºC. Bilateral coarse crackles are heard in the chest.

      You take some bloods which are reported the next day:

      Hb 14.2 g/dl
      Platelets 290 * 109/l
      WBC 13.8 * 109/l
      Na+ 133 mmol/l
      K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      Urea 8.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 87 µmol/l
      Bilirubin 10 µmol/l
      ALP 29 u/l
      ALT 72 u/l

      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella is often characterized by symptoms resembling the flu, such as a dry cough, confusion, and a slower than normal heart rate. Additionally, hyponatraemia may be detected through blood tests. If the individual has recently traveled abroad, this may also indicate a potential Legionella infection.

      Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium. It is commonly found in water tanks and air-conditioning systems, and is often associated with foreign travel. Unlike other types of pneumonia, Legionnaires disease cannot be transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. In addition, patients may experience hyponatraemia, deranged liver function tests, and pleural effusion in around 30% of cases.

      Diagnosis of Legionnaires disease is typically done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics such as erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-rays may show nonspecific features, but often include patchy consolidation in the mid-to-lower zones and pleural effusions. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with Legionnaires disease in order to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 56 - What is the accurate statement about the heightened risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the heightened risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) after air travel for individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings have a role in reducing the risk of VTE in moderate or high risk patients

      Explanation:

      For patients at moderate or high risk, compression stockings are the most suitable preventative measure, with low molecular weight heparin potentially necessary for those at very high risk. Aspirin is not recommended by any current UK guidelines. Although it is sensible to maintain good hydration, there is no evidence to suggest that it effectively prevents VTE, as noted by SIGN in their guideline.

      Travel-Related Thrombosis and Guidelines for Prevention

      Long-haul air travel has been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), commonly known as economy class syndrome. However, there is no universal agreement on how to advise patients regarding VTE prevention during travel. The British Committee for Standards in Haematology, SIGN, and Clinical Knowledge Summaries have all produced guidelines, but they differ in their recommendations.

      The most recent CKS guidelines suggest a risk-based approach. Patients with no major risk factors for VTE do not require special measures. However, those with major risk factors should consider wearing anti-embolism stockings, which can be bought or prescribed. In cases of very high risk, such as a long-haul flight following recent major surgery, delaying the flight or seeking specialist advice regarding the use of low-molecular weight heparin may be necessary.

      It is important to note that all guidelines agree that there is no role for aspirin in VTE prevention for low, medium, or high-risk patients. A 2001 study in the New England Journal of Medicine showed that the risk of pulmonary embolism increases with travel distance, with 4.8 cases per million for travel over 10,000 km. While the Civil Aviation Authority doesn’t provide specific guidance on VTE prevention, healthcare providers can use these guidelines to help patients make informed decisions about their travel plans.

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  • Question 57 - What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools and other childcare settings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regular detection by combing should be carried out by parents

      Explanation:

      Head Lice Treatment and Prevention

      Head lice are a common problem, especially among children. However, it is important to note that children should not be excluded from school if they have head lice. Treatment is only necessary if live lice have been seen. Hatched eggs or nits are not a sign of infestation.

      Plastic combs are designed to be used with conditioner and have been shown to have a 38-57% cure rate after 14 days of treatment. Close contacts should also be checked, but only treated if live lice are present.

      If chemical or physical insecticides are being used, such as malathion 0.5% or dimethicone 4%, at least two applications are needed, seven days apart, to effectively kill the lice that emerge from eggs after the first treatment.

      Overall, it is important to take preventative measures, such as avoiding head-to-head contact and sharing personal items, to reduce the risk of head lice infestation.

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  • Question 58 - Which pathogen is annual immunisation proven to reduce mortality and hospital admissions against...

    Incorrect

    • Which pathogen is annual immunisation proven to reduce mortality and hospital admissions against in patients aged 65 or above who are more susceptible to community acquired infections?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: influenza virus

      Explanation:

      The Importance of influenza Vaccination in the Elderly Population

      influenza vaccination is crucial for promoting health and preventing disease in the elderly population, especially those with underlying chronic conditions. While recommended for all individuals over 65, those with cardiorespiratory, metabolic, or neoplastic diseases are at the highest risk. Despite being cost-effective, protection rates against influenza-associated respiratory illness are lower in the elderly population. In England, the uptake for patients over 65 was 73% in 2010/2011. While vaccination doesn’t change the incidence of upper respiratory tract symptoms, it significantly reduces hospital admission and mortality rates by 72% and 87%, respectively, in community-dwelling elderly individuals. However, nursing-home residents may not experience the same efficacy due to a greater burden of chronic disease.

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  • Question 59 - A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sex after an office party 4 days ago....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sex after an office party 4 days ago. She is currently taking antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. She has intense difficulty passing urine, accompanied by burning, itching and pain over her labia. On examination there is a crop of vesicles and erosions on her vulva.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex infection (HSV-2)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Infection: Types, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Herpes simplex infection is caused by two viral subtypes, HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 is commonly associated with oral or facial infections, while HSV-2 is mainly responsible for genital infections. After primary infection, the virus enters nerve endings in the skin and remains latent until reactivated. Symptoms usually appear 3-7 days after contact and may include a low-grade fever and general malaise. At the site of infection, symptoms include pain, burning, itching, and tingling, with the presence of groups of vesicles surrounded by erythema. These lesions usually ulcerate and crust over within 48 hours, lasting between 2 and 6 weeks without scarring. Women may experience urinary retention due to associated pain. Recurrent infection may occur due to fatigue, stress, local skin trauma, exposure to sunlight, or the menstrual cycle. Treatment involves the use of antiviral agents such as aciclovir, and prophylactic use of oral antiviral therapy may reduce the frequency and severity of recurrent infection.

