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  • Question 1 - You encounter a 50-year-old man who confides in you about his personal issue....

    Correct

    • You encounter a 50-year-old man who confides in you about his personal issue. He has been experiencing difficulties with achieving and maintaining erections for the past year, and it has been progressively worsening. This patient seldom visits healthcare providers and has no prior medical conditions.

      What is the predominant organic etiology for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Vascular causes

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a symptom characterized by the persistent inability to achieve and maintain an erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, and mixed, with certain medications also contributing to the condition. Organic causes of ED include vasculogenic, neurogenic, structural, and hormonal factors, while psychogenic causes can be generalized or situational. Among the organic causes, vasculogenic factors are the most common, with cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking, and major pelvic surgery being the primary culprits. As such, the risk factors for ED are similar to those for CVD, including obesity, diabetes, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, hypertension, endothelial dysfunction, and lifestyle factors such as lack of exercise and smoking. Therefore, when evaluating a man with ED, it is important to screen for CVD and obtain a thorough psychosexual history.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual activity. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with gradual onset of symptoms, lack of tumescence, and normal libido favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms, decreased libido, and major life events favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk, as well as free testosterone levels in the morning. If free testosterone is low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors.

      For young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, referral to urology is appropriate. Additionally, people with ED who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop. Overall, ED is a common condition that can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 2 - Which blood test is the most sensitive for diagnosing acute pancreatitis? ...

    Correct

    • Which blood test is the most sensitive for diagnosing acute pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Lipase

      Explanation:

      If the clinical presentation does not match the amylase level, it is important to consider that the serum amylase can fluctuate rapidly and produce an inaccurate negative result. In such cases, it is recommended to conduct a serum lipase test or a CT scan.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.

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  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old man comes to see his GP with concerns about his fertility....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man comes to see his GP with concerns about his fertility. He and his partner have been trying to conceive for the past year without success. The patient has a history of diabetes mellitus and is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day, and drinks 12 units of alcohol per week.

      During the examination, the patient is found to be obese and has slight gynaecomastia. Upon testicular examination, a lump is detected on the right side that feels similar to a bag of worms. The lump does not disappear when the patient lies down, and he denies experiencing any pain or haematuria.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for the patient's management?

      Your Answer: Manage conservatively and observe

      Correct Answer: Urgent 2-week wait referral to urology

      Explanation:

      The nutcracker angle, which refers to the compression of the renal vein between the abdominal aorta and the superior mesenteric artery, can cause varicocele and may indicate the presence of malignancy.

      Understanding Renal Cell Cancer

      Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.

      The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.

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  • Question 4 - A 5-month-old baby is presented to the GP with a lump located on...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-month-old baby is presented to the GP with a lump located on the groin, specifically lateral to the pubic tubercle. The parents report that they can push the lump in and it disappears, but it reappears when the baby cries. What is the most suitable course of action for definitive management?

      Your Answer: Reassure that this is normal, no further follow up

      Correct Answer: Surgical reduction within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Urgent treatment is necessary for inguinal hernias, while umbilical hernias typically resolve on their own.

      This child is experiencing an inguinal hernia caused by a patent processus vaginalis. The typical symptom is a bulge located next to the pubic tubercle that appears when the child cries due to increased intra-abdominal pressure. In children, inguinal hernias are considered pathological and carry a high risk of incarceration, so surgical correction is necessary. The timing of surgery follows the six/two rule: correction within 2 days for infants under 6 weeks old, within 2 weeks for those under 6 months, and within 2 months for those under 6 years old. It’s important not to confuse inguinal hernias with umbilical hernias, which occur due to delayed closure of the passage through which the umbilical veins reached the fetus in utero. Umbilical hernias typically resolve on their own by the age of 3 and rarely require surgical intervention.

      Paediatric Inguinal Hernia: Common Disorder in Children

      Inguinal hernias are a frequent condition in children, particularly in males, as the testis moves from its location on the posterior abdominal wall down through the inguinal canal. A patent processus vaginalis may persist and become the site of subsequent hernia development. Children who present in the first few months of life are at the highest risk of strangulation, and the hernia should be repaired urgently. On the other hand, children over one year of age are at a lower risk, and surgery may be performed electively. For paediatric hernias, a herniotomy without implantation of mesh is sufficient. Most cases are performed as day cases, while neonates and premature infants are kept in the hospital overnight due to the recognized increased risk of postoperative apnoea.

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  • Question 5 - A 7 week old baby girl is brought to the clinic by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 week old baby girl is brought to the clinic by her father. He is worried because although the left testis is present in the scrotum the right testis is absent. He reports that it is sometimes palpable when he bathes the child. On examination the right testis is palpable at the level of the superficial inguinal ring. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Orchidopexy

      Correct Answer: Re-assess in 6 months

      Explanation:

      At 3 months of age, children may have retractile testes which can be monitored without intervention.

