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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old professional basketball player presents with complaints of feeling lightheaded during exercise. Upon physical examination, a laterally displaced apical impulse is noted. Auscultation reveals a 2/6 mid-systolic murmur in the mitral area that increases upon sudden standing. The ECG shows LVH and Q waves in V1–4 leads.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Dyspnoea and a Murmur: Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a condition that can lead to sudden death in young athletes and is characterized by dyspnoea, LVH, and a loud S4. The systolic murmur associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy does not radiate to the carotids and can be differentiated from aortic stenosis, which causes a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that does radiate to the carotids. Young-onset hypertension is unlikely to cause a murmur, and acute myocardial infarction would show ST elevation or depression on ECG, but not LVH. Atrial septal defect is usually picked up in newborn checks and presents with a brief murmur in early systole and early diastole, while hypertrophic cardiomyopathy presents with a double or triple apical impulse and a characteristic jerky carotid pulse. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy to prevent sudden death in young athletes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent has been diagnosed with hypertension after ruling out secondary causes. What is the best initial medication for treatment?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:For black African or African-Caribbean patients newly diagnosed with hypertension, a calcium channel blocker should be added as first-line treatment instead of ACE inhibitors, which have shown lower effectiveness in this population.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
Correct
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A woman with a history of asthma who is 25 weeks pregnant is found to have consistent blood pressure readings >170/95 mmHg. She is admitted under Gynaecology.
Which of the following antihypertensives would you initiate for this patient?Your Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Safe and Effective Treatment Options for Gestational Hypertension
Gestational hypertension is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. According to NICE guidelines, labetalol is the first-line treatment for gestational hypertension. However, if the patient has asthma, labetalol is contraindicated. In such cases, nifedipine is listed as the second-line treatment, followed by methyldopa if necessary.
Diltiazem is not usually used in gestational hypertension, and the role of this medication in pregnancy is unclear. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated in pregnancy, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated due to their potential adverse effects on fetal blood pressure and renal function.
In cases of gestational hypertension, it is crucial to rule out pre-eclampsia. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 160/110, NICE guidelines recommend admission until the blood pressure is below this level.
Calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, are safe and effective in pregnancy, while the role of diltiazem is uncertain. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated. It is essential to choose the appropriate medication based on the patient’s medical history and individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of intermittent chest pains. She states that these started in the afternoon and have gotten worse. The pain is central and seems to improve when she sits on her chair and leans forward. She has a past medical history of hypertension. The GP decides to perform an electrocardiogram (ECG).
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following best describes what might be seen on the ECG?
Select the SINGLE most likely ECG finding from the list below.
Your Answer: Widespread concave ST-segment elevation and PR segment depression
Explanation:Understanding ECG Findings in Acute Pericarditis
Acute pericarditis is a condition that commonly presents with central pleuritic chest pain, relieved on leaning forward. One of the main ECG findings in acute pericarditis is widespread concave ST-segment elevations with PR-segment depression, which is 85% specific for the condition. Absent P waves are not typically caused by acute pericarditis, and ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads is more suggestive of anterior myocardial infarction. U waves are not characteristic ECG findings in acute pericarditis and are associated with other conditions. Other clinical features of acute pericarditis are largely dependent on the underlying cause. It is important to understand these ECG findings to aid in the diagnosis and management of acute pericarditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 5
Correct
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A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a serious car accident resulting in chest injuries. The paramedics had trouble establishing IV access. Upon arrival, he is unresponsive with a ventricular fibrillation ECG. ALS is initiated, but multiple attempts at cannulation fail. However, successful intubation is achieved.
What is the best course of action for administering ALS medications in this scenario?Your Answer: Intraosseous line insertion
Explanation:If it is not possible to obtain IV access in ALS, medications should be administered through the intraosseous route (IO) instead of the tracheal route, which is no longer advised.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Correct
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A 47-year-old man presents to the clinic with concerns about his risk of coronary heart disease after a friend recently had a heart attack. He has a history of anxiety but is not currently taking any medication. He is a smoker, consuming around 20 cigarettes a day. On examination, his cardiovascular system appears normal, with a BMI of 26 kg/m² and blood pressure of 126/82 mmHg.
As his healthcare provider, you strongly advise him to quit smoking. What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Arrange a lipid profile then calculate his QRISK2 score
Explanation:The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 7
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with known permanent AF (atrial fibrillation) on warfarin has a fast, irregularly irregular pulse. He has no other past medical history. The ECG confirms AF with a rate of 132 beats/min. He is haemodynamically stable and well. He denies any history of palpitations, shortness of breath or syncope.
Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation: A Comprehensive Guide
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt and appropriate management to prevent complications. Here are some treatment options for AF:
Rate Control: This is recommended for patients who have had AF for more than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are the first-line treatment unless there is a contraindication such as asthma. Calcium channel blockers can also be used.
Digoxin: This drug can be used as rate control if the patient cannot have beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers. However, it should only be used as a third-line treatment or as an adjunct because it has been shown to increase mortality. It is also only effective in sedentary patients.
DC Cardioversion: This can be used to treat new-onset AF if the patient has had it for less than 48 hours. It can also be considered in patients who have had it for longer than that, once they have been on stable anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.
Flecainide: This is a class Ic antiarrhythmic drug that can be used as chemical cardioversion in new AF (<48 hours) or if a patient has been anticoagulated for >3 weeks.
Rhythm Control: Nice guidelines advise that rhythm control can be used if AF onset was <48 hours ago, but should be avoided if longer ago because it can increase the risk of stroke from an atrial thrombus. In longer cases, rate control should be used, which is with beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. Digoxin can be used third line or as an adjunct. In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for AF depends on the duration of the arrhythmia, the patient’s comorbidities, and other factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 8
Correct
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An 81-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department after her smartwatch ECG recorder detected atrial fibrillation for the past three days. She has experienced mild shortness of breath during physical activity in the last 24 hours. Upon examination, her heart rate is irregular, with a rate of 98 bpm, and her blood pressure is stable at 130/72 mmHg. She has no history of atrial fibrillation and only takes amlodipine for her grade I hypertension. What is the most appropriate treatment plan?
