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  • Question 1 - A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months back...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months back was started on treatment with tamoxifen. Which of the following is most likely a complaint of this patient during her review today?

      Your Answer: Hot flushes

      Explanation:

      The most likely complaint of this patient would be hot flushes.

      Alopecia and cataracts are listed in the BNF as possible side-effects. They are however not as prevalent as hot flushes, which are very common in pre-menopausal women.

      Tamoxifen is a Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) which acts as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. It is used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer

      Adverse effects:
      Menstrual disturbance: vaginal bleeding, amenorrhoea
      Hot flushes – 3% of patients stop taking tamoxifen due to climacteric side-effects.
      Venous thromboembolism.
      Endometrial cancer
      Tamoxifen is typically used for 5 years following the removal of the tumour.

      Raloxifene is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer.

      Although antagonistic with respects to breast tissue tamoxifen may serve as an agonist at other sites. Therefore the risk of endometrial cancer is increased cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused state. His friends report that he has been complaining of headaches for the past few weeks. He has a low-grade fever and on examination is noted to have abnormally pink mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning

      Explanation:

      Confusion and pink mucosae are typical features of CO poisoning.
      The patient often presents, most commonly with headaches, and other symptoms like malaise, nausea, and dizziness.

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.

      Features of carbon monoxide toxicity
      – Headache: 90% of cases
      – Nausea and vomiting: 50%
      – Vertigo: 50%
      – Confusion: 30%
      – Subjective weakness: 20%
      – Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, death

      Treatment:
      Use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treating mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.
      The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:
      • COHb levels > 20-25%
      • COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient
      • Loss of consciousness
      • Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)
      • Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged....

    Correct

    • A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged. On review, she is making good progress but consideration is given to secondary prevention of further fractures. What is the most appropriate step in the prevention of further fractures?

      Your Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      In such a clinical scenario, NICE guidelines support initiating treatment with bisphosphonates without waiting for a DEXA scan.

      Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.

      Management:
      Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
      Alendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.
      Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.
      Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection. On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection. On examination, he was found to be confused and dyspnoeic with O2 saturation of 88%. He has a 60 pack-year smoking history. An arterial blood gas analysis reveals CO2 retention. He has been deemed unfit for admission into the intensive care unit. The physician elects to begin a doxapram infusion. Among the following statements which best fits with the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer: Epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use

      Explanation:

      The statement that fits the characteristics of doxapram is, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use. Concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation not relaxation.

      Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.

      Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
      The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.

      Drug interactions:
      Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club. Which of the following features suggest she had taken ecstasy (MDMA)?

      Your Answer: A pyrexia of 40°C

      Explanation:

      MDMA commonly known as ecstasy or molly, is a psychoactive drug primarily used as a recreational drug. The desired effects include altered sensations, increased energy, empathy, and pleasure. Features of MDMA abuse include hyponatraemia, tachycardia, hyperventilation, and hyperthermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning?

      Your Answer: Causes a peripheral neuropathy due to demyelination

      Explanation:

      Lead can be absorbed through the skin and by inhalation. It is associated with iron deficiency and a microcytic anaemia. The most common gastrointestinal symptoms are abdominal colic and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a: ...

    Correct

    • According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a:

      Your Answer: Class Ib agent

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is an example of class IB antiarrhythmics.

      The Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmics
      I: Membrane stabilizing agents
      IA: Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide
      IB: Lidocaine, Mexiletine
      IC: Propafenone, Flecainide
      II: β blockers – Propranolol, Esmolol
      III: Agents widening AP – Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Dofetilide, Ibutilide, Sotalol
      IV: Calcium channel blockers – Verapamil, Diltiazem
      V: Miscellaneous – Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      81.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old female presents with a 4-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. She...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female presents with a 4-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. She has been unable to keep fluids down for 4 days and has been treated with metoclopramide. She develops a dystonic reaction. What is the most appropriate treatment for the woman?

