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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of lithium toxicity?
Your Answer: Hyporeflexia
Explanation:Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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A child you grounded for misbehaving throws a tantrum at their sibling, but behaves politely with you despite feeling angry about the punishment.
Which defense mechanism is demonstrated?Your Answer: Displacement
Explanation:In order for splitting to be present, the patient must demonstrate an inability to recognize others as multifaceted individuals with both positive and negative qualities, and instead resort to idealizing of devaluing them. Additionally, the patient may project their emotions onto an object they deem less significant.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 3
Correct
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Who initially proposed the idea of the primary symptoms of schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Kurt Schneider
Explanation:Notable Psychiatrists and their Contributions
Kurt Schneider, a German psychiatrist, is renowned for his work on schizophrenia diagnosis. He identified the ‘first rank symptoms’ of schizophrenia, which include hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders. Henderson, on the other hand, conducted research on personality disorders and categorized psychopathy into aggressive, inadequate, and creative subtypes. Nathan Ackerman, an American psychiatrist, was a pioneer in the development of family therapy. He introduced the concept of treating the family as a unit rather than just the individual. Thomas Sydenham, a 17th-century physician, was the first to describe hysteria as a disease of the mind. Lastly, Maxwell Jones developed the concept of the therapeutic community, which emphasizes the importance of social interaction and support in the treatment of mental illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the symptoms of ADHD?
Your Answer: The incidence of anorexia nervosa is 20 times higher in females as compared to males
Correct Answer: Gonadotropin levels are lowered in anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa share similar clinical syndromes, and individuals with eating disorders may transition between the two disorders multiple times. The bulimic subtype of anorexia nervosa involves binge episodes. Anorexia nervosa is more prevalent in females, with a female-to-male ratio of 10:1. Endocrine abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include amenorrhea, low levels of gonadotropins (LH and FSH), low levels of estrogen and progesterone, low levels of triiodothyronine, high levels of cortisol, high levels of fasting growth hormone, and irregular vasopressin release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following symptoms is uncommon during the discontinuation of SSRIs?
Your Answer: Crying spells
Correct Answer: Palpitations
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is implied when the father of a teenage boy, admitted to the ward on which you work, expresses concern about his son's behavior and rejection of Islam? The father, who was born in Pakistan and raised his son there until he was 14, explains that the family are devout Muslims. However, since moving to the UK, his son has started drinking alcohol and taking drugs, dropped out of school, and appears to have no regard for the law. He also rejects invitations from other children to spend time with them at the cinema and in the local park.
Your Answer: Separation
Correct Answer: Marginalization
Explanation:The boy seems to have disavowed his native culture and has not assimilated into the prevailing culture (as evidenced by his refusal to pursue education and interact with local peers). The concept of ‘biculturalism’ refers to the coexistence of two separate cultures.
Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about Levinson's theory of human development?
Your Answer: He proposed that each life sequence consisted of three core stages
Correct Answer: Stages are based on age ranges rather than on developmental events
Explanation:Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which one of these is not classified as a biogenic amine?
Your Answer: Histamine
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine
Explanation:Biogenic Amines: Understanding the Neurotransmitters
Biogenic amines are a class of compounds that are derived from amino acids. These compounds play a crucial role in the functioning of the nervous system. Biogenic amine neurotransmitters include catecholamines (adrenaline, noradrenaline, and dopamine), serotonin, and histamine. A useful mnemonic to remember these neurotransmitters is HANDS (Histamine, Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, Dopamine, Serotonin).
Catecholamines are involved in the body’s response to stress and are responsible for the fight or flight response. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are catecholamines that are released by the adrenal glands in response to stress. Dopamine is involved in the reward system of the brain and is associated with pleasure and motivation.
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is involved in mood regulation, appetite, and sleep. It is also involved in the regulation of pain and the perception of pain.
Histamine is involved in the immune response and is responsible for the symptoms of allergies. It is also involved in the regulation of sleep and wakefulness.
Understanding the role of biogenic amines in the nervous system is crucial for the development of treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A young adult who has just begun taking olanzapine reports experiencing dizziness, euphoria, and blurred vision upon sudden standing. What would be the most suitable replacement medication?
