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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old male with depression is evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male with depression is evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses his ongoing depressed mood and shares with his psychiatrist that he experiences a sense of detachment from reality.

      Which term best describes the abnormality exhibited by the patient?

      Your Answer: Derealisation

      Correct Answer: Depersonalisation

      Explanation:

      Depersonalisation and Derealisation

      Depersonalisation and derealisation are two distinct experiences that can occur in individuals with mental health conditions. Depersonalisation refers to the feeling that one’s own self is not real, while derealisation refers to the feeling that the world around them is not real.

      In depersonalisation, individuals may feel as though they are observing themselves from outside of their body or that they are disconnected from their thoughts and emotions. This can be a distressing experience and may lead to feelings of detachment and isolation.

      On the other hand, derealisation can cause individuals to feel as though the world around them is unreal or dreamlike. This can lead to feelings of confusion and disorientation, as well as difficulty with concentration and memory.

      It is important to note that these experiences can occur in a variety of mental health conditions, including anxiety, depression, and dissociative disorders. While anhedonia, delusions of guilt, and reduced affect display may be present in some individuals with depression, they are not necessarily associated with depersonalisation or derealisation.

      Overall, these experiences can help individuals and their loved ones better recognize and manage symptoms of mental illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman contacts her doctor seeking guidance on stopping all of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman contacts her doctor seeking guidance on stopping all of her medications abruptly. She has a medical history of asthma, depression, and occasional tennis elbow pain, for which she takes a salbutamol inhaler, citalopram, and paracetamol, respectively. What is the most probable outcome if she discontinues her medications suddenly?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      When it comes to discontinuing medication, it’s important to note the specific drug being used. Abruptly stopping a salbutamol inhaler or paracetamol is unlikely to cause any adverse effects. However, stopping a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) like citalopram can lead to discontinuation symptoms. Gastrointestinal side-effects, such as diarrhoea, are commonly seen in SSRI discontinuation syndrome. To avoid this, it’s recommended to gradually taper off SSRIs. Blunted affect is not likely to occur as a result of sudden discontinuation, but emotional lability and mood swings may be observed. Cyanopsia, or blue-tinted vision, is not a known symptom of SSRI discontinuation, but it can be a side effect of other drugs like sildenafil. While hypertension has been reported in some cases, it’s less common than gastrointestinal symptoms. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is often reported upon sudden discontinuation of SSRIs.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman returns to your clinic complaining of constant feelings of sadness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman returns to your clinic complaining of constant feelings of sadness, loss of appetite, insomnia, and a lack of enjoyment in anything. Despite making lifestyle changes and setting small goals, she still feels hopeless and requests medication. You decide to prescribe sertraline. What drug should be avoided in patients taking an SSRI?

      Your Answer: Levothyroxine

      Correct Answer: Sumatriptan

      Explanation:

      Patients who are taking a SSRI should not use triptans.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A mental state examination is conducted on a 30-year-old individual. When asked about...

    Incorrect

    • A mental state examination is conducted on a 30-year-old individual. When asked about their activities during the week, they begin discussing their job, then transition to their passion for writing, followed by reminiscing about their favorite literature teacher from school, and finally discussing the death of their childhood dog and how it relates to their current writing project. Although their speech is at a normal pace, they never fully answer the question about their recent activities. What can be said about this individual's behavior?

      Your Answer: Knight's move thinking

      Correct Answer: Tangentiality

      Explanation:

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatric ward by her family due...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatric ward by her family due to concerns about her behavior. During your conversation with her, you observe that she speaks rapidly and does not allow you to interrupt her. She frequently changes the subject, but you can discern connections between them. What psychiatric disorder is most commonly associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      Mania is often characterized by flight of ideas, which is when a person speaks rapidly and jumps between different topics. This is a common symptom of bipolar disorder. It is important to differentiate flight of ideas from Knight’s move thinking, which is associated with schizophrenia. In flight of ideas, there are identifiable connections between the topics that the person jumps between, while in Knight’s move thinking, there are no apparent connections between the topics. This is referred to as loosening of association.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A man has been hospitalised for severe psychiatric disease. The patient is unable...

    Incorrect

    • A man has been hospitalised for severe psychiatric disease. The patient is unable to form new memories and, as such, is stuck in 1992, believing that the Gulf War is ongoing. He has been hospitalised since 1993. He is unaware of his memory problem and confabulates his story when you try to point out the discrepancies between his stories and reality. He is able to remember everything up until 1992 without any problem.
      Which of the following is the most likely aetiology of his disorder?

