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  • Question 1 - A mother brings her 14-year-old daughter to the general practice with concerns about...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 14-year-old daughter to the general practice with concerns about her delayed onset of periods. During the examination, the daughter is found to be in the 9th percentile for her age in terms of height, has short ring fingers, poor breast development, and a high arched palate. While listening to her heart, a crescendo-decrescendo murmur is heard on the upper right sternal border that radiates to the carotids. What is the probable cause of this murmur?

      Your Answer: Bicuspid valve

      Explanation:

      A 16-year-old girl presents with symptoms of shortness of breath, chest pain, and fatigue. Upon examination, a heart murmur is detected in the aortic region, which is described as a crescendo-decrescendo murmur. The possible causes of this murmur are considered, including aortic stenosis, aortic valve calcification, rheumatic heart disease, and Tetralogy of Fallot. However, based on the patient’s age and symptoms, aortic stenosis is the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18
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  • Question 2 - A 2-year-old child has been referred by the pediatrician to the clinic as...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old child has been referred by the pediatrician to the clinic as they are concerned about the child's appearance. Upon examination, you observe that the child has upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent epicanthic folds, low-set ears, and a flat face. You proceed to conduct a neurological assessment.
      What are the expected findings?

      Your Answer: Hyperreflexia

      Correct Answer: Hypotonia

      Explanation:

      Hypotonia in neonates can be caused by Down’s syndrome, but it is not the only cause. Down’s syndrome does not typically present with hyperreflexia or hypertonia, and it is not associated with spina bifida. While hyporeflexia may occur in some cases of Down’s syndrome, it is not the most common neurological presentation.

      Understanding Hypotonia: Causes and Symptoms

      Hypotonia, also known as floppiness, is a condition that can be caused by central nervous system disorders or nerve and muscle problems. It is characterized by a decrease in muscle tone, resulting in a lack of resistance to passive movement. In some cases, an acutely ill child may exhibit hypotonia during examination, while in others, it may be associated with encephalopathy in the newborn period, which is most likely caused by hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy.

      Central causes of hypotonia include Down’s syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, hypothyroidism, and cerebral palsy, which may precede the development of spasticity. On the other hand, neurological and muscular problems such as spinal muscular atrophy, spina bifida, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis, muscular dystrophy, and myotonic dystrophy can also cause hypotonia.

      It is important to note that hypotonia can be a symptom of an underlying condition and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional. Early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the symptoms and improve the quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      35.9
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  • Question 3 - You are called to attend a premature delivery. The neonate is born at...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to attend a premature delivery. The neonate is born at 34 weeks gestation via emergency Caesarean section. The neonate is having trouble starting to breathe and needs resuscitation. They are dyspnoeic and tachypnoeic at a rate of 85 breaths/min. Upon listening to the chest, there is decreased breath sounds on both sides. Heart sounds are displaced towards the middle. The abdominal wall looks sunken. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn

      Correct Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

      Explanation:

      The appearance of a scaphoid abdomen is a common presentation of congenital diaphragmatic hernia, which occurs when abdominal contents protrude into the chest cavity. This condition can cause breathing difficulties and rapid breathing in newborns. The characteristic auscultation findings are caused by underdeveloped lungs and compression due to the presence of abdominal organs in the chest. Immediate medical attention and respiratory support are necessary. It is important to note that this specific concave abdominal appearance is not seen in any other conditions mentioned.

      Understanding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) is a rare condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,000 newborns. It occurs when the diaphragm, a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, fails to form completely during fetal development. As a result, abdominal organs can move into the chest cavity, which can lead to underdeveloped lungs and high blood pressure in the lungs. This can cause respiratory distress shortly after birth.

      The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia, which accounts for about 85% of cases. This type of hernia occurs when the pleuroperitoneal canal, a structure that connects the chest and abdominal cavities during fetal development, fails to close properly.

