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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of beta-thalassaemia major:
Your Answer: Gallstones
Correct Answer: Increased bleeding tendency
Explanation:Features include:- severe anaemia (becoming apparent at 3 – 6 months when the switch from gamma-chain to beta-chain production takes place)- failure to thrive- hepatosplenomegaly (due to excessive red cell destruction, extramedullary haemopoiesis and later due to transfusion related iron overload)- expansion of bones (due to marrow hyperplasia, resulting in bossing of the skull and cortical thinning with tendency to fracture)- increased susceptibility to infections (due to anaemia, iron overload, transfusion and splenectomy)- osteoporosis- hyperbilirubinaemia and gallstones- hyperuricaemia and gout- other features of haemolytic anaemia- liver damage and other features of iron overload
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A patient is referred to the Medicine Department for complaints of unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus and facial numbness. Upon further investigation, an acoustic neuroma is given as the final diagnosis.Which of the following nerves is least likely to be affected in acoustic neuroma?
Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve
Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve
Explanation:Acoustic neuroma is also called vestibular schwannoma (VS), acoustic neuroma, vestibular neuroma or acoustic neurofibroma. These are tumours that evolve from the Schwann cell sheath and can be either intracranial or extra-axial. They usually occur adjacent to the cochlear and vestibular nerves and most often arise from the inferior division of the latter. Anatomically, acoustic neuroma tends to occupy the cerebellopontine angle. About 5-10% of cerebellopontine angle (CPA) tumours are meningiomas and may occur elsewhere in the brain. Bilateral acoustic neuromas tend to be exclusively found in individuals with type 2 neurofibromatosis.The following nerves may be affected due to nerve compression:Facial nerve: usually minimal with late presentation except for very large tumours. Depending on the degree of engagement of the nerve, the symptoms may include twitching, increased lacrimation and facial weakness.Trigeminal Nerve: paraesthesia in the trigeminal distribution, tingling of the tongue, impairment of the corneal reflex, and less commonly pain which may mimic typical trigeminal neuralgia.Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerves: palatal paresis, hoarseness of voice and dysphagia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Achlorhydria is diagnosed in a 37-year-old individual who has had recurring episodes of gastroenteritis. This is an autoimmune illness of the gastric parietal cells that causes insufficient stomach acid production.Damage to stomach parietal cells will alter the secretion of which other substance?Â
Your Answer: Gastrin
Correct Answer: Intrinsic factor
Explanation:Achlorhydria is an autoimmune illness of the gastric parietal cells that causes insufficient stomach acid production. The parietal cells that have been injured are unable to create the necessary amount of stomach acid. As a result, the pH of the stomach rises, food digestion suffers, and the risk of gastroenteritis rises.The secretion of hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor is controlled by the gastric parietal cells, which are epithelial cells in the stomach. These cells can be found in the gastric glands, the fundus lining, and the stomach body.In response to the following three stimuli, the stomach parietal cells release hydrochloric acid:H2 Histamine receptors are stimulated by histamine (most significant contribution)Acetylcholine stimulates M3 Receptors via parasympathetic action.CCK2 receptors are stimulated by Gastrin.Intrinsic factor, which is essential for vitamin B12 absorption, is also produced by stomach parietal cells.Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that is both selective and irreversible. It inhibits the H+/K+-ATPase system present on the secretory membrane of gastric parietal cells, which lowers stomach acid secretion.Ranitidine inhibits histamine H2-receptors in a competitive manner. The reversible inhibition of H2-receptors in gastric parietal cells reduces both the volume and concentration of gastric acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old woman had a humerus midshaft fracture due to tripping on a curb and falling on her left arm. She might also have damaged which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery
Correct Answer: Radial nerve and deep brachial artery
Explanation:The radial nerve and brachial artery are most likely to be damaged in humerus fractures. They are tethered together to the bone and cannot withstand the forces applied to it as a result of the displacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm and jaw. An ECG is taken, and the lateral leads show extensive ST depression. His blood pressure is currently 190/123 mmHg, and as part of his treatment, you intend to begin drug therapy to lower it.Which of the following is the INITIAL drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?