Your Answer: Ziprasidone
Correct Answer: Amisulpride
Explanation:The patient’s reported symptoms are indicative of postural hypotension, which is likely a side effect of the olanzapine medication they were given.
Maudsley Guidelines: Antipsychotics for Postural Hypotension
When postural hypotension is a concern, it may be necessary to switch to an antipsychotic that is less likely to cause this side effect. The following antipsychotics are recommended by the Maudsley Guidelines:
– Amisulpride
– Aripiprazole
– Haloperidol
– Sulpiride
– TrifluoperazineThese medications have a lower risk of causing postural hypotension compared to other antipsychotics such as risperidone, clozapine, olanzapine, paliperidone, quetiapine, and ziprasidone. It is important to discuss any concerns about side effects with a healthcare provider before making any changes to medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the culture bound syndrome observed in Eskimos?
Your Answer: Hwa-byung
Correct Answer: Piblokto
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman walking home late at night notices someone beckoning to her from a distance in the darkness. As she approaches, she realizes it's just a tree branch swaying in the wind. What is this occurrence called?
Your Answer: Pareidolic illusion
Correct Answer: Affect illusion
Explanation:Affect illusions occur when a person’s mood affects their perception of everyday objects, leading to misinterpretation. These illusions are temporary and can be dispelled with increased attention. Completion illusions occur when the brain fills in incomplete perceptions with extrapolation from previous experiences to create meaning. An example is reading misprints in newspapers as if they were written correctly. Reflex hallucinations occur when a stimulus in one modality produces a hallucination in another modality. Pareidolic illusions involve a mixture of sensory perceptions and imagination, such as seeing faces in clouds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the personality trait that is not included in the big five?
Your Answer: Carefulness
Explanation:The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 13
Correct
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Which food should be consumed with caution by patients taking tranylcypromine?
Your Answer: Cheese
Explanation:MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions
First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).
MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.
The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.
Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.
Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A concerned individual informs you that their 40-year-old friend has been housebound for the past year due to anxiety. The friend last went shopping a year ago and expressed feeling too nervous to leave the house again. The individual reports no knowledge of any panic attacks. The friend is now experiencing low mood and has begun to lose contact with friends. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Social phobia
Correct Answer: Agoraphobia
Explanation:Agoraphobia is the most probable diagnosis, even though not all individuals with agoraphobia experience panic attacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been referred to your clinic for assessment in relation to difficulties with attention at school and challenging behaviour on interaction with peers.
She describes struggling to maintain attention and to complete her assigned work in a timely manner. She often reaches the correct answer but some time after her peers have done so. This leads to frustration and at times she struggles to express her feelings and will lash out at her peers.
At home she manages her own dressing and chores unaided, although sometimes she requires occasional prompting to maintain on task.
Based on a full clinical history and previous meeting with her mother you suspect a degree of learning disability and request full scale IQ assessment.
What FSIQ value will most likely be returned?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 65
Explanation:This boy may need some assistance with tasks, but he is able to complete them on his own. He may take longer to reach the correct answer compared to his peers, which is indicative of a mild learning disability. Individuals with more severe learning disabilities may require more support in their daily lives, and may also experience motor deficits. IQ levels can be described as follows: profound (below 20), severe (20-34), moderate (35-49), mild (50-70), and normal range (above 70).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the most probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Antipsychotics and Their Effects on EEG
The use of antipsychotics has been found to have an impact on the EEG of patients taking them. A study conducted on the subject found that clozapine had the highest percentage of EEG changes at 47.1%, followed by olanzapine at 38.5%, risperidone at 28.0%, and typical antipsychotics at 14.5%. Interestingly, quetiapine did not show any EEG changes in the study. However, another study found that 5% of quetiapine users did experience EEG changes. These findings suggest that antipsychotics can have varying effects on EEG and should be monitored closely in patients taking them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with schizophrenia is concerned about hearing his own thoughts spoken out loud before he thinks them and sometimes while he is thinking. What perceptual abnormality is this describing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gedankenlautwerden
Explanation:The German psychiatrist August Cramer coined the term ‘gedankenlautwerden’ to describe the experience of hearing one’s thoughts spoken out loud just before of at the same time as they occur, which is a first rank symptom of schizophrenia. ‘Thought echo’ is another term used to describe the phenomenon of hearing one’s thoughts spoken after they have occurred. ‘Running commentaries’ and ‘thought withdrawal’ are also first rank symptoms of schizophrenia, with the former referring to auditory hallucinations commenting on the patient’s actions and the latter being a delusional belief that thoughts are being taken away from the patient’s mind.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A young psychologist is interested in studying different types of anxiety disorders. They are looking for a classification system that can be used in both clinical and research settings.
