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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man who used to work as a stonemason presents to the clinic with complaints of shortness of breath on minimal exercise and a dry cough. He has been experiencing progressive shortness of breath over the past year. He is a smoker, consuming 20-30 cigarettes per day, and has occasional wheezing. On examination, he is clubbed and bilateral late-inspiratory crackles can be heard at both lung bases. A chest X-ray shows upper lobe nodular opacities. His test results show a haemoglobin level of 125 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), a WCC of 4.6 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l), platelets of 189 × 109/l (normal range: 150-410 × 109/l), a sodium level of 139 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l), a potassium level of 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), a creatinine level of 135 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 μmol/l), an FVC of 2.1 litres (normal range: >4.05 litres), and an FEV1 of 1.82 litres (normal range: >3.15 litres). Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Occupational asthma
Correct Answer: Occupational interstitial lung disease
Explanation:Possible Occupational Lung Diseases and Differential Diagnosis
This patient’s history of working as a stonemason suggests a potential occupational exposure to silica dust, which can lead to silicosis. The restrictive lung defect seen in pulmonary function tests supports this diagnosis, which can be confirmed by high-resolution computerised tomography. Smoking cessation is crucial in slowing the progression of lung function decline.
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is another possible diagnosis, but the occupational exposure makes silicosis more likely. Occupational asthma, caused by specific workplace stimuli, is also a consideration, especially for those in certain occupations such as paint sprayers, food processors, welders, and animal handlers.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is unlikely due to the restrictive spirometry results, as it is characterised by an obstructive pattern. Non-occupational asthma is also less likely given the patient’s age, chest X-ray findings, and restrictive lung defect.
In summary, the patient’s occupational history and pulmonary function tests suggest a potential diagnosis of silicosis, with other possible occupational lung diseases and differential diagnoses to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female patient visits her doctor's office for a follow-up appointment. She was recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism and is currently taking a daily dose of 100 micrograms of thyroxine. The doctor has access to the patient's thyroid function and other test results from the previous week.
Which test would be most effective in monitoring the patient's progress and treatment?Your Answer: Triiodothyronine levels
Correct Answer: Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels
Explanation:Thyroxine and TSH Levels in Hypothyroidism
Thyroxine is a medication that can help reduce the high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) that are often seen in individuals with hypothyroidism. When TSH levels are high, it indicates that the thyroid gland is not producing enough thyroid hormones, which can lead to a range of symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression. By taking thyroxine, individuals with hypothyroidism can help regulate their TSH levels and improve their overall health.
To monitor the effectiveness of thyroxine treatment, doctors often use TSH as a key monitoring test. The goal is to get TSH levels into the normal range, which indicates that the thyroid gland is producing enough hormones. Other tests that may be used in the initial investigation and diagnosis of hypothyroidism include triiodothyronine, free thyroxine (T4), thyroid peroxidase antibody, and protein-bound iodine levels. By using a combination of these tests, doctors can get a better of a patient’s thyroid function and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 57-year-old man comes to his doctor's office with a complaint of ongoing right ear pain and associated hearing loss for several weeks. He denies any significant discharge from his ear and has not experienced any fevers. He reports feeling pain in his jaw that sometimes clicks. During the examination, the doctor observes cerumen in the right ear and no inflammation. The tympanic membrane appears normal. The patient experiences pain when moving his jaw. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: TMJ dysfunction
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Ear Pain and Hearing Loss
Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction as a Likely Cause of Hearing Loss
When infection is ruled out and cerumen is not the culprit, temporomandibular joint (TMJ) dysfunction becomes a probable diagnosis for ear pain and hearing loss. TMJ dysfunction often involves pain that radiates to the ear through the auriculotemporal nerve and crepitus in the jaw. Treatment options for TMJ dysfunction include rest, massage, relaxation techniques, bite guards, NSAIDs, and steroid injections.
Other Possible Causes of Ear Pain and Discharge
Otitis externa, or inflammation of the external auditory canal, typically presents with watery discharge, pain, and itching. Cholesteatoma, a benign tumor that can erode bone and cause cranial nerve symptoms, produces a foul-smelling white discharge and an inflammatory lesion on otoscopy. Mastoiditis, an infection that spreads from the middle ear to the mastoid air cells, causes fever, swelling, and unilateral ear prominence. Acute otitis media, a common childhood infection, results in sudden ear pain and bulging of the tympanic membrane, which may rupture and release purulent discharge.
Conclusion
Ear pain and hearing loss can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition. While TMJ dysfunction is a possible diagnosis that requires specific management, other conditions such as otitis externa, cholesteatoma, mastoiditis, and acute otitis media should also be considered and treated accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 4
Incorrect
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In a case-control study on the association between coffee drinking and lung cancer, 100 patients with lung cancer and 100 healthy controls were recruited.
It was reported that the odds ratio of lung cancer in people who drank coffee daily as compared to those who did not drink coffee was 1.3 (p=0.01).
Based on these findings, what is a valid conclusion regarding the relationship between daily coffee consumption and lung cancer risk?
Your Answer: Coffee drinking can cause lung cancer
Correct Answer: People who drink coffee daily were at 1.3 times increased odds of being in the lung cancer group
Explanation:The FEV1/FVC ratio is a key measurement in lung function tests. In normal subjects, this ratio ranges from 0.75 to 0.85. If the ratio is less than 0.70, it suggests an obstructive problem that reduces the FEV1, which is the volume of air that can be expelled in one second. However, if the ratio is normal, it indicates that the individual has a healthy respiratory system.
In cases of restrictive lung disease, the FVC is reduced, which can also affect the FEV1/FVC ratio. In such cases, the ratio may be normal or even high. Therefore, it is important to interpret the FEV1/FVC ratio in conjunction with other lung function test results to accurately diagnose and manage respiratory conditions. This ratio can help healthcare professionals identify potential lung problems and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient presents to her doctor with complaints of excessive sweating and feeling very warm. Upon examination, no significant thyroid nodule is observed. The patient's blood tests reveal the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) < 0.1 µU/l 0.4–4.0 µU/l
Free thyroxine (T4) 30 pmol/l 10–20 pmol/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Correct Answer: Graves’ disease
Explanation:Thyroid Disorders: Causes and Symptoms
Thyroid disorders are common and can cause a range of symptoms. Here are some of the most common thyroid disorders and their associated symptoms:
1. Graves’ disease: This is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis in the UK. Symptoms include a low TSH and an elevated T4.
2. De Quervain’s thyroiditis: This is a subacute thyroiditis that can cause hypothyroidism.
3. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: This is an autoimmune disorder that is associated with hypothyroidism.
4. Toxic multinodular goitre: There is insufficient information to suggest that the patient has this condition.
5. Thyroid adenoma: Patients usually present with a neck lump, which is not seen in this case.
If you are experiencing any symptoms of a thyroid disorder, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has a small cell lung cancer. Her serum sodium level is 128 mmol/l on routine testing (136–145 mmol/l).
What is the single most likely cause for the biochemical abnormality?Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis
Hyponatraemia is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. There are several possible causes of hyponatraemia, including the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), primary adrenal insufficiency, diuretics, polydipsia, and vomiting.
SIADH is a common cause of hyponatraemia, particularly in small cell lung cancer patients. It occurs due to the ectopic production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and water retention. This results in hyponatraemia and hypo-osmolality.
Primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison’s disease, can also cause hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, and hypotension. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.
Diuretics, particularly loop diuretics and bendroflumethiazide, can also cause hyponatraemia. However, there is no information to suggest that the patient is taking diuretics.
Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, can also lead to hyponatraemia. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.
Vomiting is another possible cause of hyponatraemia, but there is no information in the question to support this as a correct answer.
In summary, hyponatraemia can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Correct
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A 58-year-old lady with multiple myeloma visits the Oncology Day Hospital for her monthly infusion of intravenous zoledronic acid. She reports experiencing neck pain and new weakness and paraesthesiae in her left hand and arm.
What is the most suitable initial approach for managing this woman?Your Answer: Urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) whole spine
Explanation:Urgent Management for a Patient with Acute Neck Pain and Malignancy
Explanation:
When a patient with malignancy presents with acute neck pain and focal neurological deficits, urgent investigation is necessary. This is particularly important for patients with multiple myeloma, who are at risk for developing plasmacytomas, which can cause spinal cord compression or pathological fractures. In this case, an urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the whole spine is needed to assess for spinal cord compression.
While blood cultures may be important in other situations, they would not affect the management of this patient. Instead, the focus should be on obtaining a diagnosis and definitive treatment. Plasmacytomas are radiosensitive, so urgent radiotherapy is indicated for treatment.
Although analgesia and pain assessment are necessary, they are not the top priority. Physiotherapy assessment for hand weakness may be beneficial, but it does not need to be done urgently. An X-ray of the cervical spine is not sensitive enough to detect all plasmacytomas, so an MRI of the whole spine is necessary to assess for multiple levels of disease.
In summary, urgent management for a patient with acute neck pain and malignancy includes an urgent MRI of the whole spine to assess for spinal cord compression, followed by urgent radiotherapy for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A large area of grey-blue pigment is noted over the left buttock of a 6-month-old baby by the pediatrician during a routine check-up. There are no other signs of bleeding or bruising visible on the baby. The baby was born full-term and the mother has no health conditions.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Dermal melanocytosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Bruising in Newborns
Newborns may develop bruises for various reasons, and it is essential to identify the cause to ensure appropriate management. Here are some common causes of bruising in newborns:
1. Dermal melanocytosis: These blue-grey birthmarks are common in babies of African, Middle Eastern, Mediterranean, or Asian descent. They usually appear on the lower back or buttocks and do not require any treatment.
2. Haemophilia: This inherited clotting disorder may present later in childhood as prolonged bleeding following an injury or haemarthrosis.
3. Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn: This condition is caused by vitamin K deficiency and may present with bleeding from the GI tract, umbilical cord, or venipuncture sites.
4. Non-accidental injury: While rare in newborns, non-accidental injury can cause bruising. However, this is not a consideration in a newborn who has not yet been exposed to any risk of abuse.
5. Osteogenesis imperfecta: This genetic condition affects bone strength and may present with multiple fractures from minimal-impact injuries. A sign of the condition is blue-grey tingling of the sclera but not of the skin.
It is crucial to consult a healthcare provider if you notice any unexplained bruising in your newborn to rule out any underlying medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned refugee who recently arrived in the United Kingdom and has no medical history.
Her foster parents have brought her to the clinic as they have noticed that she becomes easily breathless on exertion or after a bath and squats down to catch her breath. During these times, they notice that her lips turn blue.
Upon examination, you find that she is on the 10th centile for height and weight, her lips are slightly dusky, she has good air entry bilaterally in her chest, and she has a normal heart rate at rest with a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge with an associated thrill.
A chest x-ray reveals decreased vascular markings and a normal-sized heart. Electrocardiography (ECG) shows sinus rhythm with right axis deviation and deep S waves in V5 and V6.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Isolated pulmonary stenosis
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a common cyanotic congenital heart condition characterized by four abnormalities. Symptoms are determined by the degree of shunting of deoxygenated blood from right to left, which is influenced by the degree of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (RVOTO) and other ways blood can get to the lungs. Squatting can relieve cyanotic episodes by increasing peripheral vascular resistance. The child in question has a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge in keeping with the turbulent flow of blood across the stenosed RVOT. Isolated pulmonary stenosis is a possible differential diagnosis, but the history of squatting is highly suggestive of TOF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primip is being evaluated on day six postpartum for unilateral breast discomfort. The discomfort began two days ago, and despite continuing to breastfeed, it has not improved. She feels generally fatigued, but she is currently eating and drinking well.
During the examination, you observe an erythematosus, firm, and swollen area in a wedge-shaped distribution on the right breast. There is a small crack in the nipple. The examination is painful.
Her vital signs are stable, and her temperature is 37.5 °C.
What is the most appropriate initial management, given the above information?Your Answer: Reassure the patient, advise her to continue breastfeeding and offer simple analgesia
Correct Answer: Advise her to continue breastfeeding and start empirical antibiotics
Explanation:Management of Lactational Mastitis: Advice for Patients
Lactational mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women. It is important to manage this condition promptly to prevent complications such as breast abscesses. Here are some management options for lactational mastitis:
1. Advise her to continue breastfeeding and start empirical antibiotics: If the patient presents with lactational mastitis and has a nipple fissure, it is suggestive of an infective cause. In this case, the patient should be reassured, asked to continue breastfeeding, offered adequate analgesia, and started on empirical antibiotics.
2. Reassure the patient, ask her to continue expressing milk and review if there is no improvement in two days: If there is no evidence of infection, reassurance and advice to continue breastfeeding, as well as simple analgesia, are a good first management option. However, if symptoms do not improve in 24 hours, then there is an indication for starting empirical antibiotics.
3. Admit the patient to hospital for intravenous antibiotics and drainage: Admission is advisable for intravenous antibiotics and drainage if oral antibiotics fail to improve symptoms, the patient develops sepsis, or there is evidence of the development of a breast abscess.
4. Advise her to continue breastfeeding and send a breast milk culture and treat if positive: A breast milk culture should be sent before starting antibiotics, but in this case, given the patient fulfils the criteria for starting empirical treatment, you should not delay antibiotic therapy until the breast milk culture is back.
5. Reassure the patient, advise her to continue breastfeeding and offer simple analgesia: Reassurance, advice to continue breastfeeding, and simple analgesia are offered to women who first present with lactational mastitis. If symptoms do not improve after three days, there is an indication to offer empirical antibiotics.
In conclusion, lactational mastitis should be managed promptly to prevent complications. Patients should be advised to continue breastfeeding, offered adequate analgesia, and started on empirical antibiotics if necessary. If symptoms do not improve, further management options should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male was given steroids after a kidney transplant. After two years, he experienced hip pain and difficulty walking. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Primary osteoarthritis
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Avascular Necrosis and Its Causes
Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a condition that occurs when the blood supply to the bones is temporarily or permanently lost. This can be caused by various factors, including trauma or vascular disease. Some of the conditions that can lead to AVN include hypertension, sickle cell disease, caisson disease, and radiation-induced arthritis. Additionally, certain factors such as corticosteroid therapy, connective tissue disease, alcohol abuse, marrow storage disease (Gaucher’s disease), and dyslipoproteinaemia can also be associated with AVN in a more complex manner.