Your Answer: Labetalol
Correct Answer: Glyceryl trinitrate
Explanation:End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.In the presence of cardiac ischaemia, hypertensive emergencies require immediate treatment to prevent myocardial infarction. Similarly, if myonecrosis occurs in the presence of an existing infarction, prompt treatment is required to prevent further myonecrosis. When thrombolysis is used as the primary reperfusion therapy for acute myocardial infarction, blood pressure control is especially important.An intravenous nitrate is the drug of choice in this situation (e.g. GTN). These have a dual purpose in that they can help patients with ischaemic chest pain manage their symptoms. Because lowering blood pressure with nitrates isn’t always enough to achieve optimal results, intravenous beta-blockers are frequently used as a supplement. For this, intravenous atenolol and metoprolol are commonly used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT a feature characteristic of intravascular haemolysis:
Your Answer: Bilirubinuria
Explanation:Features of intravascular haemolysis include:haemoglobinaemia, methaemalbuminaemia, haemoglobinuria (dark urine) and haemosiderinuria
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT an indication for a H1 receptor antihistamine:
Your Answer: Insomnia
Correct Answer: Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Explanation:Antihistamines are competitive inhibitors at the H1-receptor (in contrast to H2 receptor antagonists used to decrease gastric acid secretion in gastroesophageal reflux disease).Indications: Allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitisUrticarial rashes, pruritus, insect bites and stingsAngioedemaAnaphylaxis (second line adjunct to adrenaline)Nausea/vomiting and prevention of motion sicknessInsomnia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of a red and painful left eye. Upon physical examination, it was noted that there is the presence of conjunctival erythema. A mucopurulent discharge and crusting of the lid was also evident. A diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis was made. According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following should NOT be a part of the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Advise that no school exclusion is necessary
Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics should be prescribed routinely
Explanation:The following are the NICE guidelines on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:- Infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting illness that usually settles without treatment within 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist for longer than two weeks they should return for review.- Seek medical attention urgently if marked eye pain or photophobia, loss of visual acuity, or marked redness of the eye develop.- Remove contact lenses, if worn, until all symptoms and signs of infection have completely resolved and any treatment has been completed for 24 hours.- Lubricant eye drops may reduce eye discomfort; these are available over the counter, as well as on prescription.- Clean away infected secretions from eyelids and lashes with cotton wool soaked in water.- Wash hands regularly, particularly after touching the eyes.- Avoid sharing pillows and towels.- It is not necessary to exclude a child from school or childcare if they have infective conjunctivitis, as mild infectious illnesses should not interrupt school attendance. An exception would be if there is an outbreak of infective conjunctivitis, when advice should be sought from the Health Protection Agency by the school. – Adults who work in close contact with others, or with vulnerable patients, should avoid such contact until the discharge has settled.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A young male has presented to you with respiratory depression and small pupils on examination. You diagnose opioid overdose and immediately start therapy with Naloxone.Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding naloxone?
Your Answer: It has a longer duration of action than most opioids
Correct Answer: It can be given by a continuous infusion if repeated doses are required
Explanation:Naloxone is a short-acting, specific antagonist of mu(μ)-opioid receptors. It is used to reverse the effects of opioid toxicity. It can be given by a continuous infusion if repeated doses are required and the infusion rate is adjusted according to the vital signs. Initially, the infusion rate can be set at 60% of the initial resuscitative IV dose per hour.Naloxone has a shorter duration of action (6-24 hours) than most opioids and so close monitoring according to the respiratory rate and depth of coma and repeated injections are necessary. When repeated doses are needed in opioid addicts, naloxone administration may precipitate a withdrawal syndrome with abdominal cramps, nausea and diarrhoea, but these usually settle within 2 hours.An initial dose of 0.4 to 2 mg can be given intravenously and can be repeated at 2 to 3-minute intervals to a maximum of 10mg. If the intravenous route is inaccessible, naloxone can be administered via an IO line, subcutaneously (SQ), IM, or via the intranasal (IN) route.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You contact the intensive care outreach team to inquire about a severely hypotensive resuscitated patient. They make the decision to start a dopamine infusion.Dopamine primarily has which of the following effects at high doses (>15 g/kg/min)?