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  • Question 60 - A 30-year-old man observed a painless papule on the glans of his penis...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man observed a painless papule on the glans of his penis that turned into an ulcer within a few days. Upon examination, a solitary, circular, hardened ulcer is visible.
      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      Primary Syphilis: The First Sign and Symptoms

      Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a small, painless papule that quickly turns into an ulcer known as a chancre. This ulcer is typically solitary, round or oval, painless, and surrounded by a bright-red margin. Unlike other open syphilitic lesions, it is not usually infected with secondary bacteria. Treponema pallidum, the bacteria responsible for syphilis, can be detected in the serum from the sore, which can be easily obtained by slightly abrading the base. If left untreated, primary syphilis can progress to more severe stages of the disease. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you may have syphilis.

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  • Question 61 - A 30-year-old homeless alcoholic man has had a chronic productive cough for 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old homeless alcoholic man has had a chronic productive cough for 6 weeks with purulent sputum, anorexia and weight loss. He sleeps rough and in hostels. You suspect he may have tuberculosis.
      Select the single correct statement concerning diagnostic procedures for tuberculosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Three spontaneous sputum samples should be sent for culture and microscopy

      Explanation:

      To definitively diagnose tuberculosis, a sample of the patient’s sputum must be cultured to detect the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. At least three spontaneous sputum samples should be collected and stained with Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) stain for rapid direct microscopy. Culture on a Löwenstein-Jensen slope takes several weeks, and antibiotic sensitivity testing takes even longer. If sputum samples cannot be obtained, bronchoscopy and lavage or gastric washings can be considered. Treatment can be started without culture results if there are signs and symptoms of tuberculosis.

      Mantoux skin testing is used to screen for latent tuberculosis in close contacts of patients with active TB. However, as the test may be positive in patients who have had BCG vaccine, interferon-γ is recommended as a second-line test. A chest X-ray may also be ordered to rule out pulmonary tuberculosis in a person with a positive skin test and no symptoms. Abnormalities on the X-ray may not always be diagnostic of tuberculosis.

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  • Question 62 - A 21-year-old man presents 5 days after returning from a backpacking trip across...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents 5 days after returning from a backpacking trip across Peru. He complains of sudden onset fever, headache, joint pains, and rash all over his body. He has no pre-existing medical conditions and is not taking any medication.

      During examination, he has a petechial rash on his limbs. There are no signs of meningism or focal neurology.

      Hemoglobin: 100 g/l
      Platelets: 80 * 109/l
      White blood cells: 4.0 * 109/l
      Eosinophils: 0.4 * 109/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dengue fever

      Explanation:

      A returning traveler experiencing retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, and thrombocytopenia is likely suffering from dengue fever. This disease is commonly found in South America and Southeast Asia and is characterized by sudden onset fever and joint pain, as well as low platelet counts and bleeding in severe cases. Chagas disease, which is also found in this region, typically presents with mild symptoms and elevated eosinophil levels. Viral hepatitis and malaria are less probable causes of a petechial rash.

      Understanding Dengue Fever

      Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.

      Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).

      Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.

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  • Question 63 - A 33-year-old man visits his GP complaining of difficulty concentrating, muscle aches, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man visits his GP complaining of difficulty concentrating, muscle aches, and fatigue that have persisted for three months. He works as a gamekeeper in rural Scotland and spends most of his day walking through long grass. He mentions removing ticks from his legs on a daily basis.

      During the examination, the GP observes a circular rash measuring 16cm on the lower leg, which is indicative of erythema migrans.

      What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start antibiotics immediately without further tests

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary, if a patient presents with erythema migrans, a characteristic rash associated with Lyme disease, no further laboratory testing is necessary for diagnosis. Prompt treatment with antibiotics is recommended to prevent the development of additional symptoms. However, if a patient presents with specific focal symptoms such as uveitis, facial nerve palsy, or arthritis, referral to a specialist or consultation with a specialist should be considered without delaying antibiotic treatment.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 64 - A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the last four weeks. He recently visited a sheep farm in Cyprus two months ago. His chest x-ray and urine culture are normal. The doctor suspects Brucellosis. What test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brucella serology

      Explanation:

      The Knowledge and skills guide of the 2019 RCGP Curriculum includes zoonotic diseases such as leptospirosis and brucellosis.

      Understanding Brucellosis

      Brucellosis is a disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and is more commonly found in the Middle East and among individuals who work with animals such as farmers, vets, and abattoir workers. The disease is caused by four major species of bacteria: B. melitensis (sheep), B. abortus (cattle), B. canis and B. suis (pigs). The incubation period for brucellosis is typically 2-6 weeks.

      Symptoms of brucellosis are nonspecific and may include fever and malaise, as well as hepatosplenomegaly and spinal tenderness. Complications of the disease can include osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, and orchitis. Leukopenia is also commonly seen in patients with brucellosis.

      Diagnosis of brucellosis can be done through the Rose Bengal plate test for screening, but other tests are required to confirm the diagnosis. Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis, and blood and bone marrow cultures may be suitable in certain patients, although these tests are often negative.

      Management of brucellosis typically involves the use of doxycycline and streptomycin. It is important for individuals who work with animals to take precautions to prevent the transmission of brucellosis, such as wearing protective clothing and practicing good hygiene.

