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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man is scheduled for colorectal carcinoma resection and has type 2...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is scheduled for colorectal carcinoma resection and has type 2 diabetes. He is currently well-controlled on 5 mg glibenclamide daily. What is the best pre-operative plan for managing his blood sugar levels?

      Your Answer: Stop glibenclamide on the morning of surgery and commence insulin by intravenous infusion

      Explanation:

      Management of Glibenclamide in a Patient Undergoing Major Surgery

      During major surgery, it is crucial to maintain optimal glycaemic control in patients with diabetes. In the case of a patient taking glibenclamide, the most appropriate course of action is to discontinue the medication on the morning of surgery. Instead, the patient should be started on intravenous (IV) insulin and dextrose with potassium. This approach allows for frequent blood glucose measurements and adjustment of the insulin infusion rate as needed.

      By stopping glibenclamide, the risk of hypoglycaemia during surgery is reduced. IV insulin and dextrose with potassium provide a more controlled and predictable method of glycaemic control during the stress of surgery. This approach ensures that the patient’s blood glucose levels remain within a safe range, reducing the risk of complications such as infection, delayed wound healing, and poor surgical outcomes.

      In summary, the management of glibenclamide in a patient undergoing major surgery involves discontinuing the medication on the morning of surgery and starting the patient on IV insulin and dextrose with potassium. This approach allows for optimal glycaemic control during the stress of surgery and reduces the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of abdominal pain. Upon further inquiry, she reveals a 3-week history of right-sided abdominal pain and considerable weight loss. She reports consuming 3 units of alcohol per week and has smoked for 10 pack-years. She is not taking any medications except for the contraceptive pill and has no known allergies. During the physical examination, she displays oral ulcers and exhibits signs of fatigue and pallor.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Abdominal Conditions: Crohn’s Disease, Ulcerative Colitis, Peptic Ulcer Disease, Gallstones, and Diverticulitis

      Abdominal pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to differentiate between them. Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can affect the entire bowel and typically presents between the ages of 20 and 50. It is chronic and relapsing, with skip lesions of normal bowel in between affected areas. Ulcerative colitis is another inflammatory bowel disease that starts at the rectum and moves upward. It can be classified by the extent of inflammation, with symptoms including bloody diarrhea and mucous. Peptic ulcer disease causes epigastric pain and may present with heartburn symptoms, but it is not consistent with the clinical picture described in the vignette. Gallstones typically cause right upper quadrant pain and are more common in females. Diverticulitis presents with left iliac fossa abdominal pain and is more common in elderly patients. Complications of untreated diverticulitis include abscess formation, bowel obstruction, or perforation. Understanding the differences between these conditions can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      37.1
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with complaints of persistent vomiting, palpitations,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with complaints of persistent vomiting, palpitations, and flushing. He has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes. The patient reports that these symptoms began a week ago after he visited his dentist for a dental abscess and was prescribed metronidazole 400 mg three times a day. He is currently taking thiamine supplements 100 mg twice daily, atorvastatin 40 mg daily, and metformin 500 mg three times a day. Additionally, he has been taking paracetamol 1 g four times a day for dental pain. The doctor suspects that one of his medications may have interacted with the metronidazole to cause his symptoms. Which medication is most likely to have caused this interaction?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Ethanol

      Explanation:

      Alcohol can affect the way many drugs are metabolized and can alter their bioavailability. Chronic alcohol excess can cause a paradoxical induction in the cytochrome P450 enzyme system, leading to a relative reduction in bioavailability of drugs that utilize this metabolism pathway. Atorvastatin and other drugs of this class can have altered bioavailability when used with alcohol. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when mixed with alcohol. Paracetamol and metformin have few interactions with alcohol but should be closely monitored in alcoholic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      80.1
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. During the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. During the consultation, the psychiatrist observes that the patient appears disinterested and unresponsive when discussing recent and upcoming events in his life, such as his upcoming trip to Hawaii and his recent separation from his spouse.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the abnormality exhibited by the patient?

