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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is the target blood pressure for a 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and no end-organ damage, based on a clinic blood pressure reading?
Your Answer: < 140/80 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should aim for the same blood pressure targets as those without diabetes, as long as they are under 80 years old. This means keeping clinic readings below 140/90 and ABPM/HBPM readings below 135/85. It is important to note that these targets apply regardless of whether the patient has any end-organ damage.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department from her workplace, for the second time in the span of three months, after experiencing a syncopal episode. She also reported feeling extremely fatigued for the past few months and having bouts of dizziness. Upon examination, she appeared slender and sun-kissed, with a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg while lying down, but it dropped to 87/63 mmHg upon standing. Her baseline serum cortisol was low (<100 nmol/l) and her free thyroxine (T4) level was also low.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for the clinical presentation described above? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Primary hypoadrenalism
Explanation:Diagnosis of Primary Hypoadrenalism: A Case Study
A woman presents with a marked postural drop in blood pressure, increased pigmentation, and low cortisol levels, indicating primary hypoadrenalism as the most likely diagnosis. The high adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level causes pigmentation, and autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands is responsible for 80% of cases. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common in established cases. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends hospital admission for serum cortisol levels below 100 nmol/l and referral to an endocrinologist for levels between 100 and 500 nmol/l. Hypovolemia, HIV, hypothyroidism, and psychiatric symptoms are unlikely causes based on the case history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism presents with fatigue and a painful tongue. Her blood tests reveal the following results:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.7 g/dl
- Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 121 fl
- Platelet count (Plt): 177 * 109/l
- White blood cell count (WBC): 5.4 * 109/l
Further investigations reveal that her vitamin B12 levels are 64 ng/l (normal range: 200-900 ng/l) and her folic acid levels are 7.2 nmol/l (normal range: > 3.0 nmol/l). Antibodies to intrinsic factor are also detected. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin 3 times each week for 2 weeks, then once every 3 months
Explanation:Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.
Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.
Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of bony pain that has been present for several months, mainly affecting his left femur, pelvis, and lower back. His blood test shows a normal serum calcium level, but an elevated alkaline phosphatase. X-rays of the femur and pelvis reveal mixed lytic and sclerotic changes with accentuated trabecular markings. His chest X-ray is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Secondary carcinoma
Correct Answer: Paget’s disease
Explanation:Paget’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Paget’s disease is a bone disorder that affects approximately 2% of the population above 55 years of age. However, 90% of those affected are asymptomatic. The disease progresses through three phases, starting with lytic changes, followed by mixed lytic and sclerotic changes, and finally primarily sclerotic changes with increasing bony thickening. The new bone formed during the disease is disorganised, mechanically weaker, bulkier, less compact, more vascular, and prone to pathological fractures and deformities.
The main goals of treatment for Paget’s disease are to normalise bone turnover, maintain alkaline phosphatase levels within the normal range, minimise symptoms, and prevent long-term complications. Bisphosphonates are the mainstay of treatment and are often given as intermittent intravenous courses.
Long-term complications of Paget’s disease include deafness (in up to 50% of patients with skull-base Paget’s disease), pathological fractures, and, very rarely, osteogenic sarcoma.
Other bone disorders, such as multiple myeloma, hyperparathyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, and secondary carcinoma, have different symptoms, diagnostic criteria, and treatments. Therefore, it is essential to differentiate between these disorders to provide appropriate care for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of lethargy. During a work-up, her fasting plasma glucose level was found to be 6.3 mmol/l. The GP registrar ordered an HbA1c test to confirm the diagnosis of prediabetes. What is the most probable condition/situation that could render the test result invalid?
Your Answer: Haemolytic anaemia
Explanation:HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis in certain conditions such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, and chronic kidney disease.
The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male presents with polyuria and polydipsia. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 12 units per week. He is employed as a taxi driver.
On examination he has a BMI of 33.4 kg/m2, and a blood pressure of 132/82 mmHg, with all other aspects of the cardiovascular examination normal.
Investigations confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, and the following:
Fasting blood glucose 12.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
HbA1c 75 mmol/mol (20-42)
Total cholesterol 5.8 mmol/L (<5.2)
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Diet and lifestyle advice with metformin
Correct Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Treatment for Type 2 Diabetes
This patient presents with typical type 2 diabetes, which should be initially treated with a combination of diet and lifestyle advice along with metformin. The EASD/ADA guidelines were revised in 2007-2008 due to the evidence base supporting the earlier use of metformin. As a result, diet and lifestyle advice alone is no longer considered sufficient.
It is important to note that metformin is not a cure for type 2 diabetes, but rather a medication that helps manage blood sugar levels. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to continue making lifestyle changes, such as maintaining a healthy diet and engaging in regular physical activity, in order to effectively manage their diabetes. Additionally, regular monitoring and follow-up with healthcare providers is essential to ensure proper management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 7
Correct
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You have recommended a 60-year-old patient to purchase over-the-counter vitamin D at a dose of 10 micrograms. Later that day, the patient contacts you to inquire about the required dose in International Units since all medication labels at their local pharmacy are in this form.
To convert Vitamin D dose from International Units to micrograms, divide the number of units by 40.
What is the equivalent number of International Units for 10 mcg of Vitamin D?Your Answer: 0.25
Explanation:Common Mistakes in AKT Exams
A common mistake made by candidates in RCGP AKT exams is making silly errors when performing simple calculations. This often results in incorrect answers. However, at onExamination, we have noticed that candidates also tend to misread questions, leading to incorrect answers.
For instance, in a dose conversion question, candidates were asked to convert mcg to IU, but some failed to notice this and divided the 10 mcg dose by 40, resulting in an incorrect answer of 0.25. The correct method would have been to multiply the 10 mcg dose by 40 to convert to IU, giving the correct answer of 400.
To avoid such errors, the RCGP advises candidates to do a reality check after their calculation. For example, if you are familiar with the CKS NICE recommended adult intake of Vitamin D (which is 400 IU), you should be able to recognize that 0.25 is not the correct answer and double-check your calculation. By paying attention to details and doing a reality check, candidates can avoid making common mistakes in AKT exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Samantha is 14 weeks pregnant with her second child. She has a history of gestational diabetes during her previous pregnancy. Her midwife arranged an oral glucose tolerance test, but she missed the appointment to review the results.
The following results were obtained:
- Fasting glucose: 5.8 mmol/l
- 2-hour plasma glucose: 7.5 mmol/l
What is the interpretation of these results?Your Answer: Gestational diabetes as 2-hour glucose level >7 mmol/l
Correct Answer: Gestational diabetes as fasting glucose >5.6 mmol/l
Explanation:A diagnosis of gestational diabetes is likely as the fasting glucose level exceeds 5.6 mmol/l.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the universally recognized 25-hydroxyvitamin D blood level threshold that indicates vitamin D deficiency in adult patients, given a result of 37 nmol/L?
Your Answer: < 50 nmol/L
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Understanding Vitamin D Levels
Vitamin D is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health and overall well-being. A plasma concentration of 10 nmol/L is considered very low, and even levels higher than this may indicate a deficiency. The consensus is that levels below 25 nmol/L are deficient, but there is no standard definition of optimal levels. In the MRCGP exam, you will be tested on consensus opinion.
Levels of 75 and 100 nmol/L are incorrect as they are higher than the currently defined threshold for deficiency. According to NICE CKS, a diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency is made if serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25[OH]D) levels are less than 25 nmol/L. Further investigations may be necessary to aid the diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency and to exclude differential diagnoses.
Serum 25(OH)D levels in the range of 25-50 nmol/L may be inadequate for some people, while levels greater than 50 nmol/L are sufficient for most people. It is important to maintain adequate levels of vitamin D through a balanced diet and exposure to sunlight, as deficiency can lead to various health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old truck driver is being assessed. He was detected with type 2 diabetes mellitus last year. After shedding some weight and taking metformin, his HbA1c has dropped from 74 mmol/mol (8.9%) to 68 mmol/mol (8.4%). What would be the most appropriate course of action for further management?
Your Answer: Add gliclazide
Correct Answer: Add pioglitazone
Explanation:The most suitable choice for him would be Pioglitazone as it doesn’t pose a risk of hypoglycemia, which could be hazardous considering his profession. Additionally, the utilization of a DPP-4 inhibitor (such as sitagliptin or vildagliptin) would be supported by the NICE guidelines in this scenario.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his blood pressure is found to be 190/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests show:
- Sodium: 146 mmol/L
- Potassium: 2.5 mmol/L
- Bicarbonate: 34 mmol/L
- Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 78 µmol/L
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma
Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism
Explanation:Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.
To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.
The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 56-year-old man comes in for a check-up on his diabetes. He has been living with type 1 diabetes for 32 years. Lately, he has experienced several falls that he describes as episodes where he feels dizzy and loses his balance. He has also been dealing with erectile dysfunction for a few years and takes medication for acid reflux. During the physical examination, his blood pressure drops by 30 mmHg upon standing.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this patient's medical history and examination? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Diabetic autonomic neuropathy
Explanation:Diabetic Autonomic Neuropathy: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Diabetic autonomic neuropathy is a type of nerve damage that affects the autonomic nervous system in people with diabetes. Common symptoms include a marked postural drop, gastrointestinal tract neuropathy, impotence, tachycardia, and impaired cardiovascular response to the Valsalva manoeuvre. Other symptoms may include diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal distension, atonic bladder, painless urinary retention, and recurrent urinary tract infections.
It is important to differentiate diabetic autonomic neuropathy from other conditions with similar symptoms. Simple fainting, arrhythmia, somatic symptom disorder, and transient ischaemic attacks are all potential differential diagnoses that should be ruled out. While fainting or reflex syncope may cause a drop in blood pressure, it is often triggered by specific events and doesn’t explain the other symptoms. Arrhythmia may cause fainting or syncope, but it doesn’t account for the gastrointestinal or sexual symptoms. Somatic symptom disorder may present with physical symptoms, but they are not necessarily associated with a medical condition. Transient ischaemic attacks may cause fainting, but the other symptoms are not typical of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman is brought in to see her General Practitioner by her concerned daughter. She has been unsteady on her feet, slightly muddled, nauseous and fatigued over recent months. Her medical history includes controlled hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine. She is clinically euvolaemic. The only abnormality in her blood tests is a sodium level of 125 mmol/l (normal range 135–145 mmol/l).
Which is the most appropriate initial treatment for hyponatraemia in the majority of patients with inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)?Your Answer: Intravenous infusion of hypertonic saline
Correct Answer: Restriction of water intake
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyponatraemia
Hyponatraemia is a condition where the concentration of sodium in the blood is lower than normal. There are various treatment options available for this condition, depending on the severity and underlying cause.
Restriction of water intake is a common treatment for hyponatraemia caused by the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). In this condition, the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is not inhibited by a reduction in plasma osmolality, leading to excessive water retention. Fluid restriction, usually limiting fluids to 500 ml/day below the average daily urine volume, can help normalise blood osmolality.
Intravenous infusion of hypertonic saline is an emergency treatment for acute symptomatic hyponatraemia. Hypertonic saline (3%) is given via continuous infusion to rapidly increase the concentration of sodium in the blood.
Intravenous infusion of isotonic saline is not the first-line treatment for hyponatraemia. It may be used in some cases, but hypertonic saline is preferred for acute symptomatic hyponatraemia.
Oral demeclocycline is a pharmacological intervention reserved for refractory cases of hyponatraemia. It is a tetracycline derivative that decreases urine concentration even in the presence of high plasma ADH levels. However, it can be nephrotoxic.
Oral furosemide is another treatment option that may be used to decrease the reabsorption of water. However, it is not a first-line treatment and should be used with caution to avoid correcting water imbalances too rapidly.
In conclusion, the treatment options for hyponatraemia depend on the underlying cause and severity of the condition. Fluid restriction, intravenous infusion of hypertonic saline, and pharmacological interventions may be used in different situations to help normalise blood sodium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 14
Correct
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You receive the blood tests which were requested by the practice nurse in advance of the annual diabetes review of Mrs. Johnson, a 50-year-old patient. Mrs. Johnson was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes about 4 years ago, and after 2 years of attempting to control it with lifestyle measures, she commenced metformin and is now prescribed 1g BD. Her full blood count, renal profile and liver function tests are normal, her total cholesterol is 5.3mmol/L. Her HbA1c is 60mmol/mol.
As per NICE guidelines, what should be done regarding Mrs. Johnson's blood sugar control?Your Answer: Commence a second blood glucose lowering drug and reinforce lifestyle and diet measures
Explanation:If the HbA1c is > 58 mmol/mol in type 2 diabetes mellitus, a second blood glucose lowering drug should be added while also reinforcing lifestyle and diet measures, according to NICE guidelines. Simply reinforcing lifestyle measures is not enough. It is important to intensify drug treatment and revisit lifestyle and dietary advice with the patient. It is not recommended to stop metformin unless it is contraindicated or not tolerated. Modified-release metformin may be an option for patients experiencing gastrointestinal side effects on standard release metformin, but it will not improve blood sugar control.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 15
Correct
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Liam is a 27-year-old man with a history of depression and type 1 diabetes mellitus, for which he takes citalopram and insulin.
What substances should Liam avoid due to potential dangerous interactions with his medication?Your Answer: St John’s wort
Explanation:Serotonin syndrome can be caused by the interaction between St. John’s Wort and SSRIs, such as citalopram. While cranberry juice is an enzyme inhibitor, it doesn’t have any known interactions with SSRIs or insulin. Similarly, paracetamol doesn’t interact with either SSRIs or insulin. Cannabis is not known to have any interactions with SSRIs. Although cheese can interact with monoamine oxidase inhibitors, it doesn’t have any interactions with SSRIs.
Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, altered mental state, and confusion.
Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another potentially life-threatening condition. While both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You have recommended a patient in their 60s to purchase vitamin D over-the-counter at a dose of 800 units. Later that day, the patient contacts you to inquire about the equivalent dose in micrograms since all medication labels at their local pharmacy are in this form.
Which of the following is equal to 800 units of vitamin D?Your Answer: 20 mcg
Correct Answer: 5 mcg
Explanation:Converting Vitamin D Units to Micrograms
Many CCG pathways recommend taking vitamin D supplements in units, but the packaging of many vitamin D suppliers lists the dose in micrograms. To convert units to micrograms for vitamin D, simply divide by 40. For example, 400 units of vitamin D is equivalent to 10 micrograms. Remember to check the packaging for the correct dosage and always consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new supplement regimen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You suspect that a 52-year-old man is suffering from Cushing syndrome.
What time of day is a random cortisol test most likely to be abnormal?Your Answer: 0900 h
Correct Answer: 2400 h
Explanation:Cortisol Levels and Cushing Syndrome: Diagnostic Tests and Circadian Rhythms
Plasma cortisol levels in normal individuals follow a circadian rhythm, with the highest levels in the morning and the lowest levels at night. However, in patients with Cushing syndrome, this rhythm is disrupted, and late-night cortisol levels do not fall as they should. This alteration in cortisol secretion can be used to diagnose Cushing syndrome, with an elevated serum cortisol at 2400 h being an early indicator.
The 0900 h cortisol level is not a reliable indicator of Cushing syndrome, as it may still be within the normal range. Instead, a low-dose dexamethasone suppression test is used, where a failure to suppress cortisol suggests Cushing syndrome.
A 24-hour urine collection with cortisol level analysis is a better test for Cushing syndrome than serum cortisol, with two or more samples showing cortisol excretion more than three times the upper limit of normal being a confident diagnosis.
Late-night cortisol samples should be taken between 2300 h and 0100 h, while melatonin, which regulates sleep and wakefulness, follows a reverse circadian rhythm, with levels highest during periods of sleep. Synthetic melatonin is commonly used to alleviate jet lag.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 60-year-old man has a small-cell lung cancer. His serum sodium level is 128 mmol/l on routine testing (normal range 135–145 mmol/l).
What is the most probable reason for the biochemical abnormality observed in this case? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Understanding Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
SIADH is a condition where the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary is not inhibited by a reduction in plasma osmolality on drinking water, causing water retention and extracellular fluid volume expansion without oedema or hypertension. This condition is commonly associated with small-cell lung cancer. Hyponatraemia and concentrated urine are the main laboratory findings, and severe cases may present with symptoms of cerebral oedema. Addison’s disease, diuretics, psychogenic polydipsia, and vomiting are not likely causes of hyponatraemia, although they may contribute to it in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You encounter a 44-year-old man who has been evaluated in a neurology clinic for epileptic seizures. He has been given carbamazepine, a drug that induces cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes. Which medication would carbamazepine have the most significant interaction with?
Your Answer: Paracetamol
Correct Answer: Ciclosporin
Explanation:The Impact of CYP Inducers on Medications: A Case Study
CYP inducers can have a significant impact on medications that are metabolized by cytochrome P450 enzymes. In the case of carbamazepine and ciclosporin, carbamazepine’s induction of the enzymes would increase the rate of metabolism of ciclosporin, potentially leading to decreased plasma levels and serious implications due to ciclosporin’s narrow therapeutic window. Paracetamol is also metabolized by CYP, and while it is not contraindicated with carbamazepine, the production of a hepatotoxic metabolite may be relevant in cases of overdose. Lithium, on the other hand, is excreted renally, so induction of P450 enzymes would not alter its excretion rate, but changes in renal function could still impact its plasma level. Penicillins have a wide therapeutic index, so the impact of CYP inducers or inhibitors is not significant. As for salicylate, there is currently no listed interaction with carbamazepine, making it unlikely to cause any issues in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with general malaise. He has recently been prescribed carbimazole for hyperthyroidism. What is the most crucial blood test to conduct?
Your Answer: Liver function tests
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Exclusion of agranulocytosis is necessary when using carbimazole.
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is concerned about his risk for early heart disease due to a family history of the condition. He believes that some of his relatives are currently being treated for high cholesterol and would like to have his own cholesterol levels checked. Additionally, he is interested in learning about the type of high cholesterol that can be inherited. What is the cholesterol level threshold that would suggest a possible diagnosis of familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) in adults?
Your Answer: Total cholesterol >7.5 mmol/l
Explanation:Familial Hypercholesterolaemia (FH)
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a type II a primary hyperlipidaemia, according to the World Health Organisation Fredrickson classification. This condition is characterised by raised total cholesterol (TC) and low-density lipoprotein (LDL) levels, while triglycerides remain normal. FH is an autosomal dominantly inherited condition, with a gene frequency of 1:500.
According to NICE guidance, FH should be suspected as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease (an event before 60 years in an index individual or first-degree relative). It is important to identify and manage FH early to reduce the risk of developing coronary heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 22
Correct
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Mrs. Smith is a 70-year-old widow who presents with easy bruising. There is no history of abnormal bleeding apart from some gum bleeding when brushing teeth, and no family history of bleeding problems. She rarely drinks alcohol. General examination including examination of the liver and of lymph nodes is normal; there are multiple small bruises on the limbs - no purpura or petechiae. You check her medication list and find no item that might be the cause. You arrange some blood tests including full blood count, blood film, renal profile, bone profile, liver function, and clotting screen, which are all unremarkable. You suspect the cause might be due to a 'tea and toast' diet after her husband passed away.
What dietary supplement could you consider as the next step for Mrs. Smith?Your Answer: Vitamin C
Explanation:Easy bruising may be caused by a lack of vitamin C in the diet. Calcium, magnesium, and thiamine deficiencies are not likely to be the cause of easy bruising. Scurvy, a condition caused by vitamin C deficiency, can also lead to bleeding gums. To address this issue, it may be helpful to try increasing vitamin C and/or K intake through dietary changes or supplements. Citrus fruits and tomatoes are good sources of vitamin C.
Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is an essential nutrient found in various fruits and vegetables such as citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, and leafy greens. When there is a deficiency of this vitamin, it can lead to a condition called scurvy. This deficiency can cause impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue as ascorbic acid is a cofactor for enzymes used in the production of proline and lysine. Scurvy is commonly associated with severe malnutrition, drug and alcohol abuse, and poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.
The symptoms and signs of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage, ecchymosis, easy bruising, poor wound healing, gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums, Sjogren’s syndrome, arthralgia, oedema, impaired wound healing, and generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia, and depression. It is important to consume a balanced diet that includes sources of vitamin C to prevent scurvy and maintain overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old patient is admitted to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain, polyuria and polydipsia which have particularly worsened over 72 hours. His parents called an ambulance when he became confused and unwell. After an initial workup, he is given a new diagnosis of type I diabetes and is found to be in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). His father tells the admitting doctor that the patient’s maternal grandparents both have diabetes.
Which of the following most reliably suggests that a patient presenting with diabetes has the type 1 variety?
Your Answer: Onset below 20 years of age
Correct Answer: History of recent weight loss
Explanation:Understanding the Factors that Differentiate Type I and Type II Diabetes
Type I diabetes is characterized by the autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, which produce insulin. This results in absolute insulin deficiency, leading to the use of fat and muscle for energy and rapid weight loss. On the other hand, type II diabetes is associated with insulin resistance, but some insulin is still being produced and is at least partially effective. Factors that differentiate the two types include the presence of diabetic retinopathy, family history of diabetes, hypertriglyceridaemia, and onset age. Recent weight loss is a better predictor of type I diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 24
Correct
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As a GPST1 in general practice, you encounter a 37-year-old woman who comes to your clinic seeking advice. She was recently diagnosed with premature menopause and has been advised to undergo hormone replacement therapy (HRT) until she reaches the age of 49. However, she expresses some concerns about this and wishes to know the reason behind the recommended treatment. How would you explain this to the patient?
Your Answer: Reduces the risk of cardiovascular disease and prevents osteoporosis
Explanation:For women who experience premature menopause or premature ovarian insufficiency (POI), it is recommended to continue hormone replacement therapy (HRT) until the age of 50. POI is diagnosed in women under 40 who have experienced amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea for at least four months and have a raised FSH level of over 40 IU/L measured on two occasions four to six weeks apart. Women with POI are at a higher risk of cardiovascular disease, osteoporosis, and cognitive impairment. HRT is prescribed to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and prevent osteoporosis, unless contraindicated. However, HRT doesn’t reduce the risk of breast cancer or endometrial cancer and may increase the risk of breast cancer if used after natural menopause, which occurs around the age of 50.
Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.
The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.
HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.
HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man takes antihypertensive drugs and in addition, a statin for the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. He is otherwise well and takes no other medication. He has some bloods taken at his annual review, including for thyroid function. His thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 0.1 mU/L, free thyroxine (T4) 21 pmol/l and triiodothyronine (T3) 4.3 pmol/l. Repeat testing shows similar results. His thyroid gland is not enlarged or tender.
Which of the following conditions is this patient most at risk from?Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Subclinical Hyperthyroidism: Risks and Treatment Recommendations
Subclinical hyperthyroidism is characterized by persistently low TSH levels of less than 0.4 mU/L with normal T4 and T3 levels. This condition has been associated with an increased risk of atrial fibrillation, particularly in elderly populations. Studies have reported a 13% incidence of atrial fibrillation in subclinical hyperthyroidism compared to 2% in controls. Additionally, there is evidence of decreased bone mineral density, especially in postmenopausal women. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends referral to an endocrinologist for persistent subclinical hyperthyroidism. Treatment is usually offered to those with a TSH level persistently equal to or less than 0.1 mU/L, aged 65 years or older, postmenopausal, at risk of osteoporosis, have cardiac risk factors, or have any symptoms of hyperthyroidism. However, there is no evidence of changes in mood or cognitive function in patients with subclinical hyperthyroidism. It is important to note that subclinical hyperthyroidism doesn’t lead to hypothyroidism or thyroid cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking multiple medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Thyroid function tests are requested and the results are shown in the table below:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L
Free T4 35 pmol/L
What is the most likely cause of these findings?Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction
Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can cause thyroid dysfunction in approximately 1 in 6 patients. This dysfunction can manifest as either hypothyroidism or thyrotoxicosis.
Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) is believed to occur due to the high iodine content of the medication, which can cause a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. Despite this, amiodarone may still be continued if desired.
On the other hand, amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT) can be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 AIT is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 AIT is related to destructive thyroiditis caused by amiodarone. In patients with type 1 AIT, a goitre may be present, while it is absent in type 2 AIT. Management of AIT involves carbimazole or potassium perchlorate for type 1 and corticosteroids for type 2.
It is important to note that unlike in AIH, amiodarone should be stopped if possible in patients who develop AIT. Understanding the potential effects of amiodarone on the thyroid gland is crucial in managing patients who require this medication for their heart condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman smoker comes to the clinic for evaluation. She is concerned about the possibility of osteoporosis after experiencing a fall while out in town. Her BMI is 20 and she went through menopause at age 50. She maintains a healthy diet and exercises regularly. A DEXA scan shows a T score of −1.8. What is the appropriate management plan to decrease her risk of future fractures?
Your Answer: She should be advised to stop smoking
Correct Answer: She should be started on PTH injections
Explanation:Managing Osteopaenia
Osteopaenia doesn’t require specific treatment. If the patient’s diet includes enough dairy products and calcium, and their renal function is normal, calcium and vitamin D replacement may not be necessary. Treatments for osteoporosis, such as bisphosphonates or PTH, may also not be needed. However, smoking is linked to increased loss of bone mineral density, so quitting smoking is crucial for maintaining bone health.
In summary, managing osteopaenia involves ensuring a balanced diet and avoiding smoking. While medication may not be necessary, it is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for individual cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 28
Correct
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An individual who is 70 years old comes in for a check-up. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and gout. During his last visit six months ago, his blood pressure was 144/84 mmHg. You provided him with basic lifestyle advice and requested him to return in six months for a follow-up blood pressure check. Since then, he has had three more blood pressure readings: 144/72 mmHg, 146/78 mmHg, and 148/76 mmHg. The patient is currently taking metformin and allopurinol. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his blood pressure readings?
Your Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:Although his diastolic blood pressure is within the target range of 140/90 mmHg, his systolic blood pressure consistently exceeds it. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, when managing Type 2 diabetes, healthcare providers should prioritize the systolic blood pressure value. Therefore, the target blood pressure for this patient should be less than 140/90 mmHg. Despite attempts to improve his blood pressure through lifestyle changes, they have been unsuccessful. Therefore, he should be offered an ACE inhibitor.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What plasma glucose level is considered diagnostic for diabetes mellitus in a patient with symptoms?
Your Answer: Fasting plasma glucose 5.4 mmol/L
Correct Answer: Random plasma glucose 10.1 mmol/L
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes: Interpreting Plasma Glucose Concentrations
The diagnosis of diabetes is based on interpreting plasma glucose concentrations. To diagnose diabetes mellitus, a fasting plasma glucose above 7 mmol/L or a random glucose above 11.1 mmol/L is required. However, it is important to note that two plasma glucose readings are needed according to these parameters in an asymptomatic patient to make the diagnosis. In a symptomatic patient, only one reading is needed.
It is crucial to pay attention to the details of the question and not misinterpret any of the options. For instance, candidates may misread or misinterpret the threshold of 7.0 mmol/L and argue that 7.1 mmol/L cannot be the correct answer. Therefore, using good examination technique, it is recommended to go over the options again to ensure that the question has been read correctly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of ataxia and bilateral gynaecomastia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma
Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome
Explanation:Gynaecomastia and Ataxia: Indicators of Lung Cancer
Gynaecomastia and ataxia are both symptoms that can indicate the presence of lung cancer. While Klinefelter’s syndrome can cause gynaecomastia and cerebellar stroke can cause ataxia, the combination of the two makes it more likely to be lung cancer. Gynaecomastia is a non-metastatic paraneoplastic syndrome that is often associated with non-small cell lung cancer. It can be painful and may also be accompanied by testicular atrophy. Ataxia, on the other hand, can occur as a result of paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration associated with the malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a middle-aged diabetic woman who is experiencing painful neuropathic symptoms in her feet.
The patient has been receiving routine monitoring at the clinic due to her poorly controlled diabetes, high blood pressure, and renal dysfunction.
She reports that she was prescribed amitriptyline a few weeks ago, which provided significant relief for her symptoms. However, she had to discontinue its use due to bothersome adverse effects.
What would be the most suitable medication to consider next for managing her symptoms?Your Answer: Duloxetine
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Neuropathic Pain Management
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in non-specialist settings. The recommended drugs for painful neuropathy are amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, and pregabalin. If one of these drugs fails due to poor tolerance or effectiveness, then one of the other three should be tried. Phenytoin and valproate were previously used but are not currently recommended. Carbamazepine is only used for trigeminal neuralgia. Nortriptyline is not included in the latest guidelines. These guidelines aim to provide healthcare professionals with evidence-based recommendations for the management of neuropathic pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 48-year-old hypertensive woman comes for her annual review with her General Practitioner. She has a family history of type II diabetes and her body mass index is 31 kg/m2 (obese). She has seen an endocrinologist privately and presents some results, including a two-hour glucose level of 9.1 mmol/l on the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance
Explanation:Understanding Impaired Glucose Tolerance and Impaired Fasting Glucose
Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) and impaired fasting glucose (IFG) are both conditions that can increase the risk of developing type II diabetes mellitus and cardiovascular disease. IGT is characterized by hyperglycemia and insulin resistance, with a fasting plasma glucose concentration of less than 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test value of 7.8–11.1 mmol/l. IFG, on the other hand, is defined as a fasting glucose of 6.1–6.9 mmol/l but a 2-hour glucose level of <7.8 mmol/l on the oral glucose tolerance test. Both IGT and IFG are considered to be stages in the development of type II diabetes mellitus and are often accompanied by other features of the metabolic syndrome, such as obesity, dyslipidemia, and hypertension. Management of these conditions involves dietary modification and risk factor management to prevent progression to diabetes. It is important to note that a normal result would be a fasting glucose of <6.1 mmol/l and a 2-hour result of <7.8 mmol/l on the oral glucose tolerance test. A glucose level of greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l at two hours in the glucose tolerance test would confirm diabetes of any type, while glucose levels of 11.1 mmol/l or higher at two hours would confirm a diagnosis of type II diabetes mellitus. Type I diabetes mellitus typically presents more acutely, often with random glucose of 11.1 mmol/l or higher if symptomatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 30-year-old man with type 1 diabetes of ten years' duration and background diabetic retinopathy has a persistently elevated blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and proteinuria of 0.6 g/day. Blood urea, electrolytes and creatinine are well within normal limits. Besides insulin, he is on no other medications.
Which of the following is the most likely agent to improve the prognosis in this man?Your Answer: ACE inhibitors
Explanation:Managing Diabetic Nephropathy and Hypertension
This individual is suffering from diabetic nephropathy, as indicated by the presence of retinopathy, and hypertension. To prevent the progression of renal failure in the long term, it is crucial to maintain good glycaemic and lipid profiles while controlling blood pressure to less than 130/75 mmHg. The weight of trial evidence suggests that angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the best option for type 1 diabetics. The most important and clinically relevant strategy for this individual to improve their prognosis is to prevent the progression of renal disease and reduce blood pressure with an ACEi. By doing so, we can effectively manage their condition and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly diabetes check-up. He was diagnosed with type two diabetes 3 years ago and is currently taking metformin 500mg tds. He reports no adverse effects and is compliant with medication instructions. There is no notable medical history.
His latest HbA1c reading was 53 mmol/mol. You contemplate modifying his current medication.
What is the desired HbA1c level for this individual?Your Answer: 48 mmol/mol
Explanation:The HbA1c target for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus who are taking a single drug not linked to hypoglycemia, such as metformin, is 48 mmol/mol. However, if they are taking multiple medications or a single medication that is associated with hypoglycemia, the target may differ.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female with Addison's disease is having trouble with her hydrocortisone treatment, which she takes at a dose of 20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening. However, she often forgets to take the evening dose. She would like to switch to daily prednisolone to avoid this issue. What dose of prednisolone would be equivalent to her current daily dose of hydrocortisone?
Your Answer: 15 mg
Correct Answer: 7.5 mg
Explanation:Ratios and Activities of Corticosteroids
The ratios of prednisolone to hydrocortisone and dexamethasone to hydrocortisone are approximately 1:4 and 1:24, respectively. While prednisolone mainly exhibits glucocorticoid activity, hydrocortisone has some mineralocorticoid activity, making it suitable for adrenal replacement therapy on its own. However, fludrocortisone is often required for its mineralocorticoid activity. The split dose of hydrocortisone is intended to mimic normal diurnal variation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents with severe sharp pain in the left groin following a minor fall and is unable to walk. Radiological examination reveals a left neck of femur fracture. Routine laboratory evaluation shows a serum calcium concentration of 1.8 mmol/l (normal range 2.20–2.60 mmol/l), a serum phosphorus concentration of 0.72 mmol/l (normal range 0.7–1.4 mmol/l) and increased serum alkaline phosphatase activity. The serum parathyroid hormone level was subsequently found to be elevated.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency and its Differential Diagnosis
Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition that can lead to osteomalacia, characterized by hypocalcaemia and hypophosphataemia. This deficiency can be caused by dietary deficiency or malabsorption. Patients with osteomalacia often have elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels, and the severity and chronicity of the disease can affect calcium intake in the diet. Secondary hyperparathyroidism may also be present in patients with vitamin D insufficiency.
Paget’s disease of bone, hypervitaminosis D, osteoporosis, and primary hyperparathyroidism are differential diagnoses that should be considered. Paget’s disease is associated with bone pain, increased risk of fracture, and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity, but serum calcium levels are usually normal. Hypervitaminosis D is associated with hypercalcaemia, while osteoporosis is not associated with any specific abnormality in the standard bone biochemistry profile. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also associated with hypercalcaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 41-year-old man has come to see you for the results of his recent lipid tests. A first cousin recently had a myocardial infarction aged 36 and his aunt has advised the family to get a cholesterol check.
With a family history of premature coronary artery disease, above what total cholesterol level would you consider and investigate for familial hypercholesterolaemia?Your Answer: 7.5 mmol/L
Explanation:NICE Guidelines on Lipid Modification
According to the NICE guidelines on lipid modification (CG181), it is important to consider the possibility of familial hypercholesterolaemia in patients with a total cholesterol concentration of more than 7.5 mmol/L and a family history of premature coronary heart disease. In such cases, investigation is necessary to determine the presence of the condition.
For patients with a total cholesterol concentration of more than 9.0 mmol/L or a non-HDL cholesterol concentration of more than 7.5 mmol/L, specialist assessment is recommended even in the absence of a first-degree family history of premature coronary heart disease. This is important to ensure appropriate management and treatment of high cholesterol levels, which can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.
Overall, following these guidelines can help healthcare professionals identify and manage patients with high cholesterol levels, reducing the risk of serious health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Galactorrhoea is a potential feature of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Sheehan syndrome
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Causes of Galactorrhoea: Understanding the Link to Hypothyroidism
Galactorrhoea, the spontaneous flow of milk from the breast, can be caused by a variety of factors. Physiological causes include postpartum changes, hormonal fluctuations during puberty or menopause, and elevated prolactin levels due to conditions such as prolactinoma. Other medical conditions, such as chronic renal failure, bronchogenic carcinoma, and sarcoidosis, can also lead to galactorrhoea.
One lesser-known cause of galactorrhoea is primary hypothyroidism. This occurs when the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to increased levels of thyroid-releasing hormone and subsequent secretion of prolactin. The longer the hypothyroidism goes untreated, the more likely it is to cause hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea.
It’s important to note that breast cancer and schizophrenia are not causes of galactorrhoea. While breast cancer may present with unilateral breast discharge, it is typically not milky. Schizophrenia itself doesn’t cause hyperprolactinaemia, but antipsychotic drugs used to treat the condition can. Other medications, such as antidepressants and spironolactone, can also produce galactorrhoea.
In summary, galactorrhoea can have a variety of causes, including physiological changes, medical conditions, and certain medications. Primary hypothyroidism is one potential cause that should not be overlooked, as it can lead to hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents with a 6-week history of fatigue and malaise. He has no significant medical history. His urine test reveals glucose, and a random venous plasma glucose level is 8.5 mmol/l. An oral glucose tolerance test is performed, which shows a baseline glucose level of 7.1 mmol/l and a level of 10.8 mmol/l at 120 minutes after glucose ingestion. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Diabetes, as confirmed by the fasting glucose levels on OGTT.
Correct Answer: Diabetes, as confirmed by the result of the OGTT at 120 minutes
Explanation:Diagnosing Diabetes: Understanding the Role of Different Tests and Symptoms
When it comes to diagnosing diabetes mellitus, there are several tests and symptoms that healthcare professionals may consider. In this scenario, a patient presents with glycosuria and high random blood glucose levels, prompting further investigation. Here’s a breakdown of how different diagnostic criteria apply in this case:
– OGTT at 120 minutes: The patient’s glucose concentration two hours after ingesting a glucose solution is >11.1mmol/L, confirming the diagnosis of diabetes.
– Random glucose value alone: While the patient’s symptoms suggest diabetes, the random blood glucose level needs to be >11.1mmol/L or more to confirm the diagnosis.
– Combination of random glucose and glycosuria: Glycosuria alone is not diagnostic of diabetes, and the patient’s random glucose level is not high enough to confirm the diagnosis.
– Presence of glycosuria alone: Glycosuria can suggest the presence of diabetes, but it is not enough to confirm the diagnosis.
– Fasting glucose levels on OGTT: The patient’s fasting glucose level is under 7 mmol/L, which is below the diagnostic threshold for diabetes.In summary, diagnosing diabetes requires careful consideration of different tests and symptoms. While some indicators may suggest the presence of the condition, others are needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female comes to her doctor with a complaint of feeling tired for the past two months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
Na+ 128 mmol/l
K+ 5.6 mmol/l
Urea 5.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 99 µmol/l
Total T4 66 nmol/l (70 - 140 nmol/l)
Which diagnostic test is most likely to reveal the underlying condition?Your Answer: Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
Correct Answer: Short synacthen test
Explanation:The most effective way to diagnose Addison’s disease is through the short synacthen test. If a patient presents with lethargy, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia, it is highly indicative of Addison’s disease. While the patient’s thyroxine level is slightly low, it is unlikely to be the cause of the hyperkalaemia. It is possible that the patient also has hypothyroidism, but this would not fully explain their symptoms.
Investigating Addison’s Disease: ACTH Stimulation Test and Serum Cortisol Levels
When investigating a patient suspected of having Addison’s disease, the most definitive test is the ACTH stimulation test, also known as the short Synacthen test. This involves measuring plasma cortisol levels before and 30 minutes after administering Synacthen 250ug IM. Adrenal autoantibodies, such as anti-21-hydroxylase, may also be detected.
However, if an ACTH stimulation test is not readily available, a 9 am serum cortisol level can be useful. A level of over 500 nmol/l makes Addison’s disease very unlikely, while a level below 100 nmol/l is definitely abnormal. If the level falls between 100-500 nmol/l, an ACTH stimulation test should be performed.
It is important to note that around one-third of undiagnosed patients with Addison’s disease may also have associated electrolyte abnormalities, such as hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate these levels as well to ensure a proper diagnosis and treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease is hospitalized due to chest pain. The 10-hour troponin T test comes back negative. While in the hospital, his medications were adjusted to lower the risk of cardiovascular disease and to manage newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus. After being discharged, he visits his GP with complaints of diarrhea. Which medication is the most likely culprit?
Your Answer: Rosiglitazone
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Metformin is known to cause gastrointestinal side-effects like bloating and diarrhoea, which are commonly observed in patients taking this medication. However, if the patient has an elevated troponin T, metformin may not be appropriate as it is contraindicated in cases of tissue hypoxia that have occurred recently.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A man aged 50 wants to attempt weight loss. He has type 2 diabetes and his BMI is 27 kg/m2.
Would you prescribe orlistat for him?
What is the BMI threshold for diabetic patients to begin taking orlistat?Your Answer: 30
Correct Answer: 32
Explanation:Orlistat Treatment Criteria for Diabetes and Non-Diabetic Patients
According to the British National Formulary (BNF), patients with diabetes must have a Body Mass Index (BMI) of 28 or more to start treatment with orlistat. On the other hand, non-diabetic patients should have a BMI of 30 or more to be eligible for orlistat treatment.
It is important to note that orlistat is a weight loss medication that works by reducing the absorption of fat in the body. It is usually prescribed alongside a low-calorie diet and exercise program. Patients who meet the BMI criteria and have been assessed by a healthcare professional may be prescribed orlistat to aid in their weight loss journey.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy attends his General Practitioner, concerned that he is not developing normally. He is one of the shortest boys in his year group, and feels that his genitals are not the same as others in his year group. He is concerned that his voice has not ‘dropped’ and that he doesn't have pubic or axillary hair.
On examination, he has no pubic, axillary, or facial hair. He has bilaterally descended testes, with a volume of 3 ml each. His father said he was himself a ‘late developer’.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Normal development
Correct Answer: Constitutional delay in puberty
Explanation:Delayed puberty in boys is when there are no signs of puberty and the testicular volume is less than 4 ml by the age of 14. This occurs in 3% of the population and is often caused by constitutional delay, which is more common in boys and has a family history. In normal puberty, the first stage begins between ten and 12 years with testicular enlargement, followed by other changes such as penile and scrotal enlargement, pubic hair growth, facial hair growth, growth spurt, and voice changes. Kallmann syndrome is a rare inherited condition that causes hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and an impaired sense of smell. Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that causes hypogonadism, sparse facial and body hair, and infertility, but doesn’t fit with the short stature in this case. Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by developmental delay, obesity, hyperphagia, and cryptorchidism or hypogonadism, but there is no mention of obesity or hyperphagia in this case. This boy has started puberty, with testicular growth having started, and can expect normal developmental changes to continue in the usual sequence, though delayed compared with normal puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 44
Correct
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You are conducting the annual review for a 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes. His glycaemic control is satisfactory with metformin therapy, and his latest HbA1c is 54 mmol/mol (7.1%). During his recent clinic visit, his blood pressure was measured at 152/90 mmHg. A 24-hour blood pressure monitor was subsequently requested, and the results indicate an average blood pressure of 142/88 mmHg. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients due to their renoprotective effect, even if the patient has stage 1 hypertension according to NICE guidelines. In contrast, for patients aged over 55 years without diabetes, a calcium channel blocker is the first-line treatment.
Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests reveal normal serum TSH concentration, but elevated concentrations of both free thyroxine and free triiodothyronine. What is the most probable explanation for these findings?
Your Answer: The presence of heterophilic antibodies in the patient’s serum
Correct Answer: A TSH-secreting pituitary tumour
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hyperthyroidism with Normal TSH Levels
Hyperthyroidism with normal TSH levels can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is a TSH-secreting pituitary tumour, which is a rare condition that can lead to excessive secretion of TSH and growth hormone. Another possible cause is self-administration of thyroxine, but this can be ruled out if TSH secretion is still suppressed. Graves’ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, is less likely as it typically results in unmeasurable TSH concentrations. Heterophilic antibodies in the patient’s serum can cause bizarre results, but this is unlikely to be the cause in a patient with classic symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. Finally, thyroid hormone resistance (Refetoff syndrome) is a rare syndrome where thyroid hormone levels are elevated but TSH levels are not suppressed. However, this is unlikely if the patient is symptomatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is scheduled for a CT scan with intravenous contrast as part of his medical evaluation. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and depression. The patient is currently taking the following medications:
- Amlodipine 10 mg once daily
- Metformin 1g twice daily
- Simvastatin 20 mg once nightly
- Citalopram 20 mg once daily
According to the BNF guidelines, what is the most appropriate advice to provide regarding his metformin treatment?Your Answer: No need to stop metformin
Correct Answer: Discontinue on the day of the scan and restart after 48 hours
Explanation:Metformin should not be taken on the day of a procedure involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media, and it should also be avoided for 48 hours following the procedure.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 47
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with premature menopause, similar to her mother who also experienced it and later developed osteoporosis. She seeks advice on how to reduce her chances of developing osteoporosis. What is the initial treatment recommended by NICE for this scenario?
Your Answer: Hormone replacement therapy
Explanation:According to NICE, women who experience menopause before the age of 45 should contemplate using hormone replacement therapy to decrease the likelihood of developing osteoporosis and to manage menopausal symptoms. It is recommended that the therapy be evaluated at the age of 50. Additionally, patients should receive guidance on lifestyle choices that promote bone health, such as engaging in weight-bearing exercise, quitting smoking, avoiding excessive alcohol consumption, and ensuring sufficient intake of calcium and vitamin D.
Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.
The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.
HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.
HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 48
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding bendroflumethiazide is accurate?
Your Answer: May cause hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia and hypocalciuria may be caused by thiazide diuretics.
The onset of action of bendroflumethiazide is 1 to 2 hours, and its effect lasts for 12 to 24 hours. According to the BNF, the quantity of bendroflumethiazide present in breast milk is insignificant and poses no harm.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 49
Correct
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A 71-year-old insulin-treated diabetic patient is curious about driving with diabetes. He has experienced occasional episodes of hypoglycemia while at home but always carries a supply of fast-acting carbohydrate with him and checks his blood sugar levels at the recommended intervals while driving. He is aware of the blood sugar threshold below which he should cease driving. If he needs to stop driving due to low blood sugar, he knows he should consume fast-acting carbohydrate and wait for his blood glucose levels to return to normal. How long should he wait after his blood sugar levels have returned to normal before resuming his journey?
Your Answer: 30 minutes
Explanation:Safe Driving for Insulin-Treated Diabetics
Insulin-treated diabetics need to take extra precautions when driving to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road. It is important for them to test their blood sugar levels within two hours of starting a journey and every two hours thereafter. If their blood sugar drops below 5 mmol/litre, they should take a snack to raise their blood sugar levels. If their blood sugar drops below 4, they should stop driving immediately.
Insulin-treated diabetics should always carry a supply of fast-acting carbohydrate with them in case of an episode of low blood sugar. They should not continue their journey until 45 minutes have elapsed after their blood sugar levels have returned to normal. By following these guidelines, insulin-treated diabetics can ensure their safety while driving and avoid any potential accidents on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents with complaints of decreased libido. He has also noticed a decrease in the frequency of needing to shave. During attempts at sexual intercourse, he has been unable to maintain an erection. His visual field testing is normal and he has no history of medication use. Growth hormone studies and thyroid function levels are within normal limits, but his serum prolactin levels are elevated at 1500 mIU/l. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microprolactinoma
Explanation:When a patient has consistently high prolactin levels without a clear cause, it may be due to a prolactinoma, a type of pituitary tumor. In the case of a microprolactinoma, the prolactin levels may be between 1000-5000 mIU/l, but the patient’s hormone profile and visual fields are normal. Hyperprolactinemia can inhibit the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, leading to symptoms such as infertility and decreased libido. Treatment options include surgery or medication with dopamine agonists. Macroprolactinoma, acromegaly, and hypothyroidism are unlikely causes in this case. Psychogenic impotence doesn’t explain the elevated prolactin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman who has undergone an extensive thyroid resection comes to see you for follow up some six weeks later. She has recovered well from the operation but reports problems with muscle cramps; these have been so severe on two occasions that she has suffered from cramping and spasm in her hands.