Your Answer: Discharge on bisoprolol and apixaban and arrange cardioversion in four weeks
Explanation:In cases of sudden atrial fibrillation, if the duration is 48 hours or more, the first step is to control the heart rate. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, it is important to wait at least 3 weeks after starting therapeutic anticoagulation before attempting cardioversion.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend that patients presenting with AF should be assessed for haemodynamic instability, and if present, electrically cardioverted. For haemodynamically stable patients, the management depends on how acute the AF is. If the AF has been present for less than 48 hours, rate or rhythm control may be considered. However, if it has been present for 48 hours or more, or the onset is uncertain, rate control is recommended. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, cardioversion should be delayed until the patient has been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.
Rate control is the first-line treatment strategy for AF, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin can be used to control the heart rate. However, digoxin is no longer considered first-line as it is less effective at controlling the heart rate during exercise. Rhythm control agents such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone can be used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of AF. Catheter ablation is recommended for those who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication.
The aim of catheter ablation is to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that are causing AF. The procedure is performed percutaneously, typically via the groin, and can use radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the tissue. Anticoagulation should be used 4 weeks before and during the procedure. It is important to note that catheter ablation controls the rhythm but does not reduce the stroke risk, so patients still require anticoagulation as per their CHA2DS2-VASc score. Complications of catheter ablation can include cardiac tamponade, stroke, and pulmonary vein stenosis. The success rate of the procedure is around 50% for early recurrence within 3 months, and around 55% of patients who’ve had a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm after 3 years. Of patients who’ve undergone multiple procedures, around 80% are in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An aged patient in the oncology unit experiences a cardiac arrest. You initiate compressions and notify the resuscitation team. Upon rhythm assessment, VT is detected. Following three rounds of CPR and multiple shocks, which two medications are recommended in the ALS protocol?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amiodarone 300mg and adrenaline 1mg
Explanation:During advanced ALS, the recommended dose of adrenaline to administer is 1mg. If the patient is identified in the hospital, they should receive a minimum shock of 150 joules (unless the defibrillator model specifies otherwise). Compressions at a rate of 30:2 should be resumed for 2 minutes, followed by reassessment of the rhythm. If VF or pVT persists, a second shock should be given. Repeat the previous steps until the third shock, at which point 1mg IV of adrenaline and 300 mg IV of amiodarone should be administered while continuing CPR. Afterward, 1mg of adrenaline should be given after every other shock. Consider administering a second dose of amiodarone after a total of 5 defibrillation attempts if it is available. If amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman is diagnosed with premature ovarian failure and prescribed HRT for symptom relief and bone health. What other medical condition is she at a higher risk for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Premature menopause is linked to higher mortality rates, including an increased risk of osteoporosis and cardiovascular disease, specifically ischaemic heart disease. Oestrogen is known to have protective effects on bone health and cardiovascular disease, making the increased risks associated with premature menopause particularly concerning. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is often recommended until the normal age of menopause, with a discussion of the risks and benefits of continuing HRT beyond that point. A 2015 NICE review found that the baseline risk of coronary heart disease and stroke for menopausal women varies based on individual cardiovascular risk factors. HRT with oestrogen alone is associated with no or reduced risk of coronary heart disease, while HRT with oestrogen and progestogen is linked to little or no increase in the risk of coronary heart disease. However, taking oral (but not transdermal) oestrogen is associated with a small increase in the risk of stroke.
Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and heart failure presents with atrial fibrillation. She is stable with a ventricular rate of 70. Which of the following drug options would be the most suitable for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin or direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation: Warfarin, DOACs, Aspirin, Digoxin, Furosemide, and Lidocaine
Patients with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASC score of 4 require anticoagulation to reduce the risk of a CVA. The two main options are warfarin and DOACs, but the choice depends on other co-morbidities and patient preference. Before starting warfarin, patients should be referred to the Anticoagulation Clinic and screened for contraindications.
Aspirin has no benefit in atrial fibrillation, and digoxin should only be used for short-term rate control due to evidence of increased mortality with long-term use. Furosemide can help with symptoms and edema in heart failure but does not improve mortality. Lidocaine is only appropriate for ventricular arrhythmias in unstable patients and requires specialist support.
In summary, the treatment options for atrial fibrillation vary depending on the patient’s individual circumstances and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with angina pectoris and is currently prescribed aspirin 75mg once daily, simvastatin 40 mg once daily, and atenolol 100 mg once daily. If his angina symptoms are not adequately managed with this regimen, what would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add a long-acting dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker
Explanation:When beta-blockers fail to control angina, it is recommended to supplement with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that has a longer duration of action.
Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the emergency department after being found unresponsive in a local park. Upon admission, his temperature is 30.2 ºC and an ECG reveals a broad complex polymorphic tachycardia. The patient is diagnosed with torsades de pointes. What is the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate
Explanation:Torsades de pointes can be treated with IV magnesium sulfate.
Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition
Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the recommended next step in managing the blood pressure of a 42 year old woman with a history of depression and a recent paracetamol overdose who has a manual blood pressure reading of 165/85 mmHg?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
Explanation:The National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its guideline for hypertension management in 2011, placing emphasis on the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm hypertension in individuals with elevated clinic readings. ABPM involves taking two measurements per hour during waking hours and using the average of at least 14 measurements to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. Secondary causes of hypertension should be investigated in patients under 40 without traditional risk factors, those with other symptoms of secondary causes, and those with resistant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause of secondary hypertension, and a trial of spironolactone may be used for both therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Drug treatment for essential hypertension involves ACE inhibitors for those under 55 and calcium channel blockers for those over 55 or of black African or Caribbean origin. Step 2 involves using both ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers, while step 3 adds a thiazide-like diuretic. Further diuretics, beta-blockers, or alpha blockers may be considered in step 4, with expert advice sought. For a more detailed explanation, refer to the provided link.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines aimed to classify hypertension into stages and recommend the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to accurately diagnose hypertension. This is important because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM allow for a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can prevent overdiagnosis.
NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms when considering a diagnosis of hypertension and repeating measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg between arms. If the blood pressure is >= 140/90 mmHg, NICE suggests offering ABPM or HBPM to confirm the diagnosis. If the blood pressure is >= 180/120 mmHg, referral for specialist assessment is recommended if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately.
ABPM involves taking at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours and using the average value of at least 14 measurements. If ABPM is not tolerated, HBPM should be offered. HBPM involves taking two consecutive measurements at least 1 minute apart, twice daily for at least 4 days, and using the average value of all remaining measurements.