Of all the cases of non-traumatic avascular necrosis, 35% are associated with systemic (oral or intravenous) corticosteroid use. It is important to understand the causes of AVN in order to prevent and manage the condition effectively. By identifying the underlying factors that contribute to AVN, healthcare professionals can develop appropriate treatment plans and help patients manage their symptoms. With proper care and management, individuals with AVN can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is found to be HPV positive. A follow-up cytology swab reveals normal cells. She is asked to return for a second HPV swab after 12 months, which comes back negative. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Repeat HPV test in 3 years
Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 5 years
Explanation:If the 2nd repeat smear at 24 months shows a negative result for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can return to routine recall for cervical cancer screening. Since the patient is over 50 years old, a smear test should be taken every 5 years as part of routine recall. It is not necessary to perform a cytology swab or refer the patient to colposcopy as a negative HPV result does not indicate the presence of cervical cancer. Additionally, repeating the HPV test in 3 years is not necessary for this patient as it is only the routine recall protocol for patients aged 25-49.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests following a recent visit to his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has raised his lithium dosage and requested that the GP arrange for lithium levels to be checked at the appropriate time after taking the medication. The patient took his first increased dose of lithium at 10AM (4 hours ago). In how many hours should the GP schedule the blood test to be taken?
Your Answer: 8 hours
Explanation:Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents with complaints of palpitations and dizzy spells. Upon performing an echocardiogram, the diagnosis of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is made.
What will be visualized on the echocardiogram?Your Answer: Symmetrical septal hypertrophy
Correct Answer: Reduced left ventricular cavity size
Explanation:Echocardiographic Findings in Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a condition characterized by thickening of the heart muscle, particularly the septum, which can lead to obstruction of blood flow out of the heart. Echocardiography is a useful tool for diagnosing and monitoring HOCM. Here are some echocardiographic findings commonly seen in HOCM:
Reduced left ventricular cavity size: Patients with HOCM often have a banana-shaped left ventricular cavity, with reduced size due to septal hypertrophy.
Increased left ventricular outflow tract gradients: HOCM can cause obstruction of blood flow out of the heart, leading to increased pressure gradients in the left ventricular outflow tract.
Systolic anterior motion of the mitral leaflet: This is a characteristic finding in HOCM, where the mitral valve moves forward during systole and can contribute to obstruction of blood flow.
Asymmetrical septal hypertrophy: While some patients with HOCM may have symmetrically hypertrophied ventricles, the more common presentation is asymmetrical hypertrophy, with thickening of the septum.
Mitral regurgitation: HOCM can cause dysfunction of the mitral valve, leading to mild to moderate regurgitation of blood back into the left atrium.
Overall, echocardiography plays an important role in the diagnosis and management of HOCM, allowing for visualization of the structural and functional abnormalities associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of left-sided flank pain that has been ongoing for two hours. The pain radiates down towards her groin and is constant, unaffected by changes in position. She reports feeling nauseous and has vomited once. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
Upon examination, the patient is tender over the left costovertebral angle and shows signs of guarding, but no rebound tenderness. Her vital signs are heart rate 112/min, blood pressure 120/76 mmHg, temperature 38.1ºC, respiratory rate 14/min, and saturations 97%. An ultrasound scan of the kidneys reveals dilation of the renal pelvis on the left, while a CT scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder shows a 4 mm stone in the left ureter. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
Correct Answer: Surgical decompression
Explanation:Patients who have obstructive urinary calculi and show signs of infection require immediate renal decompression and intravenous antibiotics due to the high risk of sepsis. In this case, the patient has complicated urinary calculi, with the stone blocking the ureter and causing hydronephrosis (as seen on the ultrasound scan) and fever, indicating a secondary infection. These patients are at risk of developing urosepsis, so it is crucial to perform urgent renal decompression through a ureteric stent or percutaneous nephrostomy to relieve the obstruction. Additionally, they must receive antibiotics to treat the upper urinary tract infection. Nifedipine may be useful for some patients with small, uncomplicated renal stones as it relaxes the ureters and helps in passing the stone. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy is used for larger, uncomplicated stones or when medical therapy has failed. Conservative measures, such as increasing oral fluids and waiting for the stone to pass, are not appropriate for patients with obstructing renal stones complicated by infection.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of multiple gallstones is presenting with jaundice due to a common bile duct obstruction caused by a large stone. What biochemical abnormalities are expected to be observed in this patient?
Your Answer: Decreased bilirubin in the urine
Correct Answer: Decreased stercobilin in the stool
Explanation:Effects of Biliary Tree Obstruction on Bilirubin Metabolism
Biliary tree obstruction can have various effects on bilirubin metabolism. One of the consequences is a decrease in stercobilin in the stool, which can lead to clay-colored stools. Additionally, there is an increase in urobilinogen in the urine due to less bilirubin in the intestine. However, there is a decrease in urobilinogen in the urine due to reduced excretion. The plasma bilirubin level is increased, leading to jaundice. Finally, there is an increase in plasma conjugated bilirubin, which is water-soluble and can be excreted by the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old junior doctor presents to the Emergency department with complaints of a severe headache and neck stiffness. He reports experiencing mild diarrhoea over the past few days and some coryzal symptoms. On examination, his blood pressure is 155/82 mmHg, his pulse is 85 and regular, and his temperature is 37.8℃. He displays signs consistent with severe meningism, but there are no skin rashes or other signs of vasculitis.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 138 g/L (135-177)
- White cells: 8.9 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelet: 183 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 141 mmol/L (135-146)
- Potassium: 4.4 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 92 µmol/L (79-118)
- Lumbar puncture: lymphocytosis, slightly raised protein, normal glucose.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus meningitis
Correct Answer: Enterovirus meningitis
Explanation:Enterovirus Meningitis: The Commonest Cause of Viral Meningitis in Adults
Enterovirus meningitis is the most common cause of viral meningitis in adults. The symptoms of a mild diarrhoeal illness and a runny nose, along with the lumbar puncture findings, are consistent with this diagnosis. The management of viral meningitis is conservative, with adequate hydration and analgesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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A 32-year-old with a long standing history of schizophrenia presents to the emergency department in status epilepticus. After receiving treatment, he informs the physician that he has been experiencing frequent seizures lately.
Which medication is the most probable cause of his seizures?Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Seizures are more likely to occur with the use of clozapine due to its ability to lower the seizure threshold. This is a known side-effect of the atypical antipsychotic, which is commonly prescribed for treatment resistant schizophrenia.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old child is brought to their General Practitioner (GP) with failure to thrive. His parents complain that he drinks a lot of water and urinates frequently and is not growing very well. The GP does blood and urine tests and diagnoses Fanconi syndrome.