      Your Answer: Conversion disorder

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Common Nutrient Deficiencies and Associated Neurological Disorders

      Vitamin B1 Deficiency:
      Korsakoff’s amnesia is a severe neurological disorder caused by a deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1). This condition is commonly seen in chronic alcoholics and is characterized by anterograde amnesia, confabulations, and bilateral loss of the mammillary bodies in the brain. Thiamine deficiency can also lead to beriberi, which presents with polyneuritis and symmetrical muscle wasting in the dry form and dilated cardiomyopathy in the wet form.

      Vitamin B6 Deficiency:
      Vitamin B6 is essential for GABA synthesis, and its deficiency can lead to convulsions, neuropathy, and hyperirritability.

      Conversion Disorder:
      Conversion disorder is a neurological condition characterized by the presence of a deficit, such as paralysis or numbness, without any identifiable somatic cause. Patients are usually unconcerned about the symptom but are aware of the problem.

      Vitamin B12 Deficiency:
      Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic megaloblastic anemia, subacute combined neurodegeneration, and glossitis.

      Vitamin C Deficiency:
      Vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, and its deficiency can lead to scurvy, which presents with swollen gums, easy bruising, anemia, and poor wound healing.

      Nutrient Deficiencies and Associated Neurological Disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man has been hospitalized following an overdose. What is the most...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man has been hospitalized following an overdose. What is the most significant indicator of an increased likelihood of future suicide?

      Your Answer: Making plans before the overdose to avoid discovery

      Explanation:

      Factors indicating high risk of suicide

      The concealment of an overdose indicates a serious intent to complete suicide, more so than other options. However, a previous history of overdoses does not necessarily imply a more serious intent. Other factors that may suggest a higher risk of suicide include being male, elderly, and having a mental illness.

      According to the Assessment of Suicide Risk clinical guide, protective factors against suicide include religious beliefs, social support, and being responsible for children. While being responsible for children is an important point to note in the management plan for a suicidal patient, it is not a factor that indicates a high risk of suicide.

      It is crucial to identify the factors that suggest a high risk of suicide in order to provide appropriate care and management for the patient. However, it is also important to consider the patient’s wider circumstances and any protective factors that may be present. By taking a comprehensive approach, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for patients at risk of suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old accountant comes to see you for a follow-up review 2 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old accountant comes to see you for a follow-up review 2 weeks after presenting with symptoms suggesting low mood. He had felt ‘down’ for several weeks, no longer enjoyed work or seeing friends and was sleeping more than usual. Despite this, he had a normal appetite, a strong sense of self-worth, denied any thoughts of self-harm or suicide and came across as reasonably active and lively. He says that he feels very anxious on Sunday evenings before going to work on a Monday and is getting increasingly ‘short and snappy’ with his colleagues. However, he says that work is otherwise going well and he is managing to get through the day. He does not feel any better at today’s consultation and is requesting advice about treatment options. He says he is ‘not a tablet person’.
      What should you advise?

      Your Answer: A combination of referral for group CBT and treatment with an SSRI antidepressant for 6 months

      Correct Answer: A trial of computer-based cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) or peer support

      Explanation:

      For a patient with mild depression symptoms, the recommended first-line treatment is low-intensity psychosocial interventions such as computer-based CBT, group-based CBT, or peer support groups performing physical activity programs. If the patient prefers non-pharmacological treatment, antidepressants should not be used as first-line. Benzodiazepines should be avoided due to their addictive potential and side-effect profile. In the presence of both depression and anxiety, depression should be treated first according to NICE guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his psychiatrist as an outpatient. During the review, the psychiatrist observes that the patient's speech mostly follows a logical sequence, but at times, the patient uses a seemingly inappropriate series of rhyming words. For instance, when asked about his activities the previous day, he responded, I went for a run, had some fun, saw the sun, and then I was done.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the speech abnormality exhibited by the patient?

      Your Answer: Word salad

      Correct Answer: Clanging

      Explanation:

      Language Disturbances in Mental Illness

      Clanging, echolalia, neologism, perseveration, and word salad are all language disturbances that may occur in individuals with mental illness. Clanging is the use of words that sound similar but are not related in meaning. This is often seen in individuals experiencing mania or psychosis. Echolalia is the repetition of words or phrases spoken by others. Neologism is the creation of new words that are not part of standard language. Perseveration is the repetition of a word or activity beyond what is appropriate. Finally, word salad is a completely disorganized speech that is not understandable.

