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  • Question 1 - You examine the X-ray of a 65 year old male who has tripped...

    Incorrect

    • You examine the X-ray of a 65 year old male who has tripped and landed on his extended right hand. The X-ray confirms a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement. You intend to perform a reduction of the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). How many healthcare professionals should be present during the entire procedure?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.

      Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.

      During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.

      There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 4-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She is complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She is complaining of left-sided ear pain and symptoms of a cold. On examination, she has a red eardrum on the left-hand side. She does not have a fever and appears to be in good health. You determine that she has acute otitis media.
      What would be a valid reason to prescribe antibiotics for this child?

      Your Answer: Otorrhoea

      Explanation:

      According to a Cochrane review conducted in 2008, it was discovered that approximately 80% of children experiencing acute otitis media were able to recover within a span of two days. However, the use of antibiotics only resulted in a reduction of pain for about 7% of children after the same two-day period. Furthermore, the administration of antibiotics did not show any significant impact on the rates of hearing loss, recurrence, or perforation. In cases where antibiotics are deemed necessary for children with otitis media, some indications include being under the age of two, experiencing discharge from the ear (otorrhoea), and having bilateral acute otitis media.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department during a...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department during a heatwave after being discovered collapsed while wearing running attire. The patient appears confused and is unable to provide coherent responses to questions. A core body temperature of 41.6ĀŗC is recorded. You determine that immediate active cooling methods are necessary. Which of the following medications is appropriate for the initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are helpful in reducing shivering and improving the effectiveness of active cooling techniques. They are particularly useful in controlling seizures and making cooling more tolerable for patients. By administering small doses of intravenous benzodiazepines like diazepam or midazolam, shivering can be reduced, which in turn prevents heat gain and enhances the cooling process. On the other hand, dantrolene does not currently have any role in managing heat stroke. Additionally, antipyretics are not effective in reducing high body temperature caused by excessive heat. They only work when the core body temperature is elevated due to pyrogens.

      Further Reading:

      Heat Stroke:
      – Core temperature >40°C with central nervous system dysfunction
      – Classified into classic/non-exertional heat stroke and exertional heat stroke
      – Classic heat stroke due to passive exposure to severe environmental heat
      – Exertional heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity in combination with excessive environmental heat
      – Mechanisms to reduce core temperature overwhelmed, leading to tissue damage
      – Symptoms include high body temperature, vascular endothelial surface damage, inflammation, dehydration, and renal failure
      – Management includes cooling methods and supportive care
      – Target core temperature for cooling is 38.5°C

      Heat Exhaustion:
      – Mild to moderate heat illness that can progress to heat stroke if untreated
      – Core temperature elevated but <40°C
      – Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and mild neurological symptoms
      – Normal thermoregulation is disrupted
      – Management includes moving patient to a cooler environment, rehydration, and rest

      Other Heat-Related Illnesses:
      – Heat oedema: transitory swelling of hands and feet, resolves spontaneously
      – Heat syncope: results from volume depletion and peripheral vasodilatation, managed by moving patient to a cooler environment and rehydration
      – Heat cramps: painful muscle contractions associated with exertion, managed with cooling, rest, analgesia, and rehydration

      Risk Factors for Severe Heat-Related Illness:
      – Old age, very young age, chronic disease and debility, mental illness, certain medications, housing issues, occupational factors

      Management:
      – Cooling methods include spraying with tepid water, fanning, administering cooled IV fluids, cold or ice water immersion, and ice packs
      – Benzodiazepines may be used to control shivering
      – Rapid cooling to achieve rapid normothermia should be avoided to prevent overcooling and hypothermia
      – Supportive care includes intravenous fluid replacement, seizure treatment if required, and consideration of haemofiltration
      – Some patients may require liver transplant due to significant liver damage
      – Patients with heat stroke should ideally be managed in a HDU/ICU setting with CVP and urinary catheter output measurements

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical condition during her...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical condition during her pregnancy. As a result, the newborn is born with a neural tube defect and hemorrhagic disease of the newborn.
      Which of the listed medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      There is an increased risk of neural tube defects in women with epilepsy who take carbamazepine during pregnancy, ranging from 2 to 10 times higher. Additionally, there is a risk of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn associated with this medication. It is crucial to have discussions about epilepsy treatments with women of childbearing age during the planning stages so that they can start early supplementation of folic acid.