      Your Answer: Benztropine

      Explanation:

      Acute dystonic reactions (extrapyramidal symptoms) such as spasmodic torticollis, trismus, and oculogyric crises can occur following the administration of metoclopramide or stemetil and thus, neither is recommended for the treatment of nausea in young women.

      Such reactions respond well to treatment with benztropine or procyclidine.
      – Benztropine: It is an anticholinergic medication with significant CNS penetration.
      A single dose of benztropine 1 to 2 mg IV followed by 1 to 2 mg p.o twice a day for up to 7 days to prevent a recurrence. Subsequently, both the offending agent and those from the same group should be avoided.
      – Alternatively, diphenhydramine can be used intravenously (up to a dose of 50mg) or intramuscularly followed by p.o therapy every 6 hours for 1 to 2 to prevent a recurrence.
      – Second-line therapy with IV benzodiazepines is reserved for those patients who do not respond to anticholinergics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of the iodination of tyrosine

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism. Carbimazole is a pro-drug as after absorption it is converted to the active form, methimazole. Methimazole prevents thyroid peroxidase enzyme from coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, hence reducing the production of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 (thyroxine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of an unidentified substance. On examination, he was found to be bradycardic, hypotensive, hyper-salivating, and disoriented. On ocular examination, his pupils were found to be miotic. What is the most likely substance he ingested?

      Your Answer: An organophosphate insecticide

      Explanation:

      The farmer has most likely ingested an organophosphate insecticide.
      Organophosphorus compounds are used widely as:
      • Insecticides – Malathion, parathion, diazinon, dichlorvos
      • Nerve gases – Soman, sarin, tabun, VX
      • Ophthalmic agents – Echothiophate
      • Antihelmintics – Trichlorfon
      • Herbicides – merphos
      • Industrial chemical (plasticizer) – Tricresyl phosphate
      Signs and symptoms of Organophosphorus Poisoning (OPP) can be classified as:
      • Muscarinic effects:
      o Cardiovascular – Bradycardia, hypotension
      o Respiratory – Rhinorrhoea, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, cough, severe respiratory distress
      o Gastrointestinal – Hypersalivation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, faecal incontinence
      o Genitourinary – Incontinence
      o Ocular – Blurred vision, miosis
      o Glands – Increased lacrimation, diaphoresis
      • Nicotinic effects:
      o Muscle fasciculation, weakness, cramping, diaphragmatic failure, and autonomic side effects include: hypertension, tachycardia, and mydriasis.
      • Central nervous system (CNS) effects:
      o Anxiety, emotional lability, restlessness, confusion, ataxia, tremors, seizures, coma, apnoea
      Mainstay Treatment:
      • Decontamination
      • Securing Airway, Breathing and Circulation
      • Atropine
      • Pralidoxime
      • Benzodiazepines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which...

    Correct

    • Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which of the following statements is true concerning organophosphate poisoning?

      Your Answer: Atropine is useful in the management of organophosphate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The principal action of organophosphates is the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase’s, therefore leading to the accumulation of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors (miosis, hypersalivation, sweating, diarrhoea, excessive bronchial secretions), nicotinic receptors (muscle fasciculations and tremor) and in the central nervous system (anxiety, loss of memory, headache, coma).

      Removal from the source of the organophosphate, adequate decontamination, supplemental oxygen and atropine are the initial treatment measures. Pralidoxime, an activator of cholinesterase, should be given to all symptomatic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting 20g of paracetamol. N-acetyl cysteine was started immediately. What is the mechanism of action of N-acetyl cysteine?

      Your Answer: Replenishes glutathione

      Explanation:

      N-acetylcysteine depletes glutathione reserves by providing cysteine, which is an essential precursor in glutathione production.

      Glutathione within the liver can normally detoxify these minuscule quantities of NAPQI and prevent tissue damage.
      N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the mainstay of therapy for acetaminophen toxicity.