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  • Question 65 - A 4-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a fever that developed at...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a fever that developed at home this morning. According to his mother, he has vomited twice and is now feeling very tired. During the examination, the child is cooperative and doesn't resist. His temperature is 38.1 degrees Celsius, and a non-blanching rash is visible on both thighs. What is the most appropriate initial step in managing this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin sodium 600mg

      Explanation:

      For a child aged 1-9 years, the recommended single dose of benzylpenicillin sodium prior to hospitalisation is 600mg, provided that it doesn’t cause any delay in transferring the child to the hospital. Any other dosage would be inappropriate for children in this age group.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 66 - A 49-year-old man with a severe cough and fever has blood taken for...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man with a severe cough and fever has blood taken for antibody titres when he fails to respond to amoxicillin. The results are shown below (CFT = complement fixation test).
      Chlamydia psittaci Ab (CFT) 1/10
      Coxiella burnetii (Q fever) phase 2 1/10
      influenza A antibody (CFT) 1/40
      influenza B antibody (CFT) 1/10
      Legionella antibody (CFT) 1/10
      Mycoplasma pneumoniae antibody (CFT) 1/640
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recent infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Understanding Serology Tests for Mycoplasma Pneumonia Infection

      Serology tests are used to detect antibodies in the blood that indicate the presence of an infection. In the case of Mycoplasma pneumonia, a positive result suggests an infection, but a second test is needed several weeks later to confirm this with a falling titre. The result is expressed as a dilution, with a larger denominator indicating a stronger antibody reaction. It’s important to note that antibody levels can remain raised for some time after the acute infection, which may explain the raised result for influenza A. Repeat serology is necessary to detect changing levels.

      To support the diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia, serology tests that demonstrate a 4-fold or greater increase or decrease in paired sera titres or a single titre greater than or equal to 1:32 are used. These tests include complement fixation, enzyme-linked immunoassay, and indirect hemagglutination. However, a sputum Gram stain is usually not helpful because M pneumonia lacks a cell wall and cannot be stained. Additionally, the bacteria is difficult to culture, requiring special culture media and up to 21 days to grow.

      In summary, serology tests are an important tool for detecting Mycoplasma pneumonia infection, but a second test and careful interpretation of results are necessary for accurate diagnosis.

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  • Question 67 - A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and febrile illness. His liver function tests reveal an alanine aminotransferase level of 80 IU/l and a bilirubin level of 18 µmol/l. Serological tests for hepatitis viruses indicate that he is positive for hepatitis B (HepB) surface antigen (Ag), but negative for anti-HepB core or immunoglobulin M. What do these results suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carrier of hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Infection and Vaccination Status

      Hepatitis B infection can be identified through the presence of specific antigens and antibodies in the blood. In acute cases, the surface antigen appears first, followed by a highly infectious antigen. Transaminase levels may also increase. If the surface antigen persists after the acute illness, it indicates a carrier status, which occurs in 10% of cases.

      Vaccination against hepatitis B can be confirmed by the presence of antibodies to the surface antigen. However, if these antibodies are not present, it suggests that the patient has not been vaccinated.

      High levels of immunoglobulin M antibodies to the core antigen indicate an acute infection, while positive immunoglobulin G antibodies to anti-Hep B core indicate a past infection.

      Recovery from past hepatitis B infection is indicated by the clearance of the surface antigen and the development of anti-HBs antibodies.

      If a patient has hepatitis B surface antigen and core antibodies, it suggests that they have been infected with hepatitis B and do not require vaccination.

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  • Question 68 - A 14-year-old male from France comes to the clinic complaining of feeling sick...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old male from France comes to the clinic complaining of feeling sick for the past 2 weeks. At first, he had a sore throat but now he is having occasional joint pains in his knees, hips, and ankles. During the examination, some pink, ring-shaped lesions are observed on his trunk, and he occasionally experiences jerking movements of his face and hands. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.

      To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.

      Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.

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  • Question 69 - A 28-year-old woman who is 10-weeks pregnant presents with complaints of heightened vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 10-weeks pregnant presents with complaints of heightened vaginal discharge accompanied by itching. Upon conducting a sexual health screening, it is discovered that she has tested positive for gonorrhoea. What is the recommended treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, which is also safe to administer during pregnancy.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

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  • Question 70 - A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from a family vacation involving kayaking. She complains of feeling extremely tired due to persistent fatty diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, and flatulence that began during her trip. She notes that her symptoms worsen whenever she consumes dairy products. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s ongoing diarrhoea, lethargy, bloating, flatulence, steatorrhoea, weight loss, and recent travel suggest giardiasis as the likely cause. Giardiasis is often associated with foreign travel and exposure to contaminated water sources. Treatment with metronidazole may be beneficial. Cholera and hepatitis D are unlikely causes as their symptoms and characteristics differ from those of giardiasis.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.

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  • Question 71 - A 28-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of loose stools, nausea, and vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of loose stools, nausea, and vomiting for the past 72 hours after attending a recent barbecue. He denies having bloody diarrhea and is able to tolerate oral fluids. He has no significant medical history and appears to be in good health. His vital signs show a blood pressure of 126/78 mmHg and a heart rate of 64 beats per minute, with no signs of dehydration. He works in the finance industry.

      As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action for primary care management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and encourage increased fluid intake, with oral rehydration sachets if needed. No further investigations necessary unless symptoms persist

      Explanation:

      In most cases of acute, watery diarrhoea, stool cultures are not necessary, according to the current NICE CKS guidance. Treatment for gastroenteritis typically involves encouraging increased fluid intake and oral rehydration sachets, unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Stool specimens should only be sent if the patient is systemically unwell, has blood or pus in their stool, is immunocompromised, has a recent history of hospitalization or antibiotic treatment, has recently traveled to a foreign country outside of Western Europe, North America, Australia, or New Zealand, or if there is uncertainty about the diagnosis of gastroenteritis. Antibiotics are not typically recommended for healthy adults with acute diarrhoea of unknown cause.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

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  • Question 72 - A colleague of yours who is a physician requests you to recommend a...

    Incorrect

    • A colleague of yours who is a physician requests you to recommend a regimen of ciprofloxacin as he is planning a trip to Goa in three days. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decline and suggest he consults with his regular GP

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC, doctors should refrain from treating themselves or individuals with whom they have a close personal relationship. It is recommended that doctors register with a GP outside of their family. Therefore, the most appropriate course of action would be to suggest that the colleague consults with their own GP. Discussing their medical history could create confusion regarding the doctor-patient relationship. Urging them to visit A&E is not advisable as it is not an emergency or an accident. It is worth noting that this type of request is not uncommon among colleagues, and reporting it to the GMC may be considered excessive.

