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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and started on carbimazole. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Blocks thyroxine-binding globulin
Correct Answer: Prevents iodination of the tyrosine residue on thyroglobulin
Explanation:Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old male presents to an endocrine clinic with acromegaly caused by a growth hormone-secreting tumor. The patient is prescribed Octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, to suppress growth hormone release.
What additional hormonal effects can be attributed to somatostatin?Your Answer: Increases secretion of insulin
Correct Answer: Decreases secretion of glucagon
Explanation:Somatostatin has an inhibitory effect on the secretion of glucagon, but it does not affect the secretion of estrogen. It also decreases the secretion of insulin, and overproduction of somatostatin can lead to diabetes mellitus. Additionally, somatostatin reduces the secretion of gastrin, which in turn decreases the production of gastric acid by parietal cells. It also decreases the secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), resulting in a decrease in the production of thyroxine in the thyroid.
Somatostatin: The Inhibitor Hormone
Somatostatin, also known as growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH), is a hormone produced by delta cells found in the pancreas, pylorus, and duodenum. Its main function is to inhibit the secretion of growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon. It also decreases acid and pepsin secretion, as well as pancreatic enzyme secretion. Additionally, somatostatin inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
Somatostatin analogs are commonly used in the management of acromegaly, a condition characterized by excessive growth hormone secretion. These analogs work by inhibiting growth hormone secretion, thereby reducing the symptoms associated with acromegaly.
The secretion of somatostatin is regulated by various factors. Its secretion increases in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen, as well as glucagon. On the other hand, insulin decreases the secretion of somatostatin.
In summary, somatostatin plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of various hormones and enzymes in the body. Its inhibitory effects on growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon make it an important hormone in the management of certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female patient visits her GP clinic due to her struggle with weight loss. Her BMI is almost 40 kg/m², which is severely impacting her mental and physical well-being. Despite following a strict diet and exercise routine, she has not seen any significant improvement. The GP decides to prescribe orlistat as an anti-obesity medication.
What is the mechanism of action of orlistat in promoting weight loss?Your Answer: Improves satiety by reducing gastric emptying
Correct Answer: Reduces fat digestion by inhibiting lipase
Explanation:Orlistat functions by inhibiting gastric and pancreatic lipase, which reduces the digestion of fat.
2,4-Dinitrophenol (DNP) induces mitochondrial uncoupling and can result in weight loss without calorie reduction. However, it is hazardous when used improperly and is not prescribed outside of the US.
Weight gain can be caused by increased insulin secretion.
Orlistat reduces fat digestion by inhibiting lipase, which decreases the amount of fat that can be absorbed. This can result in light-colored, floating stools due to the high fat content.
Liraglutide is a medication that slows gastric emptying to increase satiety and is primarily prescribed as an adjunct in type 2 diabetics.
Serotonin reuptake inhibitors are not utilized for weight loss.
Obesity can be managed through a step-wise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and borderline personality disorder is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to a decreased level of consciousness. She is currently on regular insulin. Upon examination, her Glasgow coma scale is 3/15. The venous blood gas results show a pH of 7.36 (7.35-7.45), K+ of 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.5), Na+ of 136 mmol/L (135-145), glucose of 1.2 mmol/L (4.0-7.0), HCO3- of 23 mmol/L (22-26), and Hb of 145 g/dL (12.1-15.1). What is the first hormone to be secreted in response to the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Glucagon
Explanation:The correct answer is Glucagon, as it is the first hormone to be secreted in response to hypoglycaemia. The patient’s reduced level of consciousness is likely due to profound hypoglycaemia caused by exogenous insulin administration. Borderline personality disorder patients have a higher incidence of self harm and suicidality than the general population. Insulin is not the correct answer as its secretion decreases in response to hypoglycaemia, and this patient has T1DM resulting in an absolute deficiency. Cortisol is also not the correct answer as it takes longer to be secreted, although it is another counter-regulatory hormone that seeks to raise blood glucose levels in response to hypoglycaemia.
Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management
Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.
Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.
Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 33-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of increased thirst and frequent urination. He had suffered a head injury a few days ago and had previously been discharged after investigations. Upon examination, he appears dehydrated and is admitted to a medical ward. The urine osmolality test results show a low level of 250 mosmol/kg after water deprivation and a high level of 655 mosmol/kg after desmopressin administration. Based on this information, where is the deficient substance typically active?