Interpreting the results of ABPM/HBPM is important for determining treatment. If the average blood pressure is >= 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension), treatment may be considered for patients under 80 years of age with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. In 2019, NICE also recommended considering antihypertensive drug treatment for adults under 60 with stage 1 hypertension and an estimated 10-year risk below 10%. If the average blood pressure is >= 150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension), drug treatment should be offered regardless of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are on-call and reviewing a potassium result. The patient's details are as follows:
Na+ 141 mmol/l
K+ 6.4 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 16 mmol/l
Urea 13.1 mmol/l
Creatinine 195 µmol/l
You are uncertain about administering calcium gluconate and decide to seek advice from your senior. She advises you to only give calcium gluconate if there are ECG changes. What ECG changes are most indicative of hyperkalaemia in a patient who is 60 years old?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Widening of the QRS complex
Explanation:ECG characteristics of hypokalaemia include a prolonged QT interval, prolonged PR interval, and the presence of U waves.
Understanding Hyperkalaemia: Causes and Symptoms
Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. The regulation of plasma potassium levels is influenced by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When metabolic acidosis occurs, hyperkalaemia may develop as hydrogen and potassium ions compete for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. ECG changes that may be observed in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Certain drugs such as potassium-sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin can also cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. On the other hand, beta-agonists like Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment.
Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes. It is essential to monitor potassium levels in the blood to prevent complications associated with hyperkalaemia. If left untreated, hyperkalaemia can lead to serious health problems such as cardiac arrhythmias and even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (on echo) has a blood pressure (BP) of 160/95 mmHg. She is currently on lisinopril (maximum doses).
Which of the following new agents would you add in?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Guidelines
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management through medications. Among the drugs commonly used are bisoprolol, bendroflumethiazide, clopidogrel, spironolactone, and diltiazem.
Bisoprolol and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor are recommended for all heart failure patients as they have been shown to reduce mortality. Bendroflumethiazide and loop diuretics like furosemide can help alleviate symptoms but do not have a mortality benefit. Clopidogrel, on the other hand, is not indicated for heart failure but is used for vascular diseases like NSTEMI and stroke.
Spironolactone is recommended for patients who remain symptomatic despite treatment with an ACE inhibitor and a b blocker. It is also beneficial for those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD) after a myocardial infarction (MI). However, diltiazem should be avoided in heart failure patients.
According to NICE guidelines, b blockers and ACE inhibitors should be given to all LVSD patients unless contraindicated. Spironolactone can be added if symptoms persist. Proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for heart failure patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of dizziness and palpitations. He denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. His medical history includes hypertension and stable angina.
Vital signs:
- Temperature: 36.7ºC
- Heart rate: 44 bpm
- Blood pressure: 90/51 mmHg
- Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/min
- Oxygen saturations: 94% on air
On examination, his pulse is regular bilaterally, and his calves are soft and nontender. Auscultation reveals vesicular breath sounds and normal heart sounds. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with a PR interval of 210ms (120-200ms).
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous atropine
Explanation:In cases where patients exhibit bradycardia and signs of shock, the recommended initial treatment is administering 500 micrograms of atropine, which can be repeated up to a maximum dose of 3mg. This patient’s ECG findings indicate first-degree heart block, which is consistent with their bradycardia and hypotension. If atropine fails to control the patient’s bradyarrhythmia, other options such as isoprenaline infusions or transcutaneous pacing may be considered. However, intravenous adenosine is not appropriate for this patient as it is used to treat supraventricular tachycardias, which is not the diagnosis in this case. While isoprenaline infusion and transcutaneous pacing are alternative treatments for bradyarrhythmias, they are not the first-line option and should only be considered if atropine is ineffective. Therefore, atropine is the correct answer for this patient’s management.
Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms
The 2015 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight the importance of identifying adverse signs and potential risk of asystole in the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms. Adverse signs indicating haemodynamic compromise include shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment in this situation. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, and isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.
Furthermore, the presence of risk factors for asystole such as complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, and ventricular pause > 3 seconds should be considered. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing. Effective management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms is crucial in preventing further deterioration and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are asked by the nursing staff to review an elderly patient in recovery overnight. As you arrive, the nurse looking after the patient informs you that she is just going to get a bag of fluid for him.
On examination, the patient is unresponsive with an obstructed airway (snoring). You notice on the monitor that his heart rate is 33 beats per minute (bpm) and blood pressure 89/60 mmHg. His saturation probe has fallen off.
What is the most appropriate immediate management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call for help and maintain the airway with a jaw thrust and deliver 15 litres of high-flow oxygen
Explanation:Managing a Patient with Bradycardia and Airway Obstruction: Priorities and Interventions
When faced with a patient who is unresponsive and has both an obstructed airway and bradycardia, it is crucial to prioritize interventions based on the A-E assessment. The first priority is to maintain the airway with a jaw thrust and deliver high-flow oxygen. Once help is called, the patient’s response is monitored, and if bradycardia persists, atropine is given in 500 µg boluses IV. If the airway obstruction cannot be managed with simple measures or non-definitive airways, re-intubation may be necessary. In cases where atropine is ineffective, an isoprenaline infusion may be considered. While a second IV access line may be beneficial, it is not a priority in this situation. By following these interventions, the patient’s condition can be stabilized and managed effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man comes back to the clinic for a blood pressure check following an increase in his ramipril dosage. During the check, his blood pressure is recorded as 152/96 mmHg, and he reports getting similar readings on his home monitor. Which medication would be the most suitable to initiate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:If a patient in this age group has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor (or angiotensin II receptor blocker), the next step is to consider adding a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, adding a calcium channel blocker would be the appropriate choice. Beta blockers are not recommended in the NICE guidelines for hypertension management. While a thiazide-like diuretic could also be an option, furosemide, a loop diuretic, is not suitable. It is important to note that adding another ACE inhibitor is not recommended since the patient is already taking one.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old Caucasian man presents with blood pressure readings of 150/100 mmHg, 148/95mmHg and 160/95mmHg during three consecutive visits to his GP surgery. He refuses ambulatory blood pressure monitoring due to its interference with his job as a construction worker. His home blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/95mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension who is under 55 years old and has stage 2 hypertension, it is recommended to add either an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker. This is in accordance with the NICE guidelines, which suggest that antihypertensive drug treatments should be offered to individuals of any age with stage 2 hypertension. If the patient is 55 years or older, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended instead.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia presents with sudden shortness of breath one hour after undergoing primary percutaneous intervention for an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. The procedure was successful and radial access was used. She initially appeared stable and a bedside echocardiogram showed normal left ventricular function. However, on examination, she appears unwell with diaphoresis, tachypnea, hypotension (80/42 mmHg), tachycardia (111/minute), and elevated JVP. There are no signs of peripheral oedema or deep venous thrombosis. What is the most urgent intervention that could save her life?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pericardiocentesis
Explanation:Cardiac tamponade is suggested by the presence of Beck’s triad, which includes falling blood pressure, rising jugular venous pulse, and muffled heart sounds. Therefore, cardiogenic shock is unlikely as the patient underwent successful revascularization and had a normal echocardiogram post-procedure. While inotropes may provide temporary support for low blood pressure, they are not a curative option in this case. Sepsis is not the cause of hypotension as it is typically associated with a fever, bounding pulse, and warm extremities, and the jugular venous pulse would not be elevated. Intravenous antibiotics are therefore not the correct answer. Hypovolemia is also not associated with an elevated jugular venous pulse, so intravenous fluids are not the correct answer. Additionally, the use of radial access makes a retroperitoneal hematoma less likely. The correct answer is pericardiocentesis, as the clinical features suggest cardiac tamponade, which is a known complication of primary percutaneous intervention in myocardial infarction.