      These language disturbances can be indicative of underlying mental illness and can be used as diagnostic criteria. It is important for mental health professionals to be aware of these language disturbances and to assess their presence in patients. Treatment for these language disturbances may involve medication, therapy, or a combination of both. By addressing these language disturbances, individuals with mental illness may be better able to communicate and function in their daily lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old unemployed man is evaluated by the Community Psychiatry Team due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old unemployed man is evaluated by the Community Psychiatry Team due to a decline in his schizophrenia. The patient was initiated on medication two months ago after being diagnosed with the condition. However, he was unable to tolerate the initial treatment prescribed, and the patient's mother reports that her son's psychotic symptoms have persisted and may have even slightly worsened, despite starting a different type of medication. What is the most potent antipsychotic for stubborn psychotic symptoms?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Medications: Types and Side Effects

      Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations. There are different types of antipsychotics, including typical and atypical medications. Here are some of the commonly used antipsychotics and their side effects:

      Clozapine: This medication is effective for resistant psychotic symptoms, but it is not used as a first-line treatment due to potential adverse effects. It requires haematological monitoring and can cause serious side effects such as neutropenia and thromboembolism. Common side effects include sedation, constipation, and weight gain.

      Olanzapine: This atypical antipsychotic is commonly used for schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Its major side effect is weight gain, and patients should have their lipids and blood sugars monitored regularly.

      Risperidone: This medication is helpful for acute exacerbations of schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and irritability in autism. It is a qualitatively atypical antipsychotic with a relatively low risk of extrapyramidal side effects.

      Haloperidol: This typical antipsychotic is used for schizophrenia, tics in Tourette’s, mania in bipolar disorder, and nausea and vomiting. It should be avoided in Parkinson’s disease and can cause tardive dyskinesia, QT prolongation, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

      Quetiapine: This atypical antipsychotic is used for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and major depressive disorder. Common side effects include sleepiness, constipation, weight gain, and dry mouth.

      In conclusion, antipsychotic medications can be effective in treating psychotic symptoms, but they also come with potential side effects that need to be monitored. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to find the right medication and dosage for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old man is admitted to your psychiatric ward in a state of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man is admitted to your psychiatric ward in a state of distress saying that he knows for certain that his colleagues are plotting to have him dismissed from work. He says they are spreading malicious rumours about his sexuality and, with the help of the CIA, have bugged his office. In the first week of his admission, he is observed to be responding to unseen stimuli when alone in his room. His family state that he is a lovely lad who never gets into any trouble with drink or drugs. They are very worried because in the last 3 months he has told them he can hear people talking about him to each other when he lies in bed at night. He has no significant medical history.
      Which one of the following courses of action would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Observe with sedation as required

      Correct Answer: Commence olanzapine with lorazepam and procyclidine as required

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a serious mental disorder that requires prompt treatment. The following are some treatment options for schizophrenia:

      Commence Olanzapine with Lorazepam and Procyclidine as Required
      Olanzapine is an atypical anti-psychotic that carries a lower risk of extrapyramidal side-effects. However, it is appropriate to prescribe anticholinergic medication such as procyclidine to reduce the risk further. The anti-psychotic action of olanzapine may take up to 10 days to begin, so short-acting benzodiazepines such as lorazepam may be prescribed for sedation.

      Do Not Just Observe with Sedation as Required
      Observing with sedation is not a definitive treatment for schizophrenia. It is essential to commence anti-psychotic medication promptly.

      Commence Chlorpromazine
      Chlorpromazine is a typical anti-psychotic that carries a higher risk of extrapyramidal side-effects. Therefore, atypical anti-psychotics are usually preferred as first-line treatment.

      Commence Clozapine
      Clozapine is the most effective medication for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. However, it carries a small risk of serious complications such as fatal agranulocytosis, myocarditis or cardiomyopathy, and pulmonary embolus. Therefore, it is usually reserved for patients who have not responded to two anti-psychotics given at an appropriate dose for 6-8 weeks.

      Commence Chlorpromazine with Lorazepam and Procyclidine as Required
      Chlorpromazine is a typical anti-psychotic that carries a higher risk of extrapyramidal side-effects. Therefore, it is appropriate to prescribe anticholinergic medication such as procyclidine to reduce the risk. Short-acting benzodiazepines such as lorazepam may also be prescribed for sedation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - An 81-year-old man is transferred from a nursing home with a change in...

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old man is transferred from a nursing home with a change in behaviour, insomnia and fever. Staff in the nursing home state that over the last five days, he has appeared confused and agitated and seems to be having visual hallucinations, as he has been talking and gesturing to people who are not present in the room. He has a past medical history of Lewy body dementia. On clinical examination, he is not orientated to time, place or person. He is mildly agitated. His blood pressure is 112/60 mmHg, pulse 96 bpm and temperature 38.2 °C. Urinalysis is positive for nitrites and leukocytes.
      Which of the following management plans should be considered as initial treatment for delirium?

