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  • Question 1 - A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of right knee pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of right knee pain. She is an avid hockey player but has not experienced any recent injuries. During the examination, a painful swelling is observed over the tibial tubercle. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, especially those who are active in sports.
      Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that is more common in teenage girls. It is characterized by the softening of the cartilage of the patella, which can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. This condition usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle.

      Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking of the knee.

      Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella. The knee may also give way.

      Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys. It causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. On examination, the area below the patella is tender. It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father who...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father who is worried about a non-blanching petechial rash on her arms and legs. The child had a cold recently but currently has normal observations and seems to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Correct Answer: Immune thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)

      Explanation:

      ITP is a possible diagnosis for a child who presents with petechiae and no fever, while HUS and meningitis are unlikely. HSP may also be considered, but the child in the question has not experienced other symptoms of HSP. Non-accidental injury should also be considered as a differential for any petechial rash. However, ITP is more likely as it is often preceded by a viral illness and presents with isolated thrombocytopenia, causing the classic petechial rash. Blood results are needed to confirm the diagnosis.

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week...

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    • A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week history of vomiting after every feed and then appearing very hungry afterwards. His weight has remained at 4 kg for the past two weeks, and for the past two days, the vomiting has become projectile. His birthweight was 3.6 kg. He is exclusively breastfed. A small mass can be palpated in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of vomiting and poor weight gain in infants

      Vomiting and poor weight gain are common symptoms in infants, but they can be caused by different conditions that require specific management. One possible cause is pyloric stenosis, which results from an enlarged muscle at the outlet of the stomach, leading to projectile vomiting, dehydration, and failure to thrive. Another possible cause is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which may also involve vomiting, but not projectile, and may respond to conservative measures such as frequent feeds and upright positioning, or medication such as Gaviscon® or proton pump inhibitors. Cow’s milk protein allergy is another potential cause, which may present with a range of symptoms, including vomiting, but not projectile, and may require an exclusion diet for the mother if breastfeeding. Gastroenteritis is a common cause of vomiting and diarrhoea in infants, but it usually resolves within a few days and does not cause an abdominal mass. Finally, volvulus is a rare but serious condition that involves a twisted bowel, leading to acute obstruction and ischaemia, which requires urgent surgical intervention. Therefore, a careful history, examination, and investigations, such as ultrasound or blood tests, may help to differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 2 year old child is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by...

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    • A 2 year old child is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by their mother due to a fever, barking cough, and difficulty breathing at night. The child has been diagnosed with croup and you have been requested to review their condition. Upon conducting a thorough history and assessment, you determine that there is no presence of stridor or respiratory distress. What would be your next course of action in managing this case?

      Your Answer: Give oral dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      For mild croup, a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) should be taken immediately, regardless of the severity. The severity of croup is determined by factors such as respiratory rate, respiratory distress, heart rate, O2 saturations, and exhaustion. Treatment for severe croup includes systemic dexamethasone and nebulized adrenaline (5ml of 1:1000), along with oxygen administration. Antibiotics should only be given if there is suspicion of an underlying bacterial infection. It is not recommended to perform an ENT exam due to the risk of an epiglottis diagnosis.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A father with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency seeks guidance concerning his young son. Considering...

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    • A father with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency seeks guidance concerning his young son. Considering the x-linked recessive pattern of inheritance for this condition, what is the likelihood that his son will also exhibit the disease?

      Your Answer: No increased risk

      Explanation:

      Conditions that are X-linked recessive do not show transmission from male to male.

      Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance

      X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

      If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.

      In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A grandfather visits you as his grandson has been diagnosed with hypospadias. He...

    Incorrect

    • A grandfather visits you as his grandson has been diagnosed with hypospadias. He wants to know what treatment options are available and if there are any measures he can take to prevent the condition from worsening.

      Your Answer: Children should be circumcised to reduce risk of urine collecting under foreskin

      Correct Answer: Corrective surgery at around 12 months of age is required and children should not be circumcised

      Explanation:

      The usual age for performing hypospadias surgery is approximately 12 months.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - At what age would a typical infant develop the skill of crawling? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age would a typical infant develop the skill of crawling?

      Your Answer: 18 months

      Correct Answer: 9 months

      Explanation:

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones.
      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A mother brings her 10-month-old baby to her pediatrician with concerns about her...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 10-month-old baby to her pediatrician with concerns about her development. The baby was born at 37 weeks with a low birth weight of 2,100 grams. The mother reports that the baby is able to sit unsupported but tends to use her right hand only to grasp toys, even when they are on her left side. When a task requires both hands, the baby uses her left hand to assist the right, but it appears uncoordinated. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to a child development service for multidisciplinary assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child shows a preference for one hand before the age of 12 months, it may be a sign of cerebral palsy and should be addressed promptly. The appropriate course of action is to refer the child to a child development service for a comprehensive evaluation by a multidisciplinary team. Children with cerebral palsy typically receive specialized care from birth, but in some cases, the condition may be suspected in a primary care setting. According to NICE guidelines, delayed motor milestones such as not sitting by 8 months (adjusted for gestational age), not walking by 18 months (adjusted for gestational age), early asymmetry of hand function, and persistent toe-walking may indicate cerebral palsy. In this case, as the child is exhibiting hand preference before the age of 1 year and has a risk factor for cerebral palsy (low birth weight), an urgent referral is necessary. Other options are not appropriate and may delay diagnosis and treatment.