      Your Answer: Blunting of affect

      Explanation:

      Emotional and Cognitive Symptoms in Mental Health

      Blunting of affect is a condition where an individual experiences a loss of normal emotional expression towards events. This can be observed in people with schizophrenia, depression, and post-traumatic stress disorder. Anhedonia, on the other hand, is the inability to derive pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Depersonalisation is a feeling of detachment from oneself, where an individual may feel like they are not real. Labile affect is characterized by sudden and inappropriate changes in emotional expression. Lastly, thought blocking is a sudden interruption in the flow of thought.

      These symptoms are commonly observed in individuals with mental health conditions and can significantly impact their daily lives. It is important to recognize and address these symptoms to provide appropriate treatment and support. By these symptoms, mental health professionals can better assess and diagnose their patients, leading to more effective treatment plans. Additionally, individuals experiencing these symptoms can seek help and support to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      36
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  • Question 5 - A 49-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of irregular periods, hot flashes,...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of irregular periods, hot flashes, and night sweats. She has had two uncomplicated pregnancies in the past and has been using a Mirena coil for the last five years. She is interested in exploring hormone replacement therapy (HRT) as a treatment option. Her mother had a history of DVT in her 40s. Based on her medical history, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Combined transdermal HRT

      Explanation:

      For women who are at risk of venous thromboembolism, transdermal HRT is the recommended option. This is because it does not increase the risk of developing DVT, unlike oral preparations. In the case of a patient with a Mirena coil, a combined transdermal HRT would be offered, as she requires a progesterone component. However, the patient’s Mirena is not licensed for use in HRT as it has been in place for 5 years, exceeding the licensed duration of 4 years. Therefore, she needs to switch to an oestrogen-only transdermal preparation after the Mirena is replaced. Oral HRT or oral oestrogen would not be recommended as they carry a risk of causing DVT. HRT is not contraindicated in this case. While transdermal oestrogen has no increased risk of DVT, it cannot be used alone in this patient due to the need for combined oestrogen and progesterone.

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progesterone to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.4
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  • Question 6 - What is not a cause of haematuria in children? ...

    Correct

    • What is not a cause of haematuria in children?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Causes of Haematuria

      Haematuria, or blood in the urine, can be caused by various factors. Measles is not one of them. However, conditions such as meatal ulcer and urinary tract infection can lead to haematuria. Additionally, an advanced Wilms’ tumour can also cause this symptom. Another cause of haematuria is Schistosomiasis, which is a parasitic infection caused by Schistosoma haematobium. In this case, the blood in the urine is due to bladder involvement. It is important to identify the underlying cause of haematuria in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      12.6
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  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old woman presents with increasing bloating and mild lower abdominal pain that...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with increasing bloating and mild lower abdominal pain that started 3 hours ago. On examination, there is abdominal tenderness and ascites, but no guarding. She denies any vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs include a heart rate of 98/minute, a blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 22/minute. The patient is currently undergoing IVF treatment and had her final hCG injection 5 days ago. She has been having regular, unprotected sex during treatment. A pregnancy test confirms she is pregnant. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a gynecological issue, possibly ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, which can occur as a side-effect of ovulation induction. The presence of ascites, low blood pressure, and tachycardia indicate fluid loss into the abdomen, but the absence of peritonitis suggests it is not a catastrophic hemorrhage. The recent hCG injection increases the likelihood of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, which is more common with IVF and injectable treatments than with oral fertility agents like clomiphene. Ovarian cyst rupture, ovarian torsion, red degeneration, and ruptured ectopic pregnancy are unlikely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.

      Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      73.8
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old gravida 4, para 3 undergoes an assisted delivery with mid-cavity forceps...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old gravida 4, para 3 undergoes an assisted delivery with mid-cavity forceps following a prolonged second stage. After a couple of weeks, the patient visits her GP complaining of difficulty walking. Upon examination, she displays a limp in her left leg, a numb thigh, weak knee extension, and the absence of patellar reflex. Her right leg appears normal. What nerve has been affected by the forceps delivery?