Which of the following features would you most likely see in Fanconi syndrome?Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Understanding Fanconi Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes
Fanconi syndrome is a condition that affects the function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) in the kidneys, leading to a general impairment of reabsorption of amino acids, potassium, bicarbonate, phosphate, and glucose. This can be caused by various factors, including inherited disorders, acquired tubule damage, or idiopathic reasons. Common symptoms of Fanconi syndrome include polyuria, hypophosphatemia, acidosis, and hypokalemia. It is important to note that patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience oliguria due to the lack of reabsorption of solutes, leading to water loss. Contrary to popular belief, patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience acidosis rather than alkalosis due to the lack of reabsorption of bicarbonate in the PCT. Additionally, hypophosphatemia, rather than hyperphosphatemia, is seen in patients with Fanconi syndrome, as the impaired reabsorption of phosphate through the proximal tubules is a common feature. Finally, patients with Fanconi syndrome tend to present with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia due to the impaired reabsorption and increased secretion of potassium caused by the disturbance of the PCT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A nasogastric (NG) tube was inserted, and he has been prescribed intravenous (IV) fluids. Three days later, he reports feeling short of breath, and on examination, he has widespread fine crackles and pitting sacral oedema. His notes show that he has been receiving 2 litres of fluid a day and that he weighs 50 kg. You treat him, and once his symptoms have resolved, you're-calculate his daily maintenance fluid requirements.
Which of the following options is the most suitable amount of daily fluid to give to the patient?Your Answer: 2000–2500 ml
Correct Answer: 1000–1500 ml
Explanation:Calculating Fluid Requirements for a Patient with Fluid Overload
When determining a patient’s fluid requirements, it is important to consider their weight and any underlying medical conditions. For this particular patient, who weighs 48 kg, her maintenance fluid requirement is between 1200-1440 ml per day, calculated using 25-30 ml/kg/day.
However, this patient has developed fluid overload and pulmonary edema, likely due to receiving 2 liters of fluid per day. While this may have been necessary initially due to fluid loss from bowel obstruction, it is now important to step down to normal maintenance levels.
Giving the patient 1500-2000 ml of fluid per day would still be too much, as evidenced by examination findings of pitting sacral edema and widespread fine crackles. The maximum amount of fluid needed for maintenance therapy is 1440 ml per day.
It is crucial to monitor fluid intake and adjust as necessary to prevent further complications from fluid overload. Giving too much fluid, such as 2500-3500 ml per day, can be harmful for a patient with fluid overload and should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old man and his wife have been struggling to conceive for the past decade. During his examination, you notice that he is tall and thin with bilateral gynaecomastia. Your colleague has conducted some initial tests, and one of them has come back indicating elevated levels of urinary gonadotrophins. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Marfan syndrome
Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Disorders and Andropause
Gaucher’s and Marfan syndrome are genetic disorders that do not cause infertility. Noonan’s syndrome, on the other hand, is associated with short stature. Klinefelter’s syndrome is a sex chromosome disorder that affects males, with a prevalence of 1 in 400 to 1 in 600 births. This disorder is characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of 47 XXY, XXXYY, or XXYY.
Andropause is a term used to describe the gradual decrease in serum testosterone concentration that occurs with age. However, this condition typically does not occur until after the age of 50. It is important to note that while these conditions may have some similarities, they are distinct and require different approaches to diagnosis and treatment. Proper diagnosis and management of these conditions can help individuals lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old type 1 diabetic undergoes fundoscopy as part of his annual follow-up. His HbA1c is 9.5% (81 mmol/mol). Fundoscopy reveals haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots and the presence of new vessels.
What is the next step in his management?Your Answer: Refer to ophthalmology for specialised follow-up
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ophthalmology
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Retinopathy: Referral Criteria and Pathways
Diabetic retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. The National Screening Committee (NSC) has established grading criteria to help physicians assess the severity of diabetic retinopathy and determine the appropriate referral pathway.
The grading criteria include four levels of retinopathy severity: R0 (no retinopathy), R1 (background retinopathy), R2 (pre-proliferative retinopathy), and R3 (proliferative retinopathy). Additionally, there are two levels of maculopathy severity: M0 (nil present) and M1 (maculopathy present).
The management pathways for each level of severity are as follows:
– R0: Annual screening
– R1: Annual screening and inform diabetes care team
– R2: Refer to hospital eye service for specialized follow-up
– R3: Fast-track referral to hospital eye service
– M0: Annual screening
– M1: Refer to hospital eye serviceAny change in the macula, regardless of severity, should prompt urgent referral to ophthalmology.
It is important to note that patients with R0 disease who have well-controlled diabetes may continue yearly follow-up. However, any other stage of retinopathy warrants referral to ophthalmology.
In summary, early detection and appropriate management of diabetic retinopathy is crucial in preventing vision loss. Physicians should be familiar with the NSC grading criteria and referral pathways to ensure timely and effective treatment for their diabetic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman is suffering from a fungating metastatic breast cancer and is experiencing distress due to the foul-smelling discharge from the affected breast. This is causing significant social embarrassment. What is the best treatment option to alleviate this symptom?
Your Answer: Oral metronidazole or gel
Explanation:Managing Foul Odors in Palliative Care
In palliative care, patients with fungating tumors may experience unpleasant smells caused by anaerobic organisms. Metronidazole is a medication that can help improve these odors by targeting the infecting organisms. Additionally, charcoal dressings can be used to absorb malodorous substances and provide some relief to patients.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with prescribing in palliative care. The British National Formulary (BNF) offers a helpful section on this topic, including introductory information that is often tested in exams. By utilizing these resources and strategies, healthcare providers can effectively manage foul odors and improve the quality of life for their patients in palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Practice
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Question 24
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant visits her local antenatal unit for a midwife check-up. She has been diagnosed with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy and is taking ursodeoxycholic acid. Additionally, she is being treated with lamotrigine for epilepsy. This is her first pregnancy, and she has not experienced any previous miscarriages. During her appointment, she expresses concern about her step-sister's recent stillbirth, as her step-sister has already had two prior stillbirths. Based on her medical history, which factor puts her at the highest risk for a similar outcome?
Your Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is known to increase the risk of stillbirth, which is why doctors usually recommend inducing labor at 37-38 weeks of gestation. Although some studies suggest that this may no longer be the case, the general consensus is that the risk of stillbirth is still relatively high. Therefore, early induction of labor is still advised.
While advanced maternal age is a risk factor for stillbirth, being 34 years old is not considered to be in the category of older maternal age, which is defined as 35 years old or older.
Although there may be a genetic component to stillbirths, having a step-sister with a history of stillbirth does not constitute a family history of the condition. This is because step-siblings are not biologically related, but rather connected through marriage.
Lamotrigine is considered the safest anti-epileptic medication to use during pregnancy, and there is no evidence to suggest that it increases the risk of stillbirth.
Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 27-year-old woman who has presented to her doctor with complaints of feeling down, difficulty sleeping and frequent headaches. She reports that these symptoms occur around the same time every month and cease just before her menstrual cycle. Sophie is worried about how these symptoms are impacting her work performance but does not have any immediate plans to start a family.
What is the recommended treatment for Sophie's likely diagnosis at this point?Your Answer: Progesterone only oral contraceptive taken cyclically
Correct Answer: Drospirenone‐containing COC taken continuously
Explanation:Premenstrual syndrome can be treated with a combination of oral contraceptives and SSRIs, along with cognitive behavioral therapy. While the copper intrauterine device is effective for long-term contraception, it does not address the hormonal changes that cause PMS symptoms. The most appropriate option for Lydia is a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill containing drospirenone, which can alleviate her symptoms. Progesterone-only contraception is not recommended for PMS, and sodium valproate is not a recognized treatment for this condition. It is important to take the COC continuously for maximum benefit.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is referred to cardiology outpatients with intermittent palpitations. She describes occasional spontaneous episodes of being abnormally aware of her heart. She says her heart rate is markedly increased during episodes. She has no significant medical or family history. She is on the oral contraceptive pill. ECG is performed. She is in sinus rhythm at 80 beats per min. PR interval is 108 ms. A slurring slow rise of the initial portion of the QRS complex is noted; QRS duration is 125 ms.