      Common Developmental Problems and Possible Causes

      Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points such as not smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and failure to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may also arise, such as abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could indicate cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, as they can also be caused by environmental deprivation or general development delay.

      It is important to recognize these developmental problems early on and seek appropriate interventions to address them. By doing so, children can receive the necessary support to reach their full potential and overcome any challenges they may face. With proper care and attention, many children with developmental problems can go on to lead happy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left ear pain...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left ear pain that has been present for 3 days. The patient is new to the clinic and there is no medical history available on the system. Upon examination, you observe the patient's facial features, which include upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent epicanthic folds, low-set ears, and a protruding tongue. Otoscopy examination of the left ear reveals a bulging tympanic membrane. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute otitis media

      Explanation:

      Acute otitis media can be indicated by a bulging tympanic membrane, which is a common occurrence in individuals with Down’s syndrome. Lesions in the attic area of the tympanic membrane are typically associated with cholesteatoma. Otitis externa does not typically result in a bulging otitis media, while otitis media with effusion is characterized by a retracted tympanic membrane and a feeling of fullness in the ear.

      Vision and Hearing Issues in Down’s Syndrome

      Individuals with Down’s syndrome are prone to experiencing vision and hearing problems. In terms of vision, they are more likely to have refractive errors, which can cause blurred vision. Strabismus, a condition where the eyes do not align properly, is also common in 20-40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Cataracts, both congenital and acquired, are more prevalent in this population, as well as recurrent blepharitis, an inflammation of the eyelids. Glaucoma, a condition that damages the optic nerve, is also a potential issue.

      Regarding hearing, otitis media and glue ear are very common in individuals with Down’s syndrome, which can lead to hearing problems. Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear, while glue ear is a buildup of fluid in the middle ear that can cause temporary hearing loss. It is important for individuals with Down’s syndrome to receive regular vision and hearing screenings to detect and address any potential issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 7-year-old girl is brought in for evaluation. Her medical records indicate that...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought in for evaluation. Her medical records indicate that she has previously received treatment for constipation, but is generally healthy. The mother reports that the child is currently passing only one hard stool every 3-4 days, which resembles 'rabbit droppings'. There is no history of overflow soiling or diarrhea. The abdominal examination is normal. What is the most suitable initial intervention?

      Your Answer: Advice on diet/fluid intake + Movicol Paediatric Plain

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.

      If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.

      In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - A father brings his 18-month-old son in for review. He started walking five...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 18-month-old son in for review. He started walking five months ago. The father has noticed that his son seems to be 'bow-legged' when he walks.

      Examination of the knees and hips is unremarkable with a full range of movement. Leg length is equal. On standing the intercondylar distance is around 7cm.

      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Reassure that it is a normal variant and likely to resolve by the age of 4 years

      Explanation:

      It is common for children under the age of 3 to have bow legs, which is considered a normal variation. Typically, this condition resolves on its own by the time the child reaches 4 years old.

      Common Lower Limb Variants in Children

      Parents often become concerned when they notice apparent abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This can lead to a visit to their primary care physician and a referral to secondary care. However, many of these presentations are actually normal variants that will resolve on their own.

      One common variant is flat feet, where the child’s medial arch is absent when standing. This typically resolves between the ages of 4-8 years and does not require orthotics. In-toeing is another common presentation, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. Most cases resolve spontaneously, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, is another normal variant that presents in the first or second year of life. This is characterized by an increased intercondylar distance and typically resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, presents in the third or fourth year of life and is characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This also typically resolves spontaneously.

      Overall, it is important for parents to be aware of these common lower limb variants in children and to seek medical advice if they have concerns. However, in many cases, parental reassurance and monitoring is all that is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A mother brings her 10-month-old baby to the doctor because of a diaper...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 10-month-old baby to the doctor because of a diaper rash. During the examination, the doctor observes a red rash with flexural sparing. What is the probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: Irritant dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them

      Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.

      To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.