What is the most suitable classification system for the psychologist to use?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DSM IV
Explanation:The DSM IV is a single version used for both clinical and research purposes, and it includes subtypes of schizophrenia that have been removed from the newer DSM-5. The DSM IV TR is a revised version of the DSM IV, published by the American Psychiatric Association. However, the DSM-5, published in 2013, supersedes both versions and includes changes such as dropping Asperger syndrome as a distinct classification and revising the treatment of gender identity issues. The ICD-10, on the other hand, is a medical classification list by the World Health Organization that codes for diseases, signs and symptoms, abnormal findings, complaints, social circumstances, and external causes of injury of diseases. The WHO is currently revising the ICD towards the ICD-11, which is expected to be submitted for official endorsement by 2015.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Description And Measurement
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which antipsychotic medication has the strongest binding affinity for D4 receptors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are sitting in class during a test. You realize you forgot to study and you feel anxious. Which emotional theory best explains this experience?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lazarus theory
Explanation:The correct answer is the Lazarus theory, which proposes that emotions are the result of cognitive appraisal of a situation. According to this theory, the thought I’m being burgled triggers a cognitive appraisal of the situation, which in turn leads to the emotional response of fear. This is in contrast to the Singer-Schachter theory, which suggests that emotions are the result of a combination of physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation of that arousal.
Theories of Emotion
In membership exams, four main theories of emotion are commonly discussed: James-Lange theory, Cannon-Bard theory, Singer-Schachter theory, and Lazarus theory. The key to understanding the differences between these theories is to identify where the stimulus for the emotion arises.
According to the James-Lange theory, emotions occur as a result of bodily sensations. For instance, if you see a big dog, your heart races, and you feel afraid. This theory proposes that certain external stimuli stimulate specific sensory organs, leading to a particular emotion. The sequence of events suggested by this theory is as follows: event – arousal – interpretation – emotion. In other words, the stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.
The Cannon-Bard theory, also known as the thalami theory, proposes that when an event occurs, one experiences an emotion at the same time as physiological changes. The stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.
The Singer-Schachter theory, also known as the two-factor theory, suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example, if your heart is racing, and you are about to have an exam, you label yourself as afraid. However, if your heart is racing, and you are about to kiss your partner, you label your emotional state as excited. The stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind’s appraisal of them.
Finally, the Lazarus theory proposes that a thought is required before an emotion occurs. For instance, if you see a big dog, you think it is going to bite you, and you feel afraid. The stimulus for emotion arises from the mind.
In summary, these theories offer different perspectives on the relationship between physical sensations, cognitive processes, and emotions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is the neuroanatomical structure that was named after a seahorse due to its alleged resemblance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hippocampus
Explanation:Brain Structures and Their Etymologies
The hippocampus, with its swirling shape, was named after the seahorse, combining the Greek words ‘hippos’ (horse) and ‘kampos’ (sea-monster). Meanwhile, the cerebellum, which resembles a smaller version of the brain, was named after the Latin word for ‘little brain’. The corpus callosum, a bundle of nerve fibers connecting the two hemispheres of the brain, was named after the Latin for ‘tough body’. The hypothalamus, located below the thalamus, was named after its position. Finally, the putamen, a structure involved in movement control, comes from the Latin word for ‘that which falls off in pruning’. These etymologies provide insight into the history and development of our understanding of the brain’s structures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about the post-injection syndrome linked with olanzapine embonate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Although the occurrence of the post-injection syndrome is rare, patients must still be observed for three hours after receiving the depot injection.