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  • Question 73 - A 10-year-old boy presents with an episode of diarrhoea followed by jaundice.
    Select the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with an episode of diarrhoea followed by jaundice.
      Select the single most likely pathogen.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A virus

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A: A Self-Limiting Liver Infection

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that causes acute and self-limiting hepatitis. It is often preceded by flu-like symptoms and a brief diarrheal illness, especially in children. Unlike other forms of hepatitis, there is no chronic viral carriage or long-term liver damage associated with hepatitis A. The virus is transmitted orally and has an incubation period of 2 to 6 weeks. The most common mode of transmission is through the ingestion of contaminated food or water that has been contaminated with fecal matter from an infected person.

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  • Question 74 - A 35-year-old teacher presents to your clinic. She experienced upper respiratory symptoms during...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher presents to your clinic. She experienced upper respiratory symptoms during the COVID-19 pandemic in March 2020 and subsequently tested positive for the virus. Her dyspnea gradually worsened, and she was hospitalized ten days into her illness. She received oxygen therapy and was discharged one week later. She has been off work for three months since the onset of her symptoms and has interacted with several colleagues during this time. She now comes to you nine months after the onset of her symptoms, complaining of persistent fatigue. On physical examination, everything appears normal. Her chest X-ray, lung function tests, electrocardiogram, full blood count, and thyroid function tests are all normal, and she has been discharged from the care of respiratory physicians. How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Consider that she could be suffering with psychological effects following her illness

      Explanation:

      Dealing with Uncertainty in Long Covid Management

      Dealing with uncertainty can be challenging for both patients and clinicians, especially in a rapidly evolving field like long covid management. It is unlikely that candidates will be tested on precise details that may change between question setting and the exam. Instead, questions may focus on the management of conditions that are poorly understood or the more reliable do not dos.

      One important point to note is that there is no reliable evidence to support prescribing steroids or antivirals for suspected long covid, especially by a generalist. At least 10% of people with acute covid-19 may experience symptoms that persist for months, and recovery timescales can vary. There is no set date by which patients should have settled, and there is no evidence that patients are infectious at this stage of the disease.

      It is also important to consider psychological illness as a potential factor in long covid management. Clinicians should keep an open mind about this when evaluating patients, while also being alert to alternative diagnoses and investigating where appropriate. By staying informed and adaptable, clinicians can better navigate the uncertainties of long covid management.

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  • Question 75 - You are contacted by the father of a 6-year-old boy who is in...

    Incorrect

    • You are contacted by the father of a 6-year-old boy who is in first grade. He is worried because a classmate has been absent for a week due to whooping cough, but the classmate's twin brother is still attending school while taking antibiotics. The father wants to know if his son could catch the illness from the twin brother and if he needs to take antibiotics as well.

      His son has received all the recommended vaccinations up to this point.

      What is your response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recommend the boy is excluded until he has finished his antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Guidelines for Asymptomatic Contacts

      Asymptomatic contacts of suspected or confirmed pertussis do not need exclusion from school or nursery, even if they are being treated with antibiotics. It is important to follow current guidelines and advise parents accordingly. Prophylactic antibiotics are only recommended for close contacts, which include household contacts and those sharing a room overnight with a case. Antibiotics are only recommended if there is a vulnerable contact and the onset of illness in the case is within 21 days.

      If more cases of pertussis were to be diagnosed at the nursery, this would constitute an outbreak, and advice may then change at the discretion of the outbreak control team. Vulnerable contacts include newborn infants born to symptomatic mothers, infants under 1-year-old who have received less than three doses of DTaP/IPV/Hib, unimmunised or partially immunised infants or children up to ten years, women in the last month of pregnancy, adults who work in a healthcare, social care or childcare facility, immunocompromised individuals, and those with the presence of other chronic illnesses.

      It is important for GPs to understand and implement key national guidelines that influence healthcare provision for respiratory problems, as outlined in the RCGP Curriculum Statement 15.8. By following these guidelines, we can ensure the best possible care for our patients and prevent the spread of pertussis.

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  • Question 76 - A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset of nausea and vomiting associated with watery diarrhoea. The diarrhoea intensified and is now 'rice watery' character.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholera

      Explanation:

      Cholera: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. The incubation period for cholera is typically 2-5 days. The initial signs of cholera include vomiting and watery diarrhea. At first, the diarrhea may be modest and consist of faecal matter and watery stool. However, in some patients, the diarrhea becomes profound and can exceed 200 ml/kg body weight per day. The stool in these cases becomes ‘rice-watery’ in character, resembling the opaque white water discarded after rice has been washed. The diarrhea is painless, and patients are often incontinent of stool. Without antimicrobial treatment, the total stool volume during the illness can exceed total body weight.

      Cholera is rarely imported from abroad, with an average of only 10 cases of cholera in the UK annually. The most common serotype is V. cholerae El Tor, and most infections are acquired on the Indian subcontinent. The risk of cholera for most travelers to endemic areas is very low, particularly in short-term travelers. However, the risk increases for those staying in areas of outbreaks. An oral cholera vaccine is now available in the UK and may be suitable for those who are unable to take adequate precautions in highly endemic or epidemic areas, such as disaster relief workers and adventurous backpackers.

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  • Question 77 - You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with...