      Below is a list outlining the most commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimester, these medications can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can lead to ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can cause first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, these medications can result in respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This medication is associated with haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug can cause grey baby syndrome in newborns.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.

      Danazol: When administered in the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride tablets. Crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development in the fetus.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, haloperidol may cause limb malformations. In the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy is associated with an acceptable bleeding rate and a low rate of thrombotic recurrence in the mother.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65 year old female is brought into the hospital after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old female is brought into the hospital after experiencing a cardiac arrest at the nearby soccer field where she was watching a game. The patient was promptly assessed by the medical team at the field and received a shock from an automated defibrillator device, leading to a return of spontaneous circulation.

      Your consultant informs you that the objective now is to minimize the severity of the post-cardiac arrest syndrome. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of the post-cardiac arrest syndrome?

      Your Answer: Systemic ischaemia/reperfusion response

      Correct Answer: Post-cardiac arrest renal dysfunction

      Explanation:

      The post-cardiac arrest syndrome consists of four components. The first component is post-cardiac arrest brain injury, which refers to any damage or impairment to the brain that occurs after a cardiac arrest. The second component is post-cardiac arrest myocardial dysfunction, which is a condition where the heart muscle does not function properly after a cardiac arrest.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of severe migraines. This morning's episode...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of severe migraines. This morning's episode was similar to previous ones in that it occurred around her right temple and was so intense that she felt like hitting her head to try and distract from the pain. Further questioning and examination lead you to conclude that she is suffering from cluster headaches.

      Which of the following is NOT an effective treatment for cluster headaches?

      Your Answer: Oral codeine phosphate

      Explanation:

      Standard pain relievers are generally not effective in treating cluster headaches. They take too long to work, and by the time they start to relieve the pain, the headache has usually already gone away. It is not recommended to use opioids for cluster headaches as they may actually make the headaches worse, and using them for a long time can lead to dependency.

      However, there are other options that can be effective in treating cluster headaches. One option is to use subcutaneous sumatriptan, which is a medication that works by stimulating a specific receptor in the brain. This can help reduce the inflammation in the blood vessels that is associated with migraines and cluster headaches. Most people find that subcutaneous sumatriptan starts to work within 10-15 minutes of being administered.

      Another option is to use zolmitriptan nasal spray, which is also a medication that works in a similar way to sumatriptan. However, it may take a bit longer for the nasal spray to start working compared to the subcutaneous injection.

      In addition to medication, high-flow oxygen can also be used as an alternative therapy for cluster headaches. This involves breathing in oxygen at a high flow rate, which can help relieve the pain and other symptoms of a cluster headache.

      Lastly, octreotide can be administered subcutaneously and has been shown to be more effective than a placebo in treating acute cluster headache attacks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old engineering student returns from a hiking trip in South America with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old engineering student returns from a hiking trip in South America with a high temperature, body aches, and shivering. After further examination, they are diagnosed with Plasmodium falciparum malaria.

      Which of the following statements about Plasmodium falciparum malaria is correct?

      Your Answer: There may be a continuous fever

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium falciparum malaria is transmitted by female mosquitoes of the Anopheles genus. The Aedes genus, on the other hand, is responsible for spreading diseases like dengue fever and yellow fever. The parasite enters hepatocytes and undergoes asexual reproduction, resulting in the release of merozoites into the bloodstream. These merozoites then invade the red blood cells of the host. The incubation period for Plasmodium falciparum malaria ranges from 7 to 14 days.

      The main symptom of malaria is known as the malarial paroxysm, which consists of a cyclical pattern of cold chills, followed by a stage of intense heat, and finally a period of profuse sweating as the fever subsides. However, some individuals may experience a continuous fever instead.

      Currently, the recommended treatment for P. falciparum malaria is artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT). This involves combining fast-acting artemisinin-based compounds with drugs from a different class. Companion drugs used in ACT include lumefantrine, mefloquine, amodiaquine, sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine, piperaquine, and chlorproguanil/dapsone. Artemisinin derivatives such as dihydroartemisinin, artesunate, and artemether are also used.

      If artemisinin combination therapy is not available, oral quinine or atovaquone with proguanil hydrochloride can be used as an alternative. However, quinine is not well-tolerated for prolonged treatment and should be combined with another drug, typically oral doxycycline (or clindamycin for pregnant women and young children).

