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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner. He has noticed a few patches of pale skin on his arms over the past few weeks. He is not particularly worried about these but wants to know what it could be and what he needs to do about it.
On examination, a few depigmented patches on the arms are noted. His medical history includes asthma, for which he takes inhalers.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following treatments should he be started on?Your Answer: Daily sunscreen to the affected areas
Explanation:Managing Vitiligo: Recommended Treatments and Precautions
Vitiligo is a skin condition that requires careful management to prevent further damage and reduce the risk of skin cancer. Daily application of sunscreen to affected areas is crucial due to increased susceptibility to UV-light-induced damage. Camouflaging makeup can also help alleviate psychological distress. Topical steroids are recommended for up to two months, and if there is no response, a referral to a dermatologist is necessary. Emollients and oral antihistamines are not useful in vitiligo management. Oral steroids are rarely used, and topical clotrimazole and dapsone are not first-line treatments. Topical tacrolimus and phototherapy may have a role, but caution is needed for light-skinned patients. Overall, early intervention and precautionary measures are key to managing vitiligo effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is presented to your GP clinic by her father with a complaint of erythematous sores on her face for the past 2 days. The lesions are limited to her face and have started to weep and progress to honey crusted lesions over the last 24 hours. The child is otherwise healthy. Previously, topical hydrogen peroxide was ineffective for a similar episode. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer: Topical fusidic acid
Explanation:If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that affects both children and adults. It is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes and can develop anywhere on the body, but lesions tend to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing. The infection can be a primary infection or a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema, scabies, or insect bites. Impetigo is highly contagious and can spread through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person or indirectly through toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment.
The symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. The infection can be managed with limited, localized disease by using hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. However, if the disease is extensive, oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin may be prescribed. It is important to note that MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation.
Children with impetigo should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment. It is also important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly and avoiding close contact with infected individuals, to prevent the spread of impetigo. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of impetigo, individuals can take steps to prevent and treat this common bacterial skin infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with persistent itch that has been bothering him for several months. The itch is widespread, affecting his torso and back, and he has not noticed any changes in his skin or overall health. Despite having an extensive medical history, there have been no recent changes to his medications. Upon examination, there are no focal skin changes other than widespread excoriation marks. The GP suspects that a systemic condition may be the underlying cause of the patient's itch. Based on his medical history, which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Hypomagnesaemia
Correct Answer: Chronic kidney disease
Explanation:Pruritus is a symptom of chronic kidney disease, which can cause severe itching and distress for patients. Even in the early stages of the disease, hyperuricemia can lead to intense itchiness.
Causes of Pruritus and their Characteristics
Pruritus, commonly known as itching, can be caused by various underlying conditions. Liver disease, often associated with a history of alcohol excess, can present with stigmata of chronic liver disease such as spider naevi, bruising, palmar erythema, and gynaecomastia. Iron deficiency anaemia can cause pallor and other signs such as koilonychia, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. Pruritus in polycythaemia is particularly noticeable after a warm bath and is accompanied by a ruddy complexion. Chronic kidney disease can present with lethargy, pallor, oedema, weight gain, hypertension, and fatigue. Lymphoma can cause night sweats, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, and fatigue. Other causes of pruritus include hyper- and hypothyroidism, diabetes, pregnancy, senile pruritus, urticaria, and skin disorders such as eczema, scabies, psoriasis, and pityriasis rosea. It is important to identify the underlying cause of pruritus to provide appropriate treatment and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following is not typically associated with hirsutism in individuals?
Your Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation:Hypertrichosis is the result of Porphyria cutanea tarda, not hirsutism.
Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism and hypertrichosis are two conditions that involve excessive hair growth in women. Hirsutism is typically caused by androgen-dependent hair growth, while hypertrichosis is caused by androgen-independent hair growth. The most common cause of hirsutism is polycystic ovarian syndrome, but it can also be caused by other conditions such as Cushing’s syndrome, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and obesity. Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by drugs like minoxidil and ciclosporin, as well as congenital conditions like hypertrichosis lanuginosa and terminalis.