    Incorrect

    • You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with lower respiratory tract infections. He has lost weight and appears pale and gaunt. During your consultation, you inquire about his travel history and any potential exposure to sexually transmitted infections. The patient confesses to having unprotected sexual intercourse with a sex worker while on a business trip to Thailand a few years ago when his marriage was going through a rough patch. Since then, he has reconciled with his wife and she has been his only sexual partner. With the patient's consent, you conduct a blood test to screen for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which comes back positive. You discuss the implications of the result with the patient, but he insists that he cannot disclose this information to his wife, who is also a patient at your practice. What is your course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the patient an opportunity to tell his wife and if he doesn't then inform him that it is your duty to inform her

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to patient confidentiality and when it is acceptable to breach it. Specifically, if a patient has been diagnosed with a serious communicable disease, there is a risk of transmission to another patient. According to GMC guidelines, it is permissible to disclose information to a sexual partner of a patient with a sexually transmitted serious communicable disease if the patient has not informed them and cannot be convinced to do so. However, the patient should be informed before the disclosure is made, if possible and safe to do so. Any decision to disclose personal information without consent must be justified. Therefore, in this scenario, if the patient refuses to inform their spouse, it is appropriate to inform the spouse after informing the patient of the decision. It is important to follow professional guidelines in such situations, and other options would not be appropriate.

      GMC Guidance on Confidentiality

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.

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  • Question 78 - A 10-year-old girl has been brought to see you by her father who...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl has been brought to see you by her father who is concerned that she has another episode of tonsillitis. A locum sent a throat swab 3 days earlier, which is reported as showing a Group A streptococcus.
      Select the single most appropriate management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 days penicillin V

      Explanation:

      Throat Swabs and Antibiotic Treatment for Sore Throat

      Throat swabs are not always reliable in differentiating between infection and carriage, and their results take up to 48 hours to be reported. However, they may be useful in high-risk groups to guide treatment choices in case of treatment failure. Symptomatic treatment and a delayed prescription may be reasonable options for sore throat, but after three days, a prescription for antibiotics may be necessary. Penicillin V is the recommended antibiotic for a 10-day course, while erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given for 5 days if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s condition and risk factors is necessary in determining the appropriate treatment for sore throat.

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  • Question 79 - A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her husband to the Middle East and South America for his job. She wants to know which vaccinations are safe to receive during pregnancy.

      Which of the following vaccinations can be given without significant risk to the woman and her developing fetus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations for Travelers

      Hepatitis A and B vaccinations are made from viral antigens and do not contain any living hepatitis virus component. For individuals traveling to countries with a high risk of hepatitis A, vaccination may be recommended. However, it is important to note that the other vaccines listed, such as polio, are live vaccinations. The polio vaccine can be administered orally or through an intramuscular injection, depending on the preparation used. It is crucial for travelers to consult with a healthcare professional to determine which vaccinations are necessary for their specific travel plans.

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  • Question 80 - A 42-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of an insect bite on...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of an insect bite on her left ankle that has been getting increasingly itchy. Despite using over-the-counter creams, she has not seen any improvement. Her ankle is surrounded by a significant area of redness measuring approximately 12 cm in diameter. She reports no fever and has been in good health otherwise.

      What is the next course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral loratadine

      Explanation:

      Cream is a highly effective topical corticosteroid that can be utilized for the treatment of bite reactions. However, for milder cases, hydrocortisone 1 may be sufficient.

      Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.

      On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.

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  • Question 81 - A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived in Korea. The diarrhoea lasted for 4 days.
      What is the most probable reason for his diarrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Traveller’s Diarrhoea: Causes and Prevention

      Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common problem that can disrupt holiday and business plans. The most common cause of this type of presentation is enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli. Bacterial infections are responsible for 60-85% of cases, with E. coli being the most important bacterial pathogen. Symptoms are usually mild and last for about 3-5 days.

      To reduce the risk of gastroenteritis, it is important to practice strict food and water hygiene. Water should be heated to 100°C to kill most pathogens, and chemical treatment with chlorine or iodine can also be effective (although iodine is not recommended for pregnant women or some patients with thyroid disease). Water filters can also be useful additions to prevent infection. By taking these precautions, travellers can reduce their risk of developing diarrhoea and enjoy their trips without interruption.

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  • Question 82 - A 25-year-old man presents with diarrhoea, vomiting and jaundice following a visit to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with diarrhoea, vomiting and jaundice following a visit to India. Hepatitis A is diagnosed.
      Select from the list the single most common mode of transmission.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contaminated food

      Explanation:

      Common Modes of Disease Transmission

      Diseases can be transmitted through various means, including oral ingestion, blood contamination, tick bites, sexual contact, and mosquito bites. Hepatitis A is an example of a disease that is acquired orally, while Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV are blood-borne diseases. Tick-borne diseases, such as Lyme disease and typhus, are caused by infectious agents transmitted through tick bites. Sexually transmitted infections, such as chlamydia, syphilis, and gonorrhoea, are commonly spread through sexual contact. Mosquito bites can also transmit diseases like malaria and dengue fever. It is important to be aware of these modes of transmission and take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of diseases.

      Modes of Disease Transmission

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  • Question 83 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and swelling, feeling generally unwell. He recently returned from a hiking trip in Thailand, and one day after his return, he experienced severe watery diarrhoea and abdominal cramps that lasted for a week.

      During the examination, the patient appears unwell and fatigued. He has large effusions of the left knee and right ankle, along with tender plantar fascia bilaterally. Additionally, he has tender metatarsophalangeal joints on both feet, and a papular rash on the soles of his feet.

      Despite taking regular paracetamol and ibuprofen for the past week, the patient's symptoms have only minimally improved. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient, given the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis doesn’t usually have an acute onset and can develop up to four weeks after the initial infection. It may have a relapsing-remitting course over several months.

      The correct treatment for this patient’s severe polyarthritis would be oral prednisolone, a systemic corticosteroid. The dosing should be based on the severity of the arthritis, with tapering to the lowest effective dose. Typical starting doses are 20-40 mg/day.

      TNF inhibitor therapy would not be appropriate in this case. However, it may be effective and safe for patients with reactive arthritis who are unresponsive to NSAID or non-biologic DMARD therapy.