      Understanding the different types of napkin rashes and their causes is important in managing them effectively. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and alleviate napkin rashes in babies and young children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 14-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a cut sustained while...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a cut sustained while helping her mother with gardening. The wound appears superficial and is closed with skin glue. During examination, her vital signs are recorded as a temperature of 36.9ºC, heart rate of 86 bpm, blood pressure of 115/87 mmHg, respiratory rate of 16/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient's mother is concerned about the need for a tetanus booster as she cannot recall if her daughter received the full course of vaccinations during childhood. How should the patient be managed?

      Your Answer: Tetanus booster vaccine and immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain and the wound is not minor and less than 6 hours old, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin. In this case, the patient is 13 years old and should have received 4 or 5 vaccinations against tetanus under the standard UK vaccination schedule. Antibiotics are not necessary if the wound is clean and not deep. It is more efficient to administer the booster while the patient is in the department rather than asking the GP to follow up, which could result in the patient being lost to follow up. The term tetanus level is incorrect as there is no such test.

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

      Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A child is born by an emergency Caesarean section at 38 weeks, due...

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    • A child is born by an emergency Caesarean section at 38 weeks, due to pathological cardiotocography. The child appears healthy at birth, with Apgar scores of 9 and 10 (1 and 5 minutes respectively). Shortly after delivery, the nurse observes that the child's respiratory rate is elevated (all other observations are normal). The mother's antenatal history is unremarkable and her observations were normal during labor. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.

      The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite not getting the...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite not getting the MMR vaccine during the recent scare, he now wants to know if it's still possible to have her immunised due to the current measles outbreak. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Give MMR with repeat dose in 3 months

      Explanation:

      According to the Green Book, it is recommended to have a 3-month gap between doses for optimal response rate. However, if the child is over 10 years old, a 1-month gap is sufficient. In case of an emergency, such as an outbreak at the child’s school, younger children can have a shorter gap of 1 month.

      The MMR Vaccine: Information on Contraindications and Adverse Effects

      The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule.

      However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.

      While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, there are some adverse effects that may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, some children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerns arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.5ºC, stridor, and appears toxic. The medical team suspects acute epiglottitis. Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Incomplete immunisation may be a concern for patients belonging to travelling communities with regards to acute epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She reports that her daughter has been complaining of abdominal pain and has had loose stools for the past three weeks. Her weight was previously on the 75th centile but has now dropped to the 50th centile. She appears fatigued, pale and has a bloated abdomen.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Blood tests for immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG) and total IgA

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. There are several diagnostic tests that can be performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease.

      Initial Blood Tests
      The initial blood tests for coeliac disease are immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG) and total IgA. Total IgA is tested because IgA deficiency is associated with coeliac disease and can cause a false-negative tTG-IgA. It is important for patients to be eating a diet containing gluten when they have the blood test to avoid a false-negative result.

      Endoscopy and Duodenal Biopsy
      An endoscopy with a duodenal biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis in secondary care. However, guidelines state that children may be diagnosed without a biopsy if they have tTG-IgA levels over ten times the upper limit of normal and positive endomysial antibodies (EMA-IgA) in a second blood test.

      HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 Blood Tests
      HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 are associated with coeliac disease. This blood test may be performed in secondary care but is not an initial investigation.

      C13 Urea Breath Test
      The C13 urea breath test is used in the diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori and has no role in the diagnosis of coeliac disease.

      In conclusion, a combination of blood tests and endoscopy with a duodenal biopsy may be required to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. It is important for patients to continue eating a gluten-containing diet before undergoing diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Despite her mother's...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic for nocturnal enuresis. Despite her mother's attempts at using a reward system, there has been no improvement. What is the best initial approach to management?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment for nocturnal enuresis. It is not advisable to limit fluid intake. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, children should consume approximately eight drinks per day, evenly distributed throughout the day, with the last one consumed approximately one hour before bedtime.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - What is the initial indication of puberty in young girls? ...

    Correct

    • What is the initial indication of puberty in young girls?

      Your Answer: Breast development

      Explanation:

      Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females

      Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adulthood. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. A testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for males occurs at the age of 14.

      For females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which typically occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for females reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, the onset of menstruation, typically occurs at the age of 13.

      Following menarche, there is only a small increase of about 4% in height. It is important to note that normal changes in puberty may include gynaecomastia in boys, asymmetrical breast growth in girls, and diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland. These changes are a natural part of the process and should not cause alarm. Understanding the normal changes that occur during puberty can help individuals navigate this important stage of development with confidence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - A father brings in his 3-week-old baby boy to the pediatrician's office as...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings in his 3-week-old baby boy to the pediatrician's office as he's noticed that the baby bruises very easily. This is his first child, who was born in Canada following an uncomplicated pregnancy by natural vaginal delivery. Exclusive breastfeeding was commenced immediately following delivery and the baby has been feeding well otherwise and gaining weight steadily. You order the following blood test.