To assess hirsutism, doctors use the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. A score of over 15 is considered to indicate moderate or severe hirsutism. Management of hirsutism typically involves weight loss if the patient is overweight, as well as cosmetic techniques like waxing and bleaching. Combined oral contraceptive pills like co-cyprindiol and ethinylestradiol and drospirenone may also be used, but co-cyprindiol should not be used long-term due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. For facial hirsutism, topical eflornithine may be used, but it is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Overall, understanding the causes and management of hirsutism and hypertrichosis is important for women who experience excessive hair growth. By working with their doctors, they can find the best treatment options to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman comes to the doctor's office with concerns about small spots on her shoulder. She reports that the lesions are accompanied by several tiny blood vessels that radiate from the center. During the examination, you observe that applying pressure to the spots causes them to turn white and then refill from the center. What condition is typically associated with this type of lesion?
Your Answer: Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
Correct Answer: Liver failure
Explanation:When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Spider Naevi
Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.
To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are examining a 65-year-old individual with acanthosis nigricans. You suggest screening for diabetes. Due to the widespread skin alterations, including some oral changes, what other potential underlying condition should be taken into account?
Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease
Correct Answer: Internal malignancy
Explanation:While acanthosis nigricans may occur on its own in individuals with dark skin, it is typically a sign of insulin resistance and associated conditions such as type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and hypothyroidism. Certain medications, including corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications, can also cause this condition. If acanthosis nigricans appears suddenly and in unusual areas such as the mouth, it may indicate the presence of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.
Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid. The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes in to discuss the results of laboratory tests for nail clippings taken 8 weeks ago. He had previously presented with thickening and discoloration of all the nails on his right foot. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. He is currently in good health and taking metformin, simvastatin, and ramipril. The lab report confirms the presence of onychomycosis. What treatment options should be offered to him?
Your Answer: Topical itraconazole
Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine
Explanation:Oral terbinafine is recommended for treating dermatophyte nail infections.
Understanding Fungal Nail Infections
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte moulds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of fungal nail infections is unsightly nails, which can be thickened, rough, and opaque. Other conditions, such as psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome, can mimic fungal nail infections. To confirm a diagnosis, nail clippings and scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. However, if a dermatophyte or Candida infection is confirmed, treatment is necessary. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive dermatophyte infections. Candida infections are best treated with oral itraconazole using a pulsed weekly therapy approach. It is important to note that cultures have a false-negative rate of around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema. He reports that she has developed itchy blisters all over her body, including her face, torso, arms, and legs. Additionally, she is not behaving normally, eating and drinking less than usual, and not engaging with her favorite toys. She also has a fever of 39ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to hospital
Explanation:Immediate hospitalization and administration of IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, a severe condition. The child in question is exhibiting symptoms such as painful blisters, fever, and swollen lymph nodes, which require urgent medical attention. Any delay in seeking medical help could worsen the condition. Therefore, all other options are incorrect and should be avoided.
Understanding Eczema Herpeticum
Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.
During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old office worker complains of widespread pruritus for the last 2 weeks. She has no particular history of note, though she is currently staying with her parents due to financial difficulties. She has noticed the itching is particularly bad at night. On examination, she has several circular erythematous lesions on her arms and legs.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate first-line treatment option?Your Answer: Permethrin cream applied from neck down for 8-14 hours
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies Infestation
Scabies infestation is a common condition that can affect anyone, but those with poor personal hygiene, immunocompromisation, low socioeconomic status, and those working in industrial settings are at higher risk. The first-line treatment for scabies is the application of Permethrin 5% cream from the neck down for 8-14 hours, followed by washing it off. It is important to treat all household contacts simultaneously, even if they are symptom-free. Additionally, all affected linens should be washed and cleaned immediately.
While 5% Hydrocortisone cream can be applied twice daily to relieve itching, it will not treat the underlying infestation. Similarly, emollient cream can be applied regularly to moisturize the skin, but it will not treat the infestation.