Cardiac tamponade is a condition where there is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which puts pressure on the heart. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds, dyspnoea, tachycardia, and pulsus paradoxus. One of the key features of cardiac tamponade is the absence of a Y descent on the JVP, which is due to limited right ventricular filling. Other diagnostic criteria include Kussmaul’s sign and electrical alternans on an ECG. Constrictive pericarditis is a similar condition, but it can be distinguished from cardiac tamponade by the presence of an X and Y descent on the JVP, the absence of pulsus paradoxus, and the presence of pericardial calcification on a chest X-ray. The management of cardiac tamponade involves urgent pericardiocentesis to relieve the pressure on the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the hospital with palpitations. On ECG, a shortened PR interval and wide QRS complexes are observed, along with a slurred upstroke in lead II. What is the definitive treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accessory pathway ablation
Explanation:The definitive treatment for this patient’s Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome is ablation of the accessory pathway.
Understanding Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome
Wolff-Parkinson White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that occurs due to a congenital accessory conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles, leading to atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT). This condition can cause AF to degenerate rapidly into VF as the accessory pathway does not slow conduction. The ECG features of WPW include a short PR interval and wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke, also known as a delta wave. The left or right axis deviation depends on the location of the accessory pathway.
WPW syndrome is associated with several conditions, including HOCM, mitral valve prolapse, Ebstein’s anomaly, thyrotoxicosis, and secundum ASD. The definitive treatment for WPW syndrome is radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway. Medical therapy options include sotalol, amiodarone, and flecainide. However, sotalol should be avoided if there is coexistent atrial fibrillation as it may increase the ventricular rate and potentially deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation.
In summary, WPW syndrome is a condition caused by a congenital accessory conduction pathway that can lead to rapid degeneration of AF into VF. The ECG features include a short PR interval and a delta wave. WPW syndrome is associated with several conditions, and the definitive treatment is radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway. Medical therapy options are available, but sotalol should be avoided in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of a dry cough that has been going on for 3 weeks. He reports no chest pain or shortness of breath, and has not experienced any unexplained weight loss. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus that is managed through lifestyle and diet, and was recently diagnosed with hypertension and started on lisinopril. He is a non-smoker and drinks 6 units of alcohol per week. What is the best course of action for his treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop lisinopril and start irbesartan
Explanation:When a patient cannot tolerate taking ACE inhibitors, such as lisinopril, an angiotensin-receptor blocker (ARB) should be offered as an alternative, according to NICE guidelines. This is particularly relevant for patients with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, as an ACE inhibitor is preferred due to its renal protective and antihypertensive properties. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing a dry cough as a side effect of lisinopril use, which is a common issue with ACE inhibitors. To address this, stopping lisinopril and starting irbesartan is the correct course of action. Unlike ACE inhibitors, ARBs do not cause a buildup of bradykinin in the lungs, which is responsible for the dry cough. It is important to note that reassurance alone is not sufficient, as the dry cough will not settle with time. Additionally, arranging a skin prick allergy test is unnecessary, as the patient is not allergic to lisinopril. While amlodipine may be considered as a second-line treatment option, NICE recommends switching to an ARB first.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male with no significant medical history is brought to the operating room for an emergency appendectomy. He is induced with sevoflurane and maintained on sevoflurane and propofol. Suddenly, an alert on the anesthesia machine pops up, indicating elevated end-tidal CO2. The patient's condition appears to have worsened, with skin mottling and excessive sweating.
What could be the probable cause of this sudden change in the patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignant hyperthermia
Explanation:Volatile liquid anaesthetics (isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane) can cause malignant hyperthermia, a rare genetic disorder that causes skeletal muscle to contract rapidly and can lead to acidosis, increased CO2, and elevated body temperature. This is the likely cause of the patient’s acute deterioration after receiving sevoflurane. Other potential causes, such as cardiac arrest, endobronchial intubation, normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and spontaneous appendix perforation, do not explain the specific symptoms observed.
Overview of General Anaesthetics
General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.
Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.
It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) following a fall at home. During examination in the ED, there is no evidence of external bleeding, but her blood pressure is 100/50 mmHg, and her heart rate is 110 bpm. She has distended neck veins and muffled heart sounds. What is the most probable finding on an echocardiogram?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pericardial effusion
Explanation:Medical Conditions and Trauma: Understanding the Differences
Pericardial Effusion: A Serious Condition
When a patient presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and Beck’s triad (hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds), it is suggestive of pericardial effusion. This condition occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial space, compressing the heart and causing low cardiac output. Trauma to the chest is a common cause of pericardial effusion, leading to bleeding into the pericardial space.