      Cryptorchidism is a condition where a testis fails to descend into the scrotum by the age of 3 months. It is a congenital defect that affects up to 5% of male infants at birth, but the incidence decreases to 1-2% by the age of 3 months. The cause of cryptorchidism is mostly unknown, but it can be associated with other congenital defects such as abnormal epididymis, cerebral palsy, mental retardation, Wilms tumour, and abdominal wall defects. Retractile testes and intersex conditions are differential diagnoses that need to be considered.

      It is important to correct cryptorchidism to reduce the risk of infertility, allow for examination of the testes for testicular cancer, avoid testicular torsion, and improve cosmetic appearance. Males with undescended testes are at a higher risk of developing testicular cancer, particularly if the testis is intra-abdominal. Orchidopexy, which involves mobilisation of the testis and implantation into a dartos pouch, is the preferred treatment for cryptorchidism between 6-18 months of age. Intra-abdominal testes require laparoscopic evaluation and mobilisation, which may be a single or two-stage procedure depending on the location. If left untreated, the Sertoli cells will degrade after the age of 2 years, and orchidectomy may be necessary in late teenage years to avoid the risk of malignancy.

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  • Question 6 - A 5-year-old boy is scheduled for surgery to remove a sebaceous cyst on...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is scheduled for surgery to remove a sebaceous cyst on his neck. During examination, a sebaceous cystic swelling measuring 2 cm in diameter is found in the left anterior neck triangle near the midline, with a punctum on top. The surgeon makes an elliptical incision around the cyst and removes the skin with the central punctum. The cyst is then removed to a depth of 1 cm. You have been tasked with closing the skin wound. What is the best option?

      Your Answer: Nylon

      Correct Answer: Monocryl

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Suture Material for Skin Closure

      When it comes to closing a skin defect, several factors need to be considered, including the location of the wound, required tensile strength, cosmesis, and ease of stitch removal, especially in children. Monocryl, a monofilament absorbable suture, is the best choice for achieving optimal cosmetic results. Nylon, another monofilament suture, is also a reasonable option, but Monocryl’s absorbable nature eliminates the need for stitch removal, making it more practical for children. Steri-strips may not provide enough strength to keep the wound closed, while staples are more likely to cause scarring. Silk, a multi-filament non-absorbable suture, is not ideal for achieving optimal cosmesis. Therefore, choosing the right suture material is crucial for achieving the best possible outcome in skin closure.

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  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old man is seen on the ward round, 5 days after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is seen on the ward round, 5 days after a radical cystectomy and ileal conduit formation surgery for bladder cancer. The patient complains of abdominal bloating and has vomited twice. Upon examination, the patient's abdomen is distended, without signs of flank bruising. The wound dressings are dry, and the stoma appears healthy with good urine output. The patient's observations are within normal limits. Laboratory results show a hemoglobin level of 138 g/L (male: 135-180; female: 115-160), platelets of 380 * 109/L (150-400), a white blood cell count of 18.9 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), and a CRP level of 122 mg/L (<5). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Surgical site infection

      Correct Answer: Ileus

      Explanation:

      A 64-year-old man who recently underwent radical cystectomy and ileal conduit formation surgery is experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting. The most probable diagnosis is post-operative ileus, which is a complication of bowel surgery that causes a temporary reduction in intestinal muscle activity, resulting in stasis. The patient’s blood tests show elevated white cells and CRP, which is typical after surgery. Anastomotic leak is a possible differential diagnosis, but the patient’s distended abdomen and normal clinical observations make it less likely than ileus. Bladder distension is not a possible diagnosis since the patient no longer has a bladder. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage is another potential postoperative complication, but it is not described in this scenario, which only mentions abdominal pain, reduced hemoglobin, and bruising on the abdomen as symptoms.

      Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by a reduction in bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.

      The management of postoperative ileus typically involves starting with nil-by-mouth and gradually progressing to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure a successful recovery.

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  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old woman complains of mild lower back pain and tenderness around the...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman complains of mild lower back pain and tenderness around the L3 vertebra. Upon conducting tests, the following results were obtained: Hemoglobin levels of 80 g/L (120-160), ESR levels of 110 mm/hr (1-10), and an albumin/globulin ratio of 1:2 (2:1). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells found in the bone marrow. These plasma cells are derived from B lymphocytes, but when they become malignant, they start to divide uncontrollably, forming tumors in the bone marrow. These tumors interfere with normal cell production and erode the surrounding bone, causing soft spots and holes. Since the malignant cells are clones derived from a single plasma cell, they all produce the same abnormal immunoglobulin that is secreted into the blood.