      International normalised ratio (INR) 4

      What could be the possible reasons for the baby's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Being 2 weeks old

      Correct Answer: Exclusive breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Breastfed infants may be susceptible to vitamin K deficiency, as breast milk lacks sufficient amounts of this nutrient. The baby in question is likely experiencing idiopathic vitamin K deficiency, with breastfeeding being the only known risk factor. It is possible that the baby did not receive a vitamin K injection at birth, as they were born in Ukraine. Gender, age, vaginal delivery, and birth order are not associated with an increased risk of vitamin K deficiency.

      Haemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn: Causes and Prevention

      Newborn babies have a relatively low level of vitamin K, which can lead to the development of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn (HDN). This condition occurs when the production of clotting factors is impaired, resulting in bleeding that can range from minor bruising to intracranial haemorrhages. Breast-fed babies are particularly at risk, as breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K. Additionally, the use of antiepileptic medication by the mother can increase the risk of HDN in the newborn.

      To prevent HDN, all newborns in the UK are offered vitamin K supplementation. This can be administered either intramuscularly or orally. By providing newborns with adequate levels of vitamin K, the risk of HDN can be significantly reduced. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of the risk factors for HDN and to take steps to prevent this potentially serious condition.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - An infant develops bile-stained vomiting; an abdominal X-ray shows a ‘double bubble’ appearance....

    Incorrect

    • An infant develops bile-stained vomiting; an abdominal X-ray shows a ‘double bubble’ appearance. The infant is also hypotonic with brachycephaly.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 18

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders and Associated Phenotypic Features

      Trisomy 21: Down Syndrome and Duodenal Atresia
      Neonates with Down syndrome have an increased risk of duodenal atresia, accounting for around a third of cases. Prenatal imaging can detect this condition, which presents with bilious vomiting within hours of birth. Down syndrome is also characterized by distinct physical features such as brachiocephaly, upward slanting palpebral fissures, and joint hyperflexibility.

      45,XO: Turner Syndrome and Cardiac Defects
      Turner syndrome affects females with a genetic complement of 45XO. It is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, and lymphoedema. Cardiac defects, including coarctation of the aorta, may also be present.

      Fragile X: Learning Disability and Autism
      Fragile X is a common X-linked form of learning disability and autism. Physical features are difficult to detect in infancy, but delayed motor milestones and speech and language delay may be present. Macro-orchidism is almost universal post-puberty, and cardiac defects, including mitral valve prolapse, may occur.

      Trisomy 18: Edwards’ Syndrome and Neonatal Hypotonia
      Trisomy 18, or Edwards’ syndrome, is characterized by neonatal hypotonia, apnoea, and seizures. There is severe psychomotor and growth retardation, microcephaly, and microphthalmia. Over 90% have cardiac defects, commonly VSD, as well as anomalies in most organ systems.

      47,XXY: Klinefelter’s Syndrome and Infertility
      Klinefelter’s syndrome affects males with a genetic complement of either 47,XXY or 48,XXXY. It is a random mutation, not inherited, and is characterized by tall stature, poorly developed testes or cryptorchidism, and gynaecomastia. Infertility is common. Physical features are not obvious in infancy.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A mother brings her 10-month-old son to the Emergency Department (ED). She is...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 10-month-old son to the Emergency Department (ED). She is very concerned as she reports that he has been unsettled and crying all night, which is unusual for him. The patient was born at 40+1 weeks by normal vaginal delivery; the mother developed gestational diabetes, but there were no other complications during the pregnancy or birth. The child has had all his vaccinations. The mother reports that he has been crying non-stop since the early hours of this morning. She tried to feed him, but he vomited twice, minutes after the feed.
      On examination, he is crying, warm and well perfused, with a pulse of 150 beats per minute (bpm). His abdomen appears distended with tinkling bowel sounds. The mother mentions that she noticed a dark red jelly-like substance in his nappy when she changed it earlier.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Bowel Obstruction in Children

      Bowel obstruction in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own distinct features. Here are some of the most common causes:

      1. Intussusception: This occurs when one segment of the bowel telescopes into another, leading to obstruction. It is most common in children aged 6-9 months and may be idiopathic or caused by a viral infection. Symptoms include bilious vomiting, distended abdomen, tinkling bowel sounds, and redcurrant jelly stools.

      2. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis: This is a gastric outlet obstruction that typically presents at around 3 weeks of life. It is caused by hypertrophy of the pylorus and leads to non-bilious projectile vomiting and a palpable olive mass in the epigastric region. Treatment involves surgical excision.

      3. Duodenal atresia: This is a type of bowel obstruction that only occurs in neonates. It results from failure of recanalization of the small bowel in early fetal life and presents with bilious vomiting, proximal stomach distension, and a double-bubble sign on X-ray. It is associated with Down’s syndrome.