Haemothorax, Mitral Regurgitation, Pleural Effusion, and Pneumothorax: Other Trauma-Related Conditions
While haemothorax refers to blood in the pleural space, it would not cause Beck’s triad or be detected on an echocardiogram. Mitral regurgitation could be detected on an echocardiogram, but it would not likely lead to Beck’s triad as blood would remain within the heart chambers. Pleural effusion refers to any fluid in the pleural space and would not cause Beck’s triad, nor would it be detected on echocardiography. Pneumothorax, which refers to air in the pleural space, can also occur with trauma. Tension pneumothorax may cause Beck’s triad, but it would not be detected on an echocardiogram.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue. During the physical examination, a soft diastolic murmur is detected, which is most audible in the second intercostal space on the right. His blood pressure is measured at 162/65 mmHg. What is the probable reason for the murmur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:The patient exhibits a diastolic murmur that is most pronounced over the aortic valve, along with a wide pulse pressure, indicating a diagnosis of aortic regurgitation. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, would manifest as a systolic murmur with a narrow pulse pressure. Meanwhile, mitral regurgitation would present as a systolic murmur that is most audible over the mitral valve, while mitral stenosis would produce a diastolic murmur that is loudest over the mitral valve and would not result in a wide pulse pressure.
Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. In the developing world, rheumatic fever is the most common cause of AR, while in developed countries, calcific valve disease and connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and SLE are more common causes. Symptoms of AR include an early diastolic murmur, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. Echocardiography is used to investigate suspected AR. Management includes medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery for symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. He mentions experiencing similar pains that occur during exercise and subside when he rests. The patient appears to be in distress, sweating, and having difficulty breathing. An ECG is conducted, revealing new T-wave inversion in V3-V6. His troponin and d-dimer levels are as follows:
Troponin 223 ng/L (<5)
D-Dimer 932 ng/mL (< 400)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)
Explanation:Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term that covers various acute presentations of ischaemic heart disease, including ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. ACS develops in patients with ischaemic heart disease, which is the gradual build-up of fatty plaques in the coronary arteries. ACS can cause chest pain, dyspnoea, sweating, and nausea and vomiting. The two most important investigations for ACS are an ECG and cardiac markers. Treatment for ACS includes preventing worsening of presentation, revascularising the vessel is occluded, and treating pain. Patients who have had an ACS require lifelong drug therapy to reduce the risk of a further event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man comes to you with complaints of palpitations. Upon conducting an electrocardiogram, you diagnose him with atrial fibrillation. He has no history of cardiovascular or cerebrovascular disease and his recent blood tests, including a random glucose test, were normal. His BMI is 28 kg/m² and his blood pressure today is 135/82 mmHg. Determine his CHA2DS2 VASc score for stroke risk.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0
Explanation:NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General Practitioner with a heavy feeling in his chest for the past two hours. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is taken, which shows 1.4 mm ST-segment elevations in leads II III and aVF.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior MI
Explanation:Based on the electrocardiogram (ECG) findings, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is an inferior myocardial infarction (MI), which occurs in the territory of the right coronary artery. This is indicated by ST-segment elevations in leads I, II, and aVF. Other ECG changes, such as complete heart block and bradycardia, may also be present due to the arterial supply the RCA gives to the atrioventricular and sinoatrial nodes. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may suggest acute coronary syndrome.
Acute pericarditis is unlikely as it presents with sharp retrosternal chest pain and a pericardial friction rub on auscultation, with different ECG findings such as widespread concave ST-segment elevations and PR segment depression.
An anterolateral MI would show ST-segment elevations in the anterolateral leads, while a posterior MI would show ST-segment depressions in the anterior leads with tall R waves.
In a pulmonary embolism (PE), ECG changes may include a large S wave in lead I, a large Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III – S1Q3T3, but this is only seen in a minority of patients. Most patients with a PE would have a normal ECG or sinus tachycardia, with signs of right-heart strain sometimes present. The clinical presentation of a PE would also differ from that of an MI, with symptoms such as tachypnea, tachycardia, lung crackles, fever, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 56-year-old teacher, visits you for a check-up regarding her angina. Despite taking the highest dosage of bisoprolol, she experiences chest pain during physical activity, which hinders her daily routine as she frequently needs to take breaks and rest after walking short distances. Her pain never occurs while at rest, and she has no known allergies or drug sensitivities. What is the recommended course of action for managing Samantha's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add amlodipine
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines (2019), if a beta-blocker is not effectively controlling angina, a long-acting dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker (CCB) like amlodipine should be added. It is important to ensure that the patient is taking the highest tolerated dose of their current medications before adding new ones.
Ramipril is not the best treatment option for this patient as there is no evidence of hypertension in their medical history. While ACE inhibitors like ramipril can be effective in preventing myocardial infarction and stroke in patients with angina and hypertension, they are not indicated in this case.
Verapamil is a CCB that can be used to manage angina, but it should not be used in combination with a beta-blocker as this can increase the risk of severe bradycardia and heart failure.
As the patient is not displaying any signs of unstable angina, such as pain at rest or rapidly progressing symptoms, admission to the emergency department is not necessary.
If there is evidence of extensive ischaemia on an electrocardiograph (ECG) or the patient is not responding well to an optimised drug treatment, referral to cardiology for angioplasty may be necessary.
Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old individual is rushed to the Emergency Department via ambulance, experiencing intense chest pain, difficulty breathing, and excessive sweating. The paramedics conducted an ECG on the scene, revealing ST depression in V1-V3 with tall, wide R waves and upward T waves. What should be the next appropriate step to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Record a posterior ECG
Explanation:To confirm posterior infarction, a posterior ECG should be recorded when ST elevation and Q waves are present in posterior leads (V7-9). In this case, the patient presented with symptoms suggestive of myocardial infarction and the ECG showed changes that indicated the need for a posterior ECG. This involves placing leads V4-V6 on the patient’s back to make leads V7-V9. ST-elevation and Q waves in these leads confirm posterior infarction, and the patient should be transferred for primary percutaneous coronary intervention as soon as possible. It is important to have a high index of suspicion for posterior MIs and a low threshold for getting a posterior ECG.
Giving IV potassium replacement or calcium gluconate IV would be incorrect in this case. These treatments are used for hypokalaemia and severe hyperkalaemia, respectively, and are not the most likely diagnoses. Ibuprofen and colchicine would be appropriate for pericarditis, which presents with chest pain that is worse on lying flat and has characteristic ECG changes. However, the clinical picture and ECG changes in this case are more consistent with ACS.
A CT aortogram is used to investigate for aortic dissection, which can present with severe chest pain, breathlessness, and sweating. However, it would be best to record a posterior ECG to investigate for posterior MI prior to investigating for an aortic dissection due to the classic features of ACS in the history.
Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery. Inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V1-6, I, and aVL indicate the proximal left anterior descending artery is involved. Lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9). This type of infarction is usually caused by the left circumflex artery, but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are typically seen as horizontal ST depression, tall and broad R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may indicate acute coronary syndrome.