Your Answer: Collecting duct
Explanation:The site of action for antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is the collecting ducts in the kidneys. A diagnosis of cranial diabetes insipidus, which can occur after head trauma, is confirmed by low urine osmolalities. In this condition, there is a deficiency of ADH, which is synthesized in the hypothalamus but acts on the collecting ducts to promote water reabsorption. Therefore, the hypothalamus is not the site of action for ADH, despite being where it is synthesized. The Loop of Henle and proximal convoluted tubule are also not the primary sites of action for ADH. ADH is released from the posterior pituitary gland, but its action occurs in the collecting ducts.
Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.
ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.
Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 6
Correct
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As a medical student in a GP practice, you encounter a mother who brings in her 5-year-old son. The child has been eating well but is falling through the centiles and gaining height slowly. After conducting a thorough history, examination, and blood tests, you diagnose the child with growth-hormone insufficiency. The mother has several questions about the condition, including when the human body stops producing growth hormone. Can you provide information on the developmental stage that signals the cessation of growth hormone release in the human body?
Your Answer: Growth hormone is secreted for life
Explanation:Throughout adulthood, the maintenance of tissues still relies on sufficient levels of growth hormone. This hormone not only promotes growth, but also supports cellular regeneration and reproduction. While it is crucial for normal growth during childhood, it also helps to preserve muscle mass, facilitate organ growth, and boost the immune system, making its lifelong release necessary. Therefore, growth hormone is a key factor in growth during all stages of life, including before, during, and after puberty.
Understanding Growth Hormone and Its Functions
Growth hormone (GH) is a hormone produced by the somatotroph cells in the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in postnatal growth and development, as well as in regulating protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism. GH acts on a transmembrane receptor for growth factor, leading to receptor dimerization and direct or indirect effects on tissues via insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which is primarily secreted by the liver.
GH secretion is regulated by various factors, including growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), fasting, exercise, and sleep. Conversely, glucose and somatostatin can decrease GH secretion. Disorders associated with GH include acromegaly, which results from excess GH, and GH deficiency, which can lead to short stature.
In summary, GH is a vital hormone that plays a significant role in growth and metabolism. Understanding its functions and regulation can help in the diagnosis and treatment of GH-related disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman visits the endocrinology department for weight management issues. She has been struggling with her weight since she was a child and currently has a BMI of 46 kg/m². Despite eating large portions at meals, she never feels full and snacks between meals. Her parents and two older siblings are all at a healthy weight. Genetic testing reveals a de novo mutation in the satiety signalling pathway. Which hormone's decreased synthesis may be responsible for her condition?
Your Answer: Leptin
Explanation:Leptin is the hormone that lowers appetite, while ghrelin is the hormone that increases appetite. Leptin is produced by adipose tissue and plays a crucial role in regulating feelings of fullness and satiety. Mutations that affect leptin signaling can lead to severe childhood-onset obesity. On the other hand, ghrelin is known as the hunger hormone and stimulates appetite. However, decreased ghrelin synthesis does not cause obesity. Insulin is an anabolic hormone that promotes glucose uptake and lipogenesis, while obestatin’s role in satiety is still controversial.
The Physiology of Obesity: Leptin and Ghrelin
Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose tissue that plays a crucial role in regulating body weight. It acts on the hypothalamus, specifically on the satiety centers, to decrease appetite and induce feelings of fullness. In cases of obesity, where there is an excess of adipose tissue, leptin levels are high. Leptin also stimulates the release of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which further contribute to the regulation of appetite. On the other hand, low levels of leptin stimulate the release of neuropeptide Y (NPY), which increases appetite.
Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone that stimulates hunger. It is mainly produced by the P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas. Ghrelin levels increase before meals, signaling the body to prepare for food intake, and decrease after meals, indicating that the body has received enough nutrients.
In summary, the balance between leptin and ghrelin plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and body weight. In cases of obesity, there is an imbalance in this system, with high levels of leptin and potentially disrupted ghrelin signaling, leading to increased appetite and weight gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old patient presents to his GP with concerns about his physical development. The patient reports feeling self-conscious about his body shape and experiencing bullying at school. On examination, the patient is noted to have gynaecomastia and microorchidism. The patient is referred to a paediatrician, who subsequently refers the patient to the genetics team. As part of their assessment, the genetics team orders a karyotype.