      Paracetamol overdose:
      The liver normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. During an overdose, the conjugation system becomes saturated leading to oxidation by cytochrome P450 (predominately CYP2E1) mixed-function oxidases. This produces a toxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI).

      Normally glutathione acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. If glutathione stores run-out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death.

      Other uses: In COPD, cystic fibrosis, and other lung conditions, nebulized NAC has mucolytic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which...

    Correct

    • Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Initiation of allopurinol treatment during an attack can exacerbate and prolong the episode. Thus treatment should be delayed until the attack resolves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the most compelling indication for starting HRT?

      Your Answer: Control of vasomotor symptoms such as flushing

      Explanation:

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to help alleviate menopausal symptoms. The main indication is the control of vasomotor symptoms. The other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy and prevention of osteoporosis, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide poisoning?

      Your Answer: Nausea

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning:
      It is considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.

      Clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity:
      Headache: 90% of cases (most common clinical feature)
      Nausea and vomiting: 50%
      Vertigo: 50%
      Confusion: 30%
      Subjective weakness: 20%
      Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosa, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, death
      Cherry red skin is a sign of severe toxicity and is usually a post-mortem finding.
      Management
      • 100% oxygen
      • Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)

      The use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.
      The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:
      • COHb levels > 20-25%
      • COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient
      • Loss of consciousness
      • Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)
      • Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills. Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.
      Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.
      If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.
      Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine? ...

    Correct

    • Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine?

      Your Answer: Dilation of systemic veins

      Explanation:

      Dilation of systemic veins is a beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine.

      Administration of nitro-glycerine results in the dilation of systemic veins and decrease of myocardial wall tension and oxygen demand. Dilatation of systemic veins can cause reduced systemic vascular resistance leading to reduced cardiac workload thus reducing anginal symptoms secondary to demand ischemia.

      This is accompanied by vasodilation of large and medium-sized coronary arteries with increased coronary blood flow to the sub endocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate examination reveals a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus. Blood investigations show a PSA level of 1.3 ng/mL. Among the options provided below what is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Benign Prostatic Enlargement or Hyperplasia (BPE/BPH) is the most probable diagnosis of the patient in question. It is a histological diagnosis characterized by proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate.
      The initial treatment modality of choice is selective alpha 1 antagonists (such as Prazosin, Alfuzosin and Indoramin, and long acting agents like, Terazosin, Doxazosin, etc.) as they provide immediate relief from the bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS).
      Other treatment modalities include:
      • Non-selective alpha blockers: no longer used due to severe adverse effects and the availability of selective alpha 1 blockers.
      • 5 alpha reductase inhibitors: Finasteride and Dutasteride, they target the underlying disease process and reduce the overall prostate volume. Thus, reduce the urinary retention and the lower urinary tract symptoms. (They do not provide immediate relief from LUTS and thus are not preferred as first line drugs over alpha 1 antagonists)
      • PDE-5 Inhibitors: The long-acting tadalafil has proven to be useful.
      • Surgical Treatment modalities: TURP, Prostatectomy, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 73-year-old female is being reviewed in the osteoporosis clinic. She had a...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old female is being reviewed in the osteoporosis clinic. She had a fracture of her left hip 5 years ago and was started on alendronate. Following the development of persistent musculoskeletal pain, alendronate was replaced with risedronate, which was also stopped for similar reasons. Strontium ranelate was therefore started but was also stopped due to the development of deep vein thrombosis in the right leg. Her current T-score is -4.1. A decision is made to start a trial of denosumab. What is the mechanism of action of denosumab?

      Your Answer: Inhibits RANK ligand, which in turn inhibits the maturation of osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      The principal mechanism by which strontium inhibits osteoclast activity is by enhancing the secretion of osteoprotegerin (OPG) and by reducing the expression of the receptor activator of nuclear factor κB ligand (RANKL) in osteoblasts.

      Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.

      Management:
      Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
      Alendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.
      Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.
      Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (19/20) 95%
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