, coma, respiratory depression (rare)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an unrecognized feature of hyperprolactinaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steatorrhoea
Explanation:Hyperprolactinemia is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medication, but it is rare with antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, so dopamine antagonists, such as antipsychotics, can increase prolactin levels. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related, and some antipsychotics cause more significant increases than others. Hyperprolactinemia can cause symptoms such as galactorrhea, menstrual difficulties, gynecomastia, hypogonadism, and sexual dysfunction. Long-standing hyperprolactinemia in psychiatric patients can increase the risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer, although there is no conclusive evidence that antipsychotic medication increases the risk of breast malignancy and mortality. Some antipsychotics, such as clozapine and aripiprazole, have a low risk of causing hyperprolactinemia, while typical antipsychotics and risperidone have a high risk. Monitoring of prolactin levels is recommended before starting antipsychotic therapy and at three months and annually thereafter. Antidepressants rarely cause hyperprolactinemia, and routine monitoring is not recommended. Symptomatic hyperprolactinemia has been reported with most antidepressants, except for a few, such as mirtazapine, agomelatine, bupropion, and vortioxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the description of the name-calling experienced by a 14-year-old girl at school after her father is admitted to a mental health unit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Courtesy stigma
Explanation:Abnormal Fear of Disease: Nosophobia
Nosophobia is a condition characterized by an excessive and irrational fear of contracting a disease. People with nosophobia may avoid situations of places that they perceive as risky, such as hospitals of crowded public spaces. They may also engage in compulsive behaviors, such as excessive hand washing of checking their body for signs of illness. Nosophobia can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, causing them to feel anxious, isolated, and depressed. It is important for individuals with nosophobia to seek professional help to manage their symptoms and improve their overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Who is responsible for developing the Adult Attachment Interview?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mary Main
Explanation:Attachment (Ainsworth)
Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.
Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is experiencing severe psychomotor retardation despite being treated with antidepressant medication for his major depressive disorder. What is the correct statement regarding his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is likely to improve her mood
Explanation:Patients who do not experience any improvement from antidepressant medication may be recommended to undergo ECT. This is particularly relevant for elderly individuals who commonly experience relapse of depressive symptoms and may also have underlying medical conditions such as Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, suicide risk in the elderly should be taken seriously and depression should be properly diagnosed and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has just started taking antipsychotic medication for the first time after being diagnosed with schizophrenia. Her spouse asks you when they can expect to see the most significant improvement in her symptoms.
Your advice would be:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Within week 1
Explanation:The onset of antipsychotic effect is noticeable within the first week of treatment, as reported by a large meta-analysis of almost 7,500 patients. This study found that there was a significant improvement of nearly 22% in the first two weeks of treatment, which contradicts the previous belief that it may take two to four weeks for antipsychotic action to take effect. The reduction in BPRS scores was as follows: 13.8% within the first week, 8.1% in the second week, 4.2% in the third week, and 4.7% in the fourth week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which disorder is not included in the list of dissociative disorders in the ICD-11?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Body integrity dysphoria
Explanation:The classification of body integrity dysphoria falls under the group of conditions known as ‘disorders of bodily distress of bodily experience’, which was previously referred to as somatoform disorder.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterised by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. Somatoform disorders are characterised by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterised by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. The former involves bodily symptoms that the individual finds distressing and to which excessive attention is directed, while the latter involves a disturbance in the person’s experience of the body manifested by the persistent desire to have a specific physical disability accompanied by persistent discomfort of intense feelings of inappropriateness concerning current non-disabled body configuration. Dissociative disorders, on the other hand, are characterised by involuntary disruption of discontinuity in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. The ICD-11 dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. Each disorder has its own set of essential features and diagnostic criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 29
Incorrect
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In terms of educational psychology, what is the term for a reinforcement schedule where reinforcement is provided consistently but the amount of responses needed varies from one instance to the next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Variable ratio
Explanation:BF Skinner’s theory states that behavior is influenced by its consequences, which can be positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, of punishment. The frequency and consistency of these consequences, as determined by different reinforcement schedules, can shape and maintain behavior in various ways. Common reinforcement schedules include continuous reinforcement, fixed interval, fixed ratio, variable interval, and variable ratio.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Psychological Processes
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What would be the most suitable method to evaluate the extent of a 32-year-old man's depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HAMD
Explanation:The Geriatric Mental State Schedule (GMSS) is a tool utilized to detect signs of depression among older adults.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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