      Celecoxib is not the correct choice for this patient. Since regular ibuprofen did not provide relief for a week, the next step would be oral corticosteroids. Although patients may require high doses of NSAIDs with a long half-life, such as Naproxen 500mg BD, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate for this patient with multiple joints involved and systemic illness.

      Intra-articular injections are useful for large joint effusions, but in this case, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate due to the patient’s multiple joint involvement and systemic illness.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      This condition is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease.

      The arthritis associated with reactive arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis. Other symptoms include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles).

      To remember the symptoms associated with reactive arthritis, the phrase can’t see, pee, or climb a tree is often used. It is important to note that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that the eponym was named after a member of the Nazi party. Understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 84 - The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her daughter was recently hospitalized with a fever and a non-blanching rash. The diagnosis was meningococcal septicaemia, but the serogroup is currently unknown. The local health protection unit has advised the mother to speak to her GP about chemoprophylaxis for herself.

      The mother is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and has a sulphonamide allergy. She received the meningococcal C vaccine during childhood but did not receive the meningococcal B vaccine as it was not available at the time. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. The recommended choice, according to Public Health England guidelines, is ciprofloxacin, which is taken as a single-dose treatment for both adults and children. It should be given to all close contacts of the index case during the 7 days before the onset of illness, regardless of vaccination status. Rifampicin is an alternative option but is less desirable due to its potential to reduce the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives and the need for multiple doses. Currently, there is no role for administering a vaccine to the patient as the infection serogroup has not been identified. Even if serogroup B infection is confirmed later, the administration of meningococcal B (MenB) vaccine to close contacts is not recommended unless it is a cluster of cases, which would be determined by the local health protection team rather than the GP.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 85 - A 7-year-old boy, the son of farmers, is brought to the clinic appearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy, the son of farmers, is brought to the clinic appearing quite ill. He has been experiencing fever, vomiting, diarrhea, leg pain, and headache overnight. He appears pale, has cold extremities, neck stiffness, and a few spots that blanch on pressure.
      What is the most crucial management option to consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular penicillin and admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Early Treatment for Suspected Meningococcal Meningitis

      Suspected meningococcal meningitis should be treated as an emergency, even in the absence of a non-blanching rash. The rash may be nonspecific or absent early on in the disease. Any patient with suspected bacterial meningitis or suspected meningococcal septicaemia should be admitted to the hospital immediately. In cases where there may be a delay in admission, Benzylpenicillin should be given. The recommended dose of benzylpenicillin is 1200 mg for adults, 600 mg for those aged 1-9 years, and 300 mg for those aged < 1 year. Cefotaxime may be used as an alternative in cases of penicillin allergy. Antibiotics should be injected intravenously or intramuscularly (IM) in adults and IM in children, with the recommended site of IM injection being the quadriceps muscle. GPs should carry these drugs (up-to-date) in their bags.

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  • Question 86 - A 55-year-old man presents with pyrexia, urinary frequency, dysuria and pelvic discomfort. Examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with pyrexia, urinary frequency, dysuria and pelvic discomfort. Examination reveals a tender prostate. A urine dipstick test shows white blood cells.
      What is the most appropriate first-line management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Prostatitis: Antibiotics and Pain Relief

      Acute prostatitis is a bacterial infection of the prostate gland that can cause pain, fever, and difficulty urinating. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends starting antibiotics immediately while waiting for urine culture results. Quinolones like ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin are preferred over trimethoprim because they are effective against a wider range of urinary pathogens. Treatment for at least four weeks is recommended to prevent chronic prostatitis. In severe cases, hospital admission or referral may be necessary. Pain relief with paracetamol and/or ibuprofen may also be necessary. Some authorities recommend α-blocker therapy like tamsulosin to improve outflow obstruction, but it is not first-line management. If quinolones cannot be taken, trimethoprim may be used as an off-label option.

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  • Question 87 - You encounter a 22-year-old man who visited you 4 weeks ago with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 22-year-old man who visited you 4 weeks ago with symptoms of bloody diarrhoea and vomiting. He was diagnosed with Campylobacter jejuni after a stool sample test. He believes that he contracted the infection from consuming undercooked chicken at a barbecue 3 days before the onset of his symptoms.

      Although he feels much better now, with the cessation of bloody diarrhoea, vomiting, and fever, he still experiences loose stools 3-4 times a day, along with abdominal pain and bloating after eating food. He maintains a regular diet.

      What is the most probable diagnosis from the given options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary lactose intolerance

      Explanation:

      If a patient who previously had gastroenteritis and maintains a normal diet continues to experience changes in their bowel habits, the most probable diagnosis is acquired lactose intolerance.

      The most likely explanation for this scenario is secondary lactose intolerance, which occurs when the lining of the gut is damaged and temporarily unable to produce sufficient lactase. This damage can be caused by any condition that irritates and harms the gut, such as gastroenteritis. This type of lactose intolerance is usually temporary, and avoiding dairy products for a few weeks or months allows the gut to heal. Over time, the gut’s ability to produce lactase will recover, and the patient will be able to consume dairy products again.

      While other possibilities exist, inflammatory bowel disease and coeliac disease are less likely than lactose intolerance and are not typically associated with confirmed gastroenteritis.

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is a rare complication of gastroenteritis, particularly with certain strains of E.coli, but it typically presents with haematuria and decreased urine output.

      The final option is unlikely since it appears that the infection has improved.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

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  • Question 88 - A 3-year-old girl has had a cold and a raised temperature for 4...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl has had a cold and a raised temperature for 4 days but now has a red rash on both sides of her face and a diffuse macular rash elsewhere.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema infectiosum

      Explanation:

      Erythema Infectiosum: Symptoms, Causes, and Risks During Pregnancy

      Erythema infectiosum, commonly known as ‘slapped cheek’ disease or fifth disease, is caused by parvovirus B19. It is called fifth disease because it is the fifth of the classic exanthems. The infection may be asymptomatic or present with nonspecific coryzal symptoms. It is most common between ages 3-15 years.