      Patients with multiple myeloma may not show any symptoms for many years, but eventually, most patients develop some evidence of the disease. This can include weakened bones, which can cause bone pain and fractures, decreased numbers of red or white blood cells, which can lead to anemia, infections, bleeding, and bruising, and kidney failure, which can cause an increase in creatinine levels. Additionally, destruction of the bone can increase the level of calcium in the blood, leading to symptoms of hypercalcemia. Pieces of monoclonal antibodies, known as light chains or Bence Jones proteins, can also lodge in the kidneys and cause permanent damage. In some cases, an increase in the viscosity of the blood may lead to headaches.

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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old patient presents to their GP with a 3-month history of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents to their GP with a 3-month history of worsening dyspepsia, epigastric pain, and drenching night sweats on a background of recurrent gastric ulcers. The GP urgently refers the patient for investigation. Following a gastroscopy with biopsies taken, a low grade gastric MALT lymphoma is diagnosed, and the presence of H. pylori was also noted on the biopsy report. The patient has no significant past medical history. What treatment plan is the doctor likely to recommend?

      Your Answer: Partial gastrectomy

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma associated with H. pylori infection is a combination of omeprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin. This is because the majority of cases are linked to H. pylori, as suggested by the patient’s history of gastric ulcers. Low-grade cases can be treated with H. pylori eradication alone, but high-grade or atypical cases may require chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy. The answer choice of lansoprazole, clarithromycin, and doxycycline is incorrect, as doxycycline is not used in H. pylori eradication. Active monitoring may be an option in some cases, but when a clear cause like H. pylori is identified, treatment is recommended. Partial gastrectomy is not a standard treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma.

      Gastric MALT Lymphoma: A Brief Overview

      Gastric MALT lymphoma is a type of lymphoma that is commonly associated with H. pylori infection, which is present in 95% of cases. The good news is that this type of lymphoma has a good prognosis, especially if it is low grade. In fact, about 80% of patients with low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma respond well to H. pylori eradication.

      One potential feature of gastric MALT lymphoma is the presence of paraproteinaemia, which is an abnormal protein in the blood. However, this is not always present and may not be a reliable indicator of the disease. Overall, gastric MALT lymphoma is a treatable form of lymphoma with a high likelihood of successful treatment.

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  • Question 10 - Sarah is a 23-year-old female who has been brought to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 23-year-old female who has been brought to the emergency department via ambulance after a car accident. On arrival, her Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is E2V2M4. Due to concerns about her airway, the attending anaesthetist decides to perform rapid sequence induction and intubation. The anaesthetist administers sedation followed by a muscle relaxant to facilitate intubation. Shortly after, you observe a series of brief muscle twitches throughout Sarah's body, followed by complete paralysis. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Suxamethonium

      Explanation:

      Suxamethonium, also known as succinylcholine, is a type of muscle relaxant that works by inducing prolonged depolarization of the skeletal muscle membrane. This non-competitive agonist can cause fasciculations, which are uncoordinated muscle contractions or twitches that last for a few seconds before profound paralysis occurs. However, it is important to note that succinylcholine is typically only used in select cases, such as for rapid sequence intubation in emergency settings, due to its fast onset and short duration of action. Atracurium and vecuronium, on the other hand, are competitive muscle relaxants that do not typically cause fasciculations. Glycopyrrolate is not a muscle relaxant, but rather a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine at peripheral muscarinic receptors. Propofol is an induction agent and not a muscle relaxant.

      Understanding Neuromuscular Blocking Drugs

      Neuromuscular blocking drugs are commonly used in surgical procedures as an adjunct to anaesthetic agents. These drugs are responsible for inducing muscle paralysis, which is a necessary prerequisite for mechanical ventilation. There are two types of neuromuscular blocking drugs: depolarizing and non-depolarizing.

      Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs bind to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, resulting in persistent depolarization of the motor end plate. On the other hand, non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs act as competitive antagonists of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Examples of depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs include succinylcholine (also known as suxamethonium), while examples of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs include tubcurarine, atracurium, vecuronium, and pancuronium.

      While these drugs are effective in inducing muscle paralysis, they also come with potential adverse effects. Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs may cause malignant hyperthermia and transient hyperkalaemia, while non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs may cause hypotension. However, these adverse effects can be reversed using acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as neostigmine.

      It is important to note that suxamethonium is contraindicated for patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma, as it increases intra-ocular pressure. Additionally, suxamethonium is the muscle relaxant of choice for rapid sequence induction for intubation and may cause fasciculations. Understanding the mechanism of action and potential adverse effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs is crucial in ensuring their safe and effective use in surgical procedures.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (4/10) 40%
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