What karyotype results would be expected for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Turner syndrome (45,X0)
Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY)
Explanation:Understanding Klinefelter’s Syndrome
Klinefelter’s syndrome is a genetic condition that is characterized by an extra X chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of 47, XXY. Individuals with this syndrome often have a taller than average stature, but lack secondary sexual characteristics. They may also have small, firm testes and be infertile. Gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue, is also common in individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome, and there is an increased risk of breast cancer. Despite elevated levels of gonadotrophins, testosterone levels are typically low.
Diagnosis of Klinefelter’s syndrome is made through karyotyping, which involves analyzing an individual’s chromosomes. It is important for individuals with this condition to receive appropriate medical care and support, as well as genetic counseling for family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl is referred to the endocrine clinic by her GP due to bed wetting episodes. She experiences constant thirst and frequent urination. A dipstick test reveals diluted urine with low osmolality, and her blood tests show hypernatremia with high serum osmolality. Her family has a history of diabetes insipidus. What is the most suitable follow-up examination?
Your Answer: Water deprivation test
Explanation:A water deprivation test is the most appropriate method for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. This test involves withholding water from the patient for a period of time to stimulate the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and monitor changes in serum and urine osmolality. Other methods such as urinary sodium or bladder ultrasound scan are not as effective in diagnosing this condition.
The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman is experiencing renal colic and is being evaluated for possible MEN IIa. What is the most common parathyroid gland abnormality associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Adenoma
Correct Answer: Hyperplasia
Explanation:Medullary thyroid cancer, hypercalcaemia, and phaeochromocytoma are associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIa. The most frequent occurrence in this condition is medullary thyroid cancer, while hyperplasia is the most common lesion in the parathyroid glands. In contrast, parathyroid adenoma is the most common lesion in MEN I.
Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia
Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) is an autosomal dominant disorder that affects the endocrine system. There are three main types of MEN, each with its own set of associated features. MEN type I is characterized by the 3 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism, pituitary tumors, and pancreatic tumors such as insulinomas and gastrinomas. MEN type IIa is associated with the 2 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma, as well as medullary thyroid cancer. MEN type IIb is characterized by phaeochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and a marfanoid body habitus.
The most common presentation of MEN is hypercalcaemia, which is often seen in MEN type I due to parathyroid hyperplasia. MEN type IIa and IIb are both associated with medullary thyroid cancer, which is caused by mutations in the RET oncogene. MEN type I is caused by mutations in the MEN1 gene. Understanding the different types of MEN and their associated features is important for early diagnosis and management of this rare but potentially serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man, with a history of type 1 diabetes, was discovered disoriented on the road. He was taken to the ER and diagnosed with hypoglycemia. As IV access was not feasible, IM glucagon was administered. What accurately explains the medication's mechanism of action?
Your Answer: Increases secretion of prolactin
Correct Answer: Increases secretion of somatostatin
Explanation:Somatostatin, a hormone that inhibits the secretion of insulin and glucagon, is produced in the pancreas. Glucagon can increase the secretion of somatostatin through a feedback mechanism, while insulin can decrease it. Somatostatin also plays a role in controlling the emptying of the stomach and bowel.
Glucagon is a treatment option for hypoglycemia, along with IV dextrose if the patient is confused and IV access is available.
Cortisol is produced in the adrenal gland’s zona fasciculate and is triggered by ACTH, which is released from the anterior pituitary gland. Glucagon can stimulate ACTH-induced cortisol release.
Desmopressin is an analogue of vasopressin and is used to replace vasopressin/ADH in the treatment of central diabetes insipidus, where there is a lack of ADH due to decreased or non-existent secretion or production by the hypothalamus or posterior pituitary.
Prolactin, produced in the anterior pituitary, is responsible for milk production in the breasts.
Somatostatin: The Inhibitor Hormone
Somatostatin, also known as growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH), is a hormone produced by delta cells found in the pancreas, pylorus, and duodenum. Its main function is to inhibit the secretion of growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon. It also decreases acid and pepsin secretion, as well as pancreatic enzyme secretion. Additionally, somatostatin inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
Somatostatin analogs are commonly used in the management of acromegaly, a condition characterized by excessive growth hormone secretion. These analogs work by inhibiting growth hormone secretion, thereby reducing the symptoms associated with acromegaly.
The secretion of somatostatin is regulated by various factors. Its secretion increases in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen, as well as glucagon. On the other hand, insulin decreases the secretion of somatostatin.