      Your Answer: Treat the underlying cause, ensure effective communication and reorientation, provide reassurance for people diagnosed with delirium, provide a suitable care environment

      Explanation:

      Managing Delirium: Strategies for Treatment and Care Environment

      Delirium is a serious condition that requires prompt identification and management of underlying causes. Effective communication and reorientation, as well as reassurance for the patient, are crucial in managing delirium. Involving family, friends, and carers can also be helpful. Providing a suitable care environment, such as a well-lit and quiet room with minimal stimulation, is important. If verbal and non-verbal de-escalation techniques are ineffective, short-term use of antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol or olanzapine may be necessary, but caution should be exercised, especially for patients with conditions like Parkinson’s disease or dementia with Lewy bodies. Frequent reorientation and monitoring in a dimly lit room may also be necessary in some cases. Overall, a comprehensive approach that addresses both the underlying causes and the patient’s immediate needs is essential in managing delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 21-year-old man is brought to the psychiatrist by his father. He expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is brought to the psychiatrist by his father. He expresses concern for his son's mental health, as he has noticed him talking to himself frequently over the past 6 months. The patient is hesitant to speak with the psychiatrist and insists that his father stay in the room with him. During the psychiatric evaluation, it is revealed that the patient has been hearing a voice in his head for the past year, but denies any thoughts of self-harm or harm to others. The psychiatrist recommends a referral for further treatment, which causes the father to become emotional and question if he did something wrong as a parent. Which factor from the patient's history is a poor prognostic indicator for his condition?

      Your Answer: Auditory hallucinations

      Correct Answer: Pre-morbid social withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is more likely to be diagnosed if the patient presents with Schneider’s first-rank symptoms, such as auditory hallucinations, which are characteristic of the condition. However, the presence of auditory hallucinations alone does not indicate a poor prognosis. A poor prognosis is associated with pre-morbid social withdrawal, low IQ, family history of schizophrenia, gradual onset of symptoms, and lack of an obvious precipitant. There is no known link between a family history of an eating disorder and a poor prognosis in schizophrenia.

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - What is the mechanism of action of venlafaxine for elderly patients? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of venlafaxine for elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic

      Correct Answer: Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of venlafaxine involves inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and noradrenaline, making it a type of antidepressant known as a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor. When choosing an antidepressant, factors such as patient preference, previous sensitization, overdose risk, and cost should be considered, although SSRIs are typically the first-line treatment due to their favorable risk-to-benefit ratio.

      Understanding Serotonin and Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors

      Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are a type of antidepressant medication that work by increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain. These neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, emotions, and anxiety levels. By inhibiting the reuptake of these chemicals, SNRIs help to maintain higher levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, which can lead to improved mood and reduced anxiety.

      Examples of SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine, which are commonly used to treat major depressive disorders, generalised anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and menopausal symptoms. These medications are relatively new and have been found to be effective in treating a range of mental health conditions. SNRIs are often preferred over other types of antidepressants because they have fewer side effects and are less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.

      Overall, SNRIs are an important class of medication that can help to improve the lives of people struggling with mental health conditions. By increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain, these medications can help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety, leading to a better quality of life for those who take them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for guidance. He lost his...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for guidance. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not experiencing clinical depression, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He occasionally feels indifferent and disheartened, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has heard his late wife speaking to him on several occasions over the last 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he acknowledges that this is impossible. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Section the patient under the Mental Health Act

      Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net

      Explanation:

      It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or smelling their deceased loved one, especially during acute grief. This can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured that this is a common experience.

      Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would not be appropriate to arrange blood tests or urinalysis.

      While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, the patient is not clinically depressed and is unlikely to benefit from them. In fact, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.

      The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent psychiatric involvement or sectioning under the Mental Health Act 1983.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations

      Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.

      One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.

      Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - Sophie, a 22-year-old student, presents to her GP with a history of low...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 22-year-old student, presents to her GP with a history of low mood lasting several months. She is struggling with her university studies due to poor concentration and constant fatigue. Despite waking up early every morning, she finds it difficult to fall back asleep. Sophie no longer enjoys spending time with her loved ones and feels hopeless about her future. She has sought medical attention as her symptoms are significantly impacting her academic performance.

