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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with a painful swollen groin. He has also noticed stinging on urination and some clear discharge coming from his penis. He is sexually active with his partner of 3 months.
On examination, his heart rate is 96/min, respiratory rate is 18/min, blood pressure is 129/74 mmHg, and temperature is 38.2ºC. The left testicle is tender and erythematosus but the pain is relieved on elevation.
What is the most appropriate first-line investigation for the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Urgent surgical exploration
Correct Answer: Perform a nucleic acid amplification test
Explanation:The appropriate investigations for suspected epididymo-orchitis depend on the patient’s age and sexual history. For sexually active younger adults, a nucleic acid amplification test for sexually transmitted infections is the first-line investigation. This is because organisms such as Chlamydia trachomatis and gonorrhoeae are common causes of epididymo-orchitis in this population. On the other hand, older adults with a low-risk sexual history would require a midstream sample of urine for culture to identify organisms such as E coli.
Prescribing levofloxacin without determining the causative organism is not recommended. Antibiotic therapy should be tailored to the specific organism causing the infection. For example, doxycycline is used to treat Chlamydia trachomatis, while ceftriaxone is used to treat gonorrhoeae. Quinolone antibiotics like ofloxacin or levofloxacin are commonly used to treat E coli infections.
Taking blood for HIV testing is not necessary in this case, as the patient’s symptoms suggest epididymo-orchitis rather than HIV. The focus should be on investigating the cause of the scrotal swelling and discomfort, which can be achieved through a nucleic acid amplification test for sexually transmitted infections.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to the clinic after an insurance medical. He was noted to have an abnormal alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Past history includes obesity, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia, which he manages with diet control. He denies any significant alcohol intake. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 31.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 394 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 143 mmo/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 85 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 95 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 28 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Total cholesterol 6.8 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
Triglycerides 3.8 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
Ultrasound of liver Increase in echogenicity
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemochromatosis
Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)
Explanation:Understanding Liver Diseases: NAFLD, Viral Hepatitis, Alcohol-related Cirrhosis, Wilson’s Disease, and Haemochromatosis
Liver diseases can have various causes and presentations. One of the most common is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), which is closely associated with obesity, hypertension, diabetes, and dyslipidaemia. NAFLD is often asymptomatic, but some patients may experience tiredness or epigastric fullness. Weight loss is the primary treatment, although glitazones have shown promising results in improving liver function.
Viral hepatitis is another common liver disease, but there are no indicators of it in this patient’s history. Alcohol-related cirrhosis is often caused by excessive alcohol intake, but this patient denies alcohol consumption, making NAFLD a more likely diagnosis.
Wilson’s disease typically presents with neuropsychiatric symptoms or signs, and the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings is a key diagnostic feature. Haemochromatosis, on the other hand, results from iron overload and is often associated with diabetes mellitus and bronzing of the skin.
Understanding the different types of liver diseases and their presentations is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which statement about leptin is accurate?
Your Answer: Acts upon the adipocyte
Correct Answer: Produces satiety
Explanation:The Role of Leptin in Regulating Appetite and Body Weight
Leptin is a hormone that is produced by adipocytes, or fat cells, and its concentration in the bloodstream is directly related to the amount of fat in the body. When leptin levels are high, it acts on receptors in the hypothalamus to produce feelings of satiety, or fullness, which can help to reduce food intake. This makes leptin an important regulator of appetite and body weight.
However, in some cases, patients may develop leptin resistance, which means that their bodies are no longer able to respond to the hormone in the same way. This can lead to continued weight gain and difficulty in controlling food intake, even when leptin levels are high. Despite this, researchers continue to study the role of leptin in the body and explore potential treatments for obesity and other related conditions.
Overall, the physiology of leptin and its effects on appetite and body weight is an important area of research that has the potential to improve the health and well-being of millions of people around the world. By developing new treatments and interventions that target leptin and other related hormones, we may be able to help patients achieve and maintain a healthy weight and reduce their risk of developing chronic diseases such as diabetes, heart disease, and cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the way in which trimethoprim works?