      Despite advances in medical treatment, only about 50% of newborns with CDH survive. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes. Treatment may involve surgery to repair the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs back into their proper position. In some cases, a ventilator or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) may be necessary to support breathing until the lungs can function properly. Ongoing care and monitoring are also important to manage any long-term complications that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 6-month-old baby girl starts to experience frequent vomiting after feedings. Prior to...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old baby girl starts to experience frequent vomiting after feedings. Prior to this, she had been growing at a steady rate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Common Neonatal Gastrointestinal Disorders

      There are several common gastrointestinal disorders that can affect newborns. These include pyloric stenosis, necrotising enterocolitis (NEC), congenital duodenal atresia, Hirschsprung’s disease, and tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF).

      Pyloric stenosis is characterised by hypertrophy of the circular pyloric muscle, and typically presents with non-bilious, projectile vomiting in the third or fourth week of life. Constipation and dehydration may also occur, and biochemistry may show hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. Boys are more likely to be affected, especially if born into a family with affected girls.

      NEC is a condition primarily seen in premature infants, where portions of the bowel undergo necrosis. Symptoms include bilious vomiting, distended abdomen, and bloody stools, with late signs including bowel perforation and multi-organ failure.

      Congenital duodenal atresia is a congenital absence or complete closure of a portion of the lumen of the duodenum, and presents with bile-stained vomiting, abdominal distension, and inability to pass meconium.

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterised by the failure of ganglion cells to migrate into the hindgut, leading to functional intestinal obstruction. Symptoms include abdominal distension, bile-stained vomiting, and failure to pass meconium.

      TOF refers to a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia. Symptoms include choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding, excess mucus, and recurrent lower respiratory tract infections. Other congenital anomalies may also be present.

      Overall, early recognition and management of these neonatal gastrointestinal disorders is crucial for optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      9.4
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  • Question 5 - A neonate is diagnosed with a cardiac congenital abnormality where the foetal aorta...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate is diagnosed with a cardiac congenital abnormality where the foetal aorta and pulmonary trunk are parallel with an absence of crossing. What medication should be initiated urgently before corrective surgery can be performed?

      Your Answer: Captopril

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandin E1

      Explanation:

      The initial management for duct dependent congenital heart disease involves maintaining the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. In neonates with transposition of the great arteries (TGA), prostaglandin E1 is given intravenously to ensure the ductus arteriosus remains open, as its closure can lead to circulatory failure and profound cyanosis. Prostaglandins work by dilating vascular smooth muscle, which maintains the patency of the ductus arteriosus. Administering prostaglandins after delivery is necessary as the prostaglandin-rich placenta is no longer present to keep the ductus arteriosus open. Adenosine is not indicated in this case, as the newborn’s issue is circulatory rather than related to cardiac electrical activity. If heart failure occurs, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be used, but prostaglandins should be the first-line treatment to prevent heart failure. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided as they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, leading to closure of the ductus arteriosus and likely death of the newborn. Prostaglandin E is the most potent type of prostaglandin responsible for maintaining ductus arteriosus patency, not prostaglandin F2.

      Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.

      The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.

      To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.3
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  • Question 6 - A 6-year-old girl is presented with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is presented with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. Upon examination, she exhibits bilateral expiratory wheezing, but there are no indications of respiratory distress. Her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and her PEF is approximately 50% of normal. What is the best course of action regarding steroid treatment?

      Your Answer: Admit for intravenous steroids

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone for 3 days

      Explanation:

      According to the 2016 guidelines of the British Thoracic Society, children should be given a specific dose of steroids based on their age. For children under 2 years, the dose should be 10 mg of prednisolone, for those aged 2-5 years, it should be 20 mg, and for those over 5 years, it should be 30-40 mg. Children who are already taking maintenance steroid tablets should receive a maximum dose of 60 mg or 2 mg/kg of prednisolone. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose should be repeated, and if they are unable to retain the medication orally, intravenous steroids should be considered. The duration of treatment should be tailored to the number of days required for recovery, and a course of steroids exceeding 14 days does not require tapering.

      Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      36
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  • Question 7 - A 7-week old male infant is presented to the GP clinic by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week old male infant is presented to the GP clinic by his mother for a regular examination. During auscultation of the baby's heart, you detect a harsh ejection systolic murmur that is most audible at the second intercostal space on the right parasternal area and extends to the neck. Additionally, you observe that the baby has a small upturned nose, a long philtrum, a small chin, and swollen eyes. What is the probable syndrome that this baby is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Correct Answer: William's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Aortic stenosis is commonly seen in individuals with William’s syndrome, which is characterized by distinct facial features such as a small upturned nose, long philtrum, wide mouth, full lips, small chin, and puffiness around the eyes. On the other hand, Down’s syndrome is typically associated with atrioventricular septal defects, while Klinefelter syndrome is linked to hypogonadism. Angelman syndrome, on the other hand, is not commonly associated with aortic stenosis.

      Aortic Stenosis in Children: Causes and Management

      Aortic stenosis is a type of congenital heart disease that affects 5% of children. It can be associated with other conditions such as William’s syndrome, coarctation of the aorta, and Turner’s syndrome. The aim of management is to delay or avoid valve replacement if possible. However, if the gradient across the valve is greater than 60 mmHg, balloon valvotomy may be necessary. It is important to monitor and manage aortic stenosis in children to prevent complications and ensure optimal health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 6-month-old is brought in by a concerned mother. She reports her baby...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old is brought in by a concerned mother. She reports her baby crying after feeds and drawing his legs to his chest for several weeks. His growth is good and examination unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the best treatment option?

      Your Answer: Infacol

      Correct Answer: Supportive advice and reassurance

      Explanation:

      Managing Infantile Colic: Supportive Advice and Reassurance

      Infantile colic can be a challenging condition for both parents and babies. While there is little evidence for treating colic, there are some strategies that can help manage the symptoms. Nursing the baby upright after feeds, bathing the infant in warm water, using white noise, gentle movement of baby, eg rocking the crib, holding baby during an episode, winding well and offering reassurance when needed can all be helpful.

      However, it’s important to note that medications such as Infacol, Colief, Gaviscon, and Ranitidine are not recommended as first-line treatments due to lack of evidence. Maternal diet modification, probiotic supplements, herbal supplements, and manipulative strategies are also not recommended.

      If your baby is experiencing colic, know that you are not alone and that supportive advice and reassurance can go a long way in managing the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      38
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  • Question 9 - A 3-month-old baby boy is brought to the hospital with suspected meningitis. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old baby boy is brought to the hospital with suspected meningitis. His parents report that he has been feverish and lethargic for the past day. During the examination, his temperature is recorded as 39.5ÂșC, heart rate is 165/min, and respiratory rate is 52/min. The anterior fontanelle is visibly swollen, but no petechial rash is observed. Apart from cefotaxime, what other intravenous antibiotic should be administered?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      To ensure coverage for Listeria, it is recommended to administer IV amoxicillin along with cefotaxime when treating meningitis in children under 3 months of age.

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.3
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman with a 4-month-old baby expresses concern that her friend's baby...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a 4-month-old baby expresses concern that her friend's baby had a hip ultrasound but her own child has not. You inform her that hip ultrasounds are only offered to babies with certain risk factors for hip dysplasia.

      What is one of the risk factors for hip dysplasia?

      Your Answer: Breech presentation

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is more likely to occur in newborns who were in a breech presentation during pregnancy, as well as those with a family history of hip problems in early life. To screen for DDH, ultrasound is performed at 6 weeks of age for infants with these risk factors. Additionally, infants who test positive for the Barlow or Ortolani test are also sent for a hip ultrasound to check for DDH.

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.2
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Paediatrics (3/10) 30%
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