If Permethrin is not effective, Malathion cream can be used as a second-line treatment. It should be applied from the neck down for 24 hours and then washed off.
Oral antihistamines can be used to treat the symptomatic itch, but they do not address the underlying infestation. Therefore, it is important to follow the recommended treatment plan and seek medical advice if symptoms persist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Correct
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You are conducting an 8-week examination on a baby with a prominent purplish birthmark. The mother was informed that it may not disappear on its own and could be linked to other vascular issues. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Port wine stain
Explanation:Understanding Port Wine Stains
Port wine stains are a type of birthmark that are characterized by their deep red or purple color. Unlike other vascular birthmarks, such as salmon patches and strawberry hemangiomas, port wine stains do not go away on their own and may even become more prominent over time. These birthmarks are typically unilateral, meaning they only appear on one side of the body.
Fortunately, there are treatment options available for those who wish to reduce the appearance of port wine stains. Cosmetic camouflage can be used to cover up the birthmark, while laser therapy is another option that requires multiple sessions. It’s important to note that while these treatments can help reduce the appearance of port wine stains, they may not completely eliminate them. Understanding the nature of port wine stains and the available treatment options can help individuals make informed decisions about managing these birthmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent bloating and loose stools that have been going on for 5 months. She reports no blood in her stool but has lost a few kilograms in weight. Recently, she has noticed some itchy, vesicular rashes on her knees that have been persistent. Routine blood tests were ordered and all came back normal except for one positive result. What is the name of the dermatological condition she is experiencing?
Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is an autoimmune blistering disorder that is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces of the body, such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.
To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is required, which will show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis. This condition can be managed by following a gluten-free diet and taking dapsone medication.
It is important to understand the symptoms and management of dermatitis herpetiformis to ensure that proper treatment is given. By following a gluten-free diet and taking medication, individuals with this condition can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General Practitioner with ongoing symptoms despite using once-daily Betnovate® (a potent steroid) and a vitamin D analogue for six weeks.
What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer to Dermatology
Correct Answer: Stop steroid treatment and continue vitamin D analogue twice daily
Explanation:Psoriasis management follows a stepwise approach, as per NICE guidelines. In this case, the patient has already received eight weeks of potent steroid with a vitamin D analogue. The next step is to stop the steroid and increase the vitamin D analogue to twice daily. Steroids should not be used at the same site for more than eight weeks, and patients require a 4-week steroid-free break. If symptoms persist, twice-daily steroids or a coal tar preparation can be tried. Referral to Dermatology may be necessary for severe cases, but starting the next stage of treatment while awaiting review is appropriate. An ultra-potent steroid may be considered after the steroid-free break or as a short course if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after developing a severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he was taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Still, his symptoms did not improve, and his rheumatologist prescribed him methotrexate a few days ago.
On examination, Nikolsky’s sign is present and affects 45% of his body’s surface area.
What is the underlying condition?Your Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Explanation:Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and their Causes
Skin hypersensitivity reactions can range from mild to life-threatening. Here are some common types and their causes:
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is the most serious skin hypersensitivity reaction, with a high mortality rate. It is usually caused by drugs such as NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol and penicillins.
Erythema Multiforme: This is a target-like lesion that commonly occurs on the palms and soles. It is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs and sulfa drugs. Mycoplasma and herpes simplex infections can also cause erythema multiforme.
Erythema Nodosum: This is an inflammatory condition of subcutaneous tissue. The most common causes are recent streptococcal infection, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis and inflammatory bowel disease.
Fixed Drug Reaction: This is a localised allergic drug reaction that recurs at the same anatomic site of the skin with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by aspirin, NSAIDs, tetracycline and barbiturate.
Morbilliform Rash: This is a mild hypersensitivity skin reaction that manifests as a generalised maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. The rash can be caused by penicillin, sulfa drugs, allopurinol and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following types of rash is commonly observed in the initial stages of Lyme disease?
Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Erythema chronicum migrans
Explanation:Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.
Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.