Overall, understanding the correlation between ECG changes and coronary artery territories is crucial in diagnosing acute coronary syndrome. By identifying the specific changes in the ECG, medical professionals can determine which artery is affected and provide appropriate treatment. Additionally, recognizing the reciprocal changes of STEMI and the significance of a new LBBB can aid in making an accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Syncope: A Guide
Syncope, or fainting, can be caused by a variety of underlying conditions. One such condition is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), which often presents with syncope following exercise. Patients with HCM may also have a mid-systolic murmur and a jerky pulse, which worsens with Valsalva but improves with squatting.
Atrial fibrillation, on the other hand, typically presents with palpitations, fatigue, or shortness of breath, but not syncope. It does not cause a murmur and results in an irregularly irregular pulse.
Epilepsy is not a common cause of syncope, as typical seizures involve loss of consciousness, tensing, shaking, and postictal fatigue.
Aortic stenosis can cause dizziness and syncope, and is usually associated with angina. The murmur associated with aortic stenosis is a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that radiates to the carotids.
A vasovagal attack, while it can cause syncope, would not cause a murmur. If syncope is recurrent, other causes should be sought.
Dyspnea is a common complaint in patients with HCM, but they may also experience angina or syncope. A left ventricular apical impulse, a prominent S4 gallop, and a harsh systolic ejection murmur are typical findings. The Valsalva maneuver can increase the murmur. An echocardiogram is the diagnostic procedure of choice.
Most patients with aortic stenosis have gradually increasing obstruction for years but do not become symptomatic until their sixth to eighth decades.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old woman has effort-related angina. She has no other cardiac risk factors and no other relevant medical history. Her QRisk is calculated as 12.2%. She has already been prescribed a GTN spray which she can use for immediate relief of her symptoms.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta blocker and statin
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends using a β blocker or calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment for angina, along with a statin. If a patient is intolerant to β blockers or not responding to a CCB alone, a long-acting nitrate can be added. An ACE inhibitor is not indicated for angina treatment. Beta blockers and CCBs can be used together if one alone does not control symptoms, but caution is needed to avoid conduction problems. Long-acting nitrates should only be used in isolation if CCB or β blocker use is contraindicated. Aspirin is recommended for secondary prevention, and short-acting nitrates can be used for symptom relief. The 4S study showed that statins significantly reduce the risk of MI in patients with angina and high cholesterol levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a history of fainting. He reports feeling lightheaded while jogging. His father recently passed away suddenly due to a heart condition. Upon examination, he has an irregular pulse, a forceful cardiac impulse, and a mid-systolic murmur.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose the ONE best option from the list below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Explanation:Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a genetic disorder with autosomal dominant transmission that is the most common form of inherited cardiomyopathy. It has a prevalence of about 100 per 100,000 and can present with symptoms similar to aortic stenosis, but with a jerky pulse. Sudden death can be the first symptom, especially during or after physical activity. Risk factors for sudden death in HCM include a history of previous cardiac arrest or sustained ventricular tachycardia, recurrent syncope, adverse genotype and/or family history, exercise-induced hypotension, multiple episodes of non-sustained ventricular tachycardia on ambulatory ECG, and a marked increase in the thickness of the left ventricular wall. Dilated cardiomyopathy is the most common form of non-ischaemic cardiomyopathy, but given the patient’s family history, jerky pulse, and collapse on exercise, it is not the most likely cause. Mitral valve prolapse tends to present with palpitations, dyspnoea, low BMI, chest pain, and syncope, with a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur. Aortic stenosis can cause dizziness, syncope, and angina, but the family history makes HCM more likely than AS. Pericarditis tends to cause central chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward and worsened by coughing or straining.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of central chest pain that spreads to his left arm, accompanied by sweating and nausea. In the Emergency Department, an ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4, and he is given 300mg of aspirin before undergoing primary percutaneous coronary intervention. After a successful procedure, he is admitted to the Coronary Care Unit and eventually discharged with secondary prevention medication and lifestyle modification advice, as well as a referral to a cardiac rehabilitation program.
During a check-up with his GP three weeks later, the patient reports feeling well but still experiences fatigue and shortness of breath during rehab activities. He has not had any further chest pain episodes. However, an ECG shows Q waves and convex ST elevation in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left ventricular aneurysm
Explanation:Complications of Myocardial Infarction
Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Patients are treated with defibrillation as per the ALS protocol. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a significant portion of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, leading to a decrease in ejection fraction. This condition is challenging to treat and may require inotropic support and/or an intra-aortic balloon pump. Chronic heart failure may develop if the patient survives the acute phase, and loop diuretics such as furosemide can help decrease fluid overload. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications of MI. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI.
Pericarditis is a common complication of MI in the first 48 hours, characterized by typical pericarditis pain, a pericardial rub, and a pericardial effusion. Dressler’s syndrome, which occurs 2-6 weeks after MI, is an autoimmune reaction against antigenic proteins formed during myocardial recovery. It is treated with NSAIDs. Left ventricular aneurysm may form due to weakened myocardium, leading to persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Patients are anticoagulated due to the increased risk of thrombus formation and stroke. Left ventricular free wall rupture and ventricular septal defect are rare but serious complications that require urgent surgical correction. Acute mitral regurgitation may occur due to ischaemia or rupture of the papillary muscle, leading to acute hypotension and pulmonary oedema. Vasodilator therapy and emergency surgical repair may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and chooses to have a physiological third stage of labor. She experiences a blood loss of 800 ml shortly after delivery. The medical team follows an ABCDE approach and starts a warmed crystalloid infusion. There is no history of medical issues or delivery-related trauma.