In summary, somatostatin plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of various hormones and enzymes in the body. Its inhibitory effects on growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon make it an important hormone in the management of certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents with symptoms of irritability and changes in bowel habits. During examination, a smooth enlargement of the thyroid gland is noted. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
TSH 0.1 mug/l
Free T4 35 pmol/l
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid gland
Correct Answer: Graves disease
Explanation:When TSH receptor antibodies are present, they stimulate the thyroid to produce T4. This results in a decrease in TSH levels due to negative feedback on the pituitary. However, in cases where hyperthyroidism is caused by pregnancy, the TSH levels are usually elevated.
Understanding Thyroid Disease and its Management
Thyroid disease can present with various manifestations, which can be classified based on the presence or absence of clinical signs of thyroid dysfunction and the presence of a mass. To assess thyroid disease, a thorough history and examination, including ultrasound, are necessary. If a nodule is identified, it should be sampled through an image-guided fine needle aspiration. Radionucleotide scanning is not very useful.
Thyroid tumors can be papillary, follicular, anaplastic, medullary, or lymphoma. Multinodular goitre is a common reason for presentation, and if the patient is asymptomatic and euthyroid, they can be reassured. However, if they have compressive symptoms, surgery is required, and total thyroidectomy is the best option. Patients with endocrine dysfunction are initially managed by physicians, and surgery may be offered alongside radioiodine for those with Graves disease that fails with medical management or in patients who prefer not to be irradiated. Patients with hypothyroidism do not generally get offered a thyroidectomy.
Complications following surgery include anatomical damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, bleeding, and damage to the parathyroid glands resulting in hypocalcaemia. For further information, the Association of Clinical Biochemistry guidelines for thyroid function tests and the British Association of Endocrine Surgeons website can be consulted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man was diagnosed with maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) type 1 and has been on an oral anti-diabetic agent for the past year. What is the mechanism of action of the drug he is most likely taking?
Your Answer: Inhibition of intestinal alpha-glucosidase
Correct Answer: Binding to ATP-dependent K+ channel on the pancreatic beta cell membrane
Explanation:The patient is likely taking a sulfonylurea medication, which works by binding to the ATP-dependent K+ channel on the pancreatic beta-cell membrane to promote endogenous insulin secretion. This is the recommended first-line treatment for patients with MODY type 1, as their genetic defect results in reduced insulin secretion. Thiazolidinediones (glitazones) activate peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma (PPARγ) and are not typically used in this population. Metformin (biguanide class) inhibits hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral uptake, but is less effective than sulfonylureas in MODY type 1. Acarbose inhibits intestinal alpha-glucosidase and is not used in MODY patients. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors (gliptins) are commonly used in type 2 diabetes but are not first-line treatment for MODY.
Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but only if the beta cells in the pancreas are functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, known as the ATP-dependent K+ channel (KATP).
While sulfonylureas can be effective in managing diabetes, they can also cause some adverse effects. The most common side effect is hypoglycemia, which is more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Another common side effect is weight gain. However, there are also rarer side effects that can occur, such as hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to inappropriate ADH secretion, bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy.
It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right hip pain following a fall at home. She is unable to bear weight and her right leg appears externally rotated and shorter. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis in her knee, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. She is currently being tapered off prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica which was diagnosed 2 years ago. Which medication in her regimen may have contributed to her increased risk?
Your Answer: Paracetamol
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Patients who take systemic corticosteroids over a long period of time are at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis and experiencing fractures. In this case, the patient’s hip fracture may have been caused by her pre-existing osteoporosis.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old patient, Gwyneth, is being examined by her physician for recurring dizziness upon standing up, which is interfering with her daily activities. Gwyneth is in good health and does not take any regular medications. The physician diagnoses Gwyneth with orthostatic hypotension and prescribes fludrocortisone as a treatment.
What is the most probable side effect that Gwyneth may encounter?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluid retention
Explanation:Corticosteroids are a class of medications commonly prescribed for various clinical uses, such as treating allergies, inflammatory conditions, auto-immunity, and endogenous steroid replacement.
There are different types of corticosteroids, each with varying levels of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity. Glucocorticoids mimic cortisol, which is involved in carbohydrate metabolism and the stress response, while mineralocorticoids mimic aldosterone, which regulates sodium and water retention in response to low blood pressure.
The clinical uses and side effects of corticosteroids depend on their level of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity. Fludrocortisone, for example, has minimal glucocorticoid activity and high mineralocorticoid activity.