In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding and black stool. He reports experiencing this issue more than six times in the past four months. The patient denies any other symptoms such as weight loss, abdominal pain, or changes in bowel habits. During the examination, no masses or apparent causes of bleeding are found in his abdomen or rectum. However, the GP notices some red spots on the patient's lips and tongue. When questioned about them, the patient dismisses them as insignificant and claims that everyone in his family has them. What is the most probable reason for the bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
Explanation:Rectal bleeding can have various causes, and it is crucial to differentiate between them as the treatments and prognosis can differ significantly. By utilizing signs and examinations, one can eliminate possibilities. If there are no masses, weight loss, or changes in bowel habits, rectal or colon cancer is less probable. Similarly, if there are no changes in bowel habits, abdominal pain, or weight loss, Crohn’s disease is less likely. This narrows down the possibilities to Louis-Bar syndrome and hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia. Louis-Bar syndrome, also known as ataxia telangiectasia, is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that typically manifests in early childhood with severe ataxia and other neurological symptoms.
Understanding Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia
Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, also known as Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome, is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. While 80% of cases have a family history, 20% occur spontaneously without prior family history.
There are four main diagnostic criteria for HHT. If a patient has two of these criteria, they are said to have a possible diagnosis of HHT. If they meet three or more of the criteria, they are said to have a definite diagnosis of HHT. These criteria include spontaneous, recurrent nosebleeds (epistaxis), multiple telangiectases at characteristic sites such as the lips, oral cavity, fingers, and nose, visceral lesions such as gastrointestinal telangiectasia (with or without bleeding), pulmonary arteriovenous malformations (AVM), hepatic AVM, cerebral AVM, and spinal AVM, and a first-degree relative with HHT.
In summary, HHT is a genetic condition that is characterized by multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be diagnosed based on the presence of certain criteria, including nosebleeds, telangiectases, visceral lesions, and family history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is presented for surgery after the appearance of multiple small, umbilicated lesions on his right leg. He has no prior history of such lesions and is generally healthy, except for a history of allergies. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.
While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.
Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she is in good health. What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.
Venous Ulceration and its Management
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.
The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old newly qualified nurse presents with a bilateral erythematous rash on both hands. She has recently moved from the Philippines and has no significant medical history. The suspected diagnosis is contact dermatitis. What is the most appropriate test to determine the underlying cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Skin patch test
Explanation:The skin patch test can be beneficial in this scenario as it has the potential to detect irritants in addition to allergens.
Types of Allergy Tests
Allergy tests are used to determine if a person has an allergic reaction to a particular substance. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. A wheal will typically develop if a patient has an allergy. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen.
Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (e.g. pollen), and wasp/bee venom.
Skin patch testing is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, allergy tests are an important tool in diagnosing and managing allergies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash that has spread across his trunk over the last 4 days. He is worried about the appearance of the rash. The patient has no significant medical history except for completing a course of phenoxymethylpenicillin for tonsillitis last week and takes no other regular medications. Upon examination, the doctor observes multiple scaly papules on the patient's trunk and upper limbs. The lesions are small and have a teardrop shape. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis
Explanation:The tear-drop scaly papules that have suddenly appeared on the patient’s trunk and limbs suggest guttate psoriasis. This type of psoriasis is commonly seen in children and young adults who have recently had a Streptococcus infection, such as the tonsillitis infection that this patient had. The rash is characterized by multiple small scaly and red patches that have a teardrop shape.
Disseminated varicella zoster, pityriasis rosea, and pityriasis versicolor are not likely diagnoses for this patient. Disseminated varicella zoster causes a different type of rash that includes macular, papular, and vesicular lesions that crust over time. Pityriasis rosea presents with a large round herald patch on the chest, abdomen, or back, and is thought to be triggered by viral or bacterial infections. Pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that causes patches that are paler than the surrounding skin, and is commonly found on the upper limbs and neck. However, exposure to heat and moisture can increase the risk of developing this rash.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The name guttate comes from the Latin word for drop, as the lesions appear as small, tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs. These papules are pink and scaly, and the onset of the condition is usually acute, occurring over a few days.