Your Answer: Central modulation of movement
Correct Answer: Alpha-adrenergic stimulation
Explanation:Dopamine is a catecholamine that occurs naturally and is used to treat low cardiac output, septic shock, and renal failure. It is both adrenaline and noradrenaline’s immediate precursor.Dopamine acts on D1 and D2 dopamine receptors in the renal, mesenteric, and coronary beds at low doses (1-5 g/kg/min). Dopamine causes a significant decrease in renal vascular resistance and an increase in renal blood flow at these doses. Within this dose range, it is also involved in central modulation of behaviour and movement.Dopamine stimulates beta- and alpha-adrenergic receptors directly and indirectly at higher doses. Beta-stimulation predominates at a rate of 5-10 g/kg/min, resulting in a positive inotropic effect that increases cardiac output and coronary blood flow. Alpha-stimulation predominates at infusion rates greater than 15 g/kg/min, resulting in peripheral vasoconstriction and an increase in venous return and systolic blood pressure.Because clearance varies greatly in critically ill patients, plasma concentrations cannot be predicted reliably from infusion rates.Dopamine is given as an intravenous infusion, and because extravasation can cause tissue necrosis and sloughing, a central line is usually used (especially at higher doses >240 g/min). In an emergency, however, dopamine can be administered through a large vein (cephalic or basilic) while a central line is being prepared. Alkaline intravenous solutions inactivate it, so sodium bicarbonate should not be infused with it.The following are the most common dopamine side effects:Nausea and vomitingTachycardiaDysrhythmiasAnginaHypertension
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of cetirizine:
Your Answer: Leukotriene receptor antagonist
Correct Answer: H1-receptor antagonist
Explanation:Cetirizine is a competitive inhibitor at the H1-receptor (an antihistamine).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following comprises a negative feedback mechanism?
Your Answer: Detectors, comparators, a variable set point and effectors
Explanation:Negative feedback loops, also known as inhibitory loops, play a crucial role in controlling human health. It is a self-regulating mechanism of some sort. A negative feedback system is made up of three main components: a detector (often neural receptor cells) that measures the variable in question and provides input to the comparator; a comparator (usually a neural assembly in the central nervous system) that receives input from the detector, compares the variable to the variable set point, and determines whether or not a response is required. The comparator activates an effector (typically muscular or glandular tissue) to conduct the appropriate reaction to return the variable to its set point.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about propofol is TRUE:
Your Answer: If accidentally injected outside a vein it can cause tissue necrosis.
Correct Answer: Propofol has some antiemetic action.
Explanation:Propofol has some antiemetic properties. It’s for this reason that it’s used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting. Propofol is mostly processed in the liver, with the kidneys excreting just around 1% of it unaltered. Propofol, unlike thiopental, does not produce tissue necrosis when it is extravasated. Propofol lowers intracranial pressure via lowering brain metabolic rate and cerebral blood flow. Propofol is thought to be safe for people with bronchial asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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A patient was diagnosed with Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial plexus injury sustained in a car accident and, as a result, suffers from left arm paralysis. The following muscles are affected by the injury, except
Your Answer: Trapezius
Explanation:Damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots causes Erb’s palsy. The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius muscle, thus you would not expect this muscle to be impacted. The trapezius is a muscle that runs from the base of the neck across the shoulders and into the centre of the back.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the electron transfer system?
Your Answer: The electron transfer system uses NADH 2 molecules produced during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.
Correct Answer: The electron transfer system occurs in anaerobic respiration.