      Your Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      The observed symptoms indicate that the femoral nerve has been affected. Although nerve damage during instrumental delivery is uncommon, it can occur during challenging deliveries and mid-cavity forceps use. The table below outlines the nerves that may be impacted by forceps and the corresponding clinical manifestations.
      Nerve Clinical features
      Femoral nerve Weakness in extending the knee, absence of the patellar reflex, and numbness in the thigh
      Lumbosacral trunk Weakness in dorsiflexing the ankle and numbness in the calf and foot.

      Selected Facts about Lower Limb Anatomy

      The lower limb anatomy is a complex system that is often tested in medical examinations. One of the important aspects of this system is the nerves that control the motor and sensory functions of the lower limb. The femoral nerve, for example, controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and is responsible for the sensation in the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. This nerve is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds.

      Another important nerve is the obturator nerve, which controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. Injuries to this nerve can occur in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, on the other hand, does not control any motor function but is responsible for the sensation in the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh. Compression of this nerve near the ASIS can lead to meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterized by pain, tingling, and numbness in the distribution of the lateral cutaneous nerve.

      The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. This nerve is not commonly injured as it is deep and well-protected. The common peroneal nerve, which controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, is often injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and is commonly injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve results in a positive Trendelenburg sign. Finally, the inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve results in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as an inability to jump or climb stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      110.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - When speaking with a new parent about the advantages of breastfeeding, they inquire...

    Incorrect

    • When speaking with a new parent about the advantages of breastfeeding, they inquire about how breastfeeding can enhance their baby's immune system. You clarify that certain immunoglobulins are present in breast milk, which can transfer immunity from specific illnesses to the baby.

      Which immunoglobulin will this parent be passing on to their child?

      Your Answer: IgG

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      The primary immunoglobulin present in breast milk, tears, saliva, and GI secretions is IgA. The function of IgD is uncertain, but it may be present on B-cell membranes and in small quantities in serum. IgE is responsible for triggering allergic and anaphylactic reactions and is present on cell membranes. IgG is the most prevalent immunoglobulin in serum, lymph, and the GI tract, and it is the only one that can pass through the placenta.

      Characteristics of Immunoglobulins

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help defend the body against foreign substances. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      The most abundant type of immunoglobulin is IgG, which enhances phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses, fixes complement, and can pass to the fetal circulation. IgA, on the other hand, is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and provides localized protection on mucous membranes. It is also found in breast milk and the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A and B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells. Lastly, IgE is the least abundant isotype in blood serum and mediates type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It is synthesized by plasma cells and provides immunity to parasites such as helminths by binding to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

      In summary, each type of immunoglobulin has its own unique function and plays a crucial role in defending the body against foreign substances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      53.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are evaluating a 22-year-old male with depression who has had limited success...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 22-year-old male with depression who has had limited success with various antidepressants and counseling. You opt to initiate a trial of mirtazapine. What side effect of this antidepressant can you advise him is a common feature?

      Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Correct Answer: Increase in appetite

      Explanation:

      Mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that works by blocking alpha-2 receptors, but it often causes unwanted side effects such as increased appetite and sedation, which can make it difficult for patients to tolerate. On the other hand, MAOI antidepressants like phenelzine can cause a dangerous reaction when consuming foods high in tyramine, such as cheese, leading to a hypertensive crisis. While tardive dyskinesia is typically associated with typical antipsychotics, it can rarely occur as a result of some antidepressants. It’s worth noting that headache is a common withdrawal symptom of mirtazapine, rather than a side effect during its use.

      Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects

      Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.

      Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.

      Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9.6
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  • Question 11 - You are a general practice trainee at a surgery in London. A 14-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are a general practice trainee at a surgery in London. A 14-year-old girl attends the surgery and requests the ‘morning-after pill’ following sexual intercourse with her 20-year-old boyfriend. She appears mature for her age and you assess her as being Fraser-competent. She says that there was an accident on this occasion and, in future, she will ensure her and her boyfriend use contraception. She doesn't want you to discuss emergency contraception or her relationship with her parents.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Issue a prescription for emergency contraception and refer the patient to social services, as well as informing the designated doctor for child protection and the police

      Explanation:

      In the case of a young girl seeking emergency contraception, it is important to consider her age and ability to consent to sexual activity. If she is under 13 years old, sexual intercourse with her partner would be considered statutory rape and child protection measures must be taken immediately. It is important to consult with a general practitioner safeguarding lead or designated doctor for child protection, make an urgent social services referral, and inform the police. If the girl is deemed Fraser-competent, emergency contraception can be provided without necessarily involving her parents, but she should be encouraged to involve them in decision-making. It is crucial to prioritize the girl’s safety and well-being by providing emergency contraception and taking necessary child protection measures. Contacting the girl’s parents without her consent may damage the trust between the doctor and patient and delay necessary action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 12 - A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for guidance. He lost his...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for guidance. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not experiencing clinical depression, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He occasionally feels indifferent and disheartened, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has heard his late wife speaking to him on several occasions over the last 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he acknowledges that this is impossible. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net

      Explanation:

      It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or smelling their deceased loved one, especially during acute grief. This can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured that this is a common experience.

      Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would not be appropriate to arrange blood tests or urinalysis.

      While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, the patient is not clinically depressed and is unlikely to benefit from them. In fact, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.

      The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent psychiatric involvement or sectioning under the Mental Health Act 1983.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations

      Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.

      One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.

      Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 32 year old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left knee pain that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. He denies any history of injury and reports feeling well, except for a recent episode of food poisoning after eating a kebab 2 weeks ago. He has no personal or family history of rheumatological disorders and has never had any sexually transmitted infections. Upon examination, the knee appears swollen, red, and tender. Aspiration of the joint reveals clear fluid without white blood cells or crystals. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis and gout or pseudogout can be ruled out due to the lack of white cells and crystals. If there is a painful swelling behind the knee without erythema, it may indicate a ruptured baker’s cyst. However, in this case, the diagnosis is reactive arthritis (previously known as Reiter’s arthritis), which is linked to chlamydia and gonorrhoeae, as well as gastroenteritis.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.

      Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blennorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 14 - A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are concerned because he wets his bed every night. A urine culture is normal; urine is negative for glucose and protein.
      What would be the most appropriate approach to managing this child's bedwetting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance to parents with general advice

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common issue among children. While it can sometimes be caused by an underlying medical condition, such as a urinary tract infection or diabetes, in most cases it is simply a developmental issue that will resolve on its own over time.

      Parents should have their child tested for any potential medical causes, but if none are found, they can take comfort in knowing that bedwetting is a normal part of childhood for many kids. Treatment is generally not recommended until a child is at least five years old, and even then, simple interventions like star charts and enuresis alarms can be effective in motivated children.

      It’s also important to consider any potential psychological issues that may be contributing to the problem. Parents should ask their child about their school and home life, and try to speak to them without the presence of the parents if possible. Sometimes, stress or anxiety can be a factor in bedwetting.

      If short-term relief is necessary, medications like desmopressin nasal spray can be prescribed for children over five years old. However, prophylactic antibiotics and oral imipramine are not recommended for this condition. Referral to a specialist for an ultrasound scan is also not necessary unless there is an indication of infection or structural abnormality.