What is the correct diagnosis?Your Answer: Wenckebach syndrome
Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome: An Abnormal Congenital Accessory Pathway with Tachyarrhythmia Episodes
Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a rare condition with an incidence of about 1.5 per 1000. It is characterized by the presence of an abnormal congenital accessory pathway that bypasses the atrioventricular node, known as the Bundle of Kent, and episodes of tachyarrhythmia. While the condition may be asymptomatic or subtle, it can increase the risk of sudden cardiac death.
The presence of a pre-excitation pathway in WPW results in specific ECG changes, including shortening of the PR interval, a Delta wave, and QRS prolongation. The ST segment and T wave may also be discordant to the major component of the QRS complex. These features may be more pronounced with increased vagal tone.
Upon diagnosis of WPW, risk stratification is performed based on a combination of history, ECG, and invasive cardiac electrophysiology studies. Treatment is only offered to those who are considered to have significant risk of sudden cardiac death. Definitive treatment involves the destruction of the abnormal electrical pathway by radiofrequency catheter ablation, which has a high success rate but is not without complication. Patients who experience regular tachyarrhythmias may be offered pharmacological treatment based on the specific arrhythmia.
Other conditions, such as first-degree heart block, pulmonary embolism, hyperthyroidism, and Wenckebach syndrome, have different ECG findings and are not associated with WPW. Understanding the specific features of WPW can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old teacher comes to the general practitioner (GP) worried about her risk of developing Alzheimer's disease. Her father has been diagnosed with an advanced form of the condition, and although she has no symptoms, the patient is anxious, as she has heard recently that the condition can be inherited.
Which one of the following statements regarding Alzheimer's disease is true?Your Answer: It accounts for 30–40% of all cases of dementia
Correct Answer: It is more common in women than men
Explanation:Myth Busting: Common Misconceptions About Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is a complex and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about the disease that need to be addressed:
1. It is more common in women than men: While it is true that women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s disease, it is not entirely clear why. It is thought that this may be due to the fact that women generally live longer than men.
2. The familial variant is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder: This is incorrect. The familial variant of Alzheimer’s disease is typically inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder.
3. It accounts for 30-40% of all cases of dementia: Alzheimer’s disease is actually responsible for approximately 60% of all cases of dementia.
4. The onset is rare after the age of 75: Onset of Alzheimer’s disease typically increases with age, and it is not uncommon for people to develop the disease after the age of 75.
5. It cannot be inherited: This is a myth. While not all cases of Alzheimer’s disease are inherited, there are certain genetic mutations that can increase a person’s risk of developing the disease.
It is important to dispel these myths and educate ourselves about the true nature of Alzheimer’s disease. By understanding the facts, we can better support those affected by the disease and work towards finding a cure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy presents to his GP with recurrent head lice. The GP notices that the child has had several attendances to the Emergency Department with asthma exacerbations, but has not attended an asthma review for several years and his inhalers have not been ordered for several months.
When would a social services referral be indicated in the first instance?Your Answer: If you suspect a child is being maltreated or you feel the family could benefit from some extra support
Explanation:When to Make a Referral to Social Services for Child Protection
As a healthcare professional, it is important to know when to make a referral to social services for child protection. Here are some situations that require immediate action:
1. Suspected maltreatment or need for extra support: If you suspect a child is being maltreated or you feel the family could benefit from some extra support, a referral must be made urgently to social services. Follow up within 48 hours with written confirmation.
2. Immediate danger: If you feel a child needs to be removed from premises immediately for their safety, inform the police immediately. Once the child is considered to be in a place of safety, social services will be informed.
3. Recent sexual assault: If the child has disclosed a recent sexual assault, they would need to be referred urgently for forensic examination. Following this, social services will be likely to be informed.
4. Discussion with safeguarding lead: If you feel confident in your judgement, you do not have to seek advice from the safeguarding lead before every referral. If you suspect a child is at risk of harm, it is your responsibility to take action to ensure the child’s safety.
5. Consent of parent and/or patient: Always try to gain consent from the parent or patient before making a referral to social services. If consent is refused, the referral can still be made, but it is important that the patient/parent is fully informed of your actions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Correct
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What vitamin is utilized to treat confusion in individuals with chronic alcoholism?
Your Answer: Thiamine
Explanation:Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a condition that arises due to insufficient intake of thiamine, as well as impaired absorption and storage. This condition is known to cause various symptoms, including dementia, nystagmus, paralysis of extra ocular muscles, ataxia, and retrograde amnesia, particularly in individuals who struggle with alcoholism.
The inadequate intake of thiamine is often associated with chronic alcoholism, as alcohol can interfere with the body’s ability to absorb and store thiamine. This can lead to a deficiency in the vitamin, which can cause damage to the brain and nervous system. The symptoms of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome can be severe and can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life.
It is essential to understand the causes and symptoms of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome to ensure that individuals who are at risk receive the necessary treatment and support. With proper care and management, it is possible to manage the symptoms of this condition and improve an individual’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman presents to the labour suite after being admitted 45 minutes ago. She is unsure of her gestational age but believes she is around 8 months pregnant based on her positive pregnancy test. She has not received any antenatal care and is currently homeless due to a violent relationship. The patient has been experiencing contractions for the past 3 hours and her waters broke 5 hours ago. Upon examination, her cervix is soft, anterior, 90% effaced, and dilated to 7 cm. The foetus is in a breech position with the presenting part at station 0 and engaged. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Adopt an all-fours position for vaginal birth
Correct Answer: Arrange caesarean section within 75 minutes
Explanation:A category 2 caesarean section is the best management for a woman with an undiagnosed breech birth in labour who is not fully dilated. The decision to perform the caesarean section should be made within 75 minutes and the procedure should be arranged accordingly. Adopting an all-fours position or attempting external cephalic version with enhanced monitoring are not appropriate in this case. McRoberts manoeuvre is also not the correct management for breech birth.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old nulliparous woman with Factor V Leiden presents for her initial antenatal visit. She has a history of unprovoked VTE, and the physician discusses thromboprophylaxis with her. What treatment pathway should be followed based on her risk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) antenatally + 6 weeks postpartum
Explanation:Factor V Leiden is a genetic condition that causes resistance to the breakdown of Factor V by activated Protein C, leading to an increased risk of blood clots. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guideline No.37a) for preventing blood clots in pregnant women with this condition. As this patient has a history of VTE, she is at high risk during and after pregnancy and requires both antenatal and postnatal thromboprophylaxis. It is important to note that postnatal prophylaxis must be given for six weeks following antenatal prophylaxis.
Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures
Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.
Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.
The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.
If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.
If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.