      The prodromal symptoms of erythema infectiosum are mild and may include headache, rhinitis, low-grade fever, and malaise. In some cases, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal pain, or arthropathy may develop. After 3-7 days, the classic ‘slapped cheek’ rash appears as erythema on the cheeks, sparing the nose, perioral, and periorbital regions. This rash disappears after 2-4 days. About 1-4 days after the facial rash appears, an erythematous macular rash develops on the extremities, mainly on the extensor surfaces. This rash gradually fades but may take up to 3 weeks and can recur.

      Any arthropathy associated with erythema infectiosum is symmetrical and affects the hands, wrists, knees, and ankles. It usually resolves within a few days but in some cases persists for 2 months or longer. It may appear like rheumatoid arthritis.

      Identification of parvovirus B19 infection in a pregnant woman is crucial, as parvovirus infection in the first half of pregnancy may cause fetal hydrops. The outcome of fetal hydrops can be improved by intrauterine transfusion. Therefore, pregnant women should take extra precautions to avoid exposure to erythema infectiosum.

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  • Question 89 - A 15-year-old boy has coryzal symptoms, conjunctivitis and a rash suggestive of measles.
    Select...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy has coryzal symptoms, conjunctivitis and a rash suggestive of measles.
      Select the single correct statement regarding notification of this disease to the relevant public health authorities.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Notification can be made on clinical suspicion

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Speed and Accuracy in Notifying Infectious Diseases

      Infectious disease control relies on the prompt identification and containment of outbreaks. To achieve this, doctors are required to provide identifying information to the Proper Office of the Local Authority for patients with notifiable infectious diseases. However, laboratory staff are not currently obligated to do so. The notifications system prioritizes speed in detecting outbreaks, with accuracy of diagnosis being secondary. Salivary surveillance schemes exist for measles, mumps, and rubella, but recent data shows low incidence compared to the number of notifications submitted. Prompt and accurate notification is crucial in preventing the spread of infectious diseases.

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  • Question 90 - A 28-year-old man comes to you complaining of fatigue and general discomfort. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to you complaining of fatigue and general discomfort. He recently went camping in the New Forest and recalls having multiple tick bites.

      Upon examination, there are no visible rashes or swollen lymph nodes. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no signs of liver or spleen enlargement. The thyroid appears normal.

      Lyme disease is suspected, but the ELISA test comes back negative. Based on the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the ELISA test in 4-6 weeks after the start of symptoms

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected to have Lyme disease and presents within 4 weeks of symptom onset, it is recommended to repeat the ELISA test after 4-6 weeks if the initial test is negative. This is because the initial test may not detect the disease in its early stages. It is important to avoid diagnosing Lyme disease at this stage without an erythema migrans rash, as it may lead to inappropriate treatment and the possibility of missing alternative diagnoses. An immunoblot test may be necessary if symptoms persist for 12 weeks or more, or if the ELISA test is positive or equivocal. Referring the patient for same-day review by the infectious diseases team is unnecessary as the patient is not acutely unwell. It is also incorrect to inform the patient that Lyme disease is excluded, especially if the ELISA test was done within 4 weeks of symptom onset, as it may result in a false-negative result. It is important to investigate other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 91 - A 44-year-old woman is seen in an emergency appointment complaining that her cold...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman is seen in an emergency appointment complaining that her cold has gone onto her chest, giving her a productive cough and occasional retrosternal chest pain. On examination she has a slight wheeze in her chest but no signs of respiratory distress. She is otherwise fit and well.
      Select the single correct statement about her management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be advised that she has a viral infection and to take analgesics and antipyretics, with instructions to return if her symptoms worsen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Bronchitis

      Acute bronchitis is often caused by a virus, and in individuals with mild symptoms who are otherwise healthy, bacterial infections typically resolve on their own. Treatment options for acute bronchitis include deferred prescriptions with advice sheets or simple reassurance.

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  • Question 92 - Out of the following patients attending for vaccination against pneumococcal infection, which patient...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following patients attending for vaccination against pneumococcal infection, which patient is most likely to have sufficient immunity after receiving the injection and not require any further injections?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 65-year-old man with no risk factors

      Explanation:

      Pneumococcal Infection and Vaccination: Who is at Risk and How to Protect Them

      Streptococcus pneumoniae, commonly known as pneumococcus, can cause a range of illnesses including otitis media, meningitis, septicaemia, and pneumonia. Those at higher risk of serious infection include children, the elderly, patients who have had their spleen removed, and those who are immunocompromised.

      To prevent pneumococcal infection, vaccines are available. In the UK, a polyvalent vaccine containing purified capsular polysaccharide from each of the 23 types of pneumococcus is commonly used for individuals over the age of 5. Children under 2 years old receive a conjugate vaccine containing 13 types of pneumococcus. Both vaccines are inactivated and do not contain live organisms.

      Patients with no spleen or splenic dysfunction, patients with renal disease, and children at special risk of infection should receive further vaccinations at 5-yearly intervals. All people over 65 years should receive a single dose of vaccine. Other patients at risk include those with diabetes, chronic respiratory disease, heart or liver disease, individuals having cochlear implants, patients with CSF leaks, and welders.

      In summary, pneumococcal infection can be serious, but vaccines are available to protect those at risk. It is important to follow vaccination guidelines to ensure maximum protection.

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  • Question 93 - A 27-year-old male presents with painful genital ulcers a few weeks after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male presents with painful genital ulcers a few weeks after a trip to Kenya.