Your Answer: Inhibition of folic acid metabolism
Explanation:Trimethoprim Mechanism of Action
Trimethoprim works by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme called dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR). This enzyme is responsible for converting dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid, which is a crucial step in the synthesis of purines and DNA in bacteria. By blocking DHFR, trimethoprim disrupts the bacterial cell’s ability to produce these essential components, ultimately leading to the inhibition of bacterial growth and replication. This mechanism of action makes trimethoprim an effective antibiotic for treating bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 95-year-old man without past medical history presents with increasing forgetfulness. His son is concerned that over the last six weeks his father has been forgetting his grandchildren's names and stories from his upbringing. The patient reports a loss of appetite, sometimes forgetting if he has eaten, is not getting good quality sleep and is frustrated with his son for taking him to the doctors. He sometimes sees and hears his recently deceased wife.
Based on these symptoms, what is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Lewy body dementia
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Pseudodementia, which is characterized by global memory loss rather than short-term memory loss, can be mistaken for dementia but is actually a symptom of severe depression.
The correct diagnosis in this case is depression, as the patient’s symptoms are consistent with pseudodementia, which is a common mimic for dementia in elderly patients. While some cognitive impairment is present, the key feature is a global memory loss affecting both short and long-term memory over a short period of four weeks, with reluctance to engage in clinical assessment. The recent loss of the patient’s husband also suggests a severe reactive depressive episode.
Alzheimer’s dementia is a possible differential diagnosis due to the patient’s age, but it tends to present more gradually with selective impairment of short-term memory and relative sparing of longer-term memories.
Frontotemporal lobe dementia is less likely in this case as it tends to present with more dramatic behavioral changes or emotional disinhibition.
Lewy body dementia shares some symptoms with this case, such as impaired cognition and visual hallucinations. However, the specific hallucination of the patient’s husband is more likely related to grief and depression, which is supported by the relatively short duration of symptoms. Question stems that describe Lewy body dementia may also provide clues towards a movement disorder.
Differentiating between Depression and Dementia
Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.
One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.
Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.
The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.
In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old Chinese boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents because his skin and face turned blue after playing with his friends. The boy was born in China, and soon after his birth he and his parents moved to the United Kingdom. An ultrasound examination revealed a large gap in the upper portion of the ventricular septum and a slightly enlarged right ventricle. The doctor explained to the parents the severity of the disease and the importance of a surgical intervention.
If the parents decide not to go ahead with surgery to correct this condition, which of the following is most likely to happen to their child in the future?Your Answer: Development of a persistent foramen ovale
Correct Answer: Pulmonary vascular hypertrophy with shunt reversal leading to congestive heart failure
Explanation:Complications of Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a condition where there is an opening in the septum between the left and right ventricles of the heart. This can cause a shunt of blood from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, leading to complications if left untreated.
Pulmonary vascular hypertrophy with shunt reversal leading to congestive heart failure is a common complication of VSD. If the defect is not corrected, it can cause compensatory pulmonary vascular hypertrophy, leading to pulmonary hypertension and shunt reversal (right to left), known as Eisenmenger’s syndrome. This can ultimately lead to congestive heart failure.
Dilated cardiomyopathy is not a complication of VSD, as it is a condition where the heart becomes enlarged and weakened.
Development of a persistent foramen ovale is also not a complication of VSD, as it is a condition where the foramen ovale, a hole between the atria of the heart, fails to close after birth.
Atrial fibrillation is not a complication of VSD, as it is a condition where the heart beats irregularly.
Progressive lengthening of the PR interval is also not a complication of VSD, as it is a condition where the electrical signal that controls the heartbeat is delayed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the maternity unit 3 days after delivering a healthy baby at 39 weeks gestation. She had a normal third stage of labour and has been experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding and brown discharge, with an estimated blood loss of 120 ml. The patient has a history of asthma.
On examination, her temperature is 37.2ºC, heart rate is 92 bpm, and blood pressure is 120/78 mmHg. There is no abdominal tenderness and a pelvic and vaginal exam are unremarkable.