In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 32
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with intense pain in her left iliac fossa. She reports no vomiting, diarrhea, or rectal bleeding. She is diagnosed with acute diverticulitis and given antibiotics before being sent home. However, she returns four days later with the same symptoms and is admitted. What is the best drug combination to prescribe for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone and metronidazole
Explanation:Patients experiencing a flare-up of diverticulitis can initially be treated with oral antibiotics at home. However, if their symptoms do not improve within 72 hours, they should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous ceftriaxone and metronidazole. This was the correct course of action for the patient in question, who had been sent home with antibiotics but continued to experience pain after four days. Intravenous vancomycin and metronidazole are not the recommended treatment for diverticulitis, as they are typically used for life-threatening Clostridium difficile infections. Oral ceftriaxone and metronidazole are also not appropriate for this patient, as they are only recommended for those who can manage their symptoms at home. Similarly, oral vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole are not the correct treatment for diverticulitis.
Understanding Diverticulitis
Diverticulitis is a condition where an outpouching of the intestinal mucosa becomes infected. This outpouching is called a diverticulum and the presence of these pouches is known as diverticulosis. Diverticula are common and are thought to be caused by increased pressure in the colon. They usually occur in the sigmoid colon and are more prevalent in Westerners over the age of 60. While only a quarter of people with diverticulosis experience symptoms, 75% of those who do will have an episode of diverticulitis.
Risk factors for diverticulitis include age, lack of dietary fiber, obesity, and a sedentary lifestyle. Patients with diverticular disease may experience intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Those with acute diverticulitis may experience severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, changes in bowel habits, and urinary symptoms. Complications may include colovesical or colovaginal fistulas.
Signs of diverticulitis include low-grade fever, tachycardia, tender lower left quadrant of the abdomen, and possibly a palpable mass. Imaging tests such as an erect CXR, AXR, and CT scans can help diagnose diverticulitis. Treatment may involve oral antibiotics, a liquid diet, and analgesia for mild cases. Severe cases may require hospitalization for IV antibiotics. Colonoscopy should be avoided initially due to the risk of perforation.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, risk factors, and signs of diverticulitis can help with early diagnosis and treatment. Proper management can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a weak and painful right leg that has been bothering him for a week. Upon examination, the GP observes a foot drop on the right side with 3/5 power for dorsiflexion, as well as a bilateral sensory peripheral neuropathy that is worse on the right side. The GP also notices weakness of wrist extension on the left, which the patient had not previously mentioned. The patient's chest, heart, and abdomen appear normal, and his urine dipstick is clear. His medical history is significant only for asthma, which was diagnosed four years ago.
The patient's FBC reveals a white cell count of 6.7 x109/l (normal range: 4 - 11), with neutrophils at 4.2 x109/l (normal range: 1.5 - 7), lymphocytes at 2.3 x109/l (normal range: 1.5 - 4), and eosinophils at 2.2 x109/l (normal range: 0.04 - 0.4). His ESR is 68mm/hr (normal range: 0 - 15), and his biochemistry is normal except for a raised CRP at 52 mg/l. Nerve conduction studies show reduced amplitude sensory signals bilaterally and patchy axonal degeneration on the right side with reduced motor amplitude.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Mononeuritis Multiplex
Mononeuritis multiplex is a condition characterized by the inflammation of multiple nerves, resulting in both sensory and motor symptoms. While several conditions can cause this, eGPA is the most likely diagnosis for this patient due to his history of adult onset asthma and significantly raised eosinophil count. The painful loss of function, raised inflammatory markers, and reduced amplitude nerve conduction studies also suggest an inflammatory cause of his neuropathy.
While amyloidosis is a possibility, the patient has no history of a disorder that might predispose to secondary amyloid, and no signs of systemic amyloidosis. B12 deficiency and diabetes mellitus are unlikely causes of mononeuritis multiplex, as they do not typically present with this pattern of neuropathy. Lyme disease is also unlikely, as the patient has no rash or arthritis and no history of tick bite.
In summary, while several conditions can cause mononeuritis multiplex, the patient’s history and test results suggest eGPA as the most likely diagnosis. It is important to consider other possibilities, such as amyloidosis, but the inflammatory nature of the patient’s symptoms points towards eGPA as the primary cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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You are a General Practitioner in Scotland who has been called to an elderly man who has become very confused over a period of a few days. He has a previous history of depressive illness. On examination, which he was reluctant to consent to, it is clear that he has a severe chest infection. He has hallucinations, a high fever and refuses all treatment. It is clear that the chest infection is the cause of an acute delirium.
Can you use provisions in the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003 to admit him to hospital?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yes – administration of treatment under the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003 may be appropriate where the physical disorder is a direct cause or consequence of the mental disorder
Explanation:Using the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003 to Treat Physical Disorders with Underlying Mental Disorders
In Scotland, the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003 can be used to treat physical disorders that are a direct cause or consequence of a mental disorder. This means that if a physical disorder, such as a chest infection, is causing delirium in a patient with an underlying mental disorder, the Act can be used to treat both the delirium and the infection. However, if a patient with a history of mental disorder refuses treatment for a purely physical disorder, the Act cannot be used. Instead, the Age of Legal Capacity Act may be used to determine the patient’s capacity to consent to treatment. Suicidal ideation is not relevant in this context.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 38-week-old neonate has been born with an abdominal defect described as 7 cm of herniated bowel through the abdominal wall. The bowel is exposed without a covering. The patient is hypotensive (50/30), tachycardic (220 bpm) and hypothermic (35.2 °C). Bloods were taken, which showed the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 190 g/l Female: 115–155 g/l
Male: 135–175 g/l
White cell count 30 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 25 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incubate, fluid-resuscitate, pass nasogastric (NG) tube, surgery within a few hours
Explanation:Management of Gastroschisis in Neonates
Gastroschisis is a condition in which the abdominal contents herniate through the abdominal wall, without the covering of a sac of amniotic membrane and peritoneum. This poses a higher risk to the neonate than exomphalos, which has a covering. The management of gastroschisis involves incubation to maintain body temperature, fluid-resuscitation to prevent dehydration and hypovolaemia, and surgical intervention within a few hours, unless there is evidence of impaired bowel perfusion. Elective surgery is not appropriate for gastroschisis. Restricting fluids would result in organ hypoperfusion and death. Abdominal X-rays are not necessary, and surgical review is obviously appropriate, but surgical intervention is the priority.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What is the number of patients that need to be treated with sunscreen A to prevent one case of skin cancer compared to placebo?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24
Explanation:The Glasgow coma scale is a scoring system used to assess the level of consciousness of a patient. It ranges from 3 to 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 being the best. The scale is made up of three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response.
The best eye response is determined by how the patient reacts to visual stimuli, such as opening their eyes spontaneously or in response to a command. The best verbal response is graded on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 being no response and 5 being an oriented patient who can answer questions appropriately. Finally, the best motor response is assessed by observing the patient’s movements, such as their ability to follow commands or move in response to pain.