      Sophie denies having any suicidal thoughts, and there is no evidence of psychotic features during the examination. She is in good health and denies any alcohol or drug use. Sophie is eager to begin treatment for her symptoms. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Referral for individual guided self-help

      Correct Answer: A trial of fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Lucy is exhibiting symptoms typical of moderate/severe depression, including low mood, fatigue, anhedonia, difficulty concentrating, poor sleep, and feelings of hopelessness. According to NICE guidelines, the recommended first-line treatment for this level of depression is a combination of antidepressants and high-intensity psychological therapy, such as cognitive behavioural therapy or interpersonal therapy. As such, starting fluoxetine (an SSRI) would be the most appropriate course of action. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline are not recommended due to their potential side effects and overdose risk. Low-intensity psychological interventions like individual guided self-help are also not suitable for moderate/severe depression. While Lucy is not currently a risk to herself or others and is willing to try treatment in the community, urgent mental health review is not necessary. Given the severity of her symptoms and her desire for active treatment, watchful waiting is not recommended.

      In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 38-year-old teacher has called for the pest controller for the third time...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher has called for the pest controller for the third time in the past month. She is worried that her house is infested with rats and she frequently checks under the beds and around the property for any signs of the infestation. She mentions that she saw a therapist in her early twenties for obsessive hand washing and underwent a brief period of cognitive behavioural therapy.
      Upon physical examination, there are no abnormalities found. However, upon further questioning, she admits to feeling compelled to check for rats and is constantly anxious about cleanliness.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating OCD from other mental health conditions

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by repetitive cycles of ritualistic behavior. It is important to differentiate OCD from other mental health conditions such as schizophrenia, anxiety, bipolar disease, and depression. Cognitive behavioral therapy and exposure response prevention are the mainstays of therapy for OCD, along with medication. Features consistent with schizophrenia, anxiety, bipolar disease, and depression are absent in OCD. Understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - As you explore non-pharmacological treatments for different mental health conditions during your psychiatry...

    Correct

    • As you explore non-pharmacological treatments for different mental health conditions during your psychiatry rotation, you come across electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Which of the following mental health conditions can be treated and managed using ECT?

      Your Answer: Catatonia

      Explanation:

      The Use of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) in Mental Health: Conditions and Recommendations

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a treatment option for certain mental health conditions. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends ECT for severe depression, catatonia, and prolonged or severe mania, but only if the condition is potentially life-threatening and other treatments have proved ineffective. ECT involves attaching electrodes to the scalp and passing an electrical current through to induce a seizure, which is performed under general anaesthesia. The mechanism of action involved in ECT is still not fully understood, but it is thought to cause a neurotransmitter release that improves symptoms. However, ECT can have side-effects such as memory impairment, headache, confusion, and muscle pains. It is not recommended for moderate depression, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), anxiety, or severe dementia.

      The Use of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) in Mental Health: Conditions and Recommendations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - Sarah is a 20-year-old woman who has just started her first year at...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 20-year-old woman who has just started her first year at university. She is described by others as quite a reserved character. She has one friend but prefers solitary activities and has few interests. Sarah has never had a boyfriend and does not seem to be interested in companionship. When she is praised or criticised by others, she remains indifferent to their comments. There is no history of low mood or hallucinations.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for Sarah's condition?

      Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Schizoid personality disorder exhibits similar negative symptoms to those seen in schizophrenia. This disorder is characterized by a lack of enjoyment in activities, emotional detachment, difficulty expressing emotions, indifference to praise or criticism, a preference for solitary activities, excessive introspection, a lack of close relationships, and a disregard for social norms. John displays more than three of these traits, indicating a possible diagnosis of schizoid personality disorder. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by feelings of inadequacy and social inhibition, while borderline personality disorder involves mood swings and impulsive behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is marked by attention-seeking behavior and exaggerated emotions.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old office worker presents to the Emergency Department after taking a handful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old office worker presents to the Emergency Department after taking a handful of various tablets following an argument with her current partner. She has a history of tumultuous relationships and struggles to maintain friendships or romantic relationships due to this. She also admits to experiencing intense emotions, frequently oscillating between extreme happiness and anger or anxiety. In the past, she has engaged in self-harm and frequently drinks to excess. A psychiatry review is requested to evaluate the possibility of a personality disorder. What personality disorder is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Dependant personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Borderline Personality Disorder and Other Types