In most cases, guttate psoriasis will resolve on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat the underlying streptococcal infection. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.
It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be preceded by a respiratory tract infection. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions with a fine scale. While guttate psoriasis resolves within a few months, pityriasis rosea typically resolves after around 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is seen on a home visit by his General Practitioner as his wife is concerned about an ulcer on his lower leg, which has been present for a couple of weeks. It is starting to leak clear fluid. He has a history of chronic congestive cardiac failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A diagnosis of a venous ulcer is suspected.
Which of the following examination findings would best support this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrophie blanche
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Leg Ulcers: Differentiating Arterial, Venous, and Inflammatory Causes
Leg ulcers can have various causes, including arterial, venous, and inflammatory conditions. Here are some signs and symptoms that can help differentiate between these causes:
Atrophie Blanche: This is a white atrophic scar surrounded by areas of hyperpigmentation, which is a sign of severe venous insufficiency.
Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) of 0.4: ABPI is the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the ankle compared with the arm. An ABPI < 0.5 indicates severe arterial disease, suggesting that the ulcer is most likely arterial, rather than venous, in nature. Hairless and Pale Skin on the Lower Legs: Pallor of the skin and a lack of hair growth on the lower legs is a sign of arterial disease, pointing towards a diagnosis of an arterial ulcer rather than a venous ulcer. Necrobiosis Lipoidica: This is a rare granulomatous condition that usually affects people with insulin-dependent diabetes. Plaques are present on the shins, often with telangiectasia in the center and may ulcerate. The cause for the leg ulcer is, therefore, inflammatory rather than venous in origin. Reduced Light-Touch Sensation in Both Feet: Reduced sensation in the feet could be neuropathic in nature (diabetes, multiple sclerosis) or the result of severe arterial disease. Venous insufficiency does not usually affect sensation, so this finding on examination would support a diagnosis of arterial or neuropathic ulcer. By recognizing these signs and symptoms, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat leg ulcers based on their underlying causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Dermatology Clinic for regular follow-up of her psoriasis. This had previously been well controlled after phototherapy six months ago; however, she has recently deteriorated.
Her current treatment regime includes topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment and topical hydromol ointment, in addition to amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. She is otherwise fit and well.
On examination, she has an erythematous rash covering much of her back, with widespread patches on her arms and legs. The rash is tender and warm, though she appears to be shivering. There are no oral lesions. Her pulse is 98 beats per minute, while her blood pressure (BP) is 95/50 mmHg and her temperature is 38.2 °C.
What is the most important next step in this woman's treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange hospital admission
Explanation:Urgent Hospital Admission Required for Erythrodermic Psoriasis
Erythrodermic psoriasis is a severe dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient who presents with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. While the patient’s psoriasis needs more intensive management, it is not appropriate to manage erythroderma in the community.
The treatment for erythrodermic psoriasis includes supportive care, such as intravenous fluids, cool, wet dressings, and a systemic agent. The choice of a systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. However, it is important to note that starting any systemic agent requires investigations, including baseline blood tests and a viral screen, to ensure it is not contraindicated.
It is crucial to differentiate erythrodermic psoriasis from other dermatological emergencies like Stevens-Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), which is a severe drug reaction associated with amoxicillin and anti-epileptic therapies. However, in this case, the patient’s history features a slow deterioration of pre-existing psoriasis, and the rash is not desquamating, and there are no oral lesions. Therefore, hospital admission is required for erythrodermic psoriasis.
It is essential to avoid repeating phototherapy in a patient with erythrodermic psoriasis as it can worsen the condition. In a well patient, phototherapy would not be reattempted six months after a poor response, and an alternate approach would most likely be sought.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male patient comes in for mole removal. Which areas of the body are more prone to developing keloid scars?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sternum
Explanation:Understanding Keloid Scars
Keloid scars are abnormal growths that develop from the connective tissue of a scar and extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound. They are more common in people with dark skin and tend to occur in young adults. Keloids are most frequently found on the sternum, shoulder, neck, face, extensor surface of limbs, and trunk.