What should be the next course of action in managing her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Compress the uterus and catheterise her
Explanation:To manage a postpartum haemorrhage, an ABCDE approach should be taken, with initial steps including compressing the uterus and catheterising the patient. This is known as ‘mechanical management’ and is appropriate for a primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) where uterine atony is the most common cause. IV warmed crystalloid should also be given. Medical management options such as IV oxytocin or IM/IV carboprost should only be considered if mechanical methods fail. It is important to note that IV carboprost should not be administered as it can lead to serious side effects.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman with a history of well-controlled type 2 diabetes on metformin hydrochloride presents to her GP after an ambulatory blood pressure monitoring revealed an average reading of 140/83 mmHg. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension and a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, it is recommended to add an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker regardless of age. In this case, Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, would be the appropriate choice. However, if the patient did not have a history of type 2 diabetes, the initial management would be to prescribe a calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine, especially if the patient is over 55 years old. If the blood pressure remains high, a thiazide-like diuretic or calcium channel blocker can be added to the ACE inhibitor. If the blood pressure still remains elevated, a combination of ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and thiazide-like diuretic can be considered. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic that can be used in combination with an ACE inhibitor or as an additional therapy with an ACE inhibitor and calcium channel blocker if the blood pressure is not well controlled. Bisoprolol, a beta-blocker, can also be considered if the blood pressure remains high despite the combination of ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and thiazide-like diuretic.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male came to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath during exertion. He had no medical history to report. During the examination, a midsystolic murmur was detected, which was most audible at the left lower sternal border. The murmur became louder when the Valsalva manoeuvre was performed. An echocardiogram revealed mitral regurgitation, asymmetric hypertrophy, systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet, and left ventricular outflow tract obstruction. What medication should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Patients with HOCM should avoid ACE-inhibitors.
The correct answer is Ramipril. In patients with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) and left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction, ACE inhibitors are not recommended. This is because ACE inhibitors can decrease afterload, which may exacerbate the LVOT gradient. The patient in this case has echocardiographic evidence of HOCM, including asymmetric hypertrophy, systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet, and mitral regurgitation.
However, amiodarone, atenolol, disopyramide, and verapamil are all viable treatment options for HOCM.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is estimated to have a prevalence of 1 in 500. The condition is caused by defects in the genes that encode contractile proteins.
The management of HOCM involves several approaches. Amiodarone is a medication that can be used to treat the condition. Beta-blockers or verapamil may also be prescribed to alleviate symptoms. In some cases, a cardioverter defibrillator or dual chamber pacemaker may be necessary. It is important to note that certain drugs, such as nitrates, ACE-inhibitors, and inotropes, should be avoided in patients with HOCM. Additionally, endocarditis prophylaxis may be recommended, although the 2008 NICE guidelines should be consulted for specific recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic heart failure due to ischaemic cardiomyopathy is being evaluated. He was discharged from the hospital two weeks ago after experiencing a heart attack. An echocardiogram conducted during his hospitalization revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%, but no valve issues were identified.
Despite his current regimen of furosemide, ramipril, carvedilol, aspirin, and simvastatin, he continues to experience shortness of breath with minimal exertion, such as walking 30 meters. On examination, his chest is clear, and there is only slight peripheral edema. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add an aldosterone antagonist
Explanation:The 2010 NICE guidelines have been revised to recommend the use of both angiotensin-2 receptor blockers and hydralazine in combination with a nitrate as second-line treatments for heart failure, in addition to aldosterone antagonists. However, considering the patient’s recent myocardial infarction, the most appropriate option would be an aldosterone antagonist, as per the NICE guidelines. For further information, please refer to the guidelines.
Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man undergoes a routine electrocardiogram (ECG) as part of an examination at his local general practice surgery.
On examination, his pulse is 64 bpm and his blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. The clinician notes a delta wave on the ECG and refers him to the Cardiology Department.
What is the most likely cause of this irregularity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition where there is an extra electrical pathway in the heart, making the patient more susceptible to developing supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The presence of delta waves, which are a slurred upstroke in the QRS complex, and a shortened PR interval are characteristic of WPW syndrome. Atrial fibrillation (AF), on the other hand, is an irregularly irregular pulse that is diagnosed by the absence of P waves and irregular QRS complexes on an ECG. Delta waves are not typically seen in AF unless the patient also has WPW syndrome. Sinus arrhythmia, which is an irregular rhythm, does not show delta waves on an ECG. Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is not associated with delta waves, but rather with ST elevation or depression and T wave inversion. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a regular narrow complex tachycardia that may or may not have delta waves, depending on whether the patient has underlying WPW syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman complains of unmanageable twitching and cramping in her legs. She has a medical history of heart failure and reports that her symptoms began a few days after starting a new medication prescribed by her cardiologist. As a result, you order routine blood tests that reveal hypokalaemia. Which medication is the probable culprit for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Individuals with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 40% or lower should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, unless there are contraindications or intolerance. This is supported by numerous clinical trials that have shown their efficacy in reducing hospital admissions and mortality rates. The dosage should be started low and gradually increased until the target dose or the highest tolerated dose is achieved, with regular monitoring of renal function and serum electrolytes.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.
As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.
However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.
In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 42
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old man who resides in a nursing home arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting. He has been experiencing 8 watery bowel movements per day for the past 3 days and seems disoriented and dehydrated. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, type II diabetes, and dementia. His heart rate is elevated at 110/min, and his electrocardiogram displays noticeable U waves. What is the probable reason for his ECG alterations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:The ECG changes observed in this scenario are most likely due to hypokalaemia. The patient’s electrolyte balance has been disrupted by vomiting and loose stools, resulting in a depletion of potassium that should be rectified through intravenous replacement. While hypocalcaemia and hypothermia can also cause U waves, they are less probable in this case. Non-ischaemic ST elevation changes may be caused by hyponatraemia. QT prolongation is a common effect of tricyclic antidepressant toxicity.
ECG Features of Hypokalaemia
Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This condition can be detected through an electrocardiogram (ECG) which shows specific features. The ECG features of hypokalaemia include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and long QT. The U waves are particularly noticeable and are accompanied by a borderline PR interval.
To remember these features, one registered user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT. It is important to detect hypokalaemia early as it can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECGs is crucial for individuals at risk of hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old patient with known stable angina is currently managed on atenolol and isosorbide mononitrate (on an as required or PRN basis). He is experiencing more frequent episodes of angina on exertion.
What is the most appropriate treatment that can be added to his current regimen to alleviate his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Medications for Angina: Nifedipine, Aspirin, Dabigatran, ISMN, and Spironolactone
When it comes to treating angina, the first-line anti-anginal treatment should be either a β blocker or a calcium channel blocker like nifedipine, according to NICE guidelines. If this proves ineffective, an alternative or combination of the two should be used. Nifedipine is the calcium channel blocker with the most vasodilating properties.
Aspirin can also be used to reduce the risk of a myocardial infarction (MI) in angina patients, but it does not provide any symptomatic relief. NICE recommends considering aspirin for all patients with angina.