      4. Ileus: This is a condition in which the bowel becomes aperistaltic, leading to obstruction. It is common after abdominal surgery, electrolyte disturbances, or infection.

      5. Meconium obstruction: This is a type of bowel obstruction that only occurs in newborns. It presents with failure to pass meconium, bilious vomiting, and abdominal distension. Diagnosis can be made prenatally or after birth with an abdominal X-ray showing dilated loops of the small intestine and a soap bubble appearance. Treatment involves radiographic contrast enema or surgery if enemas are unsuccessful.

      In conclusion, bowel obstruction in children can have various causes, and prompt diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A father brings his 4-month-old baby who is currently breastfed to your clinic....

    Correct

    • A father brings his 4-month-old baby who is currently breastfed to your clinic. He reports that the baby sometimes rejects feeds, frequently vomits, and cries for extended periods after feeds. The baby's weight was at the 50th percentile during birth but has now dropped to the 40th percentile. What advice should you give?

      Your Answer: Trial of Gaviscon

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, breastfed infants who experience frequent regurgitation accompanied by significant distress should be given a trial of alginate therapy (such as Gaviscon) after each feed for a period of 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist, a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor (such as oral omeprazole) or a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (such as oral ranitidine) should be administered. If symptoms continue despite these treatments, it may be necessary to refer the infant to a paediatrician. For bottle-fed infants with reflux, thickened feeds are recommended.

      Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A 3-day old baby boy was delivered vaginally at full term after two...

    Correct

    • A 3-day old baby boy was delivered vaginally at full term after two cycles of In vitro fertilization (IVF). All antenatal scans were normal. Initially, he was feeding well, but over the past 24 hours, he has been feeding poorly, and his tummy has become larger. He has not had a bowel movement yet, and his mother has noticed multiple green/yellow vomits in the last few hours. There is no projectile vomiting. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meconium ileus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is meconium ileus, as the baby is showing signs of abdominal distension and bilious vomiting within the first 24-48 hours of life, and has not passed any meconium. While meconium ileus is more common in children with cystic fibrosis, the baby is too young to have been diagnosed with this condition yet, as the heel prick test is normally done at day 5.

      Duodenal atresia is less likely, as it typically presents in the first few hours of life and is often detected on antenatal scans, which were normal in this case.

      Necrotizing enterocolitis is unlikely, as it typically affects preterm babies at a few weeks of life, whereas this baby was born at term and is only 2 days old.

      Posseting, which is the act of bringing up small quantities of milk without pain or discomfort, is not associated with any pathology. However, in this scenario, the baby is vomiting green/yellow fluid, which is not typical of posseting. Therefore, posseting is an incorrect answer.

      Causes and Treatments for Bilious Vomiting in Neonates

      Bilious vomiting in neonates can be caused by various disorders, including duodenal atresia, malrotation with volvulus, jejunal/ileal atresia, meconium ileus, and necrotising enterocolitis. Duodenal atresia occurs in 1 in 5000 births and is more common in babies with Down syndrome. It typically presents a few hours after birth and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows a double bubble sign. Treatment involves duodenoduodenostomy. Malrotation with volvulus is usually caused by incomplete rotation during embryogenesis and presents between 3-7 days after birth. An upper GI contrast study or ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment involves Ladd’s procedure. Jejunal/ileal atresia is caused by vascular insufficiency in utero and occurs in 1 in 3000 births. It presents within 24 hours of birth and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows air-fluid levels. Treatment involves laparotomy with primary resection and anastomosis. Meconium ileus occurs in 15-20% of babies with cystic fibrosis and presents in the first 24-48 hours of life with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Diagnosis involves an abdominal X-ray that shows air-fluid levels, and a sweat test can confirm cystic fibrosis. Treatment involves surgical decompression, and segmental resection may be necessary for serosal damage. Necrotising enterocolitis occurs in up to 2.4 per 1000 births, with increased risks in prematurity and inter-current illness. It typically presents in the second week of life and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows dilated bowel loops, pneumatosis, and portal venous air. Treatment involves conservative and supportive measures for non-perforated cases, while laparotomy and resection are necessary for perforated cases or ongoing clinical deterioration.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - You are a junior doctor working in pediatrics. You are preparing cases for...

    Correct

    • You are a junior doctor working in pediatrics. You are preparing cases for the morbidity and mortality meeting. What is the time frame that defines infant mortality?

      Your Answer: Any death in pregnancy, labour or in the six weeks post partum

      Explanation:

      The investigation of maternal deaths in the UK is carried out by the Confidential Enquiry into Maternal Deaths, which encompasses deaths occurring during pregnancy, labour, and up to six weeks after delivery. Post partum haemorrhage (PPH) is a leading cause of maternal mortality. A stillbirth is defined as the loss of a fetus after twenty weeks gestation, while any loss prior to this is classified as a miscarriage.