On examination she is a little hypotensive at 105/60, and her pulse is 45. Her reflexes seem quite brisk, but neurological examination is otherwise normal.
Which of the following is the most likely finding on blood testing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Post-Surgical Hypoparathyroidism
Post-surgical hypoparathyroidism is a condition that may occur weeks or even months after thyroid surgery. It is characterized by symptoms such as muscle cramps, lethargy, bradycardia, and hypotension that are not responsive to pressors, and carpopedal spasm due to hypocalcaemia. If a patient presents with these symptoms, it is important to investigate further through serum electrolytes, LFTs, and PTH assay. These investigations will help to confirm the diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue and unexplained weight gain. During the physical examination, a diffuse, painless goitre is observed. The following blood tests are conducted:
TSH 15.1 mU/l
Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
ESR 14 mm/hr
Anti-TSH receptor stimulating antibodies Negative
Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies Positive
Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Explanation:Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman with a BMI of 26 presents to the diabetic clinic with poor glycaemic control while on gliclazide 160mg bd. Her latest blood results reveal a HbA1c of 9.4%. Her laboratory values are as follows: Na+ 139 mmol/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, urea 8.4 mmol/l, creatinine 180 µmol/l, ALT 25 iu/l, and yGT 33 iu/l. What medication should be added to her treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Considering her overweight status, adding metformin would be a logical choice. However, due to the elevated creatinine levels, pioglitazone would be a more suitable alternative. It is important to note that if the creatinine level exceeds 130 µmol/l (or eGFR falls below 45 ml/min), the metformin dosage should be reassessed and discontinued if the creatinine level exceeds 150 µmol/l (or eGFR falls below 30 ml/min). It is worth noting that pioglitazone may cause weight gain, which could be problematic given her BMI of 26.
Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications
Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.
While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man comes to the clinic for diabetic assessment. Despite taking the highest dose of metformin and gliclazide, his HBA1c is 68 mmol/mol. You discuss his condition with the diabetic nurse and decide to initiate a new medication, dapagliflozin.
What is the primary adverse effect of dapagliflozin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary tract infections
Explanation:Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors, such as empagliflozin or dapagliflozin, have been linked to an increased risk of urinary tract infections due to their mechanism of inhibiting renal reabsorption of glucose. This leads to increased excretion of glucose in the urine, causing common side effects like urinary frequency and infections. Unlike metformin, diarrhea is not a common side effect of these drugs. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone and rosiglitazone, should be avoided in patients with left ventricular dysfunction as they can cause or worsen heart failure. Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) medications, also known as incretin mimetics, such as sitagliptin and exenatide, work by suppressing glucagon release and increasing insulin release from the pancreas. However, they can trigger inflammation and have an increased risk of causing pancreatitis. SGLT2 inhibitors are associated with weight loss, while sulphonylureas, such as gliclazide, are associated with weight gain.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old patient who has type two diabetes and has no other current health issues or significant medical history. The patient is currently taking metformin 1g bd. Their HbA1c was 56 mmol/mol six months ago and has increased to 59 mmol/mol in their most recent test from last week. What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add additional oral agent to metformin
Explanation:If a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking the maximum dose of metformin and has an HbA1c level of 58 mmol/mol or higher, it is recommended to add a second drug to their treatment regimen. The patient should be closely monitored and have their HbA1c level checked again in 3-6 months to ensure stability on the new therapy. It is important to intensify treatment at this stage, but referral to secondary care is not necessary and primary care should manage the patient’s management. Insulin therapy is not recommended yet, and a further oral agent should be added first. If the second agent fails to reduce HbA1c, triple therapy may be considered. Lifestyle advice and management should also be provided at each review.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man takes medication for hypertension and raised cholesterol. At his annual check-up he reports that he is feeling well. Among the results of his blood tests are the following: serum calcium 2.90 mmol/l (normal range 2.05-2.60 mmol/l), serum phosphate 0.75 mmol/l (normal range 0.8-1.4 mmol/l), alkaline phosphatase 215 IU/l (normal range 30-200 IU/l).
Select from the list the single most likely explanation of these results.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism as a Cause of Hypercalcaemia
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a common endocrine disorder, particularly in postmenopausal women. It is often asymptomatic and discovered incidentally through blood tests. The excess production of parathyroid hormone (PTH) is typically caused by a single adenoma, multi-gland adenoma, or hyperplasia. Surgical removal of the adenoma is the most effective cure, but medical management is possible for mild cases. Malignancy, Paget’s disease of bone, and certain medications can also cause hypercalcaemia, but these can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and symptoms. Other endocrine causes, such as thyrotoxicosis and Addison’s disease, would typically present with additional symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with type 2 diabetic attends annual review at the GP practice.
His current treatment consists of: aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg ON, metformin 1g BD, pioglitazone 45 mg OD and glibenclamide 15 mg OD.
He complains of episodes of blurred vision and feeling lightheaded. He has taken his blood sugar during one of these episodes and it was 2.3.
Which one of his medicines is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glibenclamide
Explanation:Understanding Hypoglycaemic Episodes and Sulphonylureas
This gentleman is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes that are causing symptoms of blurred vision and lightheadedness. The most likely cause of these episodes is the sulphonylurea he is taking. Sulphonylureas stimulate insulin secretion, which can cause significant problems with hypoglycaemia. On the other hand, metformin increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, while pioglitazone reduces insulin resistance. Hypoglycaemia is uncommon with pioglitazone, and metformin doesn’t cause it.
Glibenclamide is a long-acting sulphonylurea that is associated with a greater risk of hypoglycaemia. It should be avoided in the elderly, and shorter-acting alternatives, such as gliclazide, are more appropriate. The above patient is also on the maximum dose, which increases the risk of hypoglycaemia further. Therefore, glibenclamide is the correct answer. Understanding the relationship between hypoglycaemic episodes and sulphonylureas is crucial in managing diabetes and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is undergoing a routine health assessment. She admits to consuming at least 5 standard alcoholic drinks each weekday evening and even more on the weekend. The risks of this intake are discussed with her and a plan is made to reduce her intake.
Which of the following actions is the most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral thiamine
Explanation:Patients who regularly consume excessive amounts of alcohol should be prescribed thiamine to prevent the onset of Wernicke’s syndrome, which can lead to irreversible Korsakoff psychosis. Admission is not necessary unless the patient is experiencing significant withdrawal symptoms. An intramuscular multivitamin is not appropriate, as oral thiamine is less invasive and effective. Oral multivitamins are also not recommended, as they may not contain enough thiamine. Vitamin B co-strong is no longer recommended for alcohol-consuming patients, as it doesn’t provide sufficient thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s syndrome.
The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old Pakistani man schedules an appointment. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes 2 weeks ago and began taking metformin. Unfortunately, he experienced a skin reaction shortly after starting and has since discontinued use.
The patient has a history of hypertension and angina and currently takes ramipril 10 mg OD, aspirin 75 mg OD, bisoprolol 10 mg OD, and atorvastatin 80 mg ON. His most recent test results are as follows:
- HbA1c 64 mmol/mol
- eGFR 67 ml/min/1.73m² (>90 ml/min/1.73m²)
- Urine albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) 2.4 mg/mmol (<3 mg/mmol)
Considering his adverse reaction to metformin, what is the most suitable initial treatment to initiate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SGLT-2 inhibitor
Explanation:If a patient with T2DM cannot take metformin due to contraindications and has a risk of CVD, established CVD, or chronic heart failure, the recommended initial therapy is SGLT-2 monotherapy.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding statin-induced myopathy is inaccurate for elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pravastatin is more likely to cause myopathy than simvastatin
Explanation:Lipophilic statins such as simvastatin and atorvastatin are more likely to cause myopathy compared to relatively hydrophilic statins like rosuvastatin, pravastatin, and fluvastatin.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about the use of self-monitoring of blood-glucose levels in patients who have recently been diagnosed with type II diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is an association with increased levels of depression
Explanation:The Pros and Cons of Self-Monitoring Blood Glucose Levels in Type 2 Diabetes
Self-monitoring of blood glucose levels is a common practice among individuals with type 2 diabetes. While it has its benefits, there are also some drawbacks to consider.
Association with Increased Levels of Depression:
The ESMON trial found that participants in the self-monitoring group were more depressed compared to the control group. This suggests that self-monitoring may have a negative impact on mental health.No Significant Difference in Episodes of Hypoglycemia:
Contrary to popular belief, self-monitoring did not lead to fewer episodes of hypoglycemia compared to the control group in the ESMON study.Not More Effective in Reducing Long-Term Complications:
While good diabetic control can reduce long-term complications, self-monitoring has not been shown to be more effective than monitoring HbA1c levels.Not Cost-Effective:
The DiGEM trial found that self-monitoring was more expensive and resulted in lower quality of life compared to the control group.No Significant Difference in HbA1c Levels:
In the ESMON study, there was no significant difference in HbA1c levels between the self-monitoring group and the control group.In conclusion, self-monitoring blood glucose levels may have some benefits, but it is important to consider the potential drawbacks before making it a regular practice. It is recommended to discuss with a healthcare provider to determine if self-monitoring is appropriate for individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with hyperthyroidism is diagnosed with Graves' disease and prescribed carbimazole for treatment. During counselling, she is informed about the potential side-effects of the medication.
What is the most severe adverse reaction of carbimazole?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Agranulocytosis
Explanation:Carbimazole: Potential Side Effects and Risks
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism, but it can also cause several side effects and risks. One of the most serious risks is agranulocytosis, which occurs in 0.3-0.6% of patients and has a mortality rate of 21.5%. Patients taking carbimazole should be aware of symptoms of infection, such as a sore throat, and seek medical attention if they experience them. Hypoprothrombinaemia, which can cause bleeding, is another potential side effect. While less serious than agranulocytosis, it is important to check a patient’s prothrombin time before invasive procedures. Cholestatic jaundice is a rare side effect that typically resolves after stopping carbimazole. Hepatitis has also been reported, but is not listed as a side effect in the British National Formulary (BNF). Finally, alopecia is a listed side effect, but is not as serious as agranulocytosis. Patients taking carbimazole should be aware of these potential risks and side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with a history of thirst, polyuria and a recent 3.2 kg (7 lb) weight loss. His urine contains a small amount of ketones.
Which of the following features would suggest this patient is most likely to have type II rather than type I diabetes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High circulating insulin level
Explanation:Misconceptions about Diabetes Mellitus: Clarifying the Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. However, there are still misconceptions about the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of this disease. In particular, there are several incorrect statements that need to be clarified.
Firstly, type II diabetes is associated with insulin resistance and high insulin levels, not low insulin levels as in type I diabetes. Insulin resistance is a precursor to type II diabetes and is linked to a higher risk of developing heart disease. The causes of insulin resistance are both genetic and lifestyle-related.
Secondly, HLA DR-3 is not associated with type I diabetes mellitus. Instead, this disease is linked to HLA DR-3 or DR-4.
Thirdly, patients with type II diabetes typically have a high BMI (>25 kg/m2), not a BMI of 23 kg/m2.
Fourthly, a plasma bicarbonate level of 8 mmol/l (normal range 24–30 mmol/l) is not commonly seen in patients with type II diabetes. While these patients may have + or ++ ketones in their urine, severe acidosis is more common in type I diabetes, with diabetic ketoacidosis being a potentially fatal complication.
Finally, positive islet-cell antibodies are not associated with type II diabetes. Instead, type I diabetes is an autoimmune disorder characterised by the presence of autoantibodies to the islet cell, insulin or glutamic acid dehydrogenase.
In conclusion, it is important to clarify the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of diabetes mellitus to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A woman visits her GP for a check-up of her type 2 diabetes. She is taking metformin at the maximum tolerated dose. Her most recent HbA1c reading is 64 mmol/mol.
The GP prescribes gliclazide and schedules another HbA1c test in 3 months.
What is the new target HbA1c for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 53
Explanation:The target HbA1c for patients taking a drug that may cause hypoglycaemia, such as gliclazide, is 53 mmol/mol or below. This target applies to adults who are prescribed a single hypoglycaemic agent or two or more antidiabetic drugs in combination. For adults with type 2 diabetes who are managed by diet and lifestyle alone or a single antidiabetic drug not associated with hypoglycaemia, the target HbA1c is 48 mmol/mol. Therefore, the correct answer for the HbA1c target for a patient starting on gliclazide is 53 mmol/mol. The answers 58 mmol/mol and 63 mmol/mol are incorrect.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman registers as a new patient. She says she is well and has no symptoms. As she is approaching 50 and overweight, you arrange for routine blood tests, including HbA1c. The results come back showing a glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) of 49 mmol/mol.
What is the most appropriate response to this result?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat the test
Explanation:Understanding HbA1c Test Results for Diabetes Diagnosis
The HbA1c test is a diagnostic tool for diabetes, with a recommended cut-off point of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%). However, a single abnormal result doesn’t confirm the diagnosis, especially in asymptomatic patients. In such cases, a repeat laboratory venous HbA1c test is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. If the second result is still above 48 mmol/mol, the patient is diagnosed with diabetes. If the result is below 48 mmol/mol, the patient is considered to have a high diabetes risk and should repeat the test in six months or sooner if symptoms develop. HbA1c levels below 42 mmol/mol are normal for non-diabetic adults, while levels from 42 to 47 mmol/mol indicate pre-diabetes. An oral glucose tolerance test is not necessary in the absence of hyperglycaemic symptoms, and more than one test on two separate days is required for a diagnosis. Understanding HbA1c test results is crucial for accurate diabetes diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being seen in the diabetes clinic. His HbA1c was 83 mmol/mol (9.7%) a year ago despite taking the maximum dose of oral hypoglycaemic medication. He was started on insulin and his latest HbA1c is 66 mmol/mol (8.2%). He is contemplating applying for a commercial driver's license and seeks guidance. What is the best advice to give him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He may be able to apply for a HGV licence if he meets strict criteria relating to hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Individuals who are taking insulin can now possess a HGV license as long as they satisfy the rigorous standards set by the DVLA.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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Ben is a 56-year-old who has been diagnosed with diabetes and is requesting a 'Medical exemption certificate'. What form should you fill out?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FP92A
Explanation:The correct answer is the FP92A form, which is a medical exemption certificate that can be claimed to entitle a patient to free prescriptions. This form can be claimed if a patient has certain conditions, such as a permanent fistula or diabetes mellitus.
The FP57 form is an NHS receipt for payment of a prescription, which can be used to claim money back later. The GMS1 form is completed by new patients when registering with a GP surgery. The DS1500 form is completed by a doctor for patients with a terminal illness, allowing them to apply for certain benefits.
Prescription Charges in England: Who is Eligible for Free Prescriptions?
In England, prescription charges apply to most medications, but certain groups of people are entitled to free prescriptions. These include children under 16, those aged 16-18 in full-time education, the elderly (aged 60 or over), and individuals who receive income support or jobseeker’s allowance. Additionally, patients with a prescription exemption certificate are exempt from prescription charges.
Certain medications are also exempt from prescription charges, such as contraceptives, STI treatments, hospital prescriptions, and medications administered by a GP.
Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year, as well as individuals with certain chronic medical conditions, are eligible for a prescription exemption certificate. These conditions include hypoparathyroidism, hypoadrenalism, diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, and certain types of cancer.
For patients who are not eligible for free prescriptions but receive frequent prescriptions, a pre-payment certificate (PPC) may be a cost-effective option. PPCs are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 25 year old woman visits a fertility clinic with her partner due to oligomenorrhoea and galactorrhea. Despite having regular unprotected intercourse for 18 months, she has been unable to conceive. Upon conducting blood tests, it is discovered that her serum prolactin level is 6000 mIU/l (normal <500 mIU/l). Further investigation through a pituitary MRI reveals a microprolactinoma.
What initial treatment options are likely to be presented to her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:When it comes to treating prolactinomas, dopamine agonists like cabergoline and bromocriptine are typically the first choice, even if the patient is experiencing significant neurological complications. Surgery may be necessary for those who cannot tolerate or do not respond to medical treatment, with a trans-sphenoidal approach being the preferred method unless there is extensive extra-pituitary extension. Radiotherapy is not commonly used, and octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, is primarily used to treat acromegaly.
Understanding Prolactinoma: A Type of Pituitary Adenoma
Prolactinoma is a type of pituitary adenoma, which is a non-cancerous tumor that develops in the pituitary gland. These tumors can be classified based on their size and hormonal status. Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma and are characterized by the overproduction of prolactin.
In women, excess prolactin can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea. Men with prolactinomas may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhea. Macroadenomas, which are larger tumors, can cause additional symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and signs of hypopituitarism.
Diagnosis of prolactinoma is typically done through MRI imaging. Treatment for symptomatic patients usually involves medical therapy with dopamine agonists like cabergoline or bromocriptine, which inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland. Surgery may be necessary for patients who do not respond to medical therapy or cannot tolerate it. A trans-sphenoidal approach is often preferred for surgical removal of the tumor.
Overall, understanding prolactinoma is important for proper diagnosis and management of this type of pituitary adenoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most common cause of hypopituitarism in elderly individuals?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior pituitary tumour
Explanation:Causes of Hypopituitarism: Understanding Anterior Pituitary Tumours
Hypopituitarism is a condition characterized by the underproduction of hormones by the pituitary gland. While several factors can cause this condition, anterior pituitary tumours are the most common cause. These tumours, including adenomas and other brain tumours, can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic to acute pituitary failure with acute collapse and coma. The presentation depends on the aetiology, rapidity of onset, and predominant hormones involved.
In addition to causing hypopituitarism, space-occupying lesions may produce headaches and visual-field defects. Large lesions involving the hypothalamus may produce polydipsia and inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
While autoimmune disorders, anterior pituitary infarction, head injury, and sarcoidosis can also cause hypopituitarism, they are less common than anterior pituitary tumours. Lymphocytic hypophysitis is a rare autoimmune inflammatory disorder of the pituitary, usually associated with pregnancy. Postpartum pituitary necrosis (Sheehan syndrome) is caused by ischaemic necrosis, due to blood loss and hypovolemic shock during and after childbirth. Traumatic brain injury as a cause is being more frequently recognized. The hypothalamus is the most frequently involved of all the endocrine glands in sarcoidosis, and hypothalamic insufficiency is the major cause for hypopituitarism.
In summary, while several factors can cause hypopituitarism, anterior pituitary tumours are the most common cause. Understanding the symptoms and potential causes of hypopituitarism is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He reports a noticeable increase in breast tissue over the past several months. His medical history includes a congenital right-sided crypto-orchidism, which was corrected with orchidopexy during childhood. He also experiences migraines and uses sumatriptan as needed. What is the probable underlying cause of his current symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug-induced
Explanation:Gynaecomastia and Testicular Tumour
This man is likely to have a testicular tumour as the cause of his gynaecomastia. While bilateral breast cancer in a male his age is highly unusual, gynaecomastia can develop due to the hormonal influence of a tumour. Sumatriptan doesn’t cause gynaecomastia, and Mondor’s disease is a thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the breast or chest wall. Physiological changes of puberty occur during puberty and not in the mid-20s, making testicular tumour the most likely option.
The patient’s history of crypto-orchidism is a risk factor for the development of testicular cancer, and he is in the typical age range. However, it should be noted that only a minority of testicular cancers present with gynaecomastia. According to the American Family Physician, approximately 10% of males present with gynaecomastia from tumours that secrete beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG). Therefore, further investigation and genital examination are necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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What is the current criteria for diagnosing diabetes in an asymptomatic patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Diagnosing Diabetes: Understanding the Criteria
Diagnosing diabetes is a common topic in the AKT exam, and it is important to understand the criteria for diagnosis. In an asymptomatic individual, a single sample alone is not sufficient for diagnosis. Instead, separate fasting samples must show above 7 mmol/L. The gold standard for diagnosis is still the oral glucose tolerance test (OGT), although fasting glucose can be used if an adequate fast is ensured.
It is important to note that there are new categories of glycaemia, including impaired fasting glycaemia and impaired glucose tolerance. Impaired fasting glycaemia is defined as a fasting glucose level above 6.1 but below 6.9, while impaired glucose tolerance is defined as glucose levels of 7.8-11.1 mmol/L. Understanding these categories and their criteria is essential for accurately diagnosing diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is seen in the diabetes clinic and presents with the following results:
- Urinalysis NAD
- HbA1c 69 mmol/mol
The patient is currently taking metformin and gliclazide is added to his treatment regimen. What is the earliest time frame for repeating the HbA1c test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:NICE recommends regular monitoring of HbA1c every 2-6 months, based on individual requirements, until the patient is stable on a consistent therapy.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in red blood cells at a rate proportional to the concentration of glucose in the blood. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous three months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, and then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose levels.
The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c, which reports HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached. The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, one can calculate the average plasma glucose level by using the formula: average plasma glucose = (2 * HbA1c) – 4.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering she is pregnant. She was diagnosed with hypothyroidism two years ago and has been taking levothyroxine 75mcg od, which has kept her condition stable. Additionally, she has been taking folic acid 400mcg od for the past 8 months. Her last blood test, taken 4 months ago, showed the following results:
TSH 1.6 mU/l
You decide to order a repeat TSH and free T4 measurement. What is the most appropriate course of action now?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase levothyroxine to 100 mcg od
Explanation:If a woman has hypothyroidism, it is recommended to promptly raise the dosage of levothyroxine and closely observe her TSH levels.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A diabetic patient who uses insulin presents to the surgery. Which one of the following statements regarding the application for a group 2 (HGV) driving licence is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Applicants must provide 3 months of blood glucose readings using an electronic monitor
Explanation:DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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You are conducting an annual health review for a 59-year-old male patient with hypertension and diet-controlled diabetes. His blood tests reveal an HbA1c level of 50 mmol/mol. What is the target HbA1c level you are aiming for in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 48 mmol/mol
Explanation:The recommended HbA1c target for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus is 48 mmol/mol. To achieve and maintain this target, patients should be provided with diet and lifestyle advice.
For adults with type 2 diabetes who are managing their condition through lifestyle and diet or a single drug that doesn’t cause hypoglycemia, the goal should be to reach an HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol.
If HbA1c levels are not adequately controlled by a single drug and rise to 58 mmol/mol or higher, NICE guidelines recommend reinforcing advice on diet, lifestyle, and adherence to drug treatment. The person should aim for an HbA1c level of 53 mmol/mol and drug treatment should be intensified.
For adults taking a drug that causes hypoglycemia, the target HbA1c level should be 53 mmol/mol.
If individuals with type 2 diabetes achieve an HbA1c level lower than their target and are not experiencing hypoglycemia, they should be encouraged to maintain it.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 54-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. As part of his diabetic evaluation, he was instructed to perform home blood pressure monitoring. The average daytime reading has returned as 152/84 mmHg.
The patient migrated to the UK from Sudan approximately two years ago and has no significant medical history other than a vitamin D deficiency, which is believed to be due to his dark skin.
Based on the current NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start losartan
Explanation:For black patients with type 2 diabetes and hypertension, the recommended first-line treatment is an angiotensin II receptor blocker, specifically losartan. This is based on evidence that ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, may be less effective in patients of African or African-Caribbean ethnicity. For non-diabetic patients of this ethnicity, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled, a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide may be added as a second or third line of treatment. While lifestyle changes are important, this patient’s stage 2 hypertension and diabetes put him at high risk for complications, making prompt and effective treatment essential.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Mrs. Johnson is a type 2 diabetic who is scheduled to see the Community Diabetes Nurse because of poorly controlled HbA1c despite taking three different oral medications for her diabetes. The nurse discusses the options of starting either a GLP-1 mimetic like exenatide or starting insulin therapy. As she is an active senior citizen, she chooses to start a GLP-1 mimetic. The nurse advises her that this class of drug may cause some gastrointestinal side effects, but if she experiences severe abdominal pain, she should seek immediate medical attention.