      On examination, he has multiple eroded genital ulcers, as well as a tender, enlarged lymph node present in the right inguinal region. He is systemically well.

      Swabs of a genital ulcer are taken and a sexually-transmitted infection screen is performed. The results are shown below.

      NAAT test: negative
      Swab culture: Haemophilus ducreyi grown

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection that causes genital ulcers in tropical regions. The ulcers are multiple, have ragged edges, and a granular base. Painful, unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy may also be present. The bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi is responsible for this condition.

      Syphilis, on the other hand, is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Chancres, which are similar to chancroid ulcers, are painless, singular lesions with bilateral lymphadenopathy. They can heal without treatment.

      Herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2 are common causes of sexually transmitted ulceration in the UK.

      Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. It presents with a singular, painless ulcer that resolves spontaneously.

      Klebsiella granulomatis is responsible for granuloma inguinale, which presents with painless genital ulceration and inguinal node abscesses.

      Understanding Chancroid

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 94 - A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a red and painful leg. He sustained a cut while jogging in the park. Upon examination, his left leg is warm and tender. You diagnose him with cellulitis and inquire about any allergies. He reports having a widespread rash to amoxicillin in the past. What antibiotic would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have cellulitis can receive clarithromycin, erythromycin (during pregnancy), or doxycycline. Penicillins are known to cause allergies, and current guidelines recommend clarithromycin for patients with cellulitis who are allergic to penicillin. Clindamycin is an alternative, but it has more adverse effects than clarithromycin. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav contain penicillin, and ceftriaxone is not used for cellulitis. Although ciprofloxacin can be given to children with varicella who have cellulitis and are allergic to penicillin, it is not appropriate for this patient.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

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  • Question 95 - You see a 28-year-old woman with painful lesions on her labia. On examination...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28-year-old woman with painful lesions on her labia. On examination she has genital herpes.
      Select the single correct statement about this condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regular antiviral medication can reduce transmission to sexual partners

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms and Treatment of Herpes

      Herpes is a viral infection that can cause lesions on the cervix, vulva, vagina, and prepuce. The first attack is usually the most severe, and healing can take up to 2-4 weeks in primary herpes and 10 days in recurrent attacks. Immunocompromised patients tend to experience longer and more severe attacks. However, a trial in the New England Journal of Medicine in 2004 found that daily use of valaciclovir can reduce transmission by 75% between discordant couples. It is important to understand the symptoms and treatment of herpes to manage the infection effectively.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 96 - A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed with congenital long QT syndrome after an ECG was done for palpitations.

      What medication should she avoid in the future?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The use of macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin, erythromycin, and azithromycin may lead to the prolongation of the QTc interval. This can be particularly dangerous for patients with congenital long QT syndrome as it may trigger torsades de pointes. However, medications such as bisoprolol and digoxin can actually shorten the QTc interval and are therefore safe to use. Amoxicillin and cyclizine, on the other hand, do not have any known effects on the QTc interval.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

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  • Question 97 - Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefaclor

      Explanation:

      C.difficile is strongly associated with cephalosporins, in addition to clindamycin.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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  • Question 98 - A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread muscle and joint aches and retro-orbital headache.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: influenza

      Explanation:

      influenza: Causes, Symptoms, and Impact

      influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a viral infection that affects up to 15% of the population each year. The virus undergoes minor mutations, known as antigenic drift, which causes seasonal epidemics. In some cases, major changes in antigens can produce a new virus subtype, known as antigenic shift, which can result in a major epidemic due to little population immunity.

      Symptoms of influenza include fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, and fatigue. While most cases are mild, the virus can be highly infectious with a ratio of infections to clinical cases between 3:1 and 9:1. In an average year, there are 50-200 GP consultations for influenza or flu-like illnesses per 100,000 of the population per week.

      influenza can have a significant impact on mortality rates, with more than 20,000 deaths worldwide each year. During epidemics, this number can be much higher. Typically, seasonal influenza has a greater effect on mortality rates in the elderly, while swine flu tends to affect children and young adults.

      While influenza is the most likely cause of flu-like symptoms, other conditions should also be considered in the differential diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or if there are underlying health conditions that may increase the risk of complications.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 99 - A 27-year-old man has been hospitalized due to multiple injuries sustained during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man has been hospitalized due to multiple injuries sustained during a mugging on his way back from the bar last night. The assailant bit him during the altercation, leaving deep bite marks on his hand, which appears red and swollen. You decide to administer tetanus and hepatitis B prophylaxis.

      What antibiotic do you recommend for his treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate treatment for human bites, similar to animal bites. In case the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole can be used. However, since there is no mention of any allergies, we assume that the patient has none. Waiting for the swab results is not the correct approach. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for various conditions, including hand/foot/facial injuries, deep puncture wounds, wounds requiring surgical debridement, wounds involving joints/tendons/ligaments, suspected fractures, and patients who are immunosuppressed, diabetic, cirrhotic, asplenic, or elderly. Antibiotic treatment is necessary for infected bites, which is the case here as the bite appears red, swollen, and is on the hand. Cellulitis, on the other hand, is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.

      On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.

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  • Question 100 - A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
    Select from the list the single feature...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
      Select from the list the single feature that would make it LESS likely that this is a streptococcal infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cough

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Viral Sore Throat and Group A β-haemolytic Streptococcus

      It can be challenging to distinguish between a viral sore throat and one caused by Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus (GABS) through examination alone. However, the Centor criteria can be useful in making this differentiation. These criteria include the presence of tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes, absence of cough, and a history of fever. If a patient has three of these signs, there is a 40-60% chance that they have GABS. Conversely, if a patient doesn’t have three of these signs, there is an 80% chance that they have a viral infection. Additionally, the presence of a scarlet fever-like rash, a flushed face, circumoral pallor, and a white or red strawberry tongue may also suggest the possibility of a streptococcal infection.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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