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Reassure and advise sanitary towel use
Explanation:After a vaginal delivery, the loss of blood exceeding 500 ml is referred to as postpartum haemorrhage.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 27-year-old primigravida woman presents to the maternity centre in labour at 39 weeks. She has been diagnosed with HIV and has been on regular antiretroviral therapy. Her viral load at 37 weeks is as follows:
HIV Viral Load 35 RNA copies/mL (0-50)
What delivery plan would be most suitable for this patient?Your Answer: Continue with normal vaginal delivery
Explanation:If a pregnant woman has a viral load of less than 50 copies/mL at 36 weeks, vaginal delivery is recommended. Therefore, in this case, the correct answer is to proceed with vaginal delivery. It is not necessary to prepare for a caesarian section as the pregnancy is considered safe without surgical intervention. Re-testing the HIV viral load is not necessary as the current recommendation is to test at 36 weeks. Starting antiretroviral infusion during vaginal delivery is also not necessary as the woman is already on regular therapy and has an undetectable viral load. Antiretroviral infusion is typically used during a caesarean section when the viral load is greater than 50 copies/mL.
HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission
With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In fact, in London alone, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The primary goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus, and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.
To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Firstly, all pregnant women should be offered HIV screening, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, antiretroviral therapy should be offered to all pregnant women, regardless of whether they were taking it previously. This therapy has been shown to significantly reduce vertical transmission rates, which can range from 25-30% to just 2%.
The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. If the viral load is higher, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before the procedure. Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also typically administered to the newborn, with zidovudine being the preferred medication if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. If the viral load is higher, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.
Finally, infant feeding is an important consideration. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed, as this can increase the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help to minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman visits the clinic with her husband, who is worried about her recent change in behavior. For the past two weeks, she has been acting out of character, spending large amounts of money on credit cards and wearing bold makeup and clothes that she wouldn't normally choose. She has also been experiencing insomnia, often staying up late at night to work on important projects that she can't disclose to her husband. The patient has a history of depression, and her mother was hospitalized for mental illness. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Bipolar Disorder
Explanation:Differentiating Mental Disorders: Understanding the Symptoms
Bipolar Disorder:
A patient showing signs of mania, such as inflated self-esteem, pressured speech, reduced need for sleep, and engaging in high-risk behaviors, may be diagnosed with bipolar disorder. A manic episode requires a disturbed mood plus three of the above symptoms. A history of depression and a family history of psychiatric conditions, such as bipolar disorder, further support this diagnosis.Personality Disorder:
Personality disorders are maladaptive mental disorders that typically develop at an early age. A patient in their mid-forties who has recently started experiencing mood-related symptoms, such as depression and mania, is unlikely to have a personality disorder. Types of personality disorders include paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic, and obsessive-compulsive.Anxiety Disorder:
Symptoms of anxiety include social withdrawal, excessive worry, and avoidance of risk. A patient exhibiting symptoms of mania, such as high energy and engaging in risky behaviors, is not displaying signs of anxiety disorder. However, anxiety disorder may coexist with bipolar disorder.Depression:
Depression is characterized by low mood, lack of enjoyment in activities, difficulty concentrating, and suicidal thoughts. A patient who has a history of depression but is currently experiencing symptoms of mania is not exhibiting signs of depression.Schizophrenia:
Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires several criteria for diagnosis. Symptoms include hallucinations, disordered speech and thought, paranoia, and social withdrawal. A patient who does not exhibit these symptoms is not eligible for a differential diagnosis of schizophrenia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female patient complains of painful and heavy periods since discontinuing the combined oral contraceptive pill eight months ago. She is distressed as she desires to conceive but the pain is hindering sexual intercourse. The patient seeks to identify the underlying cause of her symptoms. During the examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without palpable masses. However, a bimanual pelvic examination is challenging due to the pain. What is the definitive diagnostic test for this patient?