To prevent keloid scars, incisions should be made along relaxed skin tension lines. However, if keloids do develop, early treatment with intra-lesional steroids such as triamcinolone may be effective. In some cases, excision may be necessary, but this should be approached with caution as it can potentially lead to further keloid scarring.
It is important to note that the historical use of Langer lines to determine optimal incision lines has been shown to produce worse cosmetic results than following skin tension lines. Understanding the predisposing factors and treatment options for keloid scars can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient presents to you with an itchy rash on both elbows that has been getting worse over the past week. Upon examination, you observe multiple flat-topped papular lesions that are polygonal and measure 5mm in diameter on the flexural surface of her elbows bilaterally. There are no other rashes on the rest of her body. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with worries about hair loss. She reports experiencing hair loss in small patches on her scalp. During examination, you observe distinct patches of hair loss with some ‘broken exclamation mark’ hairs at the edges.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Understanding Hair Loss: Causes and Symptoms
Hair loss is a common concern for many individuals, causing anxiety and worry. There are various causes of hair loss, each with their own unique symptoms. Alopecia areata is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the hair follicles, resulting in patchy, non-scarring hair loss on the scalp. Androgenic alopecia, on the other hand, is more common in men and causes a receding hairline and loss of hair from the top and front of the head. Fungal infections, such as tinea capitis, can also cause hair loss accompanied by scaling, itching, and pain. Scalp psoriasis can range from mild scaling to severe crusted plaques covering the entire scalp, while erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp affects elderly individuals with scarring and yellow-brown crusts. It is important to understand the various causes and symptoms of hair loss in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with concerns about a mole on his leg. He has noticed over the past few months that it has increased in size. On examination, the mole is 7 mm in diameter and has an irregular border but is a consistent colour.
What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral to dermatology
Explanation:Understanding Referral Guidelines for Suspicious Pigmented Lesions
When assessing pigmented lesions, the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the 7-point scoring system.
The 7-point checklist includes:
Major features (2 points each):
change in size
irregular shape or border
irregular colour.
Minor features (1 point each):
> 7 mm at greatest diameter
inflammation
oozing or crusting
change in sensation including itch.Lesions scoring 3 or more or with other suspicious features of melanoma should be referred urgently via the cancer fast-track pathway to dermatology.
For lesions with a low suspicion of melanoma, a photo should be taken with a ruler and the patient advised to return in eight weeks for review. However, lesions scoring 5 on the checklist, like those with a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, should be referred urgently to a dermatologist to avoid any delay in diagnosis and subsequent treatment.
Excision of lesions suspicious of melanoma should be avoided in primary care as this can delay treatment, and incomplete excision is more common. Routine referral to dermatology would be suitable for a pigmented lesion which scores less than 3 on the 7-point checklist if there are no other features to suggest melanoma. Referral to genetics is recommended if three or more family members have been diagnosed with melanoma.
It is important to understand these referral guidelines to ensure timely and appropriate management of suspicious pigmented lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which one of the following nail changes is least likely to occur in psoriasis for a 30-year-old patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yellow nail syndrome
Explanation:Psoriasis and Psoriatic Arthropathy: Nail Changes
Psoriasis is a skin condition that can also affect the nails. The changes in the nails do not necessarily indicate the severity of psoriasis, but they are often associated with psoriatic arthropathy. In fact, around 80-90% of patients with psoriatic arthropathy have nail changes.
The nail changes that may occur in psoriasis include pitting, onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed), subungual hyperkeratosis, and loss of the nail. These changes can affect both the fingers and toes. It is important to note that while nail changes may not be a reliable indicator of psoriasis severity, they can be a sign of psoriatic arthropathy, which is a type of arthritis that can occur in people with psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a similar concern as the previous patient. She has noticed a volcano-like spot on her left arm that has been present for the past 3 months. Initially, she thought it was a simple spot, but it has not gone away. Upon examination, a 5 mm red, raised lesion with a central keratin-filled crater is observed. The doctor suspects a probable keratoacanthoma. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to dermatology
Explanation:Keratoacanthoma is a benign lesion, but urgent excision is advised due to difficulty in clinically excluding squamous cell carcinoma.