What acute abdominal issue can arise from taking a GLP-1 mimetic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:GLP-1 mimetics have been linked with an increased risk of severe pancreatitis, according to an alert issued by the MHRA in 2014. It is important to suspend GLP-1 mimetics immediately if pancreatitis is suspected. However, they do not cause appendicitis, drug-induced hepatitis, or acute mesenteric ischaemia.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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You are phoned for advice by the husband of a patient of yours. Your patient is a 65-year-old lady who has Addison's disease and she has fallen down stairs and is unable to get up.
Her husband says that her left lower leg is swollen, bruised, and deformed. She is in pain and cannot get up. There was no loss of consciousness and there is no vomiting. He has phoned 999 for an ambulance, which is on its way, but in the meantime, he would like advice about her steroids.
What would you advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately
Explanation:Sick Day Rules for Addison’s Disease
The sick day rules for Addison’s disease are important to know and follow. In the case of a major injury, it is crucial to take 20 mg of Hydrocortisone immediately to prevent shock. If a patient has a fever of more than 37.5 C or an infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics, they should double their normal dose of hydrocortisone. For severe nausea with a headache, taking 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally and sipping rehydration/electrolyte fluids (e.g. Dioralyte) is recommended. In the event of vomiting, the emergency injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone should be used immediately, followed by calling a doctor and stating Addison’s emergency. It is also important to inform any medical professionals, such as anaesthetists, surgical teams, dentists, or endoscopists, of the need for extra oral medication and to check the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover. By following these guidelines, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition and prevent potentially life-threatening situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female is undergoing investigation for macrocytic anemia. Her blood tests indicate a deficiency in vitamin B12. Which of the following medications could be a contributing factor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to initiating pioglitazone therapy, what is the most important factor to consider?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fracture risk
Explanation:The risk of osteoporosis and fractures is higher in individuals taking thiazolidinediones.
Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications
Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.
While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old publican is obese with a BMI of 32 and has hypertension, which is poorly controlled on atenolol, ramipril and bendroflumethiazide. A recent fasting blood glucose test has revealed type 2 diabetes. On examination he looks cushingoid and is obese, with a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg. You order a 24-h urinary free cortisol estimation, which turns out to be just above the normal range. An overnight dexamethasone suppression test is normal.
Select the diagnosis that fits best with this clinical picture.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudo-Cushing’s
Explanation:Pseudo-Cushing’s Syndrome in an Obese Patient with Alcohol Excess: Diagnosis and Management
Obese patients who consume alcohol excessively may develop a cushingoid appearance, which can be mistaken for Cushing’s disease. However, normal results on screening tests for Cushing’s disease, such as the dexamethasone suppression test and 24-hour urinary free cortisol, rule out true Cushing’s disease and indicate pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome. Lifestyle measures to promote weight loss and strict control of alcohol intake are essential for management, along with appropriate treatment for comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes. Diagnostic tests for Cushing syndrome include 24-hour urinary free cortisol and low-dose dexamethasone suppression test, but false-positive and false-negative results can occur. Primary aldosteronism is unlikely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, the results are as follows:
TSH <0.05 mU/l
Free T4 25 pmol/l
What is the leading cause of this clinical presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Thyrotoxicosis is primarily caused by Graves’ disease in the UK, while the other conditions that can lead to thyrotoxicosis are relatively rare.
Understanding Thyrotoxicosis: Causes and Investigations
Thyrotoxicosis is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. Graves’ disease is the most common cause, accounting for 50-60% of cases. Other causes include toxic nodular goitre, subacute thyroiditis, postpartum thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, amiodarone therapy, and contrast administration. Elderly patients with pre-existing thyroid disease are also at risk.
To diagnose thyrotoxicosis, doctors typically look for a decrease in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and an increase in T4 and T3 levels. Thyroid autoantibodies may also be present. Isotope scanning may be used to investigate further. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, highlighting the complexity of thyroid dysfunction. Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should avoid iodinated contrast medium, as it can result in hyperthyroidism developing over several weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor's office. She was recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism and is currently taking 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily. The doctor has access to thyroid function and other test results from the previous week. What is the most effective test for tracking her progress and treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid peroxidase antibody levels
Explanation:Thyroid Hormone Therapy and Monitoring
Thyroxine is an effective treatment for hypothyroidism as it helps to suppress the high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in the body. The best way to monitor the effectiveness of this treatment is by measuring TSH levels and aiming to bring them into the normal range. In addition to TSH, other tests such as triiodothyronine, free thyroxine (T4), thyroid peroxidase antibody, and protein-bound iodine levels may be used in the initial investigation and diagnosis of thyroid disorders. Proper monitoring and management of thyroid hormone therapy can help improve symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has type II diabetes. Her HbA1c is 69 mmol/mol. Her body mass index is 25 kg/m². You want to start treatment with a sulfonylurea drug but the patient is hesitant because she has heard about the risk of hypoglycaemia.
Which of the following statements regarding hypoglycaemia and sulfonylureas is accurate? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The risk is greatest if there is co-existing hepatic impairment
Explanation:Understanding the Risk of Hypoglycaemia with Sulfonylureas
Sulfonylureas are commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes, but they come with a risk of hypoglycaemia, which can be dangerous. This risk is greatest in patients with co-existing hepatic impairment, as the drugs are metabolised in the liver and excreted in urine or faeces. Short-acting sulfonylureas are not necessarily riskier than longer-acting ones, but they should be used with caution in patients with renal disease. Hypoglycaemia may persist for many hours and should be treated in the hospital. Excessive dosage is a common cause of hypoglycaemia, so careful monitoring is essential. Combining sulfonylureas with bedtime isophane insulin may be an option when other treatments fail, but it doesn’t reduce the risk of hypoglycaemia. Patients and healthcare providers should be aware of the risks associated with sulfonylureas and take steps to minimise them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male attends regarding a concern over the future development of obesity. He has read on the internet about the metabolic syndrome and its association with diabetes. He wonders if he has this diagnosis.
Which of the following is a specific criterion in the diagnosis of the metabolic syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A fasting plasma glucose of 4.9 mmol/L
Explanation:Understanding Metabolic Syndrome
Metabolic syndrome is diagnosed when an individual has central obesity, along with two other risk factors. The International Diabetes Federation and American Heart Association define central obesity as increased waist circumference, which is ethnicity-specific. For example, Caucasian men should have a waist circumference of at least 94 cm, while South Asian men should have a waist circumference of at least 90 cm. Other risk factors include raised triglycerides, reduced HDL-cholesterol, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose.
The importance of diagnosing metabolic syndrome lies in its associated morbidity. Individuals with metabolic syndrome have a four times increased risk of developing diabetes and a two-fold risk of developing ischemic heart disease. Central obesity is more highly correlated with metabolic risk factors than body mass index, making it an important measurement in identifying the bodyweight component of metabolic syndrome. Therefore, measuring waist circumference is recommended to identify individuals with metabolic syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 65-year-old lady with polymyalgia rheumatica who is currently responding well to 5 mg prednisolone daily. As she has not had any fractures previously, she underwent a DXA scan which shows a lumbar spine T score of −2.5 and hip T score of −2.6.
She visits your clinic to discuss the scan results and seek advice on treatment options. What would be your recommended management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: As her steroid dose is now less than 7.5 mg she doesn't need bone-sparing therapy
Explanation:Management of Osteoporosis in Patients with T Score Criteria
Patients who fit the criteria for diagnosis of osteoporosis based on T score should be managed with a generic bisphosphonate as the first line of treatment. This is regardless of whether they have suffered an osteoporotic fracture or not. If a patient doesn’t tolerate a weekly preparation, there are monthly and intermittent IV preparations available. It is important to note that early intervention is key in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures. Therefore, prompt management of osteoporosis is crucial in maintaining bone health and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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You are conducting an annual health check on a 65-year-old female patient who has hypertension and type 2 diabetes. She takes ramipril in the morning and metformin twice a day, and has made lifestyle modifications including dietary changes. Her HbA1C level is 53 mmol/mol. When should a second medication be considered in combination with metformin to lower her HbA1c?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If the HbA1c is greater than 58 mmol/mol
Explanation:To intensify the drug treatment for this patient, a second agent should be added if her HbA1c level reaches 58 mmol/mol. It is recommended to advise adults with type 2 diabetes to maintain their HbA1c level below their target if they are not experiencing hypoglycaemia.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female has been experiencing fatigue, itching, and yellowing of her skin. She denies any rashes and doesn't feel feverish or unwell. Her medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, and diverticulosis. On examination, she has scleral icterus, a clear chest, normal heart sounds, a soft and non-tender abdomen, and no peripheral edema. Which medication is the most probable culprit for her current symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Cholestasis is a known side effect of sulfonylureas, but not of ibuprofen, amlodipine, or senna.
Side-Effects of Sulfonylureas
Sulfonylureas are a class of medications used to treat type 2 diabetes by stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas. However, like any medication, they can cause side-effects. The most common adverse effects of sulfonylureas are hypoglycaemic episodes, which are more common with long-acting preparations such as chlorpropamide. Another common side-effect is weight gain.
In addition to these common side-effects, there are rarer adverse effects that can occur with sulfonylureas. One such effect is the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, which can lead to low sodium levels in the blood. Another rare side-effect is bone marrow suppression, which can cause a decrease in the production of blood cells. Sulfonylureas can also cause liver damage, specifically cholestatic liver injury. Finally, peripheral neuropathy, which is damage to the nerves that control movement and sensation in the limbs, can occur as a side-effect of sulfonylureas.
It is important to note that not everyone who takes sulfonylureas will experience these side-effects, and some people may experience different side-effects than those listed here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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You are reviewing routine blood test results for Maria, who is a 68-year-old Hispanic female. Her HbA1c has come back as 56mmol/mol. Her previous result for HbA1c was 44 mmol/mol. Maria has a past medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia and her body mass index is 32kg/m².
You have a telephone consultation with Maria. She tells you that she feels well in herself and has no symptoms of thirst, weight loss or recurrent infection.
What is the most appropriate information to give to Maria?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He requires a repeat blood test to re-check HbA1c level
Explanation:If HbA1c cannot be used, such as in individuals with end-stage chronic kidney disease, the diagnosis of type 2 diabetes is made based on a fasting plasma glucose level of 7.0 mmol/L or higher. For asymptomatic patients, two abnormal readings are necessary for a diagnosis.
The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue and feeling cold all the time. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results are obtained:
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 9.8 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
- Free thyroxine (T4) 8.9 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
- Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies (anti-TPO) 280 IU/ml (<100)
What other clinical symptom may be associated with his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Goitre
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this man with biochemical evidence of hypothyroidism and raised anti-TPO antibodies is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is characterized by hypothyroidism, goitre, and anti-TPO antibodies. Exophthalmos, hypercalcaemia, and onycholysis are not typically associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, but rather with other thyroid disorders such as Graves’ disease.
Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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What is the food with the lowest glycaemic index (GI) rating among the following options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Baked potato
Explanation:Understanding Glycaemic Index and Diabetic Diets
The glycaemic index (GI) measures the rate at which carbohydrates are absorbed in the body. Low GI foods have been shown to reduce appetite, aid in weight control, and lower cholesterol levels. However, feedback from the last MRCGP examination revealed a lack of knowledge regarding diabetic diets. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a basic understanding of dietary advice to provide their patients with proper guidance. Exam questions may focus on major food groups and principles rather than specific details. To prepare for such questions, it is recommended to read the BDA reference for a broad overview of the main principles, including glycaemic index. By doing so, healthcare professionals can provide general advice and answer any related questions that may arise during an exam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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What is the drug combination that should be avoided in the routine treatment of hypertension for individuals at risk of developing diabetes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-blocker and calcium channel blocker
Explanation:Beta-Blockers and Diabetes
Beta-blockers are a type of medication that can be used in patients with diabetes, but they can interfere with glucose regulation. To minimize this risk, cardioselective beta-blockers may be preferred. However, the combination of beta-blockers and thiazide diuretics has been shown to increase the risk of developing diabetes. Therefore, it is important to avoid this combination of medications in individuals who are at risk of developing diabetes. By being mindful of these potential risks, healthcare providers can help ensure the safe and effective use of beta-blockers in patients with diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old male is undergoing treatment for hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and has been living with type 2 diabetes for fifteen years. He was diagnosed with microalbuminuria a few years ago and has had an elevated creatinine level for some time. Ultrasound scans have ruled out any other causes of renal failure apart from diabetes. Currently, he is taking ramipril 10 mg and amlodipine 5 mg to manage his blood pressure, which is at 130/79 mmHg. His most recent creatinine level is 105 µmol/L, up from 97 µmol/L twelve months ago. What is the best course of action regarding his medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue his BP medication unchanged
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Nephropathy and Creatinine Rise
The key to managing a patient with diabetic nephropathy is to reduce the progression of renal failure. In this case, continuing the patient’s ramipril has a positive effect on his condition. As long as his blood pressure is adequately controlled, his medication should remain unchanged.
However, if there is a significant rise in creatinine levels, further investigation is necessary. According to NICE guidance, a rise of 30% or more should prompt further investigation. Other references suggest that a rise of 20% is also cause for concern. It is important to monitor creatinine levels closely and take appropriate action to manage any significant changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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An otherwise healthy woman of 35 years has a second attack of renal colic in two years and passes a stone. Blood urea is normal.
Which one of the following investigations would be the most important to conduct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum calcium concentration
Explanation:Recommended Investigations for Young Patients with Renal Colic
Further investigation is recommended for young patients who experience a second episode of renal colic. To begin with, a plasma calcium test is important to rule out a predisposition towards forming the most common types of urinary tract stones, which are composed of calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate. A urine culture should also be conducted to exclude concurrent infection, as infection is associated with stone formation.
Another relevant investigation is urinary amino-acid chromatography, which can help assess for cystinuria or renal tubular acidosis. However, a urinary albumin-creatinine ratio is not particularly relevant in this situation unless the patient is found to have proteinuria.
It is important to note that an x-ray of the hands, renal biopsy, or cystoscopy are not required for this type of investigation. By conducting these recommended tests, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat young patients with renal colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man has undergone some blood tests and X-rays for bilateral hand pain. He reports he is in good health and takes regular vitamin and mineral supplements. He is taking lisinopril 10 mg for hypertension and his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. The only blood test abnormality is a serum calcium concentration of 2.96 mmol/l (2.25–2.5 mmol/l) and hand X-ray demonstrates subperiosteal bone resorption in the majority of his phalanges.
What is the single most likely cause of the hypercalcaemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia, an abnormally high level of calcium in the blood, can have various causes. One of the most common is hyperparathyroidism, which results from overactivity of the parathyroid gland. Primary hyperparathyroidism is usually due to a benign adenoma, while secondary and tertiary hyperparathyroidism can occur in the context of renal failure or transplant. The hallmark radiological feature of hyperparathyroidism is subperiosteal bone resorption, which can be seen in the phalanges.
High dietary vitamin D intake is unlikely to cause hypercalcaemia, as most vitamin D is synthesized in the skin upon exposure to sunlight. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor treatment may lead to hyperkalaemia, but not hypercalcaemia. High dietary calcium intake is also unlikely to be a significant factor, as the body has mechanisms to regulate calcium absorption and excretion. However, iatrogenic hypercalcaemia can occur from excessive calcium and vitamin D supplementation.
Malignancy is another important cause of hypercalcaemia, especially in breast, lung, renal, and multiple myeloma. Therefore, occult malignancy should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of hypercalcaemia. However, in the case of subperiosteal bone resorption, hyperparathyroidism is more likely, and further investigation such as parathyroid hormone measurement and imaging studies may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes becomes very unwell with increased respiratory rate, drowsiness and thirst.
On examination she is pyrexial 38°C, just about communicating, and smells of acetone. Her BP is 100/60 mmHg with a pulse of 105, her glucose is 27.5.
How would you manage her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Review next day
Explanation:Diabetic Ketoacidosis: A Serious Condition Requiring Hospital Management
Diabetic ketoacidosis is a life-threatening condition that occurs due to absolute insulin deficiency, which is almost exclusively seen in type 1 diabetes. It carries a mortality rate of up to 5% and requires immediate hospital management.
The accumulation of ketones in the body leads to metabolic acidosis, which is compensated for by respiratory mechanisms. Hyperkalaemia is often present at the time of presentation, but it can be resolved quickly with insulin therapy and fluid resuscitation.
It is important to note that starting antibiotics or increasing insulin in a domiciliary setting is not appropriate for managing diabetic ketoacidosis. This condition requires prompt medical attention and close monitoring to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and says she is keen on becoming pregnant.
What factor is most likely to make you ask her to defer her pregnancy at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HbA1c 80 mmol/mol
Explanation:Managing Diabetes in Pregnancy: Key Considerations
Pregnancy in women with type 1 diabetes is associated with increased risks of congenital abnormalities, neonatal morbidity and mortality, and operative delivery rates. However, pre-pregnancy counselling and achieving near-normal levels of glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) can improve pregnancy outcomes. While microalbuminuria and background retinopathy may not be contraindications to pregnancy, regular monitoring and prompt referral to specialists are necessary to prevent progression of these complications. Sensory neuropathy may cause severe vomiting due to gastroparesis, but it is not a contraindication to pregnancy. Additionally, women with diabetes should take 5 mg folic acid daily pre-pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Good diabetic control remains the most important factor in managing diabetes in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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What is a metabolic effect of exenatide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accelerates gastric emptying
Explanation:Exenatide and its Metabolic Effects
Exenatide is a medication that imitates the effects of GLP-1, a hormone produced in the gut. It has been found to have beneficial effects on the metabolism of individuals with diabetes mellitus. This medication has several metabolic effects, including the suppression of appetite, inhibition of glucose production in the liver, slowing of gastric emptying, and stimulation of insulin release. However, it doesn’t increase insulin sensitivity, which is achieved by other drugs such as metformin and the glitazones. Overall, exenatide has been shown to have a positive impact on the management of diabetes by regulating various metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 90-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening. The patient has been advised to seek medical attention regarding her thyroid function tests (TFTs).
TSH levels are at 9.2 mU/L, while free thyroxine levels are at 14 pmol/L. Despite her age, the patient is currently asymptomatic and in good health. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat TFTs in a few months time
Explanation:According to the guidelines recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, this patient with subclinical hypothyroidism should be monitored at present based on both TSH and age criteria.
Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism
Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men and those with thyroid autoantibodies.
The management of subclinical hypothyroidism depends on the TSH levels and the presence of symptoms. According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, patients with a TSH level greater than 10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels should be considered for levothyroxine treatment. For those with a TSH level between 5.5-10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be offered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms. However, for older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients should have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.
In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent it from progressing to overt hypothyroidism. The decision to treat or not depends on the patient’s age, symptoms, and TSH levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old retired carpenter visits his GP seeking strong pain relief for his lower back pain. He has been experiencing the pain for six weeks and saw another GP two weeks ago who advised him to take regular Paracetamol and Ibuprofen with PPI cover. During his previous visit, a PR exam was conducted, which was normal, and a PSA blood test was within the normal range. He reports feeling more tired than usual and complains of persistent nausea, but otherwise feels well. On examination, his observations are within the normal range, and there is no specific bony tenderness. His spine has a normal range of movement, and no focal neurology is detected. Based on NICE guidelines for suspected cancer, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer a FBC, Calcium, Plasma viscosity or ESR to assess for myeloma
Explanation:According to the latest NICE Guidelines for suspected cancer (June 2015), individuals aged 60 and above with persistent bone pain, particularly back pain, or unexplained fracture should be offered a FBC, calcium and plasma viscosity or ESR to assess for myeloma. Additionally, those with hypercalcaemia or leukopenia and a presentation that is consistent with possible myeloma should be offered very urgent protein electrophoresis and a Bence Jones protein urine test within 48 hours. In cases where the plasma viscosity or ESR and presentation are consistent with possible myeloma, very urgent protein electrophoresis and a Bence Jones protein urine test should be considered. If the results of protein electrophoresis or a Bence Jones protein urine test suggest myeloma, referral should be made within 2 weeks. These guidelines have been updated in 2015.
Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is most commonly found in patients aged 60-70 years. The disease is characterized by a range of symptoms, which can be remembered using the mnemonic CRABBI. These include hypercalcemia, renal damage, anemia, bleeding, bone lesions, and increased susceptibility to infection. Other features of multiple myeloma include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.
To diagnose multiple myeloma, a range of investigations are required. Blood tests can reveal anemia, renal failure, and hypercalcemia. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised levels of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum, while bone marrow aspiration can confirm the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can be used to detect osteolytic lesions.
The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include the presence of plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, or elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, or low levels of antibodies in the blood. Understanding the features and investigations of multiple myeloma is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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Which of the following secondary causes of hyperlipidaemia lead to mainly hypercholesterolaemia instead of hypertriglyceridaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Secondary Causes of Hyperlipidaemia
Hyperlipidaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of lipids (fats) in the blood. There are two main types of hyperlipidaemia: hypertriglyceridaemia, which is characterized by high levels of triglycerides, and hypercholesterolaemia, which is characterized by high levels of cholesterol. While primary hyperlipidaemia is caused by genetic factors, secondary hyperlipidaemia is caused by underlying medical conditions or lifestyle factors.
Predominantly hypertriglyceridaemia can be caused by a variety of factors, including diabetes mellitus (types 1 and 2), obesity, alcohol consumption, chronic renal failure, certain medications such as thiazides and non-selective beta-blockers, and liver disease. On the other hand, predominantly hypercholesterolaemia can be caused by conditions such as nephrotic syndrome, cholestasis, and hypothyroidism.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of hyperlipidaemia in order to effectively manage the condition. Lifestyle modifications such as a healthy diet and regular exercise, as well as medications such as statins, can help to lower lipid levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old patient with a strong family history of premature myocardial infarction presents to his General Practitioner and is found to have familial hypercholesterolaemia. He is a non-smoker and is normotensive. He is given lifestyle and dietary advice and prescribed a high-intensity statin. His lipid results are reviewed after two months.
Investigations before and after being on a maximum dose of the statin:
Investigation Result Result after two months Normal value
Cholesterol concentration 10.2mmol/l 6.8 mmol/l <5.1 mmol/l
LDL-cholesterol 8.1 mmol/l 5.3 mmol/l <3.1 mmol/l
HDL-cholesterol 1.2 mmol/l 1.3 mmol/l >1.1 mmol/l
Fasting triglycerides 1.9 mmol/l 1.0 mmol/l <1.6 mmol/l
Which of the following is the single most appropriate next step in his management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adding ezetimibe to his medication
Explanation:Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia
Primary hypercholesterolaemia requires appropriate treatment to reduce LDL-cholesterol levels. In this case, the patient’s LDL-cholesterol reduction is only 35%, which is below the recommended reduction of >40% with the statin alone. Therefore, adding ezetimibe, an inhibitor of cholesterol absorption from the gut, is the treatment of choice. This is the only further primary care intervention before specialist intervention is required.
Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with multiple non-healing leg ulcers and a history of feeling unwell for several months. During examination, her blood pressure is 138/72 mmHg, pulse is 90 bpm, and she has pale conjunctivae and poor dentition with bleeding gums. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:Vitamin C: A Water Soluble Vitamin with Essential Functions
Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a water soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. One of its primary functions is acting as an antioxidant, which helps protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Additionally, vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, as it acts as a cofactor for enzymes required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in the synthesis of collagen. This vitamin also facilitates iron absorption and serves as a cofactor for norepinephrine synthesis.