      Perinatal Death Rates and Related Metrics

      Perinatal mortality rate is a measure of stillbirths and early neonatal deaths within seven days per 1,000 births after 24 weeks of gestation. In the UK, this rate is around 6 per 1,000 births. This figure is usually broken down into 4 per 1,000 stillbirths and 2 per 1,000 early neonatal deaths.

      Maternal mortality rate, on the other hand, is calculated by dividing the number of deaths during pregnancy, labor, and six weeks after delivery by the total number of maternities and multiplying the result by 1000. Meanwhile, the stillbirth rate is determined by dividing the number of babies born dead after 24 weeks by the total number of births (live and stillborn) and multiplying the result by 1000. Lastly, the neonatal death rate is computed by dividing the number of babies who died between 0-28 days by the total number of live births and multiplying the result by 1000.

      These metrics are important in assessing the quality of perinatal care and identifying areas for improvement. By monitoring these rates, healthcare providers can work towards reducing perinatal deaths and improving maternal and neonatal outcomes.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - What is the most effective examination to detect the potential complications of Kawasaki...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective examination to detect the potential complications of Kawasaki disease in children?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      An echocardiogram should be performed to screen for coronary artery aneurysms, which can be a complication of Kawasaki disease.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A father is worried about a swelling he has noticed on his two-day-old...

    Correct

    • A father is worried about a swelling he has noticed on his two-day-old baby's head. The baby was delivered using forceps due to a prolonged second stage of labor. Upon examination, there is a swelling in the parietal region that does not cross the suture lines. The doctor informs him that it may take several weeks to resolve. What type of head injury is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Cephalohaematoma

      Explanation:

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.

      In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - A toddler is brought to the emergency department by a worried parent. The...

    Correct

    • A toddler is brought to the emergency department by a worried parent. The parent reports that the child was violently shaken by the caregiver. The paediatricians on duty observe retinal haemorrhages and suspect encephalopathy. What was identified on the CT head to complete the triad of features of Shaken Baby Syndrome?

      Your Answer: Subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      The combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy is known as the triad of symptoms associated with Shaken Baby Syndrome. The tearing of fragile bridging cerebral veins in infants is believed to be the cause of subdural haematomas, which are the most common and typical intracranial manifestation of this syndrome.

      Understanding Shaken Baby Syndrome

      Shaken baby syndrome is a condition that involves a combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy. It occurs when a child between the ages of 0-5 years old is intentionally shaken. However, there is controversy among physicians regarding the mechanism of injury, making it difficult for courts to convict suspects of causing shaken baby syndrome to a child. This condition has made headlines due to the ongoing debate among medical professionals.

      Shaken baby syndrome is a serious condition that can cause long-term damage to a child’s health. It is important to understand the signs and symptoms of this condition to ensure that children are protected from harm. While the controversy surrounding the diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome continues, it is crucial to prioritize the safety and well-being of children. By raising awareness and educating the public about this condition, we can work towards preventing it from occurring in the future.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - A 12-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner with complaints of a sore throat,...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner with complaints of a sore throat, fever and cervical lymphadenopathy. The doctor prescribes amoxicillin. After four days of taking the antibiotics, the boy develops a highly itchy, maculopapular rash. His blood tests from four days ago reveal a lymphocytosis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Glandular Fever: Understanding Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis, is a viral illness that can cause a range of symptoms, including fever, sore throat, fatigue, and swollen lymph nodes. One common symptom is the development of a maculopapular rash, which can be triggered by taking penicillin. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and rule out conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis, allergy to penicillin, herpes zoster, and streptococcal throat infection.

      To confirm a diagnosis of glandular fever, healthcare providers may perform a full blood count to check for lymphocytosis and atypical lymphocytes. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) serology may also be tested in certain cases. Treatment for glandular fever is primarily supportive, and patients are advised to avoid contact sports to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      By understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of glandular fever, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and manage this viral illness.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with concerns about not having started...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with concerns about not having started her periods yet. She is shorter than most girls her age. She has gone through adrenarche but has not yet experienced thelarche. Her mother and sister both began menstruating at age 12. The following are her blood test results:
      - FSH: 60 IU/L (normal range: 0-10)
      - LH: 40 IU/L (normal range: 0-16)
      - Oestradiol: 6.4 pmol/L (normal range: 73-407)
      - Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH): 5.0 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5.5)
      - Free thyroxine (T4): 12 pmol/L (normal range: 9.0-18)
      - Prolactin: 323 mIU/L (normal range: <700)

      Based on the patient's symptoms and test results, what is the most likely cause of her amenorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Asherman’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 31 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother with...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother with complaints of right iliac fossa pain for the past two days. He has no previous medical history except for a cough and sore throat in the last week. He has had a high fever for the past two days and has lost his appetite but denies any other symptoms.
      On examination, his temperature is 38.9 °C, and his pulse is 130 beats per minute. Bilateral enlarged submandibular and cervical lymph nodes are palpable and slightly tender. Chest examination is clear, with transmitted sounds from the upper airways. Abdominal examination reveals marked tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding.
      Urine dipstick reveals 2+ of ketones and 1+ of protein.
      Blood test results for his full blood count (FBC) are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 145 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.3 × 109/ 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 425 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      What is the most likely clinical diagnosis for this 6-year-old boy?