Your Answer: Transvaginal and pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer: Laparoscopy
Explanation:When it comes to patients with suspected endometriosis, laparoscopy is considered the most reliable investigation method. This is because it enables direct visualization and biopsy of the endometrial deposits. While a CT scan may also be used to detect such deposits, it is less specific compared to MRI scans. Ultrasound can be useful in detecting endometriomas, but it is important to note that a normal scan does not necessarily rule out the possibility of endometriosis.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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A GP registrar has diagnosed a urinary tract infection in a 3-year-old child.
Urine cultures and sensitivity show the organism is sensitive to amoxicillin.
The child weighs 12 kg. The dose of amoxicillin is 20 mg/kg three times daily in a pharmacological preparation which contains 125 mg/5 ml.
What is the appropriate dose to be prescribed?
Choose the correct dosing schedule:Your Answer: 4 ml twice daily
Explanation:Dosage Calculation for a 10 kg Child
When administering medication to a child, it is important to calculate the correct dosage based on their weight. For a 10 kg child, the recommended dose is 4 mg/kg twice daily. This means that the child would require 40 mg twice daily.
To determine the amount of medication needed, it is important to know the concentration of the medication. If the medication contains 50 mg per 5 ml, then the child would need 4 ml twice daily to receive the correct dosage of 40 mg. It is important to carefully measure the medication and follow the instructions provided by the healthcare provider to ensure the child receives the correct amount of medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of hot flashes, vaginal soreness, and decreased libido. She reports that her last menstrual period was 6 months ago and suspects that she is going through menopause. The patient is interested in starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) but is worried about the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE). What is the safest HRT option for her in terms of VTE risk?
Your Answer: Transdermal HRT
Explanation:Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.
Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.
HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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The mother of a 7-week-old baby boy born at 33 weeks gestation is seeking guidance on immunisation. What is the recommended course of action for his first round of vaccinations?
Your Answer: Give as per normal timetable
Explanation:The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man in the United Kingdom presents with fever and cough. He smells strongly of alcohol and has no fixed abode. His heart rate was 123 bpm, blood pressure 93/75 mmHg, oxygen saturations 92% and respiratory rate 45 breaths per minute. Further history from him reveals no recent travel history and no contact with anyone with a history of foreign travel.
Chest X-ray revealed consolidation of the right upper zone.
Which of the following drugs is the most prudent choice in his treatment?Your Answer: Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol
Correct Answer: Meropenem
Explanation:Understanding Klebsiella Pneumoniae Infection and Treatment Options
Klebsiella pneumoniae (KP) is a common organism implicated in various infections such as pneumonia, urinary tract infection, intra-abdominal abscesses, or bacteraemia. Patients with underlying conditions like alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic lung disease are at higher risk of contracting KP. The new hypervirulent strains with capsular serotypes K1 or K2 are increasingly being seen. In suspected cases of Klebsiella infection, treatment is best started with carbapenems. However, strains possessing carbapenemases are also being discovered, and Polymyxin B or E or tigecycline are now used as the last line of treatment. This article provides an overview of KP infection, radiological findings, and treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition commonly diagnosed following birth, a teenager whose mother and brother both have PKU but he himself does not, is seeking genetic counselling. What is the probability that he is a carrier of the disease?
Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer: 100%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal-Recessive Inheritance: The Case of Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder that results from a specific enzyme deficiency, causing phenylalanine to accumulate in the body. PKU is an autosomal-recessive disease, meaning that both parents must carry the abnormal gene for their child to inherit the disease. In the case of a teenager whose mother has PKU and father is a carrier, there is a 50% chance of inheriting the disease and a 50% chance of being a carrier. However, if the teenager does not have PKU, it means he has inherited one abnormal gene from his mother and is a carrier with a 100% chance. Early detection and treatment of PKU can prevent intellectual disability. Understanding autosomal-recessive inheritance is crucial in predicting the likelihood of inheriting genetic disorders like PKU.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of abdominal pain. Upon further inquiry, she reveals a 3-week history of right-sided abdominal pain and considerable weight loss. She reports consuming 3 units of alcohol per week and has smoked for 10 pack-years. She is not taking any medications except for the contraceptive pill and has no known allergies. During the physical examination, she displays oral ulcers and exhibits signs of fatigue and pallor.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Gallstones
Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Abdominal Conditions: Crohn’s Disease, Ulcerative Colitis, Peptic Ulcer Disease, Gallstones, and Diverticulitis
Abdominal pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to differentiate between them. Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can affect the entire bowel and typically presents between the ages of 20 and 50. It is chronic and relapsing, with skip lesions of normal bowel in between affected areas. Ulcerative colitis is another inflammatory bowel disease that starts at the rectum and moves upward. It can be classified by the extent of inflammation, with symptoms including bloody diarrhea and mucous. Peptic ulcer disease causes epigastric pain and may present with heartburn symptoms, but it is not consistent with the clinical picture described in the vignette. Gallstones typically cause right upper quadrant pain and are more common in females. Diverticulitis presents with left iliac fossa abdominal pain and is more common in elderly patients. Complications of untreated diverticulitis include abscess formation, bowel obstruction, or perforation. Understanding the differences between these conditions can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Correct
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You assess a 74-year-old male patient who comes to the clinic with deteriorating heart failure. During the examination, you observe that his blood pressure is high at 152/90 mmHg. Additionally, his general practitioner has recently prescribed him regular diclofenac for joint pain. Can you identify one of the suggested ways in which NSAIDs cause the retention of salt and water?
Your Answer: Reduced aldosterone metabolism
Explanation:NSAIDs and Aldosterone Metabolism
Aldosterone is a hormone that regulates salt and water balance in the body. Studies have shown that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may interfere with the metabolism of aldosterone by inhibiting its glucuronidation, a crucial step in its breakdown. This can lead to increased levels of aldosterone, which in turn can cause the body to retain more salt and water.
Contrary to popular belief, NSAIDs do not increase plasma renin levels, which is another hormone involved in regulating salt and water balance. In fact, evidence suggests that NSAIDs may actually reduce plasma renin levels. It is important to note that the effects of NSAIDs on aldosterone metabolism and plasma renin levels may vary depending on the individual and the specific NSAID used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in Nepal. She had flown from the United Kingdom the previous day for a hiking trip with her friends. She reports feeling light-headed and dizzy in the hotel lobby in the morning. Despite taking a short rest, she continues to feel unwell and complains of nausea and a generalised dull headache. She is overweight and has no history of migraine. Although she is well oriented, she feels that her nausea and headache are getting worse.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Transfer the patient immediately to a location at lower altitude
Correct Answer: Administer oxygen and acetazolamide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Mountain Sickness
Acute mountain sickness (AMS) is a common condition that can occur when ascending to high altitudes without proper acclimatization. Symptoms include nausea, headache, difficulty breathing, and dizziness. Here are some treatment options for AMS:
Administer oxygen and acetazolamide: Low-flow oxygen and acetazolamide can effectively relieve symptoms of AMS. Dexamethasone is also an alternative to acetazolamide.
Antiemetics and a dose of prophylactic antibiotics: These can help relieve symptoms in mild cases, but are not sufficient for moderate to severe cases.
Nifedipine: This medication may be effective in treating high-altitude pulmonary edema, but has no role in treating AMS.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and bed rest: NSAIDs can provide symptomatic relief, but cannot cure the underlying cause of AMS.
Transfer the patient immediately to a location at lower altitude: Descent is always an effective treatment for AMS, but is not necessary unless symptoms are intractable or there is suspicion of illness progression.
Treatment Options for Acute Mountain Sickness
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 19
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal bloating. She has been undergoing ovulation induction treatment. During the US examination, ascites is detected. Her blood test results are as follows:
- Hb: 130 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160)
- Platelets: 300 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
- WBC: 10 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
- Na+: 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
- K+: 5.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 10 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
- CRP: 8 mg/L (normal range: <5)
- Haematocrit: 0.5 (normal range for females: 0.36-0.48; normal range for males: 0.4-0.54)
What is the medication that is most likely to have caused these side effects?Your Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy
Explanation:Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can occur as a possible adverse effect of ovulation induction. The symptoms of this syndrome, such as ascites, vomiting, diarrhea, and high hematocrit, are typical. There are various medications used for ovulation induction, and the risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is higher with gonadotropin therapy than with clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole, or anastrozole. Therefore, it is probable that the patient received gonadotropin therapy.
Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which antibody is the most specific for diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis?
Your Answer: Anti-Scl-70 antibodies
Explanation:The most specific test for diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis among patients is the presence of anti-Scl-70 antibodies.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her flatmates who claim that she has vomited up blood. Apparently she had consumed far too much alcohol over the course of the night, had vomited on multiple occasions, and then began to dry-retch. After a period of retching, she vomited a minimal amount of bright red blood. On examination, she is intoxicated and has marked epigastric tenderness; her blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, with a heart rate of 70 bpm, regular.
Investigations:
Investigation
Result
Normal value
Haemoglobin 145 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 301 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her?Your Answer: Repeat Hb in the morning and arrange upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
Correct Answer: Discharge in the morning if stable
Explanation:Management of Mallory-Weiss Tear: A Case Study
A Mallory-Weiss tear is a longitudinal mucosal laceration at the gastro-oesophageal junction or cardia caused by repeated retching. In a stable patient with a Hb of 145 g/l, significant blood loss is unlikely. Observation overnight is recommended, and if stable, the patient can be discharged the following morning. Further endoscopic investigation is not necessary in this case. Intravenous pantoprazole is not indicated for a Mallory-Weiss tear, and antacid treatment is unnecessary as the tear will heal spontaneously. Urgent endoscopic investigation is not required if the patient remains clinically stable and improves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman has been admitted for treatment of lower extremity cellulitis. During your examination, you hear three heart sounds present across all four auscultation sites. You observe that the latter two heart sounds become more distant from each other during inspiration.
What is the physiological explanation for this phenomenon?Your Answer: Increased return to the right heart during inspiration, which prolongs closure of the pulmonary valve
Explanation:Interpretation of Heart Sounds
Explanation: When listening to heart sounds, it is important to understand the physiological and pathological factors that can affect them. During inspiration, there is an increased return of blood to the right heart, which can prolong the closure of the pulmonary valve. This is a normal physiological response. Right-to-left shunting, on the other hand, can cause cyanosis and prolong the closure of the aortic valve. A stiff left ventricle, often seen in long-standing hypertension, can produce a third heart sound called S4, but this sound does not vary with inspiration. An atrial septal defect will cause fixed splitting of S2 and will not vary with inspiration. Therefore, understanding the underlying causes of heart sounds can aid in the diagnosis and management of cardiovascular conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35-year-old patient presents with an abdominal mass that is primarily located around the caecum and also involves the terminal ileum. There are no signs of weight loss or lymphadenopathy. The patient has a history of multiple oral ulcers and severe perianal disease, including fissures, fistulae, and previous abscesses that have required draining.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a condition that affects different parts of the digestive tract. The location of the disease can be classified as ileal, colonic, ileo-colonic, or upper gastrointestinal tract. In some cases, the disease can cause a solid, thickened mass around the caecum, which also involves the terminal ileum. This is known as ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.
While weight loss is a common symptom of Crohn’s disease, it is not always present. It is important to note that the range of areas affected by the disease makes it unlikely for it to be classified as anything other than ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no history of smoking or drug use. An ultrasound reveals cirrhosis of the liver, and he is diagnosed with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. He undergoes a liver transplant. What type of emphysema is he now at higher risk of developing?
Your Answer: Interstitial
Correct Answer: Panacinar
Explanation:Different Types of Emphysema and Their Characteristics
Emphysema is a lung condition that has various forms, each with its own distinct characteristics. The four main types of emphysema are panacinar, compensatory, interstitial, centriacinar, and paraseptal.
Panacinar emphysema affects the entire acinus, from the respiratory bronchiole to the distal alveoli. It is often associated with α-1-antitrypsin deficiency.
Compensatory emphysema occurs when the lung parenchyma is scarred, but it is usually asymptomatic.
Interstitial emphysema is not a true form of emphysema, but rather occurs when air penetrates the pulmonary interstitium. It can be caused by chest wounds or alveolar tears resulting from coughing and airway obstruction.