      Overall, parents should take comfort in knowing that bedwetting is a common issue that many children experience, and that there are effective interventions available to help manage it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following events during pregnancy can potentially sensitize a RhD-negative woman...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following events during pregnancy can potentially sensitize a RhD-negative woman and necessitate the administration of anti-D?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Previously non-sensitised 16 weeks pregnant woman undergoing amniocentesis

      Explanation:

      Sensitization occurs when fetal red blood cells, which are RhD-positive, enter the bloodstream of a mother who is RhD-negative. This can lead to the formation of antibodies in the mother’s circulation that can destroy fetal red blood cells, causing complications such as hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn in subsequent pregnancies where the fetus is RhD-positive. To reduce the risk of sensitization, anti-D immunoglobulin is administered in situations where there is a likelihood of fetomaternal hemorrhage. Anti-D works by neutralizing RhD-antigens from fetal red cells, but it cannot reverse sensitization if the mother already has antibodies in her circulation. Prophylactic anti-D is given to non-sensitized RhD-negative women at 28 and 34 weeks to prevent small fetomaternal hemorrhages in the absence of a known sensitizing event. Various events during pregnancy, such as vaginal bleeding, chorionic villus sampling, and abdominal trauma, can potentially cause sensitization. Source: RCOG. Rhesus D prophylaxis, the use of anti-D immunoglobulin.

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 16 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain in his right testicle that started four hours ago. There was no history of injury or any other medical condition. Upon examination, the right testicle was found to be retracted and lying horizontally, but it was too tender to palpate completely. The left hemiscrotum appeared normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Torsion

      Explanation:

      Torsion: A Serious Condition to Consider

      A brief history of intense pain without any accompanying symptoms should be considered as torsion. It is crucial to be cautious not to disregard the possibility of torsion even if other symptoms are present, as there is only a small window of time for treatment. While a horizontal-lying testis is a typical indication of torsion, it may not always be visible.

      Torsion is a severe condition that requires immediate medical attention. It occurs when the spermatic cord twists, cutting off the blood supply to the testicle. This can lead to tissue death and, in severe cases, the loss of the testicle. Therefore, it is essential to recognize the signs and symptoms of torsion and seek medical attention promptly. Remember, a short history of severe pain in the absence of other symptoms must be regarded as torsion, and a horizontal-lying testis is a classical finding, though not always seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department following an overdose at...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department following an overdose at home. She reports taking 32 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg six hours ago. The patient is admitted to the observation unit for IV n-acetylcysteine. Which of the following factors is not linked to an elevated risk of developing hepatotoxicity in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute alcohol intake

      Explanation:

      Acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of developing hepatotoxicity in cases of paracetamol overdose and may even have a protective effect. However, patients taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, and carbamazepine are at a higher risk of developing hepatotoxicity.

      Risk Factors for Paracetamol Overdose

      Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, especially in certain groups of patients. Those taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or those with chronic alcohol excess or who take St John’s Wort are at an increased risk. Malnourished patients, such as those with anorexia nervosa, or those who have not eaten for a few days are also at a higher risk. Interestingly, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, and may even have a protective effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors when treating patients who have overdosed on paracetamol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old male presents to his doctor with severe groin pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to his doctor with severe groin pain that has been increasing for the past two days. He also reports developing a fever. He lives with his wife and has no other sexual partners. He is in good health and takes tamsulosin regularly. Upon examination, the doctor notes acute tenderness and swelling in the right testis, leading to a diagnosis of epididymo-orchitis. What is the most probable organism responsible for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Orchitis typically affects post-pubertal males and usually occurs 5-7 days after infection. It is important to note that the relief of pain when the testis is elevated, known as a positive Prehn’s sign, is not present in cases of testicular torsion.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old man presents for a routine optometry exam to assess his overall...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents for a routine optometry exam to assess his overall eye health. He has a medical history of diabetes but has not been consistent with his medication and rarely monitors his blood sugar levels. During the fundoscopy, diffuse neovascularization and cotton wool spots were observed. What is the recommended treatment plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravitreal VEGF inhibitors + pan-retinal photocoagulation laser