      Your Answer: Mesenteric adenitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Child with Right Iliac Fossa Pain and High Temperature

      When a child presents with right iliac fossa pain and high temperature, several possible diagnoses should be considered. One of them is mesenteric adenitis, which is characterized by abdominal pain resulting from mesenteric lymphadenopathy and often accompanied by enlarged neck nodes and a recent history of viral upper respiratory tract infection. Appendicitis is another possibility, but it tends to present with a low-grade fever and peritoneal irritation that causes involuntary muscle spasm in the abdominal wall. Meckel’s diverticulitis, which is clinically indistinguishable from appendicitis, is an intra-operative or radiological diagnosis and can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, obstruction, inflammation, or umbilical discharge. Retroperitoneal appendix abscess is an uncommon type of infection that presents with fever, back pain, and abdominal pain, but it can also cause other symptoms such as gastrointestinal bleeding, poor wound healing, chest pain, general discomfort, urinary frequency, and haematuria. Finally, urinary tract infection (UTI) is unlikely if there are no nitrites or leukocytes on urine dipstick, but it can cause non-specific symptoms such as vomiting/diarrhoea, mild abdominal pain, dysuria, frequency, and enuresis, especially in infants.

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  • Question 32 - Which one of the following statements regarding the HPV vaccine is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the HPV vaccine is incorrect?

      Your Answer: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine

      Correct Answer: Children who received another live vaccine 2 weeks ago can safely have MMR

      Explanation:

      The MMR Vaccine: Information on Contraindications and Adverse Effects

      The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule.

      However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.

      While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, there are some adverse effects that may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, some children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerns arise.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 33 - During a cardiorespiratory exam, a 5-year-old boy is found to have pectus excavatum...

    Correct

    • During a cardiorespiratory exam, a 5-year-old boy is found to have pectus excavatum and pulmonary stenosis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Noonan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Noonan syndrome is diagnosed in a young boy who exhibits a webbed neck, pulmonary stenosis, ptosis, and short stature, despite having a normal karyotype.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

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  • Question 34 - The parents of a 15-month-old boy visit their GP with concerns about his...

    Correct

    • The parents of a 15-month-old boy visit their GP with concerns about his eyes. They have noticed that in some photos there is no 'red eye' on the right side. Upon examination, the boy is found to have an esotropic strabismus and a loss of the red-reflex in the right eye. There is a family history of a grandparent who had an enucleation as a child.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinoblastoma

      Explanation:

      The absence of the red-reflex may be a symptom of a congenital cataract, but this condition is typically identified at birth or during routine infant screenings. Additionally, a congenital cataract would not account for the familial history of enucleation.

      Retinoblastoma is a prevalent type of eye cancer that is commonly found in children, with an average age of diagnosis at 18 months. It is caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. About 10% of cases are hereditary. The most common presenting symptom is the absence of red-reflex, which is replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria). Other possible features include strabismus and visual problems.

      When it comes to managing retinoblastoma, enucleation is not the only option. Depending on how advanced the tumor is, other treatment options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and photocoagulation. The prognosis for retinoblastoma is excellent, with over 90% of patients surviving into adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19
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  • Question 35 - A 4-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department due to severe breathing...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department due to severe breathing difficulties caused by croup. The child was given oral dexamethasone by the GP earlier in the day. Upon examination, the child's oxygen saturation is at 89% on room air and there is noticeable intercostal recession. What emergency treatment should be administered to the child?

      Your Answer: Oxygen + nebulised adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 36 - A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother....

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She had a runny nose for two days and has had a cough for three days. She has not been feeding as much as usual.
      On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C. Her respiratory rate is slightly raised. On auscultation of the chest, she has a widespread wheeze and crepitations. Her other observations are within normal limits.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between respiratory illnesses in children: A guide

      When a child presents with respiratory symptoms, it can be difficult to determine the underlying cause. Here, we will discuss the key features of several common respiratory illnesses in children and how to differentiate between them.

      Bronchiolitis is characterized by coryzal symptoms followed by a persistent cough, tachypnea, chest recession, and wheezing or crepitations on auscultation. A low-grade fever and reduced feeding may also be present.