Centriacinar emphysema is characterized by enlargement of the central portions of the acinus, specifically the respiratory bronchiole. It is often caused by exposure to coal dust and tobacco products.
Paraseptal emphysema is associated with scarring and can lead to spontaneous pneumothorax in young patients. It is more severe when it occurs in areas adjacent to the pleura, where it can cause the development of large, cyst-like structures that can rupture into the pleural cavity.
In summary, understanding the different types of emphysema and their characteristics is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by air ambulance after being involved in a road traffic accident. According to witnesses this was a high-impact car crash and the other passenger in the car has unfortunately already passed away. The man is unconscious when he arrives, and initial assessment reveals a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9. He has some minor facial injuries and is bleeding from his nose.
What is the appropriate initial management for traumatic brain injury in this case?Your Answer: Permissive hypotension
Correct Answer: Maintain pCO2 4.5 kPa
Explanation:Management of Traumatic Brain Injury: Key Considerations
Traumatic brain injury (TBI) is a serious condition that requires prompt and appropriate management to prevent secondary injury and improve outcomes. Here are some key considerations for managing TBI:
Maintain pCO2 4.5 kPa: Sedation and ventilation should be used to maintain a pCO2 of 4.5 kPa to protect the brain. Adequate oxygenation is also essential.
Permissive hypotension: Hypotension should be treated aggressively to prevent secondary ischaemic injury. Mean arterial pressure should be maintained >75 mmHg.
Intubation if GCS falls below 6: Patients with a GCS score below 8 should be intubated to maintain their airway. Spinal immobilisation is also essential.
Head-up tilt to 30 degrees: Head-up tilt to 30 degrees is an accepted measure to minimise rises in intracranial pressure in patients with TBI. Care should be taken if the patient has a cervical spine injury.
Fluid resuscitation with saline: Initial fluid resuscitation should be with a crystalloid, such as normal saline, and/or blood. Albumin should be avoided.
By following these key considerations, healthcare professionals can effectively manage TBI and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 40-year old man is deeply concerned that a mole on his arm may be cancerous. He has consulted with a dermatologist who has assured him that it is a benign pigmented nevus, but the patient remains convinced that he will develop skin cancer. What is the term for neurotic anxiety related to a serious medical condition that cannot be alleviated by medical reassurance, assuming there are no other significant psychiatric disorders present?
Your Answer: Somatisation disorder
Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis
Explanation:Differentiating between disorders related to illness and pain
There are several disorders related to illness and pain that can be difficult to differentiate. Hypochondriasis, also known as Illness anxiety disorder, is characterized by excessive fear of having or developing a disease. Malingering, on the other hand, involves faking or causing disease to escape obligations or obtain monetary rewards.
Somatisation disorder is diagnosed when a patient experiences symptoms for at least two years and seeks reassurance from multiple healthcare professionals, impacting their social and family functioning. Pain disorder is characterized by experiencing pain without obvious physical basis or exceeding the normal distress associated with an illness.
Finally, Munchausen syndrome is a severe form of factitious disorder where patients present with dramatic, faked, or induced physical or psychological complaints and even submit to unwarranted invasive treatments. It is important to differentiate between these disorders to provide appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male comes to the emergency department after ingesting an excessive amount of his father's medication. Upon examination, his serum potassium level is found to be 6 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9). Which medication is the probable culprit for this abnormality?
Your Answer: Omeprazole
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Overdose Effects of Various Drugs
Betablockers, specifically propranolol, can lead to hyperkalaemia due to transmembrane shifts when taken in overdose. Conversely, beta-agonists like salbutamol are known to cause hypokalaemia. Salicylate overdose can cause metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis, with adults typically experiencing an alkalosis with a high pH, while children under 4-years-old may experience an acidosis. Hypokalaemia is more common than hyperkalaemia in patients following a salicylate overdose. Overdosing on SSRI medication, such as fluoxetine, rarely causes significant issues unless taken in extremely high doses, which may lead to tachycardia and prolonged QT interval. Zopiclone can cause excessive drowsiness, but respiratory depression is rare. Digoxin therapy overdose usually results in rhythm disturbance, which may be worsened by hypokalaemia.