Explanation:The electron transfer system is responsible for most of the energy produced during respiration. The is a system of hydrogen carriers located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. Hydrogen is transferred to the electron transfer system via the NADH2molecules produced during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. As a result, a H+ion gradient is generated across the inner membrane which drives ATP synthase. The final hydrogen acceptor is oxygen and the H+ions and O2 combine to form water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 23-year-old male is referred to your haematology clinic after an acute attack of haemolytic anaemia. He was diagnosed with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency ten years ago. Which ONE of the following options is FALSE with regards to this disorder?
Your Answer: Acute haemolysis can be triggered by cephalosporin antibiotics
Explanation:Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an X-linked recessive disorder in which there is a deficiency of the enzyme G6PD. This causes instability of red blood cell membranes under oxidative stress leading to haemolysis.Triggers include: 1) Fava beans2) Sulphonamides3) Primaquine4) Anti-TB drugs5) Infections Most individuals will be asymptomatic until exposed to one of the triggers listed above. It is the commonest human enzyme defect and affects males more than females because of the X-linked inheritance pattern. The use of penicillins and cephalosporins is generally safe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A patient with a high potassium level is at risk of going into cardiac arrest. What changes in the ECG may indicate the incident of cardiac arrest in this patient?
Your Answer: Prominent U waves
Correct Answer: Peaked T waves and broad QRS complex
Explanation:Severe hyperkalaemia can result in a heart attack or a life-threatening arrhythmia. T waves become narrow-based, pointed, and tall if hyperkalaemia is not treated. The QRS complex widens and eventually merges with the T wave, resulting in a classic sine-wave electrocardiogram. Ventricular fibrillation and asystole are likely to follow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of opioid analgesics:
Your Answer: Folate deficiency
Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure
Explanation:Opioids should be avoided in people who have: A risk of paralytic ileus (opioids reduce gastric motility)Acute respiratory depressionAn acute exacerbation of asthma (opioids can aggravate bronchoconstriction as a result of histamine release)Conditions associated with increased intracranial pressure including head injury (opioids can interfere with pupillary response making neurological assessment difficult and may cause retention of carbon dioxide aggravating the increased intracranial pressure)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to treatment with aspirin at analgesic doses:
Your Answer: Haemophilia
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Aspirin (at analgesic doses) is contraindicated in:People with a history of true hypersensitivity to aspirin or salicylates (symptoms of hypersensitivity to aspirin or salicylates include bronchospasm, urticaria, angioedema, and vasomotor rhinitis)People with active or previous peptic ulcerationPeople with haemophilia or another bleeding disorderChildren younger than 16 years of age (risk of Reye’s syndrome)People with severe cardiac failurePeople with severe hepatic impairmentPeople with severe renal impairmentN.B. Owing to an association with Reye’s syndrome, aspirin-containing preparations should not be given to children under 16 years, unless specifically indicated, e.g. for Kawasaki disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Regarding gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Movement of particles across the membrane ceases once equilibrium has been reached.
Correct Answer: Transfer of oxygen is usually perfusion-limited.
Explanation:Gas exchange between alveolar air and blood in the pulmonary capillaries takes place by diffusion across the alveolar-capillary membrane. Diffusion occurs from an area of high partial pressure to an area of low partial pressure, thus the driving force for diffusion is the alveolar-capillary partial pressure gradient. Diffusion occurs until equilibrium is reached, but random movement of particles continues to occur and this is known as dynamic equilibrium. The diffusing capacity for oxygen (DLO2) cannot be measured directly but the rate of diffusion in the lungs can be estimated by measuring the diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO), not by measuring total lung capacity. The rate of transfer of a gas may be diffusion or perfusion limited; carbon monoxide transfer is diffusion-limited, oxygen transfer is usually perfusion-limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT one of insulin's actions:
Your Answer: Increased lipogenesis
Correct Answer: Increased gluconeogenesis
Explanation:Insulin has a number of effects on glucose metabolism, including:Inhibition of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesisIncreased glucose transport into fat and muscleIncreased glycolysis in fat and muscleStimulation of glycogen synthesisBy inhibiting gluconeogenesis, insulin maintains the availability of amino acids as substrates for protein synthesis. Thus, insulin supports protein synthesis through direct and indirect mechanisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the extensor pollicis longus?