      Croup is a viral upper airway infection that causes a barking cough, predominantly inspiratory stridor, hoarse voice, intercostal or sternal indrawing, fever, and coryzal symptoms.

      Asthma typically presents with shortness of breath, cough, wheeze, and chest tightness, and is more common in children over two years old.

      Acute epiglottitis is an insidious but rapidly progressive airway emergency that causes fever, sore throat, odynophagia, muffled voice, dysphagia, dyspnea, respiratory distress, dysphonia, and stridor. The child may sit in a tripod position to maximize airway opening.

      A viral upper respiratory tract infection may cause coryzal symptoms, cough, and fever, but crepitations on auscultation would not be expected.

      By understanding the key features of these respiratory illnesses, healthcare providers can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 37 - A mother brings her 10-month-old child to surgery, worried that he is not...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 10-month-old child to surgery, worried that he is not meeting developmental milestones compared to her friends' children. Upon observation, the child is able to sit without support but shows minimal interest in exploring his surroundings. He has a basic pincer grip, seems hesitant to engage with others, and only says mama. How would you describe his developmental progress?

      Your Answer: Normal development

      Explanation:

      Common Developmental Problems and Possible Causes

      Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points such as not smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and failure to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may also arise, such as abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could indicate cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, as they can also be caused by environmental deprivation or general development delay.

      It is important to recognize these developmental problems early on and seek appropriate interventions to address them. By doing so, children can receive the necessary support to reach their full potential and overcome any challenges they may face. With proper care and attention, many children with developmental problems can go on to lead happy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 38 - A 6-year-old girl is presented with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is presented with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. Upon examination, she exhibits bilateral expiratory wheezing, but there are no indications of respiratory distress. Her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and her PEF is approximately 50% of normal. What is the best course of action regarding steroid treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone for 3 days

      Explanation:

      According to the 2016 guidelines of the British Thoracic Society, children should be given a specific dose of steroids based on their age. For children under 2 years, the dose should be 10 mg of prednisolone, for those aged 2-5 years, it should be 20 mg, and for those over 5 years, it should be 30-40 mg. Children who are already taking maintenance steroid tablets should receive a maximum dose of 60 mg or 2 mg/kg of prednisolone. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose should be repeated, and if they are unable to retain the medication orally, intravenous steroids should be considered. The duration of treatment should be tailored to the number of days required for recovery, and a course of steroids exceeding 14 days does not require tapering.

      Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 39 - A 6-week-old infant is brought to the GP clinic by her mother for...

    Correct

    • A 6-week-old infant is brought to the GP clinic by her mother for a check-up. The mother is concerned about her daughter's occasional fever and wants to have her checked. The baby appears active and healthy, breathing comfortably with a central capillary refill of less than 2 seconds. She has no rashes and is of normal color.

      The following observations and growth measurements are recorded:
      - Heart rate: 140 beats per minute (normal range: 115-180)
      - Oxygen saturation: 99% on room air
      - Respiratory rate: 42 breaths per minute (normal range: 25-60)
      - Temperature: 38.7ºC
      - Weight: 75th percentile
      - Height: 50th percentile
      - Head circumference: 75th percentile

      What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to the paediatric emergency department

      Explanation:

      If an infant is under 3 months old and has a fever over 38ºC, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a serious infection. In this case, it is not appropriate to assess the infant in a GP clinic. Instead, they should be immediately referred to a paediatric emergency department for monitoring and potential investigations, such as urine, chest X-ray, blood cultures, or lumbar puncture, depending on the progression of symptoms. Keeping the infant in the GP clinic for observations is not recommended, as they may deteriorate rapidly and become difficult to manage in that setting. Reassurance and review are usually appropriate for a febrile infant with an obvious infective focus, but not for an infant under 3 months old with no apparent focus of infection. Similarly, an urgent referral to an outpatient paediatrician is not appropriate, as it may take too long to organise and may not be able to manage sudden deterioration.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      62
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  • Question 40 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He has...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He has a photograph and is worried about the different appearances of her eyes. One eye shows a normal red reflex while the other appears white. He wants to know if this is normal.

      What is your advice for him?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      If a newborn lacks red reflex, it is important to consider the possibility of retinoblastoma. Other causes should also be evaluated, but urgent referral to an ophthalmologist for a comprehensive, dilated eye examination is necessary.

      Retinoblastoma is a prevalent type of eye cancer that is commonly found in children, with an average age of diagnosis at 18 months. It is caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. About 10% of cases are hereditary. The most common presenting symptom is the absence of red-reflex, which is replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria). Other possible features include strabismus and visual problems.

      When it comes to managing retinoblastoma, enucleation is not the only option. Depending on how advanced the tumor is, other treatment options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and photocoagulation. The prognosis for retinoblastoma is excellent, with over 90% of patients surviving into adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (33/40) 83%
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