Therefore, fluid retention is the most associated side effect with mineralocorticoid activity, while depression, hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, and peptic ulceration are side effects associated with glucocorticoid activity.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of chronic thirst, polyuria, and nocturia that have persisted for 2 months. She has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease that has led to chronic kidney disease (CKD). Her most recent eGFR result was 28 mL/min/1.73m². Following a series of tests, she is diagnosed with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. What would the water deprivation test likely reveal in this patient's case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin
Explanation:The correct answer is low urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin. This is indicative of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, a condition where the kidneys are insensitive to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), resulting in an inability to concentrate urine. This leads to low urine osmolality even during water deprivation and no response to desmopressin. High urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin would be seen in a healthy individual or primary polydipsia, while low urine osmolality after desmopressin but high after fluid deprivation is not commonly seen in any pathological state. Similarly, low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation but high after desmopressin is typically seen in cranial DI, which is not the best answer as the patient has no risk factors for this condition.
The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to the consultant's office with complaints of increased thirst and frequent urination for the past month. He has a history of physical injuries due to a motor vehicle accident that occurred 4 months ago. The patient is currently not on any medications and is in good health. Urinalysis reveals a decreased sodium concentration and urine osmolarity of 90 mOsm/L. What renal tubular changes would be anticipated in this patient due to his current condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased expression of aquaporin-2 channels in the collecting ducts
Explanation:The insertion of aquaporin-2 channels by antidiuretic hormone promotes water reabsorption, which is compromised in central diabetes insipidus (DI) caused by physical trauma to the pituitary gland. Symptoms include increased thirst, polydipsia, and polyuria, with urinalysis showing decreased urine osmolality and sodium concentration. Aldosterone regulates epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) and K+/H+ exchanger, while angiotensin II regulates Na+/H+ exchanger in proximal tubules. Loop diuretics decrease activity of Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the loops of Henle. However, none of these are relevant to this patient’s presentation.
Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.
ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.
Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old Caucasian male visits his doctor complaining of numbness in his extremities and tingling sensations around his mouth and lips. He has undergone a thyroidectomy in the past. During a complete cranial nerve examination, the physician observes facial muscle twitching upon tapping the patient's face.
What is the reason for the facial muscle twitching observed during the examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased irritability of peripheral nerves due to hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Chvostek’s sign is a facial twitch that occurs when the distribution of the facial nerve in front of the tragus is tapped. This sign is caused by increased irritability of peripheral nerves, which is often seen in cases of hypocalcemia. In fact, Chvostek’s sign is considered the most reliable test for hypocalcemia.
Calcium homeostasis is the process of regulating the concentration of calcium ions in the extracellular fluid. This is important because calcium ions help stabilize voltage-gated ion channels. When calcium levels are too low, these ion channels become more easily activated, leading to hyperactivity in nerve and muscle cells. This can result in hypocalcemic tetany, which is characterized by involuntary muscle spasms. On the other hand, when calcium levels are too high, voltage-gated ion channels become less responsive, leading to depressed nervous system function.
Understanding Hypoparathyroidism
Hypoparathyroidism is a medical condition that occurs when there is a decrease in the secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH). This can be caused by primary hypoparathyroidism, which is often a result of thyroid surgery, leading to low calcium and high phosphate levels. Treatment for this type of hypoparathyroidism involves the use of alfacalcidol. The main symptoms of hypoparathyroidism are due to hypocalcaemia and include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. Other symptoms include Trousseau’s sign, which is carpal spasm when the brachial artery is occluded, and Chvostek’s sign, which is facial muscle twitching when the parotid is tapped. Chronic hypoparathyroidism can lead to depression and cataracts, and ECG may show a prolonged QT interval.
Pseudohypoparathyroidism is another type of hypoparathyroidism that occurs when the target cells are insensitive to PTH due to an abnormality in a G protein. This condition is associated with low IQ, short stature, and shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals. The diagnosis is made by measuring urinary cAMP and phosphate levels following an infusion of PTH. In hypoparathyroidism, this will cause an increase in both cAMP and phosphate levels. In pseudohypoparathyroidism type I, neither cAMP nor phosphate levels are increased, while in pseudohypoparathyroidism type II, only cAMP rises. Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism is a similar condition to pseudohypoparathyroidism, but with normal biochemistry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a two-hour history of nausea, confusion, and drowsiness. The patient has a medical history of type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Upon conducting an A-E examination, the only significant finding is a plasma glucose level of 3.4 mmol/L. The patient is capable of swallowing.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Two tubes of oral glucose gel
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for a conscious patient with hypoglycaemia is a fast-acting carbohydrate taken orally, such as glucose liquids, tablets, or gels. In this case, the appropriate course of action would be to administer two tubes of glucose gel. Glucagon via intramuscular injection is not necessary unless the patient is experiencing severe hypoglycaemia or is unable to swallow. Insulin via intramuscular injection is not appropriate for treating hypoglycaemia, and intravenous glucose is only used in cases of severe hypoglycaemia.
Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management
Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.
Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.
Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with intense abdominal pain and a decreased Glasgow coma score (GCS). Over the past few weeks, he has been experiencing excessive urination, abnormal thirst, and weight loss. Laboratory results reveal:
Ketones 4.2 mmol/L (<0.6 mmol/L)
Glucose 20 mmol/L
pH 7.25
What is the probable cause of the acidosis and hyperketonemia in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uncontrolled lipolysis
Explanation:The likely cause of the patient’s condition is diabetic ketoacidosis, which is a result of uncontrolled lipolysis. This process leads to an excess of free fatty acids that are eventually converted into ketone bodies. It is important to note that proteolysis, the breakdown of proteins into smaller polypeptides, does not yield ketone bodies and is not the cause of this condition. While glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis are increased due to the lack of insulin and rise of glucagon, they do not result in acidosis or elevated levels of ketone bodies. It is ketogenesis, not ketolysis, that leads to the increased levels of ketone bodies.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman presents for her routine check-up. She has recently been prescribed insulin for management of her type 2 diabetes. While discussing her medical history, she reports experiencing numbness in her entire right foot. Upon examination, an ulcer is observed on the webbing between her fourth and fifth toes.
What would be the most appropriate next course of action to investigate this woman's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full neurovascular examination of the lower limbs
Explanation:The two main factors that contribute to diabetic foot disease are loss of sensation and peripheral arterial disease. When reviewing a diabetic patient who presents with a complication, it is crucial to recognize that those with a loss of protective sensation are at a high risk of developing diabetic foot disease. Therefore, any ulcers must be promptly managed to prevent severe infection.
Out of the given options, the most appropriate next step in managing this patient is to conduct a full neurovascular examination of their lower limbs. While checking the HbA1C levels is important, it is not the immediate concern for this patient. Similarly, examining foot sensation using a 10g monofilament is a crucial step, but it is only a part of a comprehensive neurovascular examination. Measuring C-peptide is not relevant to the current situation.
Diabetic foot disease is a significant complication of diabetes mellitus that requires regular screening. In 2015, NICE published guidelines on diabetic foot disease. The disease is caused by two main factors: neuropathy, which results in a loss of protective sensation, and peripheral arterial disease, which can cause macro and microvascular ischaemia. Symptoms of diabetic foot disease include loss of sensation, absent foot pulses, reduced ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI), intermittent claudication, calluses, ulceration, Charcot’s arthropathy, cellulitis, osteomyelitis, and gangrene.
All patients with diabetes should be screened for diabetic foot disease at least once a year. Screening for ischaemia involves palpating for both the dorsalis pedis pulse and posterial tibial artery pulse, while screening for neuropathy involves using a 10 g monofilament on various parts of the sole of the foot. NICE recommends that patients be risk-stratified into low, moderate, and high-risk categories based on factors such as deformity, previous ulceration or amputation, renal replacement therapy, and the presence of calluses or neuropathy. Patients who are moderate or high-risk should be regularly followed up by their local diabetic foot centre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man with a known history of type-2 diabetes comes for a check-up. He is currently on metformin only for his diabetes and reports compliance with the prescribed regimen.
His HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (target = 53mmol/mol) and the patient and clinician agree to initiate a sulfonylurea along with his metformin.
What is the primary mode of action of the new treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases stimulation of insulin secretion by pancreatic B-cells and decreases hepatic clearance of insulin
Explanation:Sulfonylureas are a type of oral hypoglycemic agent that stimulate insulin secretion by pancreatic B-cells and reduce the clearance of insulin by the liver. They are known as insulin secretagogues.
Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but only if the beta cells in the pancreas are functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, known as the ATP-dependent K+ channel (KATP).
While sulfonylureas can be effective in managing diabetes, they can also cause some adverse effects. The most common side effect is hypoglycemia, which is more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Another common side effect is weight gain. However, there are also rarer side effects that can occur, such as hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to inappropriate ADH secretion, bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy.