      Personality disorders are complex and severe disturbances in an individual’s character and behavior, causing significant personal and social disruption. These disorders are challenging to treat, but psychological and pharmacological interventions can help manage symptoms. One of the most common types of personality disorder is borderline personality disorder, characterized by intense emotions, unstable relationships, impulsive behavior, self-harm, and abandonment anxieties. Other types of personality disorders include schizoid personality disorder, avoidant personality disorder, dependent personality disorder, and narcissistic personality disorder. Understanding these disorders can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old male has arrived at the emergency department after experiencing a witnessed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male has arrived at the emergency department after experiencing a witnessed seizure. According to the witness, the seizure lasted around 10 minutes and the patient was drowsy for 15 minutes afterward. The patient is now alert and conversing with the medical staff. They have a history of schizophrenia and have reported several seizures since beginning a new medication five weeks ago. Which medication is the most probable cause of this incident?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the only atypical antipsychotic drug that reduces seizure threshold, increasing the likelihood of seizures. While effective, it has serious side effects such as agranulocytosis, neutropenia, reduced seizure threshold, and myocarditis. Aripiprazole has a favorable side effect profile and is less likely to cause hyperprolactinemia or other side effects. Olanzapine is known for causing dyslipidemia, weight gain, diabetes, and sedation, but may be prescribed to underweight patients who have trouble sleeping. Quetiapine is associated with weight gain, dyslipidemia, and postural hypotension.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about symptoms that have...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about symptoms that have been affecting her for several years but are now becoming more disruptive to her daily life. She has been experiencing obsessive thoughts about her loved ones being harmed and feels compelled to perform certain rituals to prevent this from happening. She spends hours each day checking and rechecking that appliances are turned off and doors are locked. Her relationships are suffering, and she is struggling to maintain her job. She is hesitant to take medication but is open to exploring other treatment options.
      What is the most appropriate psychological approach for managing OCD in this case?

      Your Answer: Exposure response prevention (ERP) and cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Different Therapies for OCD: A Comparison

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that can be managed with various therapies. The most effective ones are exposure response prevention (ERP) and cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), which are recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). ERP involves exposing the patient to situations that trigger their compulsive behaviour while preventing them from acting on it. CBT, on the other hand, focuses on changing the patient’s thoughts, beliefs, and attitudes that contribute to their OCD.

      Transactional analysis and psychoanalysis are not recommended for treating OCD as there is no evidence to support their use. Transactional analysis involves analysing social transactions to determine the ego state of the patient, while psychoanalysis involves exploring the unconscious to resolve underlying conflicts.

      Counselling is also not appropriate for managing OCD as it is non-directive and does not provide specific coping skills.

      Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing (EMDR) is not effective for treating OCD either, as it is primarily used for post-traumatic stress disorder. EMDR combines rapid eye movement with cognitive tasks to help patients process traumatic experiences.

      In conclusion, ERP and CBT are the most effective therapies for managing OCD, while other therapies such as transactional analysis, psychoanalysis, counselling, and EMDR are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - You are a junior doctor working at an inpatient psychiatry unit. You have...

    Incorrect

    • You are a junior doctor working at an inpatient psychiatry unit. You have been asked to assess a patient by the nursing staff as they are currently occupied by a distressed patient and relative. The patient you've been asked to review has known schizophrenia and wishes to leave the unit. However, following consultation with the patient, you are concerned they are exhibiting features of an acute psychotic episode.
      Which section of the Mental Health Act (2007) could be used to detain the patient?

      Your Answer: Section 2

      Correct Answer: Section 5(2)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Sections of the Mental Health Act (2007)

      The Mental Health Act (2007) provides a legal framework for patients with confirmed or suspected mental disorders that pose a risk to themselves or the public. The Act outlines specific guidelines for detention, treatment, and the individuals authorized to use its powers. Here are some of the key sections of the Mental Health Act:

      Section 5(2): This section allows for the temporary detention of a patient already in the hospital for up to 72 hours, after which a full Mental Health Act assessment must be conducted. A doctor who is fully registered (FY2 or above) can use this section to detain a patient.

      Section 3: This section is used for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, with the exact mental disorder being treated stated on the application. It can be renewed for a further six months if required, and the patient has the right to appeal.

      Section 2: This section allows for compulsory admission for assessment of presumed mental disorder. The section lasts for 28 days and must be signed by two doctors, one of whom is approved under Section 12(2), usually a consultant psychiatrist, and another doctor who knows the patient in a professional capacity, usually their GP.

      Section 5(4): This section can be used by psychiatric nursing staff to detain a patient for up to 6 hours while arranging review by appropriate medical personnel for further assessment and either conversion to a Section 5(2). If this time elapses, there is no legal right for the nursing staff to detain the patient. In this scenario, the nursing staff are unavailable to assess the patient.