Understanding Keratoacanthoma
Keratoacanthoma is a type of non-cancerous tumor that affects the epithelial cells. It is more commonly found in older individuals and is rare in young people. The tumor is characterized by a dome-shaped papule that resembles a volcano or crater. As it grows, it becomes filled with keratin and develops a central crater. While spontaneous regression of keratoacanthoma is common within three months, it often results in scarring. Therefore, it is important to urgently remove such lesions as it is difficult to clinically differentiate them from squamous cell carcinoma. Removal may also prevent scarring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are examining a 7-month-old infant who has a capillary haemangioma located on the right cheek that is beginning to interfere with their vision. Following a conversation with the parents, you have decided to initiate treatment for this area due to the potential impact on eyesight.
What is the primary treatment option for capillary haemangioma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:When it comes to capillary haemangiomas that require intervention, the preferred treatment is propranolol. Other options include laser therapy or systemic steroids, but topical steroids are unlikely to be effective. Surgery is generally not recommended for most cases.
Understanding Strawberry Naevus
Strawberry naevus, also known as capillary haemangioma, is a type of skin condition that usually develops in infants within the first month of life. It is characterized by raised, erythematous, and multilobed tumours that commonly appear on the face, scalp, and back. While it is not present at birth, it can grow rapidly and reach its peak size at around 6-9 months before regressing over the next few years. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve before the child reaches 10 years of age. However, there are potential complications that may arise, such as obstructing visual fields or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia.
Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in female and premature infants, as well as those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling. In cases where treatment is necessary, propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers like timolol may also be used. It is important to note that there is a deeper type of capillary haemangioma called cavernous haemangioma. Understanding the nature of strawberry naevus is crucial in managing its potential complications and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male presents to his primary care clinic with a 3-day history of burning pain and rash on the right side of his chest. He also complains of feeling generally unwell. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
During the physical examination, an erythematous rash with multiple clear vesicles is observed on the right side of the torso. The remainder of the clinical examination, including an ophthalmic examination, is unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral famciclovir
Explanation:Patients suspected of having shingles should receive antiviral treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset, according to NICE guidelines. Shingles is diagnosed based on the presence of dermatomal pain and a papular rash, with pain often persisting after the rash has resolved. The recommended first-line oral antivirals are famciclovir or valacyclovir, to be taken for 7 days. Aciclovir is a second-line option, as studies have shown that famciclovir and valacyclovir are more effective in reducing the risk of postherpetic pain. Prescribing calamine lotion and analgesia, as well as monitoring the patient, is not sufficient and does not replace antiviral treatment. Intravenous antivirals are only necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral medication, and famciclovir cannot be administered intravenously.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female with a past medical history of anorexia nervosa complains of red crusted lesions located at the corners of her mouth and below her lower lip. What nutrient deficiency is she most likely experiencing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zinc
Explanation:Angular cheilitis can also be caused by a lack of vitamin B2 (riboflavin).
Understanding Zinc Deficiency and Acrodermatitis Enteropathica
Zinc deficiency is a condition that can lead to a range of symptoms, including acrodermatitis, which is characterized by red, crusted lesions that appear in an acral distribution, peri-orificial, perianal, and alopecia. Other symptoms of zinc deficiency include short stature, hypogonadism, hepatosplenomegaly, geophagia (ingesting clay/soil), cognitive impairment, and more.
One specific type of zinc deficiency is known as acrodermatitis enteropathica, which is a recessively inherited partial defect in intestinal zinc absorption. This condition can lead to a range of symptoms, including the characteristic skin lesions, as well as other physical and cognitive impairments. It is important to recognize the signs of zinc deficiency and seek appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. With proper management, individuals with zinc deficiency can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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