However, a deficiency in vitamin C, also known as scurvy, can lead to defective collagen synthesis, resulting in capillary fragility and poor wound healing. Some of the features of vitamin C deficiency include gingivitis, loose teeth, poor wound healing, bleeding from gums, haematuria, epistaxis, and general malaise. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin C through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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You are a healthcare professional working in a general practice. Your next patient is a 70-year-old man who has come for a follow-up appointment to review his recent blood test results. During his last visit, you had expressed concern about his elevated plasma glucose levels and advised him to make some lifestyle changes. He informs you that he has made some dietary modifications and has started walking to the nearby stores instead of driving.
The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease, osteoarthritis, and chronic kidney disease. His fasting blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 146 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
- Platelets: 235 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
- White blood cells (WBC): 7.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
- Sodium (Na+): 139 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
- Potassium (K+): 4.4 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 10.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 216 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
- Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): 28 ml/minute
- C-reactive protein (CRP): <5 mg/L (normal range: <5)
- Plasma glucose: 7.3 mmol/L (normal range: <6 mmol/L)
- Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): 54 mmol/mol
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's HbA1c levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sitagliptin
Explanation:This individual has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, as evidenced by elevated blood glucose levels on two separate occasions and an HbA1c measurement of >48 mmol/mol. Despite receiving lifestyle advice, medication is necessary for treatment.
Due to an eGFR of <30ml/minute, metformin is not a suitable treatment option. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most appropriate choice. While DESMOND, an NHS course aimed at educating individuals with type 2 diabetes and their families, may be beneficial for ongoing management, it doesn’t replace the need for medication in this case. Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive man presents with weight loss and weakness. Upon evaluation, he is diagnosed with disseminated tuberculosis and is found to be hypotensive with hyperpigmentation of the mucosa, elbows, and skin creases. Further investigations reveal a diagnosis of Addison's disease.
What is the correct biochemical abnormality associated with this condition? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased serum potassium
Explanation:Adrenal Insufficiency and Electrolyte Imbalances in HIV Patients
Adrenal insufficiency is a serious complication of HIV infections, often associated with opportunistic infections and Kaposi’s sarcoma. One common electrolyte imbalance seen in these patients is hyperkalemia, which is primarily caused by the loss of aldosterone and can also be a result of acidosis and impaired kidney function. However, increased serum bicarbonate is not a typical finding in these patients, as metabolic acidosis occurs due to the loss of aldosterone’s sodium-retaining and potassium- and hydrogen-ion-secreting action. Additionally, while mild to moderate hypercalcemia may occur in some patients, decreased serum calcium is not a common finding. Chloride levels are also typically decreased in adrenal insufficiency. Finally, serum sodium levels are reduced in these patients due to both the loss of sodium in the urine (due to aldosterone deficiency) and movement of sodium into the intracellular compartment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment to discuss her menopausal symptoms. She has been experiencing hot flashes, mood swings, and insomnia for the past year. Her friend recently started hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for similar symptoms and found it to be very helpful. The patient is interested in trying HRT and has already read about the potential risks of breast and ovarian cancer on the NHS website. She has no medical history and is not taking any medications, but she does mention that her sister has had multiple blood clots and is currently taking blood thinners.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe transdermal combined HRT
Explanation:When prescribing hormone replacement therapy (HRT), it is important to consider the risk of venous thromboembolism in women. Transdermal HRT is recommended as a first line for those at risk. A family history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) doesn’t necessarily rule out HRT, but should be taken into account. Oestrogen-only HRT should only be given to women without a uterus, as it can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. Topical oestrogen is generally safe, but only provides relief for localised urogenital symptoms. In cases where HRT is not an option, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) may be considered as an alternative treatment for menopause.
Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.
The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.
HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.
HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man with diabetes presents with a request for infertility investigations. On examination, you observe that he has a tan complexion despite minimal sun exposure. He also has an enlarged liver and reports experiencing palpitations and dyspnoea during physical activity. His full blood count and liver biochemistry are within normal limits. What is the most suitable investigation to perform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum iron studies
Explanation:Investigating Haemochromatosis: Serum Iron Studies and Diagnostic Tests
Haemochromatosis is an autosomal-recessive disorder characterized by excess iron deposition in the endocrine glands, heart, and skin. Middle-aged men are more commonly affected, and symptoms include diabetes mellitus, probable hypogonadism, hepatomegaly, and skin pigmentation. Serum iron studies are crucial in the diagnosis of haemochromatosis, with raised serum ferritin levels and reduced total iron-binding capacity being indicative of the condition. However, elevated ferritin levels can also be seen in other conditions, such as alcoholic liver disease and porphyria cutanea tarda, so genetic testing for HFE mutations (C282Y, H63D) is necessary for a definitive diagnosis. Serum α-fetoprotein levels and cardiac echocardiography are not useful in identifying haemochromatosis, while liver biopsy is rarely required due to the reliability of genetic testing. Ultrasound of the liver may show abnormalities secondary to cirrhosis but is not as useful as serum iron measurements in this situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of bilateral knee pain. Her BMI is 36. She expresses a strong desire to lose weight and has attempted various diets in the past. You decide to prescribe orlistat and advise her on the minimum amount of weight loss she must achieve in the initial three months to continue receiving the medication. What is the minimum weight loss required in the first three months of taking orlistat to maintain the prescription?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Weight Loss Requirement for Prescription Continuation
To continue prescribing, a weight loss of at least 5% is necessary within the first three months. This means that patients must lose a certain amount of weight within the initial period of treatment to ensure that the medication is effective and safe for long-term use. It is important for patients to adhere to a healthy diet and exercise regimen to achieve this weight loss goal. Failure to meet this requirement may result in the discontinuation of the prescription.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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You are assisting in the care of a 65-year-old man who has been hospitalized for chest pain. He has a history of hypertension, angina, and currently smokes 20 cigarettes per day. Upon admission, blood tests were performed in the Emergency Department and revealed the following results:
Na+ 133 mmol/l
K+ 3.3 mmol/l
Urea 4.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 µmol/l
What is the most likely explanation for the electrolyte abnormalities observed in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy
Explanation:Hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia are caused by bendroflumethiazide, while spironolactone is linked to hyperkalaemia. Smoking would only be significant if the patient had lung cancer that resulted in syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, but there is no evidence of this in the given scenario.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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What is the drug class of pioglitazone, an oral hypoglycaemic agent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An alpha-glucosidase inhibitor
Explanation:Pioglitazone: A Blood Glucose Lowering Agent
Pioglitazone is a member of the PPAR gamma agonist class of drugs that are used to lower blood glucose levels. These drugs work by activating the PPAR gamma receptor, which helps to regulate adipocyte function and improve insulin sensitivity. The blood glucose lowering effect of pioglitazone is around 1-1.3% HbA1c, which can be significant for patients with diabetes.
However, pioglitazone is associated with some adverse events, including fluid retention and decreased bone mineral density. Patients with a prior history of heart failure should not take pioglitazone, as it is contraindicated in this population. Despite these potential risks, pioglitazone can be an effective treatment option for patients with diabetes who are struggling to control their blood glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male is being treated for hypertension, gout, gastro-oesophageal reflux and has a three year history of type 2 diabetes.
He takes a variety of medications.
These investigations have revealed:
Serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)
Serum potassium 4.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Serum urea 12.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
eGFR 29 ml/min/1.73m2
Which of the following medications should be stopped in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Dosage Adjustments for Renal Impairment in Medications
Allopurinol is a medication commonly used in patients with moderate renal impairment. However, it is advised to reduce the dose from 300 to 200 or 100 mg/day. On the other hand, gliclazide is primarily metabolized in the liver, so only minor reductions in dose are necessary. No reduction in PPI dose is usually required.
When it comes to lisinopril, if diabetic nephropathy is suspected as the underlying cause, then the dose should be maintained. However, for metformin, it is recommended to stop the medication completely if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 30. It is important to adjust the dosage of medications in patients with renal impairment to prevent adverse effects and ensure optimal treatment outcomes. Proper monitoring and consultation with a healthcare provider are essential in managing medication regimens for patients with renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for a diabetes check-up at his GP's office. He has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and his HbA1c remains high at 56 mmol/mol despite attempts to modify his lifestyle. The GP decides to initiate drug therapy.
Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should not take pioglitazone due to its potential to cause fluid retention.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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The following blood result is reported for an 85-year-old woman with a medical history of hypertension, diverticulitis, and hypothyroidism. She is currently taking amlodipine, ramipril, and levothyroxine. The result shows a TSH level of 0.01 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 22 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). What potential complication could she face if this condition remains untreated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoporosis
Explanation:The risk of osteoporosis increases with over-replacement of thyroxine. Elevated T4 and suppressed TSH levels in blood tests indicate over-replacement with levothyroxine, which can cause confusion in biochemistry abnormalities, although this is more commonly observed in hypothyroidism. Constipation is a symptom of hypothyroidism, not over-replacement with levothyroxine. Muscle weakness and reduced reflexes are also associated with hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Over-replacement with thyroxine would result in weight loss rather than weight gain.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female with hypothyroidism visits your GP clinic to discuss her pregnancy. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant and wants to know if she should continue taking levothyroxine. She is taking 75 mcg of levothyroxine daily.
Her thyroid function tests were done 3 weeks ago, before she knew she was pregnant. The results are as follows:
TSH 3.2mU/L
What advice would you give her regarding her levothyroxine medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the dose to 100 mcg levothyroxine daily
Explanation:An endocrinologist should be consulted for women with hypothyroidism who are planning pregnancy. According to a review in the British Journal of General Practice, their levothyroxine dose should be adjusted to maintain a preconception TSH concentration of less than 2.5 mu/L. Upon conception, the daily dose of levothyroxine should be increased by 25-50 mcg and thyroid function should be monitored to ensure TSH remains below 2.5 mU/L. Therefore, increasing the dose to 100 mcg levothyroxine daily would be the correct course of action, while doubling the dose may be too large an increase. It would be inappropriate to reduce, stop, or maintain the same medication dosage as thyroxine requirements increase during pregnancy.
During pregnancy, there is an increase in the levels of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which causes an increase in the levels of total thyroxine. However, this doesn’t affect the free thyroxine level. If left untreated, thyrotoxicosis can increase the risk of fetal loss, maternal heart failure, and premature labor. Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy, but transient gestational hyperthyroidism can also occur due to the activation of the TSH receptor by HCG. Propylthiouracil has traditionally been the antithyroid drug of choice, but it is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatic injury. Therefore, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using propylthiouracil in the first trimester and switching to carbimazole in the second trimester. Maternal free thyroxine levels should be kept in the upper third of the normal reference range to avoid fetal hypothyroidism. Thyrotrophin receptor stimulating antibodies should be checked at 30-36 weeks gestation to determine the risk of neonatal thyroid problems. Block-and-replace regimens should not be used in pregnancy, and radioiodine therapy is contraindicated.
On the other hand, thyroxine is safe during pregnancy, and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone should be measured in each trimester and 6-8 weeks postpartum. Women require an increased dose of thyroxine during pregnancy, up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy. Breastfeeding is safe while on thyroxine. It is important to manage thyroid problems during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Despite regularly missing her hospital diabetes appointments, her HbA1c control is currently within target. What is the recommended frequency for monitoring her HbA1c levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Every 3 - 6 months
Explanation:The HbA1c should be assessed every 3-6 months in individuals with type 1 diabetes.
Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines
The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. The condition can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and is associated with micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide useful information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.
One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be taken into account. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also important, with a recommended frequency of at least 4 times a day, including before meals and before bed. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.
When it comes to insulin, NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens over twice-daily mixed insulin regimens for all adults. Twice-daily insulin detemir is the preferred regime, with once-daily insulin glargine or insulin detemir as an alternative. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins for mealtime insulin replacement.
Finally, NICE recommends considering adding metformin if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher. These guidelines provide a useful framework for managing type 1 diabetes and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 55-year-old man who was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus approximately four months ago. His HbA1c level was 54 mmol/mol (7.1%) at the time of diagnosis, and he was initiated on metformin with gradual dose escalation. What level should you consider introducing a second medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 58 mmol/mol (7.5%)
Explanation:NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old wrestler presents with complaints of increased thirst and frequent urination. A urine dip reveals low specific gravity and no other abnormalities, and cultures come back negative. The recent venous blood gas results are as follows:
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 3.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Glucose 3.9 mmol/L (3.6 - 5.3)
- Creatinine 60 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Bicarbonate 27 mmol/L (22 - 29)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Consider diabetes insipidus as the possible diagnosis for a patient presenting with polyuria and polydipsia, along with low potassium levels and no evidence of diabetes mellitus. The patient being a boxer may suggest head trauma, which is one of the potential causes of cranial diabetes insipidus. In this condition, urine cannot be effectively concentrated due to damage to the cranial source of ADH. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, occurs when the kidneys do not respond to ADH appropriately.
Addison’s disease is less likely as it would not cause increased urination, and the patient would try to preserve water to compensate for dehydration. Additionally, Addison’s disease would cause elevated potassium levels and is unlikely without abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting.
Cushing’s disease is not the most likely diagnosis as the patient doesn’t present with the classical signs and symptoms such as central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, psychological problems, and glucose intolerance.
Type I diabetes is unlikely as there is no glucose in the urine and normal glucose on VBG. Onset of type I diabetes at the age of 42 is also uncommon.
Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of fatigue and nocturia. On further questioning she also admits to increased thirst. She doesn't have dysuria or urgency, denies the possibility of pregnancy and has otherwise been well. Her sister was recently diagnosed with diabetes, although she is not sure which type. She has looked at the symptoms online and is worried about a possible diabetes diagnosis; she wants to know how she can distinguish between the types of diabetes.
Her body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m².
Which of the following tests would be best in differentiating these diagnoses?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD)
Explanation:The diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically made based on symptoms and signs of diabetic ketoacidosis, such as abdominal pain, polyuria, dehydration, and Kussmaul respiration. Diagnostic criteria include fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l. Antibody tests, such as anti-GAD and islet cell antibodies, can help distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Further investigation with C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies may be necessary in patients with atypical features or intermediate age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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When managing hypertension in a diabetic patient, which of the following combinations of Antihypertensive medications should be avoided, if possible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-blocker + thiazide
Explanation:Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman with established type 2 diabetes presents for her annual review. Her HbA1c has been stable on the maximal dose of metformin for the past few years and her BP has always been well controlled. She doesn't take any other regular medications. Her HbA1c result 1 year ago was 52 mmol/mol.
The results of her most recent review are as follows:
HbA1c 59 mmol/mol
eGFR 91 ml/min/1.73m² (>90 ml/min/1.73m²)
Urine albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) 2 mg/mmol (<3 mg/mmol)
BMI 25 kg/m²
QRISK score 6.8%
According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in managing her diabetes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulfonylurea
Explanation:For a patient with T2DM on metformin whose HbA1c has increased to 58 mmol/mol, the appropriate second-line option would depend on the individual clinical scenario. In this case, the correct answer is sulfonylurea, which would be suitable for a patient with a normal BMI, no history of established cardiovascular disease or heart failure, and not at an increased risk of CVD based on their QRISK score.
GLP-1 mimetic would not be a suitable second-line option but could be considered if triple therapy with metformin and two other oral hypoglycemic agents was not effective or tolerated, provided certain criteria are met.
Repaglinide is not the correct answer as it is a meglitinide that is typically used as initial treatment if metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated.
SGLT-2 inhibitor could be an appropriate option if certain NICE criteria are met. However, in the absence of established cardiovascular disease, heart failure, or an increased risk of CVD, a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea can be offered as dual therapy with metformin in the first instance, as there is no indication that these would be inappropriate based on the patient’s history.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female presents with an acute illness. She reports experiencing a fever, malaise, and a sore throat. She has a medical history of asthma, hyperthyroidism, and migraines. Her current medications include salbutamol inhaled as needed, sumatriptan 50 mg as needed, carbimazole 40 mg daily, and Cerazette 75 mcg daily. What blood tests should be ordered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver function
Explanation:Carbimazole and Infection Risk
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis by blocking the iodination of thyroid hormone. However, patients taking carbimazole should be aware of the potential risk of infection, particularly sore throat, and report any symptoms or signs of infection to their healthcare provider. This is because carbimazole can cause bone marrow suppression, which can lead to agranulocytosis, a rare but serious adverse effect.
If a patient on carbimazole presents with an acute illness consisting of fever, malaise, and sore throat, a full blood count should be performed to assess the white blood cell count and differential. If neutropenia is found, carbimazole should be stopped immediately. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients taking carbimazole for signs of infection and to take appropriate action if necessary to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman with recently diagnosed type 2 diabetes presents to you seeking advice. Her husband, who is also diabetic, takes a statin and his specialist always aims to get his cholesterol below 4 mmol/L.
The patient is a non-smoker and her blood pressure is within target. She has no history of cardiovascular disease and is not currently taking any lipid lowering therapy. Her total cholesterol level is 4.2 mmol/L and her eGFR is 68 ml/min/1.73 m2. There is no evidence of albuminuria.
What would be your recommended next step in managing this patient's lipid levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Initiate treatment with atorvastatin 10 mg
Explanation:Management of Lipid Modification Therapy in Type 2 Diabetes
When managing lipid modification therapy in patients with type 2 diabetes, it is important to consider their risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD). According to NICE guidance issued in 2014, patients without established CVD should be offered lipid modification therapy if their 10-year risk of developing CVD using the QRISK2 assessment tool is 10% or more. However, this advice only applies to type 2 diabetes and not type 1 diabetes. Additionally, if the patient has pre-existing CV disease, a formal risk assessment is not needed, and lipid lowering therapy should be advised for secondary prevention.
Other factors that should be considered when managing lipid modification therapy include the patient’s estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) and the presence of albuminuria. A risk assessment tool should not be used for patients with an eGFR less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2 and/or albuminuria, as they are at increased risk of CVD and should be offered atorvastatin 20 mg for primary or secondary prevention of CVD.
In summary, when managing lipid modification therapy in patients with type 2 diabetes, it is important to assess their risk of developing CVD, consider their eGFR and albuminuria, and determine if they have pre-existing CV disease. This information will help determine whether a formal risk assessment is needed or if lipid lowering therapy should be advised for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and iron-deficiency anaemia after complaining of feeling very tired. She was started on levothyroxine and ferrous sulphate and has been taking these for the last six months. Three months ago her blood tests showed:
Haemoglobin 120 g/L (115-160 g/L)
Ferritin 60 ng/mL (20-230 ng/ml)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) 6.9 mu/L (0.5-5.5 mu/L)
She was continued on levothyroxine and ferrous sulphate tablets for a further 3 months. Her blood tests were repeated today which show:
Haemoglobin 130 g/L (115-160 g/L)
Ferritin 110 ng/mL (20-230 ng/ml)
TSH 7 mu/L (0.5-5.5 mu/L)
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the iron supplementation and continue levothyroxine at the current dose
Explanation:To avoid reducing the absorption of levothyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be given four hours apart. The patient’s blood results indicate that her iron levels have been replenished and her blood count is now normal, but her thyroid-stimulating hormone level remains elevated. According to NICE guidelines, iron treatment should be continued for three more months after normalizing haemoglobin concentrations and blood counts before being discontinued. Since the patient’s iron levels are now normal, continuing ferrous sulphate is unnecessary and may hinder the absorption of levothyroxine. Therefore, it is advisable to discontinue iron and observe if her thyroid hormone levels normalize before adjusting her levothyroxine dosage.
If a patient with hypothyroidism has a structural change in the thyroid gland or is suspected of having an underlying endocrine disease such as Addison’s disease, they should be referred to endocrinology. However, this patient doesn’t appear to have any of these conditions, but it is essential to conduct a neck examination to ensure that there are no palpable masses.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy presents with complaints of breast enlargement. Reviewing his medical history, he had mild developmental delay during childhood.
Upon examination, he is tall and slender, with bilateral gynaecomastia and inadequate secondary sexual development, including small testes.
What is the probable cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypogonadism
Explanation:Understanding Klinefelter’s Syndrome
Klinefelter’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects males, characterised by gynaecomastia, typical habitus, developmental delay and hypogonadism. The patient in this scenario is likely to have Klinefelter’s syndrome, as only hypogonadism would account for poor sexual development and undersized testes in combination with gynaecomastia.
It is important to note that the exact diagnosis may not be immediately obvious, but understanding the symptoms and characteristics of Klinefelter’s syndrome can aid in identifying and treating the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and quality of life for individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man is worried about his weight. He has a body mass index of 38 kg/m^2. What is the most appropriate description of his weight?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinically obese (Obese II)
Explanation:Understanding Body Mass Index (BMI)
Body mass index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight (in kilograms) by the height (in metres) squared. BMI is used to determine whether a person is underweight, normal weight, overweight, obese, or morbidly obese.
The old classification of BMI had five categories, ranging from underweight to morbidly obese. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has simplified the classification into three categories: underweight, normal, and overweight. The overweight category includes both obese and clinically obese individuals.
It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fat and doesn’t take into account factors such as muscle mass or body composition. Therefore, it should be used as a general guide and not as a definitive diagnosis. It is always best to consult with a healthcare professional for a more accurate assessment of one’s health status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes associated with obesity would like to participate in an exercise program.
Which of the following would be a relative contraindication to him exercising?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Exercise Recommendations for Different Diabetic Complications
Untreated diabetic proliferative retinopathy can lead to haemorrhage, which is why patients with this condition should avoid strenuous exercise until they have received photocoagulation therapy. On the other hand, exercise is actually encouraged for patients with peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. It is important to understand the different exercise recommendations for various diabetic complications in order to promote optimal health and prevent further complications. By following these guidelines, patients can improve their overall well-being and reduce their risk of developing additional health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalized aches and lack of energy. Her urea and electrolyte concentrations are within normal limits, but her corrected calcium concentration is 1.98 mmol/L (2.2-2.6) and phosphate is low at 0.66 mmol/L (0.8-1.4). Further investigations reveal a 25-hydroxy vitamin D level of 12 IU/L (15-50) and a parathyroid hormone level of 25 (3-6). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Explanation:Vitamin D Deficiency and Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
This patient is experiencing vitamin D deficiency, which is indicated by a low 25-hydroxy vitamin D level and resulting hypocalcaemia. As a metabolic compensation, the patient is experiencing secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is demonstrated by elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. It is important to note that in primary hyperparathyroidism, one would expect an elevated calcium concentration and low phosphate. However, in cases of pseudohypoparathyroidism and pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism, an elevated phosphate would be expected. By understanding the specific metabolic compensations and symptoms associated with different conditions, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male with type 1 diabetes has been diagnosed with microalbuminuria during his yearly check-up. He is aware of other patients with type 1 diabetes who have developed renal failure and required dialysis a few years after being diagnosed with nephropathy. When examining his vascular risk profile, which parameter is most likely to decrease the risk of future renal failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Managing Nephropathy Progression
Tight control of blood pressure and glucose levels is crucial in managing the progression of nephropathy. The recommended target for systolic blood pressure is 130 or less, while the HbA1c target should be less than 53 mmol/mol. Although BMI, diastolic blood pressure, and cholesterol are relevant factors, they are less significant compared to blood pressure and glucose control.
Among all antihypertensives, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) have the strongest evidence for reducing nephropathy progression. Therefore, it is important to prioritize these medications in the management of nephropathy. Proper management of blood pressure and glucose levels, along with the use of ACE inhibitors and ARBs, can significantly slow down the progression of nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with her husband. She has distressing symptoms of sweating, and her husband, while archiving photos from recent years, noticed an increased prominence of her jaw now. Last year she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Other past history of note is that she has recently been operated on for carpal tunnel syndrome.
Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Growth-hormone levels are likely to remain above 1 µg/l after a 75 g glucose load
Explanation:Understanding Acromegaly: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Acromegaly is a condition caused by the overproduction of growth hormone, usually due to a pituitary tumor. A diagnosis is confirmed through an oral glucose tolerance test, as growth hormone levels remain elevated above 1 µg/l. Symptoms include coarse facial features, enlarged hands and feet, and soft tissue swellings. Nerve compression, hypertension, and cardiovascular complications may also occur. Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) levels are elevated in patients with acromegaly and can be used to monitor treatment efficacy. Random growth hormone testing is unsuitable due to episodic secretion. Treatment involves trans-sphenoidal resection of the pituitary tumor. Additionally, some patients with acromegaly may have increased levels of 1,25-OH vitamin D, which can cause hypercalcemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. He is currently on metformin, aspirin, and simvastatin, and there have been no changes to his medication for the past 18 months. As per the latest NICE guidelines, what is the recommended frequency for checking his HbA1c?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 monthly
Explanation:NICE suggests that individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus should have their HbA1c levels checked every six months once their treatment has been stabilized.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a feeling of shortness of breath and choking, on lying down. Some six months earlier she had been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. On examination, she has a goitre. Plain radiography confirms retrosternal extension, which is presumed to be contributing to her shortness of breath. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is less than 0.04 mIU/l (normal range 0.17 - 3.2 mIU/l). Thyroid autoantibodies are negative.
Which of the following diagnoses best fits with this patients clinical picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxic multinodular goitre
Explanation:Toxic multinodular goitre is a condition that commonly affects women over 55 years of age and is more prevalent than Graves’ disease in the elderly. It is characterized by a goitre that obstructs and extends retrosternally, which may cause atrial fibrillation. The preferred treatment is surgery, but the patient should first be made euthyroid with carbimazole. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, is an autoimmune disorder that accounts for 75% of thyrotoxicosis cases. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, diffuse goitre, and eye changes. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is another autoimmune thyroiditis that initially causes hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism. It is characterized by the aggressive destruction of thyroid cells, resulting in a goitre and high levels of autoantibodies against thyroid peroxidase. Thyroglossal cyst is a cyst that forms from a persistent thyroglossal duct and presents as an asymptomatic midline neck mass. Thyroid carcinoma, on the other hand, presents as a non-tender thyroid nodule with normal thyroid function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to an early morning duty appointment with complaints of increasing fatigue, abdominal pain, vomiting, and excessive thirst over the past week. She has a history of well-controlled hypertension with amlodipine and takes atorvastatin. She recently started a six-week course of high-dose colecalciferol, prescribed by another GP, but has only taken one dose so far. On examination, she appears fatigued and drowsy, but her observations are unremarkable. Urgent blood tests are ordered, and the results show a Hb of 124 g/L, platelets of 224 * 109/L, WBC of 6.4 * 109/L, Na+ of 141 mmol/L, K+ of 4.0 mmol/L, urea of 6.9 mmol/L, creatinine of 100 µmol/L, calcium of 3.7 mmol/L, phosphate of 1.1 mmol/L, magnesium of 1.0 mmol/L, and TSH of 3.24 mU/L. Looking back at her blood results from the previous week, her calcium was 2.56 mmol/L, phosphate was 1.2 mmol/L, magnesium was 0.8 mmol/L, and vitamin D was 7 nmol/L. Based on these findings, she is admitted directly under the acute medical team for further management. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:If a patient with coexistent hyperparathyroidism undergoes rapid vitamin D replacement, it can lead to toxicity. In the case of this woman, she requires urgent admission under the medical team due to severe hypercalcaemia. The cause is likely vitamin D toxicity and unidentified primary hyperparathyroidism. Previous blood tests indicate a severe vitamin D deficiency, but her calcium level is at the higher end of normal, suggesting an overactive parathyroid gland that was masked by the low vitamin D. Testing for parathyroid hormone prior to administering vitamin D could have clarified this. It is advisable to seek advice from endocrinology before rapid vitamin D replacement if the baseline corrected calcium is >2.5. While multiple myeloma can cause hypercalcaemia, it doesn’t occur as rapidly. Paget’s disease causes an increased ALP with a normal calcium level, and thyrotoxicosis due to Graves disease can cause hypercalcaemia due to increased bone turnover, but a suppressed TSH would be expected.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old is being initiated on insulin therapy to control his diabetes as his HbA1c levels have been consistently high. He had experienced hypoglycemia four years ago. Additionally, he is taking fluoxetine and atorvastatin. He asks if he can drive to visit his parents.
What would be the appropriate guidance to provide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He must take breaks every 2 hours to check his blood glucose
Explanation:Insulin-dependent diabetics are required to take breaks every 2 hours to check their blood glucose while driving. They must also have hypoglycemia awareness, no severe hypos in the past year, and no visual impairment. It is important to inform the DVLA of their condition. They can still drive a car, but with additional precautions.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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For elderly patients who fast during Ramadan, what is the correct approach to managing type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around 4 out of 5 patients Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan
Explanation:Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.
To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.
Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man is being seen in a diabetes clinic due to poor glycaemic control despite weight loss, adherence to a diabetic diet, and current diabetes medications. He has no significant medical history. What medication could be prescribed to increase his insulin sensitivity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Glitazones act as PPAR-gamma receptor agonists, which helps to decrease insulin resistance in the periphery.
Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications
Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.
While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm a biochemical diagnosis of acromegaly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with GH assay
Explanation:Biochemical Screening for Acromegaly
Acromegaly is a condition caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone (GH). To screen for acromegaly biochemically, an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with GH assay is recommended. In acromegaly, there is a failure to suppress GH to undetectable levels in response to a 75 g oral glucose load. In contrast, the normal response is to decrease GH to <2 mU/l. Increased insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) is not used in the diagnosis of acromegaly, although it is produced in response to GH stimulation. Instead, growth hormone should be indirectly measured via a GH assay. IGF-1 measurement is useful to screen for acromegaly and to monitor the efficacy of therapy. An insulin tolerance test is not used to diagnose acromegaly, but it is considered a gold standard for assessing the integrity of the hypothalamo–pituitary–adrenal axis. In response to insulin-induced hypoglycemia, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and GH are released as part of the stress mechanism. An adequate cortisol response is a rise to 550 nmol/l or more, and an adequate GH response exceeds 20 mU/l. Random GH assay is not useful in the diagnosis of acromegaly because normal subjects have undetectable GH levels throughout the day, and there are pulses of GH that are impossible to differentiate from the levels seen in acromegaly. Following a thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) test, 80% of patients with acromegaly show increased levels of GH. However, a thyroid function test is not used to diagnose acromegaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old woman is found to have osteoporosis following a Colles fracture. Which medication she is taking is most likely to have played a role in causing her osteoporosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lansoprazole
Explanation:Reduced bone mineral density is linked to the prolonged use of proton pump inhibitors.
Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.
If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic with a small ulcer and surrounding erythema on his right great toe.
You have a specialist chiropodist in the same building who cleans and dresses the wound for you. She takes a swab but feels that although the ulcer is infected, the infection is relatively superficial. The swab results show a heavy growth of gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli.
What would be the most suitable antibiotic option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:Treatment options for S. aureus infection
Around 60% or more of S. aureus infections are resistant to amoxicillin, leaving limited options for treatment. Cefuroxime is administered intravenously, while orally delivered vancomycin has little to no systemic bioavailability. The remaining options are flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav, with the latter being the preferred choice due to its activity against both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria, including S. aureus. However, it is important to note that co-amoxiclav should not be used for more than two weeks due to the risk of hepatic dysfunction. Proper treatment and management of S. aureus infections are crucial to prevent complications and ensure a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with extreme lethargy at two weeks after the birth of her third child by emergency Caesarean section. After the birth, she needed a blood transfusion. She complained to the health visitor of increasing problems some seven days earlier but was told that this was to be expected after the birth of her child. She has a sodium concentration of 120 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l), a potassium concentration of 5.6 mmol/l (3.5–5.0 mmol/l) and a urea of 7.5 mmol/l (2.5–6.5 mmol/l.)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sheehan syndrome
Explanation:Sheehan Syndrome: A Rare Cause of Hypopituitarism
Sheehan syndrome is a rare condition that occurs as a result of severe hypotension caused by massive hemorrhage during or after childbirth, leading to necrosis of the pituitary gland. This condition is more common in underdeveloped and developing countries. Patients with Sheehan syndrome have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency, which can present progressively with symptoms such as failure to lactate, breast involution, and amenorrhea.
In this case, the patient suffered from hypotension and blood loss during an emergency Caesarean section, leading to pituitary infarction and symptoms of hypoadrenalism. Treatment includes fluid rehydration and emergency steroid replacement with intravenous hydrocortisone, as well as thyroxine replacement for pituitary-dependent hypothyroidism. Restoration of fertility may require pulsed delivery of pituitary sex-axis hormones.
Other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms, such as dehydration, hypothyroidism, and postnatal depression, were ruled out based on the lack of relevant history and electrolyte abnormalities. While primary adrenal failure can also cause hypoadrenalism, the preceding events make Sheehan syndrome a more likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man, newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, presents for his first assessment. He is found to have changes in his eyes on fundoscopy.
Which of the following options most needs urgent referral to an ophthalmologist?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: New vessels on the disc
Explanation:Interpreting Diabetic Retinopathy Findings: What Requires Urgent Referral?
Diabetic retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. As part of routine eye exams, healthcare professionals may identify various findings in the retina that indicate the presence and severity of diabetic retinopathy. However, not all findings require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some examples:
– New vessels on the disc: These are a sign of proliferative retinopathy and require urgent referral as they can cause bleeding and threaten vision.
– Dot-and-blot haemorrhages: These are a feature of background retinopathy and do not require urgent referral unless they are within one-disc diameter of the fovea. Annual monitoring is recommended.
– Cataract: While cataracts are more common in people with diabetes, routine referral is sufficient if vision is significantly affected.
– Hard exudates > one-disc diameter from the fovea: These are also a feature of background retinopathy and do not require urgent referral.
– Two soft exudates in the temporal field: These cotton-wool spots are not a reason for referral, but referral for review within four weeks is indicated if other signs of pre-proliferative disease are present.Understanding which findings require urgent referral can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for people with diabetic retinopathy and prevent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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One option needs to be selected from the following tumour types that are NOT hormone responsive.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal cell
Explanation:Hormonal Therapy for Metastatic Cancer: A Review of Treatment Options
Hormonal therapy has been used in the treatment of various types of metastatic cancer, but its effectiveness varies depending on the cancer type. In renal cell cancer, hormonal therapy has not shown promising results. However, medroxyprogesterone acetate may be used to treat cancer-related anorexia or loss of appetite.
For metastatic/locally advanced carcinoma of the prostate, testosterone ablation with orchidectomy or anti-androgens can produce a clinical remission in the majority of cases.
In breast cancer, anti-oestrogen therapy with tamoxifen can be effective for oestrogen-receptor positive tumours, which make up 60% of breast tumours.
In metastatic endometrial cancer, progestogens may be effective in 30% of cases.
For high-risk thyroid cancer, thyroxine can be used to suppress thyroid-stimulating hormone.
Overall, hormonal therapy can be a useful treatment option for certain types of metastatic cancer, but it is important to consider the specific cancer type and individual patient factors when determining the most appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding the management of thyrotoxicosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical treatment should be considered for patients with large goitres
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism: Medications, Radio-Iodine, and Surgery
Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone, leading to symptoms such as weight loss, tremors, and tachycardia. Carbimazole and propylthiouracil are medications used to treat hyperthyroidism, but they require monitoring and should be initiated under specialist advice. A β-blocker may also be used to relieve adrenergic symptoms. Treatment is typically on a titration-block or block-and-replace regime, with a remission rate of about 50% after 6-18 months of treatment.
Radio-iodine is another treatment option for hyperthyroidism, particularly for toxic nodular hyperthyroidism or when medical treatment is not effective. However, it is contraindicated in thyroid eye disease and pregnancy, and can lead to hypothyroidism in 80% of patients. There is no increased risk of cancer from radio-iodine treatment.
Surgical treatment by total or near-total thyroidectomy may be necessary for recurrent hyperthyroidism after drug treatment, compression symptoms from a large toxic multinodular goitre, potentially malignant thyroid nodules, or in certain cases of pregnancy or active eye disease.
Overall, treatment options for hyperthyroidism should be carefully considered and discussed with a specialist to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns of feeling constantly overheated and experiencing early menopause. Her husband has also noticed a swelling in her neck over the past few weeks. During the examination, her pulse is recorded at 90/minute and a small, painless goitre is observed. The doctor orders blood tests which reveal the following results:
- TSH < 0.05 mu/l
- Free T4 24 pmol/l
- Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies 102 IU/mL (< 35 IU/mL)
- ESR 23 mm/hr
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Based on the presence of thyrotoxic symptoms, goitre, and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies, the likely diagnosis is
Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs
Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also displays specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.
Graves’ disease is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy reveals a diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine. These features help distinguish Graves’ disease from other causes of thyrotoxicosis and aid in its diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female who saw the nurse a few days ago complaining of longstanding lethargy and vague abdominal pains comes to see you. She has lost a little weight and has also been feeling tearful and 'not herself'. The nurse arranged some blood tests and booked her in with you for review.
She has a past medical history of asthma, migraine and vitiligo. She doesn't take any regular medications and her only recent prescription is for a salbutamol inhaler which she uses infrequently.
On examination, you notice that her palmar creases are pigmented as is her buccal mucosa. Her blood pressure is 108/88 mmHg sitting and 88/62 mmHg standing. Otherwise you cannot elicit any other focal findings.
The blood tests show:
Sodium 131 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 5.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 11.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 96 µmol/L (60-110)
Random glucose 3.1
What is the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Explanation:A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant.
Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a protein pump inhibitor as a precautionary measure?
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 32 year old Welsh woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue and depression that has been ongoing for a month. During her visit, her blood pressure is measured at 126/82 mmHg while lying down and 94/60 mmHg while standing up. Blood tests reveal mild hyponatremia and mild hyperkalemia. The GP orders a short synacthen test, which yields the following results: (expected 30 minute level >580 nmol/l)
Baseline cortisol 300 nmol/l
30 minute cortisol 350 nmol/L
Based on these findings, what is the most likely underlying cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis
Explanation:This individual’s diagnosis of Addison’s disease is confirmed by a failed short synacthen test, which measures the adrenal glands’ response to synthetic adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) analogue.
Autoimmune disease is the leading cause of Addison’s disease in developed countries, while tuberculosis (TB) is the most prevalent cause globally. However, given the patient’s Welsh heritage and lack of TB risk factors, TB is less probable in this scenario. Metastatic disease, amyloidosis, and Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome are all less frequent causes of Addison’s disease.
Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.
Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.
It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male had routine bloods done. He is a known type 2 diabetic and takes metformin 500mg BD and atorvastatin 20 mg ON. His blood results showed cholesterol at 7.2 mmol/L with raised triglycerides. His Hba1c increased from 72 mmol/L three months ago to 81 mmol/L currently. His urea and electrolytes are stable. He reports no significant changes in his diet and is compliant with his medications.
What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase metformin to 500mg TDS and repeat bloods in three months
Explanation:To manage hyperlipidaemia, it is important to address any accompanying hyperglycaemia. The patient’s abnormal cholesterol levels could be a result of his deteriorating diabetic condition. Therefore, the best course of action would be to maintain the current statin dosage and adjust the metformin dosage accordingly. By treating the hyperglycaemia, there is a possibility of improving the patient’s cholesterol levels.
Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines
Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A patient with type 1 diabetes who is 16 years old presents with diarrhoea and vomiting, along with reduced oral intake. In the past day, she has experienced increased thirst and urination. Her capillary blood glucose level is 19 mmol/L, and her blood ketones are 3.6 mmol/L.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis is a condition that can affect both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes patients. It is identified by blood ketone levels of ≥3 mmol/L (or urine ketones of ++ or greater) in individuals with a blood glucose level of ≥11 mmol/L or a known history of diabetes. It is important to check ketones in all diabetic patients who are unwell and admit them to the hospital if their ketone levels are ≥3 mmol/L. Blood ketones are preferred over urine ketones as they provide a more accurate representation of the true blood ketone level. Patients should never discontinue their insulin treatment, even if they are unwell and eating less. During intercurrent illness, they may require higher insulin doses and should have a ‘sick day’ management plan from their diabetes team.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is referred to the Endocrine Clinic with a complaint that his shoe size has gone up from size 9 to size 11 and his wedding ring no longer fits him. He is sweating a lot and his wife complains he is snoring more at night.
What is the most useful test for confirming a diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test with growth-hormone measurements
Explanation:The most reliable test for diagnosing acromegaly is the 75 g oral glucose tolerance test, which measures growth hormone levels. In normal individuals, growth hormone levels decrease below 1.0 µg/l during the test, but in those with acromegaly, they remain elevated due to the antagonistic relationship between insulin and growth hormone. A random growth hormone level is not sufficient for diagnosis as there is a wide range of normal levels and secretion is episodic. MRI scans of the pituitary fossa may show abnormalities, but they are not specific to acromegaly. Serum insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) levels are a recommended initial screening test, as they are highly specific and a normal level usually excludes acromegaly. Skull X-rays may show an enlarged sella turcica, but this is not unique to acromegaly and cannot confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old overweight woman with type 2 diabetes wants to modify her eating habits. What food item has the greatest glycaemic index?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Baked potato
Explanation:Brown rice has a lower glycaemic index (GI) of 58 compared to white rice GI of 87.
Understanding the Glycaemic Index
The glycaemic index (GI) is a measure of how quickly a food raises blood glucose levels compared to glucose in individuals with normal glucose tolerance. Foods with a high GI are believed to increase the risk of obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus due to their association with postprandial hyperglycaemia.
Foods are classified into three categories based on their GI: high, medium, and low. Examples of high GI foods include white rice, baked potatoes, and white bread. Medium GI foods include couscous, boiled new potatoes, and digestive biscuits, while low GI foods include fruits, vegetables, and peanuts.
The GI is expressed as a number in brackets, with glucose having a GI of 100 by definition. Understanding the GI of different foods can help individuals make informed choices about their diet and manage their blood glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the surgery complaining of a productive cough. Upon examination, he has a fever and bronchial breathing in the right lower zone. The working diagnosis is pneumonia and amoxicillin is prescribed with a chest x-ray scheduled for the following day. The patient has a medical history of Addison's disease and takes hydrocortisone (20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the afternoon). What is the best course of action regarding his steroid dosage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Double hydrocortisone to 40 mg mornings and 20 mg afternoon
Explanation:Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 55-year old man visits your clinic with complaints of excessive thirst and frequent urination that have been present for about a month. He has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and is currently on prednisolone. You suspect that he may have developed diabetes mellitus due to his corticosteroid treatment. What is the best method to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Single fasting glucose sample
Explanation:If a HbA1c test is not suitable for diagnosing T2DM, then a fasting glucose sample should be taken instead.
The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman with type I diabetes contacts the clinic for telephone guidance. She has been a diabetic since the age of 12 and is currently on a basal bolus insulin regimen, taking a total of 55 units per day.
She reports experiencing a flu-like illness with symptoms such as fever, myalgia, cough, and slightly looser stools. These symptoms began yesterday, and she feels generally unwell. Although she is not vomiting, she is able to drink adequate amounts of fluids and has been snacking on regular carbohydrates as a substitute for meals.
The reason for her call is that her latest blood glucose reading is 18 mmol/L, which is higher than her usual single-digit readings. Additionally, she has checked her blood ketone level, which is 2.5mmol/L.
What is the most appropriate advice to provide in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce each insulin dose of rapid-acting insulin by 5 units and continue to retest blood glucose and ketone levels every 4 hours. If blood glucose is greater than 20 mmol/L or blood ketones are greater than 3.0 mmol/L she should recontact the surgery or advice
Explanation:Managing Insulin Use in Unwell Diabetic Patients
When it comes to managing diabetic patients taking insulin, Diabetes Specialist Nurses (DSNs) play a crucial role. However, as a healthcare professional, you may not always have exposure to this type of clinical problem, which can lead to de-skilling. Additionally, the Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has identified this area as a particular weakness in past AKT exams, making it important to stay up-to-date on the topic.
One key aspect of counselling diabetic patients who have started insulin is knowing what to do if they become unwell. For type I diabetics, it is essential to check their blood glucose and ketone levels regularly, at least every 4 hours. If the blood glucose level is less than 13 mmol/L and there are no ketones present in the urine (or ketone levels are less than 1.5 mmol/L on blood ketone testing), then insulin should be taken as normal. However, if the blood glucose level is greater than 13 mmol/L and urinary ketones are present (or blood ketone level greater than 1.5mmol/L), then insulin adjustment is necessary. In such cases, the patient requires an additional 10% of their daily insulin dose as rapid-acting insulin every 4 hours, followed by 4-hourly glucose and ketone monitoring to guide ongoing management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents to his GP with complaints of feeling tired and thirsty for the past week. He also reports experiencing vomiting and abdominal pain that started earlier today. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 99/71 mmHg, heart rate is 102/min, respiratory rate is 23/min, temperature is 36.4ºC, and oxygen saturation is 98%. His chest is clear, and his abdomen is soft with mild generalised tenderness. What investigation would be most useful in making a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood glucose (BM)
Explanation:When a patient experiences abdominal pain, it could be an indication of diabetic ketoacidosis. If a young patient is showing signs of lethargy, thirst, vomiting, and abdominal pain, it is important to consider the possibility of DKA. It is crucial to check the patient’s blood glucose level immediately to confirm the diagnosis.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old patient on your practice list has a BMI of 52 kg/m² and is interested in bariatric surgery. They have no co-morbidities or contraindications for surgery.
What should be the next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for bariatric surgery
Explanation:For adults with a BMI greater than 50 kg/m², bariatric surgery can be considered as the first-line option without any restrictions on referral. However, if the patient has medical conditions that are affected by weight, referral for surgery can be considered at a BMI greater than 35 kg/m². The decision to undergo surgery will involve an anaesthetic risk assessment based on various factors. Patients with a BMI greater than 40 kg/m² can be referred for bariatric surgery without the need for a medical condition affected by weight. While a dietary management plan may be beneficial, it is not necessary to delay the request for surgical consideration by another 6 months. Orlistat can be tried while waiting for surgical assessment, but it doesn’t need to delay the referral.
Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management
Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.
There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 155
Incorrect
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Mr. Brent, a 36-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes, comes in for his yearly diabetes check-up. During the discussion of injection technique, he confesses that he only injects insulin into his abdomen because it is the least uncomfortable area. Upon examination of the injection sites, the nurse discovers a pouch of fat on either side of the lower abdomen.
What is the term used to describe this diabetes treatment complication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lipodystrophy
Explanation:Insulin therapy can lead to lipodystrophy, a well-known complication that can result in unpredictable insulin absorption. This condition is caused by repeated injections into the same site, which can alter the subcutaneous fat and affect diabetes management. To prevent lipodystrophy, it is recommended to rotate injection sites. Another skin condition that can occur in patients on insulin is necrobiosis lipoidica, which is characterized by atrophic plaques on the shins. Acanthosis nigricans is another skin manifestation that can be a sign of diabetes, endocrine disorders, or stomach cancer. This condition presents as brown, velvety patches of skin in areas such as the axillae or groin. Finally, intertrigo is a type of inflammation that occurs in skin folds, such as the groin or under the breasts, and is often caused by yeast infections. This condition is more common in diabetics and may be the first sign of type 2 diabetes.
Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.
Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is admitted with a six-week history of proximal muscle weakness. He has been having difficulty climbing stairs and getting up from a sitting position in a chair. He says his alcohol intake is 40 units per week.
Which of the following results is most likely to point to a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abnormal liver function tests and macrocytosis
Explanation:Understanding Proximal Myopathy and its Possible Causes
Proximal myopathy is a condition characterized by weakness in the muscles closest to the body’s core. One possible cause of this condition is alcohol excess, which can lead to abnormal liver function tests and macrocytosis. Patients may underestimate or hide their alcohol consumption levels, making it important for healthcare providers to ask about this history. Chronic myopathy involves a gradual progression, while acute myopathy may follow binge drinking and result in acute renal tubular necrosis.
Thyrotoxicosis and hypothyroidism can also cause proximal myopathy. An elevated TSH and normal free-thyroxine levels may suggest sub-clinical hypothyroidism. Cushing syndrome, indicated by failure to suppress the 0900 h serum cortisol level after an overnight dexamethasone suppression test, can also cause proximal myopathy.
While hypercalcaemia is not a common cause of proximal myopathy, osteomalacia can lead to this condition. Osteomalacia is characterized by low calcium and raised alkaline phosphatase. Rare reports suggest that hyperparathyroidism may also cause proximal myopathy.
High vitamin B12 levels are not typically associated with proximal myopathy. In fact, low vitamin B12 levels, such as those seen in pernicious anaemia, can cause neurological symptoms like peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Excessive alcohol consumption can deplete B12 levels. Understanding the possible causes of proximal myopathy can help healthcare providers diagnose and treat this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is seeking your advice after being diagnosed with diabetes insipidus during an outpatient appointment. He is worried about the diagnosis and wants to discuss its implications. What is the correct statement about diabetes insipidus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluid deprivation followed by desmopressin differentiates the main causes
Explanation:Understanding Diabetes Insipidus: Differentiating Causes and Symptoms
Diabetes insipidus is a condition that can be classified into two major forms: cranial and nephrogenic. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), while nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine due to resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
To differentiate between the two forms, a fluid deprivation test followed by desmopressin administration is conducted. In cranial diabetes insipidus, urine osmolality increases after desmopressin administration, while in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, it remains unchanged.
Contrary to popular belief, drugs can cause diabetes insipidus, with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus being the most common side effect of lithium. Other drugs such as ofloxacin and orlistat have also been implicated.
Hypernatremia may become apparent as dehydration develops, and the predominant manifestations of diabetes insipidus are polyuria, polydipsia, and nocturia. Large volumes of dilute urine are produced, with more than 3 liters in 24 hours and less than 300 mOsm/kg.
In conclusion, understanding the causes and symptoms of diabetes insipidus is crucial in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman presented with complaints of constant fatigue and underwent a blood test. All results were within normal range except for her thyroid function test (TFT) which revealed:
TSH 12.5 mU/l
Free T4 7.5 pmol/l
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levothyroxine 75 mcg daily 30 minutes before breakfast, caffeine and other medication(s)
Explanation:The TFTs indicate a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which can be treated with levothyroxine. Carbimazole is not suitable for this condition as it is used to treat hyperthyroidism. To ensure proper absorption, levothyroxine should be taken 30 minutes before consuming food, caffeine, or other medications.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman has had type 2 diabetes for six years.
She is obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2. There is no family history of diabetes and she is otherwise well. She is highly motivated to gain control of her diabetes. She has managed to lose about 4 kg in weight over the last year with a combination of calorie restriction and exercise; she enjoys swimming and yoga.
Her current medication is:
Metformin 500 mg qds
Gliclazide 80 mg daily
Aspirin 75 mg OD
She says she would prefer not to take any additional medication.
Her BP is 135/90 mmHg. She has a good record of self-monitoring of blood glucose with an average fasting glucose of about 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL). She attends for review and her current HbA1c is 62 mmol/mol (7.8%).
What would be the best advice for this woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase gliclazide
Explanation:Management of Type 2 Diabetes in Adults
According to NICE guidelines, the management of Type 2 diabetes in adults should be based on the effectiveness, safety, and tolerability of drug treatment, as well as the individual’s clinical circumstances, preferences, and needs. In the case of a patient who has had success with lifestyle changes, adding anti-obesity treatment may not be the most appropriate option. Instead, strategies for maintaining the changes already made should be considered. Increasing the dosage of gliclazide may be a better option than increasing Metformin, which can often be difficult for patients to tolerate. However, careful monitoring is necessary as gliclazide can increase weight. Insulin is also an option, but only if the patient is not on maximum oral hypoglycaemic agents. Overall, the management of Type 2 diabetes in adults should be tailored to the individual’s specific circumstances and needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old lady has obesity with a BMI of 37 kg/m2 and her waist measurement is 115 cm (which is very high). She gained most of the weight about 10 years ago and since that time she has tried many different forms of diets and weight-loss clubs. Although she enjoys swimming she is finding it harder to keep up her exercise and walking is restricted to a few hundred metres because of foot pain.
On further questioning, it is evident that her diet is quite reasonable consisting of about 1800 KCal per day. She eats breakfast, bases her meals on starchy foods, eats plenty of fibre and at eats at least five portions of vegetables or fruit per day.
According to NICE guidance on Obesity (CG43), which of the following management strategies would be advisable for this lady?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diet and physical activity, consider drugs
Explanation:NICE Recommendations for Managing Obesity
According to the NICE Obesity (CG189) guidelines, the first step in managing obesity is to classify the level of obesity. This can be done by referring to the BMI classification table, which ranges from healthy weight to Obesity III (BMI of 40 or more). In addition, waist circumference is also taken into consideration.
For a patient with a high waist circumference (>88 cm) and no co-morbidities, the initial management should involve diet and exercise, with the possibility of drug treatment. If the patient’s condition persists for more than 12 weeks, low-calorie diets and bariatric surgery may be considered, but only after specialist referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man visits your clinic with complaints of fatigue, excessive thirst, insomnia, muscle weakness, and constipation. Upon examination, his full blood count, renal function tests, and liver function tests are all normal. However, the following blood test results were obtained:
Calcium 3.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.8 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 11 pmol/L (9.0-18)
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 60 pg/mL (14-65)
Vitamin D 180 ng/ml (≥30)
What is the probable diagnosis of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:The patient is experiencing symptoms of hypercalcaemia and has elevated calcium levels, indicating primary hyperparathyroidism. However, her parathyroid hormone levels are normal, which is unusual as they are typically decreased in the presence of high calcium levels. This rules out secondary hyperparathyroidism caused by another disease. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is also unlikely as PTH levels would be significantly elevated. There is no indication of tuberculosis or bony metastasis, making primary hyperparathyroidism the most probable diagnosis.
Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.
The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.
In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old lady presents for diabetic follow-up. She has been using paracetamol to manage her painful diabetic neuropathy, but her symptoms persist. She requests a stronger medication. None of the following treatments have any contraindications. Based on guidelines, what is the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Neuropathic Pain in Diabetic Patients
According to the NICE guidelines on the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain (CG173), patients with painful diabetic neuropathy should be offered duloxetine, amitriptyline, pregabalin, or gabapentin as first-line treatment. If these medications are contraindicated or not tolerated, capsaicin cream topically may be used for very localized neuropathic pain. Patients should be reviewed early for their symptoms, and treatment should be continued or gradually reduced if symptoms allow. If all the above fail, referral to secondary care is recommended, and adding tramadol while the patient is waiting is worth a try.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female patient visits the GP complaining of daily headaches that last most of the day. Despite this, she is able to carry out her usual activities. She also reports experiencing clumsiness and frequently bumping into objects on the periphery of her vision, which has been gradually worsening. Apart from these symptoms, she feels fine. The patient is currently taking the COCP and mentions that she had infrequent periods before starting it, and had not had a period for about a year. On examination, her BMI is 19kg/m², vital signs are normal, and her neurological examination is unremarkable. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactinoma
Explanation:– Prolactinoma may cause headaches, amenorrhoea, and visual field defects.
– If a person experiences headaches, amenorrhoea, and visual field defects, a possible underlying condition is prolactinoma.Understanding Prolactinoma: A Type of Pituitary Adenoma
Prolactinoma is a type of pituitary adenoma, which is a non-cancerous tumor that develops in the pituitary gland. These tumors can be classified based on their size and hormonal status. Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma and are characterized by the overproduction of prolactin.
In women, excess prolactin can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea. Men with prolactinomas may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhea. Macroadenomas, which are larger tumors, can cause additional symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and signs of hypopituitarism.
Diagnosis of prolactinoma is typically done through MRI imaging. Treatment for symptomatic patients usually involves medical therapy with dopamine agonists like cabergoline or bromocriptine, which inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland. Surgery may be necessary for patients who do not respond to medical therapy or cannot tolerate it. A trans-sphenoidal approach is often preferred for surgical removal of the tumor.
Overall, understanding prolactinoma is important for proper diagnosis and management of this type of pituitary adenoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 164
Incorrect
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One of your elderly patients has been diagnosed with metabolic syndrome. What is one of the associations with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised uric acid levels
Explanation:Understanding Metabolic Syndrome
Metabolic syndrome is a condition that has various definitions, but it is generally believed to be caused by insulin resistance. The American Heart Association and the International Diabetes Federation have similar criteria for diagnosing metabolic syndrome. According to these criteria, a person must have at least three of the following: elevated waist circumference, elevated triglycerides, reduced HDL, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose. The International Diabetes Federation also requires the presence of central obesity and any two of the other four factors. In 1999, the World Health Organization produced diagnostic criteria that required the presence of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, and two of the following: high blood pressure, dyslipidemia, central obesity, and microalbuminuria. Other associated features of metabolic syndrome include raised uric acid levels, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and polycystic ovarian syndrome.
Overall, metabolic syndrome is a complex condition that involves multiple factors and can have serious health consequences. It is important to understand the diagnostic criteria and associated features in order to identify and manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A middle-aged male with type 2 diabetes comes in for a check-up. He is currently on metformin and has a HbA1c of 52. He has experienced multiple episodes of hypoglycemia in the past. The healthcare team decides to prescribe canagliflozin as an additional treatment.
What information should be conveyed to the patient regarding his new medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regularly check your legs for signs of ulcers
Explanation:Patients taking canagliflozin should be closely monitored for any ulcers or infections on their legs and feet, as there is a potential increased risk of amputation. Canagliflozin is a medication that blocks the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased urinary glucose excretion. However, this can also increase the risk of urogenital infections and dehydration. Patients should seek medical attention if they notice any skin discoloration or ulcers.
Before starting treatment with canagliflozin, it is important to monitor renal function and continue to do so annually. While there has been some debate about a potential association between dapagliflozin and bladder cancer, canagliflozin has been deemed safe and effective by NICE as a recommended therapy.
Canagliflozin is generally well-tolerated and doesn’t pose any significant swallowing difficulties. However, some patients may experience a metallic taste disturbance when taking metformin, another commonly prescribed medication for diabetes.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment three months after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. He has a BMI of 31 kg/m2 and has lost 6 kg since his diagnosis. However, his morning blood sugars are still elevated at 10 mmol/l and his HbA1c level is 72 mmol/mol. He also has hypertension and is taking lisinopril, and his triglycerides are high while his HDL cholesterol is low. What would be the best initial therapy option for this patient's diabetes? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Choosing the Best Initial Therapy for Type 2 Diabetes: Metformin
Metformin is the first-line drug of choice for the treatment of type 2 diabetes, particularly in overweight and obese individuals with normal kidney function. It is recommended to start with a dose of 500 mg per day and gradually increase to a total daily dose of 1.5-2 g (divided into morning and evening doses) over a few weeks.
The UKPDS study showed that metformin was superior to sulfonylurea or insulin in reducing macrovascular risk, with a statistically significant risk reduction for myocardial infarction compared to conventional therapy. Metformin works as a partial insulin sensitiser, reducing hepatic glucose output and having anti-inflammatory effects, particularly on plasminogen-activator inhibitor 1 (PAI-1), which is associated with an increased tendency to blood clotting and may increase vascular risk.
While sulfonylureas like gliclazide can be an option if metformin is contraindicated or as a potential adjunct to metformin if diabetic control is not adequate, they have a higher risk of hypoglycaemia. Acarbose delays the digestion and absorption of starch and sucrose, while glibenclamide is a long-acting sulfonylurea that is more likely to cause hypoglycaemia than other sulfonylureas. Pioglitazone is an alternative to metformin if the latter is contraindicated or as a potential adjunct to metformin if diabetic control is not adequate, reducing peripheral insulin resistance and blood glucose concentration.
In summary, metformin is the best initial therapy for type 2 diabetes, with other options available if metformin is contraindicated or if diabetic control is not adequate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man with type 1 diabetes visits the diabetes clinic for his yearly check-up. He possesses a Group 1 driving licence and reports to his specialist that he experienced two episodes of hypoglycaemia, one four months ago and the other one month ago. Both incidents occurred while he was awake after consuming several alcoholic beverages and required assistance from his partner. However, he typically has full hypoglycaemia awareness and practices appropriate glucose monitoring before and during driving. Additionally, he has never experienced hypoglycaemia while driving. What advice should he receive regarding his driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inform DVLA and will need to surrender driving licence
Explanation:A patient with diabetes who has experienced two severe hypoglycaemic episodes requiring assistance must surrender their driving licence and inform the DVLA. Insulin-treated individuals must meet specific criteria to be licensed, including adequate hypoglycaemia awareness, no more than one severe episode in the past 12 months, appropriate glucose monitoring, not being a risk to the public while driving, meeting visual standards, and undergoing regular review. Increasing blood glucose monitoring before and during driving or informing the DVLA for monitoring purposes will not permit the patient to resume driving. If the patient experiences another hypoglycaemic episode within the next two months, they must notify the DVLA, but they would not meet the criteria for licensing if they have had two severe episodes in the past 12 months.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 168
Incorrect
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What criteria must a patient meet to be diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 69-year-old asymptomatic gentleman who is otherwise well who has a one-off random glucose of 11.5 mmol/L
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus
In a patient showing symptoms such as thirst, polyuria, nocturia, and blurred vision, diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed if any of the following criteria are met: HbA1c ≥48 mmol/mol, fasting glucose ≥7.0 mmol/L, OGTT 2 hour value ≥11.1 mmol/L, or random glucose ≥11.1 mmol/L. However, in the absence of classic symptoms or hyperglycaemic crisis, the test(s) should be repeated to confirm the criteria are met before a diagnosis can be made.
The correct answer to diagnose diabetes mellitus is a gentleman who has a raised fasting glucose. Although the fasting glucose on its own is not diagnostic of diabetes mellitus, it would have to be ≥7.0 mmol/L and confirmed on a repeat test. However, the HbA1c is compatible with the diagnosis, and a second HbA1c test confirms the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 169
Incorrect
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You are examining the blood test results of a 40-year-old overweight man who has been experiencing fatigue. All his full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and thyroid function tests were normal. The fasting plasma glucose result is provided below:
Fasting plasma glucose 6.2 mmol/l
What is the most suitable conclusion to draw from this finding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prediabetes - high risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:The individual with a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level ranging from 6.1-6.9 mmol/l is identified as having impaired fasting glycaemia and should be treated as having prediabetes.
The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female presents with similar symptoms as the previous case, including irritability, tremors, unexplained weight loss, diarrhoea, palpitations and fatigue. On examination, her pulse rate is 120/min and regular. Her thyroid gland is also noted to be symmetrically enlarged but non-tender.
Blood tests reveal the following:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.1 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 26 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb) 16 IU/L (<1.7)
What medication can be prescribed to manage the patient's symptoms quickly while she awaits her appointment with the endocrinologist?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Propranolol is an effective non-selective beta-blocker that can be used to control the symptoms of hyperthyroidism in new cases of Graves’ disease. While carbimazole is also an anti-thyroid medication that can improve thyroid levels in the long-term, it may not provide rapid symptom relief compared to beta-blockers. Metoprolol, a selective beta-blocker for beta-1 adrenergic receptors, is not as effective as propranolol in this situation. Propylthiouracil is another anti-thyroid medication that can be used instead of carbimazole, but may not provide quick symptom relief. Radioactive iodine is a specialist treatment option used by endocrinologists for patients who do not respond to anti-thyroid medications, but it doesn’t provide short-term symptom relief.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has a body mass index of 35, hypertension and impaired glucose tolerance. By the time she visits you she has succeeded in losing 3 kg in weight. You decide to give her a trial of orlistat and behavioural therapy.
What is the mode of action of orlistat?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orlistat is a pancreatic and gastric lipase inhibitor
Explanation:Orlistat: A Weight Loss Medication
Orlistat is a medication that inhibits the breakdown and absorption of dietary fat by blocking pancreatic lipase. This means that the fat ingested by a person taking orlistat continues to pass through their gut. However, if the patient doesn’t maintain a low-fat diet, they may experience oily diarrhoea.
Orlistat is typically used in combination with a low-fat diet for individuals with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 or higher, or for those with a BMI of 28 kg/m2 or higher who have other risk factors such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, or hypercholesterolaemia. It is important to note that orlistat should be used in conjunction with other lifestyle measures to manage obesity.
If a person taking orlistat has lost at least 5% of their initial body weight since starting the medication, it may be continued beyond three months. However, treatment should only be continued beyond 12 months, usually to maintain weight loss, after discussing potential benefits and limitations with the patient. It is also important to note that weight loss may gradually reverse upon stopping orlistat.
In conclusion, orlistat is a weight loss medication that can be effective when used in combination with a low-fat diet and other lifestyle measures. However, it is important to discuss the potential benefits and limitations with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to groin abdominal pain. A CT-KUB reveals a right-sided renal calculus. When you clerk her in she admits to you that she has not felt herself for the past few weeks with polyuria, polydipsia, constipation and altered mood.
Blood tests show:
Estimated glomerular filtration rate >60 ml/min
Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l (2.1-2.6 mmol/l)
Phosphate 0.6 mmol/l (0.8-1.4 mol/l)
Parathyroid hormone 5.1 pmol/l (1.2-5.8 pmol/l)
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:In cases of primary hyperparathyroidism caused by parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia, the PTH level may appear normal despite the presence of high serum calcium and low phosphate levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is typically caused by chronic hypocalcemia, resulting in high PTH levels and either low or normal serum calcium levels. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism, which is a result of autonomous parathyroid production, is commonly observed in patients with end-stage renal disease who previously had secondary hyperparathyroidism. While hypercalcemia can also be caused by sarcoidosis and type 1 renal tubular acidosis, these conditions are relatively rare.
Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.
The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.
In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of lethargy, weight gain, and cold intolerance. She had abnormal thyroid function tests 1 year ago. On examination, there are no significant findings. Repeat thyroid function tests are ordered.
1 year ago: Result Reference Range
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.9mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (FT4) 14.2pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
Now:
TSH 6.1mU/L (0.5-5.5)
FT4 17.1pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer a 6-month trial of levothyroxine
Explanation:For patients under 65 years of age with symptoms consistent with hypothyroidism, a 6-month trial of thyroxine should be offered for subclinical hypothyroidism.
Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism
Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men and those with thyroid autoantibodies.
The management of subclinical hypothyroidism depends on the TSH levels and the presence of symptoms. According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, patients with a TSH level greater than 10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels should be considered for levothyroxine treatment. For those with a TSH level between 5.5-10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be offered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms. However, for older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients should have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.
In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent it from progressing to overt hypothyroidism. The decision to treat or not depends on the patient’s age, symptoms, and TSH levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is inaccurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Affects between 2-3% of women of reproductive age
Explanation:Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be related to both hyperinsulinemia and high levels of luteinizing hormone. Symptoms of PCOS include subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.
To diagnose PCOS, a pelvic ultrasound is typically performed to check for multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). A raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature, but it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Prolactin may be normal or mildly elevated, while testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated. However, if testosterone is markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.
To make a formal diagnosis of PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of 12 or more follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries and/or increased ovarian volume greater than 10 cm³.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 30-year old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her facial hirsutism and amenorrhea for the past six months. On examination, she has a BMI of 31 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 140/85 mmHg. She denies the possibility of pregnancy. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma
Explanation:PCOS and Hirsutism: A Common Endocrinopathy in Women
This patient is diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which is the most common endocrinopathy in women of reproductive age. PCOS accounts for 95% of cases of hirsutism presenting to out-patient clinics. The clinical features of PCOS include hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea, which are caused by excessive androgen levels. These symptoms are often worsened by obesity.
When diagnosing hirsutism, it is important to consider other potential causes such as virilising tumours of the ovaries or adrenal gland, Cushing’s syndrome, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. By ruling out these other conditions, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat PCOS and its associated symptoms. Proper management of PCOS can improve quality of life and reduce the risk of long-term complications such as infertility and cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with type I diabetes is diagnosed with microalbuminuria. What is the accurate statement about diabetic nephropathy in patients with type I diabetes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Approximately one in five patients with microalbuminuria will progress to diabetic nephropathy
Explanation:Understanding Diabetic Nephropathy: Myths and Facts
Diabetic nephropathy is a serious complication of diabetes that can lead to renal failure. However, there are several myths and misconceptions surrounding this condition. Here are some important facts to help you better understand diabetic nephropathy:
Myth: Only patients with proteinuria are at risk of developing diabetic nephropathy.
Fact: Microalbuminuria, a small increase in albumin excretion in the urine, is an early sign of diabetic nephropathy. Approximately 40% of patients with type 1 diabetes of 30 years’ disease duration have microalbuminuria. Optimal control of blood pressure, blood glucose, and lipids can help prevent the progression of microalbuminuria to proteinuria.Myth: Aggressive antihypertensive therapy can stop the decline in glomerular filtration rate in patients with proteinuria.
Fact: Even with aggressive antihypertensive therapy, patients with proteinuria still lose glomerular filtration rate at a rate of approximately 4 ml/min/year.Myth: ACE inhibitors are only indicated for patients with proteinuria, not microalbuminuria.
Fact: ACE inhibitors should be started and increased up to the full dose in all adults with diabetic nephropathy, including those with microalbuminuria. ACE inhibitors significantly reduce the risk of all-cause mortality for patients with diabetic kidney disease.Myth: Microalbuminuria, once developed, doesn’t regress.
Fact: In about one-third of cases, microalbuminuria can return to normal.Myth: The combination of proteinuria and hypertension only slightly increases the risk of mortality.
Fact: When proteinuria and hypertension are present, the standardised mortality ratio is increased by 11 times in men and 18 times in women. Many of the deaths are due to cardiovascular disease.Debunking Myths About Diabetic Nephropathy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a BMI of 50 kg/m² comes to you seeking advice on how to lose weight. He has no significant medical history and is not on any regular medication.
As per the latest NICE guidelines on weight loss, what would be your first-line recommendation to him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for consideration of bariatric surgery
Explanation:The latest guidance from NICE recommends bariatric surgery as the primary option for adults with a BMI exceeding 50 kg/m2, rather than lifestyle changes or medication. Therefore, patients falling under this category should be referred for bariatric surgery evaluation.
In cases where the waiting time for surgery is prolonged, drug treatment with orlistat may be prescribed to maintain or reduce weight. Orlistat is approved for adults aged 18-75 years with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more, or a BMI of 28 kg/m2 or more with associated risk factors, when used in conjunction with a mildly hypocaloric diet.
In addition to referral consideration, advising the patient to follow a low-calorie diet and increase physical activity would be beneficial. As this patient is at high risk of developing type 2 diabetes, testing for it may be necessary, but should not delay urgent intervention to reduce their BMI.
Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management
Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.