      Section 7: This section is an application for guardianship. It is used for patients in the community where an approved mental health practitioner (AMHP), usually a social worker, requests compulsory treatment requiring the patient to live in a specified location, attend specific locations for treatment, and allow access for authorized persons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - What type of psychotherapy focuses on a patient's early past experiences, particularly within...

    Incorrect

    • What type of psychotherapy focuses on a patient's early past experiences, particularly within the family, to determine perceptions of others, including the therapist, and identify patterns of thinking and relating to others? The goal of this therapy is to allow the patient to gain insight into unconscious motivations, improve effectiveness in the adult world, and enhance interpersonal relationships.

      Your Answer: Cognitive therapy

      Correct Answer: Psychoanalysis

      Explanation:

      Overview of Different Types of Psychotherapies

      Psychoanalysis, cognitive therapy, behavior therapy, brief interpersonal therapy, and structural family therapy are some of the different types of psychotherapies available today. Each therapy has its own unique approach to treating mental health issues.

      Psychoanalysis, the forerunner of all contemporary psychotherapies, focuses on the theory of human mental life and psychological symptom formation. It posits that adult beliefs and patterns of relating are determined by early experiences with important people. Cognitive therapy, on the other hand, works with the patient’s conscious beliefs about themselves, others, and their world. Behavior therapy, derived from animal research, teaches patients to behave in more adaptive ways. Brief interpersonal therapy deals with specific circumstances thought to contribute to depression, while structural family therapy is designed to help families in which a child shows psychiatric symptoms, behavior problems, or unstable chronic illness.

      Regardless of the type of therapy, the goal is to help patients achieve better mental health and well-being. Each therapy has its own unique approach, but all aim to help patients understand and overcome their mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 36-year-old man with a known history of severe depression has been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man with a known history of severe depression has been in hospital for the past year. He was diagnosed with depression at the age of 23 and has been on antidepressants since. He has had multiple self-harm and suicide attempts in the past. For the past year, he has been receiving treatment in hospital and has been making some progress with regard to his mental health. He is not happy to be in hospital, but the doctors thought that it was in his best interests to keep him in hospital for treatment. He has been under a Section which allowed him to be kept in hospital for six months. At the end of the first six months, the doctors applied for a second time for him to be kept for another six months, as they feel he is not yet fit for discharge.
      For how long can the relevant Section be renewed for this patient for the third time?

      Your Answer: Three months

      Correct Answer: One year

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Time Limits of Mental Health Detention in the UK

      In the UK, mental health detention is governed by specific time limits depending on the type of detention and the purpose of the detention. Here are some of the key time limits to be aware of:

      – Section 2: This is the Section used for assessment, and a patient can be kept in hospital for a maximum of 28 days under this Section. It cannot be extended.
      – Section 3: This is the Section used for treatment, and a patient can be detained for up to six months initially. The Section can be renewed for another six months, and then for one year at a time. Treatment without consent can be given for the first three months, and then only with the approval of an ‘approved second-opinion doctor’ for the next three months.
      – Two years: While a patient can be kept in hospital for up to two years for treatment, Section 3 cannot be renewed for two years at a time. The patient can also be discharged earlier if the doctor thinks the patient is well enough.
      – Six months: This is the time for which an initial Section 3 can be applied for and the time for which it can be renewed for a second time. For a third time and onwards, Section 3 can be renewed for one year each time, but the patient can be discharged earlier if doctors think it is not necessary for the patient to be under Section anymore.

      Understanding these time limits is important for both patients and healthcare professionals involved in mental health detention in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 78-year-old man with known dementia is admitted to hospital for treatment of...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man with known dementia is admitted to hospital for treatment of a community acquired pneumonia. Unfortunately, he was not accompanied by a family member and the history provided by the patient seems confused. Upon arrival of the daughter, she confirms that her father has been confusing real events with those from his imagination. Through this process he appears to be able to maintain a superficial conversation despite significant cognitive impairment.
      Which of the following describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Confabulation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Confabulation, Delusions, and Other Psychiatric Phenomena