Overall, it is important to be aware of the potential effects of overdosing on various medications and seek medical attention immediately if an overdose is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 28
Correct
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A 70-year-old man is admitted to an acute psychiatric unit with sudden onset of agitation and psychosis. He has a history of schizophrenia with a fluctuating course. To alleviate his symptoms, he is given a one-time intramuscular injection of 50 mg chlorpromazine. What is the primary pharmacological effect of chlorpromazine in managing psychosis?
Your Answer: Dopaminergic blockade in the mesolimbic system
Explanation:Chlorpromazine is a typical antipsychotic drug that acts on many neurotransmitter systems, but it’s antipsychotic properties come from its action on dopaminergic neurotransmission in the mesolimbic system. However, blocking dopamine transmission can also cause extrapyramidal side effects of movement and hyperprolactinemia. The drug’s anticholinergic actions cause dry mouth, urinary retention, palpitations, tachycardia, abnormal dreams, and hypotension. Inhibition of serotonergic neurotransmission can attenuate the anticholinergic side effects and inhibit aggressive tendencies and anxiety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 55-year-old, previously healthy man, receives percutaneous intervention for coronary disease as an outpatient. He is prescribed secondary preventive and symptomatic medications upon discharge. However, a few days after starting the new medications, he develops itchy raised bumps on his upper limbs and trunk. There is no involvement of mucosa and he is otherwise well. His symptoms improve with antihistamine. Which medication is the most likely cause of his condition?
Your Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Aspirin is a frequent trigger of urticaria, a skin condition that this patient has developed. While there are several medications that can cause urticaria, aspirin is one of the most common culprits. The exact mechanism behind this reaction is not fully understood, but it is believed that aspirin alters the metabolism of arachidonic acid, leading to an increase in cysteinyl leukotriene instead of prostaglandin. Cysteinyl leukotriene can directly affect blood vessels and cause histamine release, resulting in the characteristic symptoms of urticaria.
Unlike aspirin, calcium channel blockers (CaCB), such as amlodipine, are not typically associated with urticaria. In fact, some CaCBs, like nifedipine, have been tested as a potential treatment for chronic idiopathic urticaria and have shown positive results.
Beta-blockers, including bisoprolol, are known to worsen certain skin conditions that have skin features, such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and Raynaud’s syndrome, but they are not commonly linked to urticaria.
Furosemide is known to cause certain skin conditions, such as eczema, bullous eruption, and, in rare cases, Steven-Johnson’s syndrome, but it is not a known trigger of urticaria.
Urticaria, also known as hives, can be caused by various drugs. Some of the most common drugs that cause urticaria include aspirin, penicillins, NSAIDs, and opiates. These drugs can trigger an allergic reaction in the body, leading to the development of hives. It is important to note that not everyone who takes these drugs will experience urticaria, and the severity of the reaction can vary from person to person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents to his doctor with an enlarging neck mass. His mother had a right adrenal phaeochromocytoma which was successfully removed. The patient is 1.9m tall and weighs 74 kg. During examination, the doctor notices multiple yellowish white masses on the patient's lips and tongue. Three months later, the patient undergoes a total thyroidectomy. Which structure is innervated by the nerve most at risk during this procedure, and is also part of the vagus nerve?
Your Answer: Carotid sinus
Correct Answer: Aortic arch
Explanation:The aortic arch has baroreceptors that send afferent fibers to the vagus nerve. A patient with an enlarging neck mass, a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B (MEN2B), and a marfanoid habitus may have medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, which is a feature of MEN2B. Surgery is the definitive treatment, but the recurrent laryngeal nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve, is at risk during thyroidectomy. The chorda tympani innervates the taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, while the lingual nerve and hypoglossal nerve innervate the general somatic sensation and motor function, respectively. The platysma muscle is innervated by cranial nerve VII, and the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) carries general visceral afferent information from the carotid sinus to the brainstem. The spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) innervates both the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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