There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male with a history of osteoarthritis and psoriasis has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. He has expressed reluctance to take medications, but despite dietary changes, his HbA1c has risen to 60mmol/mol. The patient was prescribed standard-release metformin at a dose of 500mg twice daily with meals. However, after two weeks of taking metformin, he reported experiencing severe side effects such as nausea and diarrhea.
What would be the most appropriate course of action in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to a modified release metformin 500mg once per day
Explanation:If the patient experiences gastrointestinal side effects with metformin, it is recommended to try a modified-release formulation before considering a second-line agent. This approach may help alleviate the side effects and allow the patient to continue with metformin therapy. Starting with a low dose of 500mg once daily and gradually increasing the dose based on blood glucose measurements is recommended. Other options such as continuing with lifestyle measures alone, a sub-therapeutic dose of metformin, adding loperamide, or increasing the dose of immediate-release metformin may not effectively address the patient’s intolerable side effects.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. Initial tests show an increased serum calcium level. The physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most beneficial tumour marker investigation for this patient? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
Explanation:Tumour Markers and their Clinical Applications
Monoclonal antibodies are utilized to detect serum antigens associated with specific malignancies. These tumour markers are most useful for monitoring response to therapy and detecting early relapse. However, with the exception of PSA, tumour markers do not have sufficient sensitivity or specificity for use in screening.
PSA, or prostate specific antigen, is a useful marker for screening for prostate cancer, although population screening is controversial. It can also be used to detect recurrence of the malignancy and is useful in the investigation of adenocarcinoma of unknown primary. Hypercalcaemia and bone pain may suggest metastatic carcinoma, which is common in prostate cancer.
CA 19-9, AFP, beta-HCG, and CEA are other tumour markers that are used for different types of cancer. CA 19-9 is helpful in establishing the nature of pancreatic masses, AFP is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma, beta-HCG is used in the diagnosis and management of gestational trophoblastic disease and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours of the testes, and CEA is used to detect relapse of colorectal cancer.
In conclusion, tumour markers have various clinical applications in the diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of cancer. However, their sensitivity and specificity may vary, and they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tools for accurate diagnosis and management of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old female presents to you with recent test results. She had a fall a few months ago resulting in a Colles' fracture of her right wrist. A DEXA scan has confirmed that she has osteoporosis. She mentions that she has lost over a stone in weight in the past year despite having a good appetite and wonders if her weight loss could be contributing to her 'thin bones'. She also reports a change in bowel habit with looser stools, but no rectal bleeding or alternating bowel habit. She experiences frequent hot flashes and sweating episodes, and her periods have become less frequent. On examination, her blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, pulse rate is 98 bpm regular, and she is apyrexial. Palpating her radial pulse reveals palmar erythema, warm peripheries, and a slight tremor. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses, and per rectal examination is normal.
What investigation would confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Secondary Causes of Osteoporosis
There are various secondary causes that should be considered when diagnosing osteoporosis. While primary osteoporosis occurs naturally with age and menopause, certain risk factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, family history, and low body mass index can exacerbate bone density loss. However, secondary causes can be treated specifically, making it important to identify them.
Endocrine causes such as hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, hypogonadism, Cushing’s syndrome, and premature menopause can lead to osteoporosis. Inflammatory causes like rheumatoid arthritis and inflammatory bowel disease, iatrogenic causes such as the use of steroids, anticonvulsants, and heparin, malignant causes like myeloma and leukaemias, and gastrointestinal causes like malabsorption problems can also contribute to osteoporosis.
For instance, a woman of menopausal age with osteoporosis confirmed on DEXA scanning following a Colles’ fracture reports weight loss, looser stools, sweating episodes, and oligomenorrhoea. Clinical examination reveals a modest tachycardia, warm peripheries, palmar erythema, and a tremor. In this case, hyperthyroidism is suspected as the cause of osteoporosis at a relatively young age and the signs and symptoms elicited. Therefore, thyroid function tests will confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking advice. She has been experiencing excessive sweating, palpitations, and weight loss for the past six months and is now experiencing a headache. During her examination, her blood pressure is found to be 230/130 mmHg with a postural drop to 180/110 mmHg, her pulse is bounding and regular at 115/minute, and she has a tremor and appears pale. What is the most appropriate investigation to perform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24 hour urinary vanillyl mandelic acid (VMA)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Phaeochromocytoma: Understanding the Importance of 24-Hour Urinary VMA
Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour of the adrenal medulla that secretes catecholamines, causing life-threatening hypertension and cardiac arrhythmias. To diagnose this condition, it is crucial to understand the importance of 24-hour urinary vanillyl mandelic acid (VMA) levels, which are elevated in patients with tumours that secrete catecholamines.
Patients with phaeochromocytoma may experience intermittent symptoms such as headache, profuse sweating, palpitations, and tremor, which tend to get more frequent and severe over time. Hypertension, which is often paroxysmal, and postural hypotension are also common features. A sinus tachycardia may also be present, causing palpitations.
Other diagnostic tests, such as renal function tests, aldosterone and renin levels, full blood count, and thyroid function tests, may be useful in ruling out other conditions that share similar clinical features. However, the severe hypertension alongside a typical history of phaeochromocytoma would require urinary VMA levels for diagnosis.
In conclusion, understanding the importance of 24-hour urinary VMA levels is crucial in diagnosing phaeochromocytoma, a rare but potentially life-threatening condition. Early diagnosis and treatment can lead to a cure, making this diagnostic test a vital tool in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 182
Incorrect
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You advise a 50-year-old man that he needs to have a colonoscopy because of persistent abdominal discomfort. He has a history of ulcerative colitis.
What advice do you give regarding his mesalamine dosage on the day of the colonoscopy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Double the oral dose after the procedure
Explanation:Management of Addison’s Disease
For minor surgeries like barium enema, endoscopy, and cataract surgery, the standard approach is to administer 50-100 mg of hydrocortisone orally or parenterally just before the procedure. There should be no change in dosage, but acute management doses should be used for major surgeries. After the surgery, patients should return to their normal daily medication.
However, questions about the management of Addison’s disease are often poorly answered. It is essential to familiarize oneself with the sick day rules to know when to double the dose of hydrocortisone, when to administer IM hydrocortisone, and how much to give. It is also important to note that some formulations are not suitable, and it is usually the hydrocortisone that is increased. Additionally, knowing what to do if a patient with Addison’s starts vomiting is crucial. These are all important learning points that fall under the less common but potentially catastrophic if missed in primary care category.
In summary, managing Addison’s disease requires a thorough understanding of the sick day rules and the appropriate administration of hydrocortisone. Being prepared for potential complications is crucial for providing optimal care to patients with Addison’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 183
Incorrect
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What is the most appropriate next step in managing a patient with erectile dysfunction who has a reduced morning serum total testosterone level?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action
Explanation:Testing for Reduced Serum Testosterone
Patients who exhibit symptoms of reduced serum testosterone should undergo a repeat test, preferably in the morning, along with FSH, LH, and prolactin. This helps determine which part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis is affected. It is crucial to take action as the patient may have an underlying endocrinological cause. If the repeat test shows abnormal results, referral to a secondary care physician is necessary. The physician may then consider treatments such as testogel or nebido.
In summary, testing for reduced serum testosterone is essential in diagnosing and treating patients with symptoms of low testosterone levels. A repeat test, along with other hormone tests, can help identify the root cause of the problem and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is evaluated after being diagnosed with hypertension. As part of his assessment, he underwent a series of blood tests to screen for other risk factors:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 3.9 mmol/l
Urea 6.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 91 µmol/l
Fasting glucose 7.7 mmol/l
Total cholesterol 7.2 mmol/l
Upon seeing the fasting glucose result, you order a HbA1c:
HbA1c 31 mmol/mol (5.0%)
What could account for the discrepancy between the HbA1c and fasting glucose levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia
Explanation:Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in red blood cells at a rate proportional to the concentration of glucose in the blood. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous three months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, and then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose levels.
The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c, which reports HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached. The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, one can calculate the average plasma glucose level by using the formula: average plasma glucose = (2 * HbA1c) – 4.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman is curious about maintaining a healthy diet. She currently weighs 106 Kg and stands at a height of 1.76m. What is her approximate body mass index (BMI) rounded to the nearest decimal point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 28
Explanation:BMI Calculation and Interpretation
Body: Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight in kilograms by the square of the height in meters. For instance, if a person weighs 106 kilograms and is 1.76 meters tall, their BMI would be 34.22 kg/m2. This value falls within the obese range, indicating that the person may have an increased risk of developing health problems such as heart disease, diabetes, and high blood pressure. It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fatness and should be used in conjunction with other health indicators to assess an individual’s overall health status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 45 year-old man complains of constant fatigue. Despite his tanned appearance, he denies having been on vacation. During examination, pigmentation is noted on the palmar creases and buccal mucosa.
What underlying condition could be responsible for these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Addison's disease
Explanation:Addison’s disease is a condition where the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. The symptoms may start slowly and include fatigue. One common sign is hyperpigmentation, which affects areas such as skin creases, the inside of the cheeks, and scars. This happens because the hormone ACTH, which is made by the pituitary gland to stimulate the adrenals, has a similar precursor molecule to MSH, a hormone that affects skin color. As a result, increased ACTH levels can cause higher MSH levels and skin darkening. In cases of kidney failure, the skin may appear yellowish or pale due to anemia.
Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.
Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.
It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has a body mass index of 28 kg/m2, an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 30 ml/min/1.73 m2 and he has 1+ protein on urinalysis. He has a past history of heart failure.
What is the most appropriate initial medication to be prescribed for this patient? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Common Medications for Type 2 Diabetes: Mechanisms and Considerations
Gliclazide is a sulfonylurea medication commonly used for type 2 diabetes mellitus. It works by increasing insulin release from the pancreas and can be used in mild to moderate renal failure. Acarbose, on the other hand, is an intestinal alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that delays the digestion and absorption of starch and sucrose, resulting in lower blood glucose levels. Glibenclamide, a long-acting sulfonylurea, is associated with a higher risk of hypoglycemia and should be avoided in the elderly. Metformin, a biguanide, reduces insulin resistance and hepatic glucose production but can cause lactic acidosis in certain circumstances and is contraindicated in patients with renal or hepatic impairment. Pioglitazone, a thiazolidinedione, promotes insulin sensitivity but is contraindicated in heart failure due to its association with fluid retention. When prescribing these medications, it is important to consider their mechanisms of action and potential risks in patients with comorbidities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes is rushed into the emergency room by her father as she is extremely restless. He suspects that she is experiencing a 'hypo' and has attempted to give her sugary drinks and snacks, but to no avail. The child is uncooperative and agitated. Upon examination, she appears sweaty and anxious, but her airways are clear and she is breathing normally. Physical examination is unremarkable, and her vital signs are normal. A blood glucose test reveals a reading of 3.2 mmol/L. The child weighs 20kg. What is the next course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer glucagon 500 mcg IM STAT
Explanation:In the case of a child weighing 25kg or less experiencing hypoglycaemia, glucagon 500 mcg should be given via IM if oral treatment is not possible or ineffective. Hypoglycaemia is clinically defined as a blood glucose level below 3.5 mmol/L, which is the case for this child. Despite the mother’s attempts at oral treatment, the child has not improved, making it necessary to administer glucagon to prevent further deterioration. Once the child is stable, it is advisable to contact the paediatric team for further evaluation and management.
Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management
Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.
Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.
Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 189
Incorrect
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The Chief Medical Officer released guidelines in 2015 regarding vitamin D supplementation. What recommendations should be provided to caregivers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All children aged between 6 months and 5 years should be given vitamin D supplementation
Explanation:Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman who was diagnosed with primary atrophic hypothyroidism 6 months ago has undergone recent thyroid function tests (TFTs):
TSH 10.8 mU/l
Free T4 15 pmol/l
She is currently prescribed 50mcg of levothyroxine daily. What is the interpretation of these results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Poor compliance with medication
Explanation:The high TSH level indicates a recent deficiency of thyroxine in her body. However, her free T4 level is normal. It is probable that she began taking thyroxine correctly just before the blood test, which would have restored the thyroxine level. Nevertheless, it takes longer for the TSH level to return to normal.
Understanding Thyroid Function Tests
Thyroid function tests are used to diagnose thyroid disorders such as hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. The interpretation of these tests is usually straightforward. In cases of thyrotoxicosis, such as Graves’ disease, the TSH level will be low and the free T4 level will be high. In primary hypothyroidism, the TSH level will be high and the free T4 level will be low. In cases of secondary hypothyroidism, both TSH and free T4 levels will be low, and replacement steroid therapy is required prior to thyroxine.
Sick euthyroid syndrome, now referred to as non-thyroidal illness, is common in hospital inpatients and is characterized by low levels of both TSH and free T4. T3 levels are particularly low in these patients. Subclinical hypothyroidism is characterized by high TSH levels and normal free T4 levels. Poor compliance with thyroxine can also result in high TSH levels and normal free T4 levels. Steroid therapy can result in low TSH levels and normal free T4 levels.
It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Understanding the results of thyroid function tests can help diagnose and manage thyroid disorders effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism is admitted to the Emergency Department after experiencing chest pain. He is diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome and iron-deficiency anemia. A percutaneous coronary intervention is performed, and a coronary artery stent is inserted. Endoscopies of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract are performed and reported as normal. Upon discharge, he is prescribed aspirin, clopidogrel, ramipril, lansoprazole, simvastatin, and ferrous sulfate in addition to his regular levothyroxine. Six weeks later, he reports feeling constantly fatigued to his GP, who orders routine blood tests:
Hb 11.9 g/dl
Platelets 155 * 109/l
WBC 5.2 * 109/l
Free T4 8.1 pmol/l
TSH 8.2 mu/l
The patient's TSH had been within range for the past two years prior to his recent admission. Which of the newly prescribed drugs is most likely responsible for the elevated TSH?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferrous sulphate
Explanation:To avoid reduced absorption of levothyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be administered four hours apart.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her mother regarding her growth. She has always been one of the shorter children in her class, but recently has been the subject of bullying and has become very unhappy. Her parents are convinced there is something wrong and would like something to be done. She was born at term without any antenatal complications and her length at birth was on the 50th centile. She has only been seen for vaccinations and minor childhood ailments and takes no regular medications. Her height today is on the 9th centile and her weight on the 75th. Cardiovascular and abdominal examination is normal, with no signs of precocious puberty.
Select from the list the most appropriate initial management.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check thyroid function
Explanation:Investigating a Drop in Centiles for Height: Possible Causes and Referral to an Endocrinologist
When a child’s height drops in centiles without an obvious cause, it is important to investigate the underlying reason. One possible cause that should be excluded is hypothyroidism, which can be determined through testing. X-rays can also be helpful in determining bone age. If there is a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, a renal ultrasound may be recommended.
If a child’s growth persists along one of the lower centiles, constitutional short stature may be suggested, but if there has been a drop in centiles, this is unlikely. In such cases, referral to an endocrinologist is likely necessary.
Congenital hypothyroidism is screened for at birth, but acquired hypothyroidism in childhood and adolescence is often caused by lymphocytic (Hashimoto’s) thyroiditis. The first signs are often a slowing of growth, which may go unnoticed, followed by other typical signs of hypothyroidism such as skin changes, cold intolerance, sleepiness, and low energy. Delayed puberty is common in adolescence, but younger children may experience galactorrhea or precocious puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 68-year old woman with type 2 diabetes attends annual review at the GP practice. She currently takes lisinopril 10 mg OM, atorvastatin 20 mg ON, metformin 1 g BD, pioglitazone 45 mg OM and gliclazide 80 mg OM.
You discuss her progress and she tells you that she has episodes in the late morning where she feels generally out of sorts with lightheadedness and has had some blurred vision. She has checked her blood sugar during one of these episodes and it is 2.5 mmol/L (3-6).
Which one of her medicines is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin
Explanation:Understanding the Cause of Hypoglycaemic Episodes
This patient is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes that are causing symptoms of blurred vision and lightheadedness. The most likely cause of these episodes is the sulphonylurea medication. Sulphonylureas stimulate insulin secretion, which can lead to significant problems with hypoglycaemia. On the other hand, metformin increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, while pioglitazone reduces insulin resistance. Hypoglycaemia is uncommon with these medications. The ACE inhibitor or statin would not be a factor in this presentation.
Gliclazide is a good choice of sulphonylurea as it is often the longer acting agents such as glibenclamide that cause more profound and severe problems with hypoglycaemia. However, it is important to note that all sulphonylureas carry the risk of hypoglycaemia. Understanding the cause of hypoglycaemic episodes is crucial in managing diabetes and ensuring the safety of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated for exenatide treatment. What is not included in the NICE guidelines for initiating or maintaining this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has failed with insulin therapy
Explanation:Prior insulin use is not a requirement for patients to use exenatide.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male complains of low mood, numbness in his left hand especially at night, and has recently gained 8 kg in weight. He has noticed that his periods have become heavier over the last four months and now lasts for 8-11 days each month. There is a history of type 2 diabetes in his family. During examination, his BMI is 31.
What is the most suitable test to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LH/FSH ratio
Explanation:Hypothyroidism as a Possible Cause of Weight Gain, Menorrhagia, and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
The combination of weight gain, menorrhagia, and carpal tunnel syndrome in a patient is highly suggestive of hypothyroidism. While the patient may also be at risk of type 2 diabetes due to her obesity, it is not the primary cause of her symptoms. The most common cause of hypothyroidism in the UK population is autoimmune lymphocytic thyroiditis. Treatment for this condition typically involves thyroid hormone replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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Mrs. Bowls is a 65-year-old patient who presents with her ankles 'going into spasm' when using the pedals of her car over the past couple of days. She also reports a slight tingling in her hands and feet. Apart from this, she has been well recently, with no other new symptoms. Her past medical history includes type 2 diabetes and dyspepsia. Her regular medications include metformin, sitagliptin, omeprazole, atorvastatin, and she uses sodium alginate with potassium bicarbonate after meals and before bed as required. You arrange some urgent blood tests, suspecting an electrolyte disturbance. These come back showing hypomagnesaemia.
Which of her medications should you stop?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Hypomagnesaemia is often caused by proton pump inhibitors.
Omeprazole: correct answer. Proton pump inhibitors are recognized as a common cause of hypomagnesaemia. The MHRA recommends considering testing magnesium levels before starting treatment and regularly during long-term use. However, in reality, this is likely to be infrequently carried out.
Metformin: incorrect answer. Metformin can reduce the absorption of vitamin B12. Sitagliptin, atorvastatin, and sodium alginate with potassium bicarbonate do not lead to hypomagnesaemia.
Understanding Hypomagnesaemia
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the body. This can be caused by various factors such as the use of certain drugs like diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitleman’s and Bartter’s can also contribute to the development of this condition. Symptoms of hypomagnesaemia may include paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, arrhythmias, and decreased PTH secretion, which can lead to hypocalcaemia. ECG features similar to those of hypokalaemia may also be present, and it can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
Treatment for hypomagnesaemia depends on the severity of the condition. If the magnesium level is less than 0.4 mmol/L or if there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. If the magnesium level is above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts can be given in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts, so it is important to monitor for this side effect. Understanding the causes and treatment options for hypomagnesaemia can help individuals manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is concerned about her blood sugar levels and seeks advice. What is the target blood sugar level before meals and at other times of the day (excluding mornings)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4-7 mmol/l
Explanation:Blood glucose targets in individuals with type 1 diabetes:
Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines
The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. The condition can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and is associated with micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide useful information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.
One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be taken into account. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also important, with a recommended frequency of at least 4 times a day, including before meals and before bed. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.
When it comes to insulin, NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens over twice-daily mixed insulin regimens for all adults. Twice-daily insulin detemir is the preferred regime, with once-daily insulin glargine or insulin detemir as an alternative. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins for mealtime insulin replacement.
Finally, NICE recommends considering adding metformin if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher. These guidelines provide a useful framework for managing type 1 diabetes and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a three-month history of weight loss, sweating, increased appetite and palpitations. She also reports that her periods have become irregular but has no previous history of note. On examination, you note a fine tremor and a resting pulse rate of 110 bpm.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Distinguishing Hyperthyroidism from Other Conditions
Hyperthyroidism is a common condition that presents with a variety of symptoms, including weight loss, heat intolerance, and muscle weakness. It is typically caused by Graves’ disease or multinodular goitre. In contrast, carcinoid syndrome is a rare condition associated with carcinoid tumours that primarily affect the midgut. Symptoms of carcinoid syndrome include flushing, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Hypothyroidism, on the other hand, results in weight gain, dry skin, and a slow resting pulse. New-onset type 1 diabetes mellitus typically presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, while polycystic ovarian syndrome is characterized by obesity, oligomenorrhoea, and signs of hyperandrogenism. By understanding the unique symptoms of each condition, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat patients with hyperthyroidism.
Distinguishing Hyperthyroidism from Other Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who presents to you with a sore throat, cough and muscle pain that has been going on for 3 days. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension and is currently on a twice daily insulin regimen.
After conducting a thorough assessment, you inform Sophie that she is likely suffering from the flu and recommend that she rest, take regular paracetamol and increase her fluid intake.
Given her condition, what is the most appropriate advice to provide Sophie regarding her insulin management during her illness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue his normal insulin regime and check blood sugars frequently
Explanation:When a patient with insulin-dependent diabetes falls ill, they should not stop taking their insulin as it could lead to diabetic ketoacidosis. Instead, they should continue with their regular insulin regimen and monitor their blood sugar levels frequently, at least every four hours during the day.
It is not advisable for the patient to check their blood sugar levels before each insulin dose as it would require careful titration and depend on their food intake, which may not be practical or safe in this situation.
Doubling the patient’s insulin dose is not recommended as it could increase the risk of hypoglycemia, especially if they have reduced oral intake due to feeling unwell.
Managing Diabetes Mellitus during Illness: Sick Day Rules
When a patient with diabetes mellitus becomes unwell, it is important to provide them with key messages to manage their condition. Increasing the frequency of blood glucose monitoring to at least four hourly is crucial, as well as encouraging fluid intake of at least 3 litres in 24 hours. If the patient is struggling to eat, sugary drinks may be necessary to maintain carbohydrate intake. Educating patients to have a box of sick day supplies can also be helpful. Access to a mobile phone has been shown to reduce the progression of ketosis to diabetic ketoacidosis.
Patients taking oral hypoglycemic medication should continue taking their medication even if they are not eating much. However, metformin should be stopped if the patient is becoming dehydrated due to its potential impact on renal function. Patients on insulin must not stop taking it, as this can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis. They should continue their normal insulin regime and check their blood sugars frequently. If ketone levels are raised and blood sugars are also raised, corrective doses of insulin may be necessary. The corrective dose varies by patient, but a rule of thumb is the total daily insulin dose divided by 6 (maximum 15 units).
Possible indications for hospital admission include suspicion of underlying illness requiring hospital treatment, inability to keep fluids down for more than a few hours, persistent diarrhea, significant ketosis in an insulin-dependent diabetic despite additional insulin, blood glucose persistently >20mmol/l despite additional insulin, patient unable to manage adjustments to usual diabetes management, and lack of support at home (e.g., a patient who lives alone and is at risk of becoming unconscious). By following these sick day rules, patients with diabetes mellitus can better manage their condition during illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 200
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A 65-year-old man has been treated for prostate cancer and is currently receiving 3 monthly injections of a gonadorelin analogue. He has been experiencing bothersome hot flashes and seeks your advice. According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended treatment for this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate
Explanation:For the management of hot flashes in men undergoing hormonal treatment for prostate cancer, NICE suggests the use of cyproterone acetate, while the use of other medications is not recommended.
Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.
In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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