      Severe or complicated cases of falciparum malaria require specialized care in a high dependency unit or intensive care setting. Intravenous artesunate is recommended for all patients with severe or complicated falciparum malaria, as well as those at high risk of developing severe disease (e.g., if more than 2% of red blood cells are parasitized) or if the patient is unable to take oral treatment. After a minimum of 24 hours of intravenous artesunate treatment and improvement in the patient’s condition, a full course of artemisinin combination therapy should be administered orally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You evaluate the airway and breathing of a patient who has been brought...

    Correct

    • You evaluate the airway and breathing of a patient who has been brought into the emergency department by an ambulance after being rescued from a house fire. You suspect that the patient may have an obstructed airway.
      Which of the following statements about managing the airway and breathing in burn patients is NOT true?

      Your Answer: High tidal volumes should be used in intubated patients

      Explanation:

      Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.

      According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.

      To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the left flank and extending to the groin. You suspect a diagnosis of ureteric colic.
      What is the preferred imaging technique for confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Contrast helical computed tomography

      Correct Answer: Non-contrast helical computed tomography

      Explanation:

      The term renal colic is commonly used to describe a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. However, a more accurate term is ureteric colic, as the pain usually arises from a blockage in the ureter itself.

      Renal or ureteric colic typically presents with a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the lower back or flank and radiating to the genital area in women or to the groin or testicle in men.

      The pain usually:
      – Lasts for minutes to hours and comes in spasms, with periods of no pain or a dull ache
      – Is often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and blood in the urine
      – Is often described as the most intense pain a person has ever experienced (many women describe it as worse than childbirth).

      People with renal or ureteric colic:
      – Are restless and unable to find relief by lying still (which helps distinguish it from peritonitis)
      – May have a history of previous episodes
      – May have a fever and sweating if there is a urinary tract infection present
      – May complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and bladder (due to irritation of the bladder muscle).

      If possible, a urine dipstick test should be done to support the diagnosis and check for signs of a urinary tract infection.

      Checking for blood in the urine can also support the diagnosis of renal or ureteric colic. However, the absence of blood does not rule out the diagnosis and other causes of pain should be considered.

      Checking for nitrite and leukocyte esterase in the urine can indicate an infection.

      Pain management:
      – Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the first-line treatment for adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic.
      – Intravenous paracetamol can be given to adults, children, and young people if NSAIDs are not suitable or not providing enough pain relief.
      – Opioids may be considered if both NSAIDs and intravenous paracetamol are not suitable or not providing enough pain relief.
      – Antispasmodics should not be given to adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman who is originally from Brazil has recently developed dilated cardiomyopathy...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman who is originally from Brazil has recently developed dilated cardiomyopathy and difficulty swallowing. She remembers being bitten by an insect approximately 10 years ago, which resulted in a fever and flu-like symptoms. On her ankle, where the bite occurred, she now has a firm, violet-colored lump.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Onchocerciasis

      Correct Answer: Chagas disease

      Explanation:

      Chagas disease, also known as American Trypanosomiasis, is a tropical illness caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. It is transmitted by Triatomine insects, commonly known as kissing bugs, which belong to the Reduviidae family. This zoonotic disease is prevalent in Central and South America, with an estimated 8 million people infected in the region. In Brazil alone, there are approximately 120,000 new cases reported each year.

      The disease progresses through two stages: the acute stage and the chronic stage. During the acute stage, many patients may not experience any symptoms, and the infection can go unnoticed. However, some individuals may exhibit symptoms such as fever, malaise, muscle pain, loss of appetite, and occasionally vomiting and diarrhea. Clinical signs may include swollen lymph nodes and enlargement of the liver and spleen. At the site of the insect bite, an inflammatory response called a chagoma can occur. This is characterized by a swollen, violet-colored nodule that can last up to 8 weeks. Another distinctive sign of acute Chagas disease is RomaƱa’s sign, which is eyelid swelling caused by accidentally rubbing bug feces into the eyes.

      Following the acute stage, an estimated 10-30% of individuals progress to the chronic stage of Chagas disease. There is typically a latent phase between the acute and chronic phases, which can last for as long as 20-30 years. The chronic phase is associated with various complications, including cardiovascular problems such as dilated cardiomyopathy, heart failure, and arrhythmias. Gastrointestinal issues like megacolon, megaesophagus, and secondary achalasia can also arise. Neurological complications, such as neuritis, sensory and motor deficits, and encephalopathy, may occur. Additionally, psychiatric symptoms, including dementia, can manifest in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      21.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Anaesthetics (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/1) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (1/1) 100%
Resus (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Passmed