      Explanation:

      The treatment for proliferative diabetic retinopathy may involve the use of intravitreal VEGF inhibitors in combination with panretinal laser photocoagulation.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 20 - A 38-year-old woman is experiencing gradual onset of epigastric pain that worsens during...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman is experiencing gradual onset of epigastric pain that worsens during and after meals. The pain began about a month ago and is moderate in intensity, without radiation to the back. Occasionally, the pain is severe enough to wake her up at night. She reports no regurgitation, dysphagia, or weight loss. Abdominal palpation reveals no tenderness, and there are no signs of lymphadenopathy. A negative stool guaiac test is noted.
      What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated serum calcium

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Abnormal Lab Results in a Patient with Dyspepsia

      The patient in question is experiencing dyspepsia, likely due to peptic ulcer disease. One potential cause of this condition is primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to excess gastric acid secretion by causing hypercalcemia (elevated serum calcium). However, reduced plasma glucose, decreased serum sodium, and elevated serum potassium are not associated with dyspepsia.

      On the other hand, long-standing diabetes mellitus can cause autonomic neuropathy and gastroparesis with delayed gastric emptying, leading to dyspepsia. Decreased serum ferritin is often seen in iron deficiency anemia, which can be caused by a chronically bleeding gastric ulcer or gastric cancer. However, this patient’s symptoms do not suggest malignancy, as they began only a month ago and there is no weight loss or lymphadenopathy.

      In summary, abnormal lab results should be interpreted in the context of the patient’s symptoms and medical history to arrive at an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman is being evaluated for obesity, hirsutism, and oligomenorrhea. After an...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is being evaluated for obesity, hirsutism, and oligomenorrhea. After an ultrasound scan, she is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). As she desires to conceive, her physician prescribes metformin to enhance her fertility. What is the mechanism of action of metformin in treating PCOS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases peripheral insulin sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome patients commonly experience insulin resistance, which can result in complex alterations in the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old patient is suspected of having ingested a substance with anticholinesterase effects....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is suspected of having ingested a substance with anticholinesterase effects. What combination of signs, if present, would most likely confirm this effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitors and Muscarinic Effects

      An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, also known as an anticholinesterase, is a chemical that prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine (ACh) by inhibiting the cholinesterase enzyme. This leads to an increase in both the level and duration of action of ACh, a neurotransmitter that stimulates postganglionic receptors to produce various effects such as salivation, lacrimation, defecation, micturition, sweating, miosis, bradycardia, and bronchospasm. These effects are referred to as muscarinic effects, and the postganglionic receptors are called muscarinic receptors since muscarine produces these effects.

      One pathological syndrome associated with excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system is SLUD, which stands for Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, and emesis. SLUD is not likely to occur naturally and is usually encountered only in cases of drug overdose or exposure to nerve gases. Nerve gases irreversibly inhibit the acetylcholinesterase enzyme, leading to a chronically high level of ACh at cholinergic synapses throughout the body. This, in turn, chronically stimulates ACh receptors throughout the body, resulting in SLUD and other muscarinic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 23 - A 49-year-old Asian man undergoes a Mantoux test during his immigration screening upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old Asian man undergoes a Mantoux test during his immigration screening upon arrival in the United Kingdom. The test comes back positive, but his chest X-ray appears normal, and he is prescribed isoniazid and pyridoxine (vitamin B6). However, he returns to the hospital four weeks later complaining of fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid-induced hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid Monotherapy for TB Prevention

      Isoniazid monotherapy is a treatment used to prevent active tuberculosis in individuals who have been exposed to M. tuberculosis. However, it is important to note that isoniazid-induced hepatitis can occur in approximately 1% of patients, with a higher risk in those over the age of 35. The risk of hepatitis is less than 0.3% in patients under 20 years old, but increases to 2-3% in individuals over 50 years old.