It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male comes to see you with worries about his weight. He has a BMI of 32 and you suspect he may have metabolic syndrome. What is one of the diagnostic criteria for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dyslipidaemia
Explanation:Metabolic syndrome is a group of risk factors for cardiovascular disease that are closely related to insulin resistance and central obesity.
The diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome vary widely, but the International Diabetes Federation (IDF) and American Heart Association (AHA) have established their own criteria, which are commonly used. A diagnosis is made if three or more of the following criteria are present: increased waist circumference (depending on ethnicity) or a BMI greater than 30, dyslipidemia with elevated triglycerides greater than 150 mg/dL or reduced HDL-cholesterol, hypertension, and impaired glucose tolerance.
The Physiology of Obesity: Leptin and Ghrelin
Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose tissue that plays a crucial role in regulating body weight. It acts on the hypothalamus, specifically on the satiety centers, to decrease appetite and induce feelings of fullness. In cases of obesity, where there is an excess of adipose tissue, leptin levels are high. Leptin also stimulates the release of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which further contribute to the regulation of appetite. On the other hand, low levels of leptin stimulate the release of neuropeptide Y (NPY), which increases appetite.
Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone that stimulates hunger. It is mainly produced by the P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas. Ghrelin levels increase before meals, signaling the body to prepare for food intake, and decrease after meals, indicating that the body has received enough nutrients.
In summary, the balance between leptin and ghrelin plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and body weight. In cases of obesity, there is an imbalance in this system, with high levels of leptin and potentially disrupted ghrelin signaling, leading to increased appetite and weight gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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As a medical student observing a health visitor in community care, I noticed that she was measuring the height and weight of all the children. I was curious about what drives growth during the early childhood stage (from birth to 3 years old). Can you explain this to me?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nutrition and insulin
Explanation:Understanding Growth and Factors Affecting It
Growth is a significant difference between children and adults, and it occurs in three stages: infancy, childhood, and puberty. Several factors affect fetal growth, including environmental, placental, hormonal, and genetic factors. Maternal nutrition and uterine capacity are the most crucial environmental factors that affect fetal growth.
In infancy, nutrition and insulin are the primary drivers of growth. High fetal insulin levels result from poorly controlled diabetes in the mother, leading to hypoglycemia and macrosomia in the baby. Growth hormone is not a significant factor in infancy, as babies have low amounts of receptors. Hypopituitarism and thyroid have no effect on growth in infancy.
In childhood, growth is driven by growth hormone and thyroxine, while in puberty, growth is driven by growth hormone and sex steroids. Genetic factors are the most important determinant of final adult height.
It is essential to monitor growth in children regularly. Infants aged 0-1 years should have at least five weight recordings, while children aged 1-2 years should have at least three weight recordings. Children older than two years should have annual weight recordings. Children below the 2nd centile for height should be reviewed by their GP, while those below the 0.4th centile for height should be reviewed by a paediatrician.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Cortisol is mainly synthesized by which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal
Explanation:The adrenal gland’s zona fasciculata produces cortisol, with a relative glucocorticoid activity of 1. Prednisolone has a relative glucocorticoid activity of 4, while dexamethasone has a relative glucocorticoid activity of 25.
Cortisol: Functions and Regulation
Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.
The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.
Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old mother is concerned about her infant's skin tone. The baby was delivered naturally 18 days ago and is now showing signs of jaundice. Despite having normal vital signs, what could be the possible reason for the baby's prolonged jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism
Explanation:The age of the baby is an important factor in determining the possible causes of neonatal jaundice. Congenital hypothyroidism may be responsible for prolonged jaundice in newborns. The following is a summary of the potential causes of jaundice based on the age at which it appears:
Jaundice within 24 hours of birth may be caused by haemolytic disease of the newborn, infections, or G6PD deficiency.
Jaundice appearing between 24-72 hours may be due to physiological factors, sepsis, or polycythaemia.
Jaundice appearing after 72 hours may be caused by extrahepatic biliary atresia, sepsis, or other factors.
Understanding Congenital Hypothyroidism
Congenital hypothyroidism is a condition that affects approximately 1 in 4000 newborns. If left undiagnosed and untreated within the first four weeks of life, it can lead to irreversible cognitive impairment. Some of the common features of this condition include prolonged neonatal jaundice, delayed mental and physical milestones, short stature, a puffy face, macroglossia, and hypotonia.
