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  • Question 1 - You are evaluating a 30-year-old individual who has suffered a severe head injury...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 30-year-old individual who has suffered a severe head injury after being attacked with a baseball bat. There are indications that the patient may be experiencing elevated intracranial pressure. In a person with normal physiological conditions, what percentage of the intracranial volume is typically occupied by cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      The intracranial volume refers to the total space inside the skull. The main component of this volume is the brain parenchyma or neural tissue, which makes up the majority of the intracranial volume.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65 year old female is brought to the emergency department as her...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old female is brought to the emergency department as her husband is concerned about increasing confusion and unsteadiness. The patient's husband tells you over the past two to three months the patient doesn't seem to be able to remember anything, often appearing confused, and unable to concentrate on things such as books or conversations. The patient has also been urinating more frequently and has had a few accidents where she has wet herself. The patient's husband has also noticed she walks differently, taking slow short steps as if she has lost her confidence. The patient tells you she feels fine. There is no significant medical history. On examination you note the patient has a broad based stance with delay in initiating movement and a shuffling gait where the patient freezes after 3 or 4 steps. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a condition characterized by the classic triad of symptoms: gait instability, urinary incontinence, and dementia. Gait apraxia, which is a common feature, presents as a slow and cautious gait, difficulty initiating movement, unsteadiness, a widened standing base, reduced stride length, shuffling gait, falls, and freezing. The onset of symptoms typically occurs over a period of 3-6 months. This condition is a form of communicating hydrocephalus, where there is a gradual buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) due to impaired CSF absorption. As a result, the ventricles in the brain enlarge and intracranial pressure increases, leading to compression of brain tissue and neurological complications. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is more commonly seen in individuals over the age of 65, and a CT head or MRI is usually the initial diagnostic test.

      Further Reading:

      Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.

      To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.

      The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.

      There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.

      Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.

      Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.

      Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.

      In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old man comes in with a suddenly painful and swollen right testis...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man comes in with a suddenly painful and swollen right testis and intense abdominal pain. The pain started while he was asleep, and he has experienced multiple episodes of vomiting. His cremasteric reflex is not present, and the testis is too sensitive to touch.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Testicular torsion

      Explanation:

      Testicular torsion is the correct diagnosis in this case. When a patient presents with sudden, severe, and acute testicular pain, testicular torsion should be assumed until proven otherwise. There are several historical factors that support this diagnosis. These include the pain occurring suddenly, being accompanied by vomiting, happening during sleep (as half of torsions occur during sleep), a previous history of torsion in the other testis, previous episodes that have resolved recently, and a history of undescended testis.

      On examination, there are certain findings that further suggest testicular torsion. The testis may be positioned high in the scrotum and too tender to touch. The opposite testis may lie horizontally (known as Angell’s sign). Pain is not relieved by elevating the testis (negative Prehn’s sign), and the cremasteric reflex may be absent.

      It is important to recognize that testicular torsion is a surgical emergency that requires immediate assessment and intervention to restore blood flow. Irreversible damage can occur within six hours of onset, so prompt treatment is crucial in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his limbs and chest. He is currently prescribed 15 mg sustained-release morphine twice daily for pain management, but is now encountering breakthrough pain.
      According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended first-line rescue medication for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: Oral immediate-release morphine

      Explanation:

      When starting treatment with strong opioids for pain relief in palliative care, it is recommended to offer patients regular oral sustained-release or oral immediate-release morphine, depending on their preference. In addition, provide rescue doses of oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical total daily starting dose schedule of 20-30 mg of oral morphine is suggested, along with 5 mg of oral immediate-release morphine for rescue doses during the titration phase. It is important to adjust the dose until a good balance is achieved between pain control and side effects. If this balance is not reached after a few dose adjustments, it is advisable to seek specialist advice. Patients should be reviewed frequently, especially during the titration phase. For patients with moderate to severe renal or hepatic impairment, it is recommended to consult a specialist before prescribing strong opioids.

      For maintenance therapy, oral sustained-release morphine is recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with advanced and progressive disease who require strong opioids. Transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered as first-line maintenance treatment unless oral opioids are not suitable. If pain remains inadequately controlled despite optimizing first-line maintenance treatment, it is important to review the analgesic strategy and consider seeking specialist advice.

      When it comes to breakthrough pain, oral immediate-release morphine should be offered as the first-line rescue medication for patients on maintenance oral morphine treatment. Fast-acting fentanyl should not be offered as the first-line rescue medication. If pain continues to be inadequately controlled despite optimizing treatment, it may be necessary to seek specialist advice.

      In cases where oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are stable, transdermal patches with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered. However, it is important to consult a specialist for guidance if needed. Similarly, for patients in whom oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are unstable, subcutaneous opioids with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered, with specialist advice if necessary.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary: Opioids for pain relief in palliative care. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg140

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are summoned to assist with a 72-year-old patient who is in the...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to assist with a 72-year-old patient who is in the resuscitation bay and has experienced two defibrillation attempts following cardiac arrest. Unfortunately, there is no supply of amiodarone available, so your consultant instructs you to prepare lidocaine for administration after the next shock. What is the initial dosage of lidocaine to be given during cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: 1 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      During cardiac arrest, Lidocaine is administered through a slow IV injection at an initial dose of 1 mg/kg when deemed suitable.

      Further Reading:

      In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.

      Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.

      Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.

      Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.

      Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.

      Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman comes in with facial swelling that worsens when she eats....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes in with facial swelling that worsens when she eats. You suspect she may have sialolithiasis.
      Which salivary gland is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Parotid gland

      Correct Answer: Submandibular gland

      Explanation:

      Sialolithiasis is a medical condition characterized by the formation of a calcified stone, known as a sialolith, within one of the salivary glands. The submandibular gland, specifically Wharton’s duct, is the site of approximately 90% of these occurrences, while the parotid gland accounts for most of the remaining cases. In rare instances, sialoliths may also develop in the sublingual gland or minor salivary glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You evaluate a 70 year old male who complains of chest tightness during...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 70 year old male who complains of chest tightness during physical activity. The patient reports a gradual increase in shortness of breath during exertion over the past half year. During the examination, you observe a murmur and suspect aortic stenosis. Which of the following characteristics is commonly seen in symptomatic individuals with aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Slow rising pulse

      Explanation:

      Severe aortic stenosis is characterized by several distinct features. These include a narrow pulse pressure, which refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings. Additionally, individuals with severe aortic stenosis may exhibit a slow rising pulse, meaning that the pulse wave takes longer to reach its peak. Another common feature is a delayed ejection systolic murmur, which is a heart sound that occurs during the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle. The second heart sound (S2) may also be soft or absent in individuals with severe aortic stenosis. Another potential finding is the presence of an S4 heart sound, which occurs during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle. A thrill, which is a palpable vibration, may also be felt in severe cases. The duration of the murmur, as well as the presence of left ventricular hypertrophy or failure, are additional features that may be observed in individuals with severe aortic stenosis.

      Further Reading:

      Valvular heart disease refers to conditions that affect the valves of the heart. In the case of aortic valve disease, there are two main conditions: aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis.

      Aortic regurgitation is characterized by an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse (also known as a water hammer pulse), and a wide pulse pressure. In severe cases, there may be a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur due to partial closure of the anterior mitral valve cusps caused by the regurgitation streams. The first and second heart sounds (S1 and S2) may be soft, and S2 may even be absent. Additionally, there may be a hyperdynamic apical pulse. Causes of aortic regurgitation include rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, and a bicuspid aortic valve. Aortic root diseases such as aortic dissection, spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, hypertension, syphilis, and genetic conditions like Marfan’s syndrome and Ehler-Danlos syndrome can also lead to aortic regurgitation.

      Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a narrow pulse pressure, a slow rising pulse, and a delayed ESM (ejection systolic murmur). The second heart sound (S2) may be soft or absent, and there may be an S4 (atrial gallop) that occurs just before S1. A thrill may also be felt. The duration of the murmur is an important factor in determining the severity of aortic stenosis. Causes of aortic stenosis include degenerative calcification (most common in older patients), a bicuspid aortic valve (most common in younger patients), William’s syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis), post-rheumatic disease, and subvalvular conditions like hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).

      Management of aortic valve disease depends on the severity of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are generally observed, while symptomatic patients may require valve replacement. Surgery may also be considered for asymptomatic patients with a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg and features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Balloon valvuloplasty is limited to patients with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of Alzheimer's disease is brought to the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of Alzheimer's disease is brought to the Emergency Department with a nosebleed. She currently lives alone and receives a care package once a week. The nosebleed stops with minimal treatment, and all other tests and observations are normal. Just as you are finishing up her paperwork, her daughter brings up a few concerns that she wants to address before her mother is discharged home.
      What would be the most appropriate step to take?

      Your Answer: Talk to the patient about their daughter's concerns and get their perspective

      Explanation:

      This situation is potentially complicated and involves another family member. The patient currently lives alone and based on the given history, it seems to be a mild episode of epistaxis. Without any additional information, it would be reasonable to assume that the patient can continue living in his current conditions.

      It is crucial to listen to the family’s concerns. However, it is important to keep the patient as the main focus. Out of the options provided, the most sensible approach would be to have a conversation with the patient regarding his son’s concerns and understand his perspective on those concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right testis that has been present for the past five days. The pain has been gradually increasing and there is now noticeable swelling of the testis. Upon examination, he has a temperature of 38.5°C and the scrotum appears red and swollen on the affected side. Palpation reveals extreme tenderness in the testis. He has no significant medical history and no known allergies.
      What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.

      The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.

      Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.

      While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.

      Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.

      The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes and hypertension presents...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes and hypertension presents with central chest discomfort. Her ECG showed ST depression in the inferior leads, but her discomfort subsides, and ECG returns to normal after receiving GTN spray and IV morphine. She was also given 300 mg of aspirin in the ambulance en route to the hospital. Her vital signs are as follows: SaO2 99% on room air, HR 89 bpm, and BP 139/82 mmHg. A troponin test has been scheduled and she is scheduled for an urgent coronary angiography.
      Which of the following medications should you also consider administering to this patient?

      Your Answer: Unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient is likely experiencing an acute coronary syndrome, possibly a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) or unstable angina. The troponin test will help confirm the diagnosis. The patient’s ECG showed ST depression in the inferior leads, but this normalized after treatment with GTN and morphine, ruling out a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).

      Immediate pain relief should be provided. GTN (sublingual or buccal) can be used, but intravenous opioids like morphine should be considered, especially if a heart attack is suspected.

      Aspirin should be given to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications like bleeding risk or aspirin hypersensitivity. A loading dose of 300 mg should be administered right after presentation.

      Fondaparinux should be given to patients without a high bleeding risk, unless coronary angiography is planned within 24 hours of admission. Unfractionated heparin can be an alternative to fondaparinux for patients who will undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours. For patients with significant renal impairment, unfractionated heparin can also be considered, with dose adjustment based on clotting function monitoring.

      Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but oxygen saturation should be monitored using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be offered to individuals with oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, aiming for a SpO2 of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 of 88-92% should be achieved until blood gas analysis is available.

      Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a possible treatment for adults with STEMI undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      19.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/2) 50%
Urology (2/2) 100%
Palliative & End Of Life Care (1/1) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (2/2) 100%
Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Passmed