      Aside from hepatitis, other side effects of isoniazid therapy include peripheral neuritis, which can be prevented by taking pyridoxine prophylactically. Additionally, a systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)-like syndrome may also occur. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for any adverse reactions while on isoniazid therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 24 - When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United...

    Incorrect

    • When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between fifth and ninth day of life

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: Identifying Potential Health Risks in Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a routine procedure performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. The test involves collecting a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for potential health risks. Currently, there are nine conditions that are screened for, including congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - You are a healthcare professional at the paediatric oncology unit and you have...

    Incorrect

    • You are a healthcare professional at the paediatric oncology unit and you have been summoned to speak with the parents of a 6-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL). The parents are anxious about their older daughter and are wondering if she is also at a higher risk of developing ALL. Can you provide them with information on the epidemiology of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peak incidence is 2-5 years

      Explanation:

      Childhood leukaemia is the most prevalent cancer in children, without significant familial correlation. However, certain genetic disorders, such as Down’s syndrome, can increase the risk of developing this disease.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - A 23-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder gives birth to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder gives birth to a baby girl at home. She received no prenatal care, but when she found out she was pregnant, she started taking prenatal vitamins that she got from the pharmacist. Her only medication is valproic acid. It is 2 days since the birth, and the mother has brought her baby to the Emergency Department because she has become impossible to arouse. On examination, the baby is estimated to have been born at 35 weeks’ gestation. The baby is afebrile, with stable vital signs. A head ultrasound through the fontanelle shows an intracerebral haemorrhage in the germinal matrix. There are no calcifications. Retinal examination does not show petechial haemorrhages. A full skeletal survey is negative.
      What is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism underlying this baby’s haemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin K deficiency

      Explanation:

      Causes of Periventricular Hemorrhage in Neonates

      Periventricular hemorrhage is a common condition in neonates that can lead to neurological damage. There are several possible causes of this condition, including vitamin K deficiency, folate deficiency from valproic acid treatment, congenital cytomegalovirus, congenital toxoplasmosis, and congenital herpes simplex virus.

      Vitamin K deficiency is a natural occurrence in neonates as they do not have established gut bacteria that produce this vitamin. Vitamin K is essential for the production of clotting factors and anticoagulant proteins. Therefore, neonates born in hospitals are usually injected with vitamin K to prevent periventricular hemorrhage.

      Folate deficiency from valproic acid treatment is a common cause of neural tube defects but does not lead to periventricular hemorrhage. Prenatal vitamins usually contain folate, which can prevent this deficiency.

      Congenital cytomegalovirus and congenital toxoplasmosis can cause periventricular hemorrhage, but they are also accompanied by other congenital abnormalities, such as intracerebral calcifications.

      Congenital herpes simplex virus can cause periventricular hemorrhage and neurological damage, but it also causes a diffuse vesicular rash and other symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful and swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful and swollen hand. She reports having a fracture in her radius that was treated with a plaster cast for four weeks. Since then, she has noticed tenderness and shiny skin in the affected hand. What is the most probable diagnosis for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complex regional pain syndrome

      Explanation:

      Complex Regional Pain Syndromes (CRPS)

      Complex Regional Pain Syndromes (CRPS) are a group of conditions that are characterized by localized or widespread pain, accompanied by swelling, changes in skin color and temperature, and disturbances in blood flow. People with CRPS may also experience allodynia (pain from stimuli that are not normally painful), hyperhidrosis (excessive sweating), and changes in nail or hair growth. In some cases, motor abnormalities such as tremors, muscle spasms, and involuntary movements may also occur. Contractures, or the shortening and tightening of muscles, may develop in later stages of the condition. CRPS can affect any part of the body, but it is most commonly seen in the limbs.

      One of the defining features of CRPS is that it often develops after an injury, even one that may seem minor or insignificant. Symptoms may not appear until several months after the initial injury. CRPS was previously known as Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy (RSD).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 28 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father. She has been experiencing nighttime itching around her bottom and has mentioned to her father that she has seen small white strands moving in her stool. She is not constipated and is generally healthy. No one else in the household has reported similar symptoms. The girl lives with her father and her two-year-old brother.