      Confabulation, delusions, and other psychiatric phenomena can be confusing and difficult to differentiate. Confabulation is a phenomenon where patients fabricate imaginary experiences due to memory loss, often seen in patients with cognitive impairment. Delusions, on the other hand, are beliefs held with strong conviction despite evidence to the contrary, commonly seen in conditions such as schizophrenia. Flight of ideas, pressure of speech, and hallucinations are other psychiatric phenomena that can be seen in different conditions. Understanding the differences between these phenomena is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor's office seeking assistance for her anxiety....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor's office seeking assistance for her anxiety. She feels overwhelmed by her job, particularly when it comes to communicating with coworkers and superiors, as she is afraid of being criticized. In her personal life, she frequently worries about how her friends perceive her and often avoids socializing with them as a result. She admits to having low self-esteem and a negative self-image. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for her?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder exhibit a strong fear of criticism, rejection, ridicule, and being disliked. They tend to avoid social and occupational activities that involve significant interpersonal contact due to their fear of being criticized or rejected. These individuals have a negative self-image and are preoccupied with the idea that they are being criticized or rejected in social situations. Although they crave social contact, they tend to isolate themselves socially. This disorder is distinct from other personality disorders such as antisocial personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, and dependent personality disorder, which present with different symptoms and behaviors.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - You have been referred a 14-year-old girl who appears very upset by her...

    Incorrect

    • You have been referred a 14-year-old girl who appears very upset by her parents’ ongoing divorce. She has begun to engage in self-injurious behaviour by banging her head against walls at times of stress. Her intelligence quotient (IQ) has been assessed by her school as 62.

      With which of the following is this score most consistent?

      Your Answer: Severe learning disability

      Correct Answer: Mild learning disability

      Explanation:

      Understanding Learning Disabilities: Levels of Intelligence Quotient (IQ)

      Learning disabilities are diagnosed through a combination of intelligence testing and functional assessments. The intelligence quotient (IQ) level is used to determine the severity of the learning disability. A score of 70 is considered within the normal range, while a score between 50-69 indicates a mild learning disability. A score of 35-49 is classified as a moderate learning disability, and a score of 20-34 is considered a severe learning disability. Scores below 20 indicate a profound learning disability. It’s important to note that a score of 60 falls within the mild learning difficulty range, which is still considered a learning disability. Understanding IQ levels can help individuals and their families better understand and manage their learning disabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down. She finds it...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down. She finds it difficult to work with her colleagues and believes they are not performing up to par. Consequently, she declines to delegate tasks and has become exhausted.
      Upon further inquiry, she adheres to a strict daily routine and tries to avoid deviating from it as much as possible. If she fails to follow this plan, she becomes anxious and spends her free time catching up on tasks.
      What is the most suitable course of action in managing her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prescribe sertraline

      Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      The female librarian seeking advice exhibits inflexible behavior in her work and becomes easily annoyed when her routines are disrupted. She prefers to work alone, relying on lists and rules to structure her day, which are indicative of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is the recommended approach for managing personality disorders, including OCPD. Exposure and response prevention (ERP) and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) are not appropriate for her condition, as they are used to manage obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), respectively. Prescribing fluoxetine may be considered for any associated depression, but addressing the underlying cause with DBT is the initial priority.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old woman visits the clinic with her husband, who is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits the clinic with her husband, who is worried about her recent change in behavior. For the past two weeks, she has been acting out of character, spending large amounts of money on credit cards and wearing bold makeup and clothes that she wouldn't normally choose. She has also been experiencing insomnia, often staying up late at night to work on important projects that she can't disclose to her husband. The patient has a history of depression, and her mother was hospitalized for mental illness. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bipolar Disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Mental Disorders: Understanding the Symptoms

      Bipolar Disorder:
      A patient showing signs of mania, such as inflated self-esteem, pressured speech, reduced need for sleep, and engaging in high-risk behaviors, may be diagnosed with bipolar disorder. A manic episode requires a disturbed mood plus three of the above symptoms. A history of depression and a family history of psychiatric conditions, such as bipolar disorder, further support this diagnosis.

      Personality Disorder:
      Personality disorders are maladaptive mental disorders that typically develop at an early age. A patient in their mid-forties who has recently started experiencing mood-related symptoms, such as depression and mania, is unlikely to have a personality disorder. Types of personality disorders include paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic, and obsessive-compulsive.

      Anxiety Disorder:
      Symptoms of anxiety include social withdrawal, excessive worry, and avoidance of risk. A patient exhibiting symptoms of mania, such as high energy and engaging in risky behaviors, is not displaying signs of anxiety disorder. However, anxiety disorder may coexist with bipolar disorder.

      Depression:
      Depression is characterized by low mood, lack of enjoyment in activities, difficulty concentrating, and suicidal thoughts. A patient who has a history of depression but is currently experiencing symptoms of mania is not exhibiting signs of depression.

      Schizophrenia:
      Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires several criteria for diagnosis. Symptoms include hallucinations, disordered speech and thought, paranoia, and social withdrawal. A patient who does not exhibit these symptoms is not eligible for a differential diagnosis of schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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