Dabigatran, an anticoagulant, is useful for reducing the risk of strokes in patients with atrial fibrillation, but it does not provide any symptomatic benefit for angina.
If symptoms are not controlled on a combination of β blocker and calcium channel blocker, or if one of these cannot be tolerated, NICE advises considering long-acting nitrates like ISMN.
Spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, can be used in heart failure secondary to left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD), especially after a myocardial infarction (MI). NICE recommends starting with either a β blocker or a calcium channel blocker, and switching or combining if ineffective. If one of these medications cannot be tolerated or the combination is ineffective, long-acting nitrate, nicorandil, or ivabradine should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department in the middle of the night with worsening pain in his left leg. The pain began at rest approximately 2 hours ago and has now become severe. The patient has a history of peripheral arterial disease and continues to smoke 10 cigarettes per day. Upon examination, the left lower limb appears pale and feels cold with no signs of edema or trauma. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are absent on palpation and inaudible on a doppler exam, while the right lower limb pulses are palpable. The patient has received IV morphine. What is the most appropriate initial management for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV unfractionated heparin and urgent vascular review
Explanation:The appropriate initial management for acute limb ischaemia involves urgent vascular review and administration of IV unfractionated heparin for anticoagulation. The patient’s sudden onset of symptoms and absence of pulses on Doppler examination suggest arterial thrombosis, which is a surgical emergency. Low molecular weight heparin and a lower limb venous ultrasound scan are not indicated, as the thrombus is likely arterial. Similarly, ankle-brachial pressure index and imaging studies such as CT or lower limb arterial Doppler ultrasound should not delay urgent vascular review in this critical situation.
Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 45
Incorrect
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You are urgently called to the ward where you encounter a 54-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. The patient had a syncopal episode while walking to the restroom with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure (BP) of 85/56 mmHg. Although she is oriented to time, place, and person, she is experiencing dizziness. What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient's ventricular tachycardia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia
Ventricular tachycardia is a serious cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends immediate synchronised electrical cardioversion for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is preferred over unsynchronised cardioversion as it reduces the risk of causing ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.
In the event that synchronised cardioversion fails to restore sinus rhythm after three attempts, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg IV should be given over 10-20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion. However, in an uncompromised patient with tachycardia and no adverse features, the first-line treatment involves amiodarone 300 mg as a loading dose IV, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours.
It is important to note that digoxin and metoprolol are not appropriate treatments for ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol is a β blocker that should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with central chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. The pain is radiating to his left arm. He has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia.
Upon examination, the patient appears uncomfortable and sweaty. His vital signs are as follows:
- Heart rate: 90 bpm
- Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min
- Peripheral oxygen saturation: 95% on room air
- Blood pressure: 136/78 mmHg
- Temperature: 37.0ºC
An ECG performed by the paramedics shows ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF, as well as T-wave inversion.
What is the immediate treatment that should be given?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin, nitrate, morphine
Explanation:The appropriate combination in this scenario is aspirin, nitrate, and morphine. The addition of oxygen is not necessary and may even be inappropriate. Ramipril and bisoprolol are not recommended for acute treatment but may be used for long-term management of ACS. Therefore, aspirin, nitrate, and oxygen is an incorrect combination, and morphine should also be included due to the patient’s significant pain. Oxygen should not be administered as the patient’s oxygen saturation levels are already adequate.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman with peripheral arterial disease is prescribed simvastatin. What blood test monitoring is most suitable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months
Explanation:To evaluate the effectiveness of treatment, a fasting lipid profile may be examined as part of the monitoring process.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has experienced two episodes of fainting in the past month. The first occurred while he was climbing stairs, and the second occurred last week as he was exiting a swimming pool. There were no warning signs before either episode. Witnesses to the most recent episode reported that he was unconscious for approximately 15 seconds. He reports feeling disoriented for only a few seconds after regaining consciousness. On physical examination, his pulse is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/86 mmHg, his lungs are clear, and there is a systolic murmur that radiates to the carotid area. Which of the following tests should be ordered first?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:The presence of a systolic murmur could indicate the possibility of aortic stenosis (AS). It is crucial to prioritize ruling out this condition as syncope, which is a late symptom, often occurs during physical activity in patients with AS.
Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.
If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.
In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He has been researching possible complications of his condition online and is worried about potential cardiac issues.
Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most probable in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities Associated with Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is commonly associated with cardiac abnormalities, with aortic root dilatation being the most prevalent, found in approximately 80% of cases. This can lead to aortic regurgitation and even dissection. While there is some evidence of a slight increase in atrial septal defects in Marfan syndrome patients, it is not as common as aortic regurgitation or mitral valve prolapse. Dilated cardiomyopathy can also present in Marfan syndrome patients, although it is not as prevalent as aortic root dilatation or regurgitation. Pulmonary regurgitation is also increased in incidence in Marfan syndrome, but it is still less common than aortic regurgitation. Finally, while persistent ductus arteriosus is more commonly found in Marfan syndrome patients than in the general population, the association is relatively weak. Overall, Marfan syndrome patients should be monitored closely for these cardiac abnormalities to ensure proper management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with intermittent leg pain that worsens with movement and improves with rest. He reports no recent illness or injury. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes amlodipine 5mg daily. He is a smoker with a BMI of 30 kg/m². On examination, there is no visible deformity in his lower limbs, and his calves are soft and nontender bilaterally with no edema. The ankle-brachial pressure index is 0.8. The patient is started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. What other treatment should be prescribed for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:NICE guidelines recommend that patients with peripheral arterial disease should be treated with clopidogrel and atorvastatin. This patient is experiencing intermittent claudication, which is a symptom of peripheral vascular disease caused by atherosclerosis. It is important to differentiate this from critical limb ischaemia, which is characterised by pain at rest. An ankle-brachial pressure index of < 0.9 suggests PAD, with an index < 0.5 suggesting critical limb ischaemia. This patient has several risk factors, including smoking, hypertension and obesity. Aspirin is not the first-line antiplatelet for PAD and should only be used if clopidogrel is not tolerated. Low molecular weight heparin is indicated for deep vein thrombosis, which is characterised by unilateral calf pain and swelling with tenderness along the deep venous system. Metformin is indicated for diabetes mellitus, which cannot be diagnosed without a HbA1c or blood glucose reading. Regular glucose checks are recommended for patients with vascular risk factors. Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery. There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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