Overall, the Glasgow coma scale is an important tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness of a patient and determine the severity of their condition. By the different parameters and scores, medical professionals can provide appropriate treatment and care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and prescribed medication to lower her blood pressure. However, she stopped taking the medication due to reported dizziness. Her blood pressure readings usually run at 150/100 mmHg. She denies any chest pain, shortness of breath, leg swelling, or visual problems. She has a history of occasional migraines but no other medical conditions. She has no known drug allergies. Her vital signs are within normal limits, other than high blood pressure. The S1 and S2 sounds are normal. There is no S3 or S4 sound, murmur, rub, or gallop. The peripheral pulses are normal and symmetric. The serum electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride), creatinine, and urea nitrogen are within normal range. What is the most appropriate antihypertensive medication for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:The best medication for the patient in the scenario would be indapamide, a thiazide diuretic that blocks the Na+/Cl− cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubules, increasing calcium reabsorption and reducing the risk of osteoporotic fractures. Common side-effects include hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricaemia, gout, postural hypotension and hypochloraemic alkalosis.
Prazosin is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia.
Enalapril is not preferred for patients over 55 years old and can increase osteoporosis risk.
Propranolol is not a preferred initial treatment for hypertension, and amlodipine can cause ankle swelling and should be avoided in patients with myocardial infarction and symptomatic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient presents with acute pain in his right calf, from the knee downwards, causing him great difficulty in walking. Of note, pulses are not palpable in the right limb below the knee. While standing, the right limb appears more erythematosus than the left, but this colour quickly fades on laying the patient flat.
Which one of the following statements is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic arterial insufficiency is likely to be an underlying factor in the above presentation
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Arterial Insufficiency and Acute Limb Ischaemia
Chronic arterial insufficiency can be a contributing factor to acute limb ischaemia, a condition where blood flow to a limb is suddenly blocked. In patients with pre-existing stenotic vessels, an embolus or thrombus can easily occlude the vessel, leading to acute limb ischaemia. While patients with chronic arterial insufficiency may develop collaterals, these may not prevent the symptoms of acute limb ischaemia. Paraesthesiae, or altered sensation, is a common symptom of acute limb ischaemia. While ankle-brachial pressure index measurement can be useful, it is of limited use in diagnosing acute limb ischaemia. A Fogarty catheter can be used for surgical embolectomy, and lumbar sympathectomy may be performed in chronic arterial insufficiency to increase distal blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 39
Incorrect
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What is the combination of ingredients in Hartmann's solution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium and lactate
Explanation:Hartmann’s Solution Composition and Metabolism
Hartmann’s solution, also known as lactated Ringer’s solution, is an intravenous fluid that is isotonic in nature. It contains various compounds, including sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, and lactate. A litre of this solution contains 131 mmol of sodium, 111 mmol of chloride, 5 mmol of potassium, 2 mmol of calcium, and 29 mmol of lactate.
One of the unique features of Hartmann’s solution is the presence of lactate, which is metabolized by the liver to release bicarbonate. This process is important because bicarbonate would otherwise combine with calcium to form calcium carbonate, which can cause complications. Therefore, the metabolism of lactate helps to maintain the stability of the solution and prevent any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a lump in her right breast that she has noticed for the past 4 weeks. She denies any pain, discharge, or skin changes. The patient is concerned about the lump as she has recently started a new relationship and her partner has also noticed it. On examination, a mobile, smooth, firm breast lump measuring 3.5 cm is palpated. Ultrasound confirms a fibroadenoma. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical excision
Explanation:Surgical excision is the recommended treatment for fibroadenomas larger than 3 cm in size. This is because such masses can cause cosmetic concerns and discomfort, especially if they continue to grow. Given the patient’s expressed anxiety about the mass, surgical excision should be offered as a treatment option. Anastrozole, which is used to treat hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women, is not appropriate in this case as the patient has a benign breast lesion, and there is no information about hormone receptor status or menopausal status. Tamoxifen, which has been shown to reduce benign breast lump development in some pre-menopausal women, is not a primary treatment for fibroadenomas. Ultrasound-guided monochloroacetic acid injection is also not a suitable treatment option as it is used for plantar wart management and not for breast cryotherapy. While some centers may offer ultrasound-guided cryotherapy for fibroadenomas smaller than 4 cm, surgical excision is the more common treatment.
Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma
Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30.
Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended.
In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy comes to the emergency department complaining of groin pain that has been present for the past two hours. He reports feeling nauseous and has vomited twice. He admits to having unprotected sexual intercourse recently. Upon examination, there is swelling and tenderness in the left testicle and scrotum. The left side lacks the cremaster reflex, and lifting the affected testicle causes more pain. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Testicular torsion is a condition where the testis twists on the remnant of the processus vaginalis, leading to restricted blood flow. The main symptom is severe testicular pain, which may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The affected testis may also appear swollen and red. The cremaster reflex may be absent on the affected side, and elevating the testicle can worsen the pain.
While the patient had unprotected sex recently, the symptoms are not typical of epididymitis, which usually involves urinary symptoms and relief of pain with testicular elevation (Prehn’s sign positive).Acute Scrotal Disorders in Children: Differential Diagnoses
When a child presents with an acute scrotal problem, it is crucial to rule out testicular torsion as it requires immediate surgical intervention. The most common age for testicular torsion is around puberty. On the other hand, an irreducible inguinal hernia is more common in children under two years old. Epididymitis, which is inflammation of the epididymis, is rare in prepubescent children. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a child with an acute scrotal disorder. Proper diagnosis and prompt treatment can prevent serious complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man with a known history of severe depression has been in hospital for the past year. He was diagnosed with depression at the age of 23 and has been on antidepressants since. He has had multiple self-harm and suicide attempts in the past. For the past year, he has been receiving treatment in hospital and has been making some progress with regard to his mental health. He is not happy to be in hospital, but the doctors thought that it was in his best interests to keep him in hospital for treatment. He has been under a Section which allowed him to be kept in hospital for six months. At the end of the first six months, the doctors applied for a second time for him to be kept for another six months, as they feel he is not yet fit for discharge.
For how long can the relevant Section be renewed for this patient for the third time?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: One year
Explanation:Understanding the Time Limits of Mental Health Detention in the UK
In the UK, mental health detention is governed by specific time limits depending on the type of detention and the purpose of the detention. Here are some of the key time limits to be aware of:
– Section 2: This is the Section used for assessment, and a patient can be kept in hospital for a maximum of 28 days under this Section. It cannot be extended.
– Section 3: This is the Section used for treatment, and a patient can be detained for up to six months initially. The Section can be renewed for another six months, and then for one year at a time. Treatment without consent can be given for the first three months, and then only with the approval of an ‘approved second-opinion doctor’ for the next three months.
– Two years: While a patient can be kept in hospital for up to two years for treatment, Section 3 cannot be renewed for two years at a time. The patient can also be discharged earlier if the doctor thinks the patient is well enough.