      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mebendazole and hygiene measures for the patient and his parents, as his sister is too young

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to treat asymptomatic household contacts of patients with threadworms, even if they show no symptoms. In the case of this boy with threadworms, the appropriate course of action would be to administer Mebendazole and advise on hygiene measures for both the patient and his parents. It is not necessary to send a sample to the laboratory for confirmation as empirical treatment is recommended. Advising on hygiene and fluid intake alone would not be sufficient to treat the infection. It is important to note that Mebendazole should not be given to children under six months old, so treating the patient’s three-month-old sister is not appropriate. Permethrin is not a suitable treatment for threadworms as it is used to treat scabies.

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - You are a surgical house officer (F1) attending to a patient on the...

    Incorrect

    • You are a surgical house officer (F1) attending to a patient on the surgical ward. The nurses mention to you that the patient is having intermittent episodes of pyrexia, without other complaints. The patient is now on their second day following a subtotal thyroidectomy. On assessing the patient, you note that the patient is well in himself and, apart from pyrexia, has no other complaints.
      Examination is unremarkable and vital signs are normal, and specifically the neck has no swelling or discharge. A bedside ECG does not reveal any abnormalities. Blood tests are noted as follows:
      Investigations Results Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 111 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelet (Plt) 415 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea (Ur) 4.5 mmol/l 2.6–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 35 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 7 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Liver function tests (LFTs) sample haemolysed
      Which of the following interventions would you do first if the patient was 70 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take a repeat blood sample to check the potassium level

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia: Prioritizing Interventions

      Hyperkalaemia is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent management. In the scenario where a blood sample shows raised potassium levels, the first intervention should be to repeat the blood sample to confirm the hyperkalaemia. Clinical features associated with hyperkalaemia are non-specific, and an ECG should be performed to investigate any changes associated with hyperkalaemia. Treatment involves stabilizing the myocardium with calcium gluconate, pushing potassium intracellularly with insulin and glucose or nebulized salbutamol, and administering calcium resonium to promote excretion of potassium from the body. In this scenario, administering calcium gluconate should be considered only if there is evidence of hyperkalaemic changes on the ECG or in the presence of moderate to severe hyperkalaemia. Establishing an iv line is essential, and a septic screen should be performed if the patient has post-operative intermittent pyrexia. However, the priority is to confirm the hyperkalaemia and treat it and the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 30 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a history of cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a history of cough, breathing difficulty, and multiple episodes of vomiting. Her mother reports finding her with empty packets of aspirin and the girl also complains of ringing in her ears. The following blood test results are available:

      - Na+ 148 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 6.0mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 14.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 241µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 39 ml/min/1.73m2 (>89ml/min/1.73m2)
      - Salicylate levels 646mg/l (<300mg/l)

      What would be the expected findings on her arterial blood gas sample?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Salicylate overdose typically results in a combination of primary respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The overdose triggers hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis by directly stimulating the cerebral medulla. As aspirin is broken down, it disrupts ATP synthesis by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria. This leads to an increase in lactate levels due to anaerobic metabolism, which, along with salicylate metabolites, causes metabolic acidosis. Metabolic acidosis is also commonly caused by severe diarrhoea, renal failure, and diabetic ketoacidosis. On the other hand, metabolic alkalosis is often caused by vomiting, nasogastric suctioning, hypokalemia, and antacid use. Respiratory acidosis is frequently caused by COPD, obesity, pneumonia, and respiratory muscle weakness, while respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, anaemia, or drug-induced stimulation of the respiratory centre. In the case of salicylate overdose, respiratory alkalosis is the primary cause of the mixed acid-base disorder, but it also contributes to metabolic acidosis.

      Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Passmed