To ensure early detection and treatment, children are screened for congenital hypothyroidism at 5-7 days of age using the heel prick test. This test involves taking a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for thyroid hormone levels. If the results indicate low levels of thyroid hormone, the baby will be referred for further testing and treatment.
It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of the signs and symptoms of congenital hypothyroidism and to ensure that newborns receive timely screening and treatment to prevent long-term complications. With early detection and appropriate management, children with congenital hypothyroidism can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The medical team at a pediatric unit faces difficulty in determining the sex of a newborn baby as the external genitalia appear ambiguous. The suspected condition is linked to an excess of androgen and a deficiency of mineralocorticoid. Can you explain the underlying pathophysiology?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deficiency of 21-alphahydroxylase
Explanation:The clinical scenario described in the question is indicative of congenital adrenal hyperplasia, which is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme 21-alphahydroxylase. This leads to an increase in androgen production, resulting in virilization of genitalia in XX females, making them appear as males at birth.
On the other hand, a deficiency of 5-alpha reductase causes the opposite situation, where genetically XY males have external female genitalia.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus may be associated with the presence of autoantibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase.
A defect in the AIRE gene can lead to APECED, which is characterized by hypoparathyroidism, adrenal failure, and candidiasis.
Similarly, a defect in the FOXP3 gene can cause IPEX, which presents with immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, and enteropathy.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic condition that affects the adrenal glands and can result in various symptoms depending on the specific enzyme deficiency. One common form is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which can cause virilization of female genitalia, precocious puberty in males, and a salt-losing crisis in 60-70% of patients during the first few weeks of life. Another form is 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, which can also cause virilization and precocious puberty, as well as hypertension and hypokalemia. A third form is 17-hydroxylase deficiency, which typically does not cause virilization in females but can result in intersex characteristics in boys and hypertension.
Overall, congenital adrenal hyperplasia can have significant impacts on a person’s physical development and health, and early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing symptoms and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus visits the Endocrinology clinic for evaluation. He is currently on maximum doses of metformin and glibenclamide, but his HbA1c levels have increased from 58 mmol/mol to 67 mmol/mol over the past six months. The consultant recommends adding sitagliptin as a third antidiabetic medication. What is the mechanism of action of this new medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibit the peripheral breakdown of incretins, enhancing their ability to stimulate insulin release
Explanation:Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old patient visits his primary care physician for a follow-up on his diabetes treatment. He is currently taking metformin and expresses concern about adding more medications that may lead to hypoglycemia. The patient has a medical history of bladder cancer, which was treated through surgery. On examination, the only notable finding is an elevated body mass index of 32 kg/m².
Based on recent blood test results, with an HbA1c level of 61 mmol/L (<48), the GP wants to prescribe a medication that does not cause weight gain or hypoglycemia. What is the probable mechanism of action of this drug?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduction of the peripheral breakdown of incretins such as glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1)
Explanation:Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male presents with gynaecomastia. He is later diagnosed with a testicular germ cell tumour.
What is the underlying mechanism that causes this type of cancer to present with gynaecomastia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testicular tumours secrete beta-HCG, which increases oestrogen levels, promoting the proliferation of breast tissue
Explanation:Gynaecomastia can be caused by testicular cancer, specifically seminoma that secretes beta-HCG. This hormone acts as a tumour marker for testicular germ cell cancer and increases oestrogen levels, leading to an imbalance of oestrogen to androgen ratio. This imbalance promotes the growth of breast tissue, resulting in gynaecomastia.
Alpha-fetoprotein is another tumour marker for testicular cancer, but it does not affect oestrogen levels or breast glandular tissue. It is important to note that gynaecomastia is a separate condition from metastatic testicular cancer in the breast.
Testicular involution, or shrinkage of the testes, is not a common symptom of testicular cancer. Instead, patients typically present with a painless swelling or nodule in the testis.
Elevated testosterone levels are not associated with testicular cancer, as they would prevent the growth of breast tissue and gynaecomastia.
Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a condition characterized by the abnormal growth of breast tissue in males, often caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to distinguish the causes of gynaecomastia from those of galactorrhoea, which is caused by the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.
Physiological changes during puberty can lead to gynaecomastia, but it can also be caused by syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallmann and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure due to mumps, liver disease, testicular cancer, and hyperthyroidism. Additionally, haemodialysis and ectopic tumour secretion can also trigger gynaecomastia.
Drug-induced gynaecomastia is also a common cause, with spironolactone being the most frequent trigger. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids. However, it is important to note that very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa.
In summary, understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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