Your Answer: It forms part of the thenar eminence
Correct Answer: It is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve
Explanation:Extensor pollicis longus is part of the deep extensors of the forearm together with extensor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longus, extensor indicis and supinator muscles. It is located on the posterior aspect of forearm, extending from the middle third of the ulna, and adjacent interosseous membrane, to the distal phalanx of the thumb.Extensor digitorum is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).Extensor pollicis brevis receives its blood supply from the posterior interosseous artery and perforating branches of the anterior interosseous artery.The main action of extensor pollicis longus is extension of the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints. Extension at the metacarpophalangeal joint occurs in synergy with extensor pollicis brevis muscle. When the thumb reaches the full extension or abduction, extensor pollicis longus can also assist in adduction of the thumb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Regarding inhaled corticosteroids, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Regular use of inhaled corticosteroids reduces the frequency of exacerbations in asthma.
Correct Answer: Lower doses of inhaled corticosteroids may be required in smokers.
Explanation:Current and previous smoking reduces the effectiveness of inhaled corticosteroids and higher doses may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Correct
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A 54-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?
Your Answer: 25% of the mean arterial pressure over the first hour
Explanation:End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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Regarding the intervertebral disc, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: In L4 - L5 disc herniation, the L5 spinal nerve root is the most commonly affected.
Explanation:A posterolateral herniation of the disc at the L4 – L5 level would be most likely to damage the fifth lumbar nerve root, not the fourth lumbar nerve root, due to more oblique descending of the fifth lumbar nerve root within the subarachnoid space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You're taking a history of a 59-year-old banker who has had heartburn in the past.Which of the following information about antacids is correct?
Your Answer: Aluminium hydroxide tends to have a laxative effect
Correct Answer: Magnesium carbonate can reduce the absorption of drugs taken at the same time
Explanation:Antacids such as aluminium hydroxide and magnesium carbonate are commonly used. They’re both water-insoluble and can reduce the absorption of drugs taken together. Allow at least 1-2 hours between taking these antacids and any other medications.Because it reduces gastrointestinal phosphate absorption, aluminium hydroxide can also be used to treat hyperphosphatemia in patients with renal failure.Magnesium carbonate has a laxative effect, whereas aluminium hydroxide has a constipating effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the main mechanism of action of dobutamine as an inotropic sympathomimetic:
Your Answer: Alpha1-receptor agonist
Correct Answer: Beta1-receptor agonist
Explanation:Dobutamine directly stimulates the beta1-adrenergic receptors in the heart and increases contractility and cardiac output with little effect on the rate. In addition action on beta2-receptors causes vasodilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Correct
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A new blood test is being developed to diagnose DVT. 1000 people presenting to ED with suspected DVT undergo the new blood test and the gold standard doppler ultrasound to confirm the diagnosis. Of the 1000 people, 77 are confirmed to have a DVT. Of the patients diagnosed with DVT, 75 test positive with the new diagnostic test and of the patients not diagnosed with DVT, 125 test positive with the new diagnostic test. What is the positive predictive value of this test:DVT YesDVT NoTotalPositive testa= 75b = 125200Negative testc = 2d = 798800Total779231000
Your Answer: 0.375
Explanation:Positive predictive value (PPV) is the proportion of individuals with a positive test result who actually have the disease.Positive predictive value (PPV) = a/(a+b) = 75/200= 0.375 = 37.5%This means there is a 37.5% chance, if the test is positive, that the patient actually has a DVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A patient complains of headache and visual loss. CT scan demonstrates a lesion of the temporal lobe. What type of visual field defect would you most expect to see in this patient:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia
Explanation:Axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) carry visual information, via the upper and lower optic radiations, to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe:The upper optic radiation carries fibres from the superior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the inferior visual field quadrants) and travels through the parietal lobe to reach the visual cortex. The lower optic radiation carries fibres from the inferior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the superior visual field quadrants) and travels through the temporal lobe to reach the visual cortex of the occipital lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