– Six months: This is the time for which an initial Section 3 can be applied for and the time for which it can be renewed for a second time. For a third time and onwards, Section 3 can be renewed for one year each time, but the patient can be discharged earlier if doctors think it is not necessary for the patient to be under Section anymore.Understanding these time limits is important for both patients and healthcare professionals involved in mental health detention in the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E with a painful shoulder injury he sustained while playing basketball. Upon examination, you discover an anterior dislocation of his right shoulder. What pre- and post-relocation test must you perform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Examine axillary nerve function in the affected arm
Explanation:Assessing Vascular and Nerve Injury in Anterior Shoulder Dislocation: Important Tests to Consider
When examining a patient with anterior shoulder dislocation, it is crucial to assess for vascular and nerve injury in the affected arm. One way to test nerve function is by assessing sensation in the regimental patch area over the deltoid muscle. An X-ray before and after relocation is necessary to check for fractures and confirm successful reduction. If there is vascular injury, it will be evident from the examination of the limb, and urgent referral to surgeons is required. Checking the brachial pulse is acceptable to assess for vascular injury, and examining axillary nerve function before and after relocation is mandatory. Ultrasound of the affected limb may be helpful in identifying soft tissue injuries, but it is not as crucial as the other tests mentioned. Overall, a thorough assessment of vascular and nerve function is essential in managing anterior shoulder dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A patient aged 50 presents to the ENT clinic with facial pain. The patient reports experiencing frequent attacks of pain around the left eye and left cheek, with up to 15-20 attacks per day. The attacks are short, lasting 3-4 minutes but can last up to 15 minutes, and can be triggered by neck movements. The patient also experiences watering of the left eye during the attacks. There are no associated symptoms of vomiting, aversion to light or sound, or limb weakness. Both ear, nose, and throat and neurological examinations are normal, and the patient is normotensive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paroxysmal hemicrania
Explanation:Distinguishing Paroxysmal Hemicrania from Other Headache Syndromes
Paroxysmal hemicrania is a type of headache syndrome that is characterized by intense pain on one side of the face lasting for 2-25 minutes. Unlike other headache syndromes, the pain never occurs on the opposite side of the face. Autonomic symptoms such as rhinorrhea, ptosis, watering of the eye, and eyelid edema are often present. Neck movements or pressure on the neck can trigger the attacks, and the headache responds well to indomethacin. It is important to distinguish paroxysmal hemicrania from other headache syndromes such as migraine, trigeminal neuralgia, cluster headache, and frontal lobe glioblastoma. Migraine typically presents with intermittent attacks accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, or nausea. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by shorter electric shock-like pains in response to specific stimuli. Cluster headache consists of fewer but longer attacks per day, occurring at a consistent time, and with minimal response to indomethacin. Frontal lobe glioblastoma is not consistent with the history of paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has been referred for investigation of Peutz-Jegher syndrome due to his family history. His grandmother passed away at the age of 30 from colonic carcinoma associated with the syndrome. What is the most probable mode of inheritance for Peutz-Jegher syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Peutz-Jegher Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Pigmentation and Bowel Abnormalities
Peutz-Jegher syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by the presence of perioral pigmentation and multiple hamartomas in the bowel. Initially, it was believed that these hamartomas did not increase the risk of developing cancer. However, recent studies have shown that individuals with Peutz-Jegher syndrome are at an increased risk of developing various types of cancer, including breast, colon, and pancreatic cancer. This condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene from one parent to develop the disorder. Regular screening and surveillance are recommended for individuals with Peutz-Jegher syndrome to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female presents to breast clinic following a left total mastectomy and sentinel lymph node biopsy for breast cancer. The histological analysis reveals complete excision of the tumour and clear malignancy in all 3 lymph nodes. The tumour is an invasive ductal carcinoma of grade 1, with ER and PR positivity and HER2 negativity. What additional treatment options should be considered for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anastrozole
Explanation:The recommended adjuvant hormonal therapy for postmenopausal women with ER+ breast cancer is anastrozole. This medication is an aromatase inhibitor that reduces estrogen levels in the body and is typically given for 5 years. Common side effects include hot flashes, insomnia, and low mood.
Axillary node clearance (ANC) is not necessary in this case since the lymph nodes sampled from the sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) did not show any evidence of malignancy. ANC can increase the risk of lymphoedema, so it should only be performed if needed to clear disease.
Herceptin (trastuzumab) is a type of adjuvant therapy for breast cancer that is used for patients with HER2+ breast cancer. However, since the patient in this case had HER2 receptor status that was negative, Herceptin is not indicated.
Radiotherapy is also not necessary in this case since the patient had a total mastectomy, the lesion was completely removed, and no lymph nodes were involved. Therefore, radiotherapy would unlikely provide any benefit.
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 65 kg 30-year-old woman who is normally fit and well is scheduled for appendectomy today. She has been made nil by mouth, and surgeons expect her to continue nil by mouth for approximately 24 h. The woman has a past medical history of childhood asthma. She has been taking paracetamol for pain, but takes no other regular medication. On examination, the woman’s blood pressure (BP) is 110/80 mmHg, heart rate 65 beats per minute (bpm). Her lungs are clear. Jugular venous pressure (JVP) is not raised and she has no peripheral oedema. Skin turgor is normal.
What is the appropriate fluid prescription for this woman for the 24 h while she is nil by mouth?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 litre 0.9% sodium chloride with 40 mmol potassium over 8 h, 1 litre 5% dextrose with 20 mmol potassium over 8 h; 100 ml 5% dextrose over 8 h
Explanation:Assessing and Prescribing IV Fluids for a Euvolemic Patient
When prescribing IV fluids for a euvolemic patient, it is important to consider their maintenance fluid requirements. This typically involves 25-30 ml/kg/day of water, 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium, and chloride, and 50-100 g/day of glucose to prevent starvation ketosis.
One common rule of thumb is to prescribe 2x sweet (5% dextrose) and 1x salt (0.9% sodium chloride) fluids, or alternatively, the same volume of Hartmann’s solution. It is also important to monitor electrolyte levels through daily blood tests.
When assessing different IV fluid options, it is important to consider the volume of fluid prescribed, the potassium replacement, and the type of fluid being used. For example, colloid fluids like human albumin should only be prescribed in cases of severe hypovolemia due to blood loss.
Overall, careful consideration and monitoring is necessary when prescribing IV fluids for a euvolemic patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old man is brought into the emergency department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. He is minimally responsive, visibly pale, and groaning in pain.
Key findings from the initial A-E approach are:
Airway Patent
Breathing Chest clear and equal air entry bilaterally, respiratory rate 30 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 95%
Circulation Heart rate 160 beats per minute, blood pressure 80/50 mmHg
Disability GCS 9/15, blood glucose 7 mmol/L, pupils equal and reactive to light
Everything else Tense abdomen with diffuse tenderness
You make several attempts at siting a cannula but fail.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's hypotension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call a trained individual to attempt intraosseous access
Explanation:Different Routes for Venous Access
There are various methods for establishing venous access, each with its own advantages and disadvantages. The peripheral venous cannula is easy to insert and has a wide lumen for rapid fluid infusions. However, it is unsuitable for administering vasoactive or irritant drugs and may cause infections if not properly managed. On the other hand, central lines have multiple lumens for multiple infusions but are more difficult to insert and require ultrasound guidance. Femoral lines are easier to manage but have high infection rates, while internal jugular lines are preferred. Intraosseous access is typically used in pediatric practice but can also be used in adults for a wide range of fluid infusions. Tunnelled lines, such as Groshong and Hickman lines, are popular for long-term therapeutic requirements and can be linked to injection ports. Finally, peripherally inserted central cannulas (PICC lines) are less prone to major complications and are inserted peripherally.
Overall, the choice of venous access route depends on the patient’s condition, the type of infusion required, and the operator’s expertise. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of each method and to properly manage any complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a history of intermittent dysphagia to both solids and liquids for the past 6 months. She reports that food often gets stuck during meals and she has to drink a lot of water to overcome this. The doctor orders a chest X-ray and barium swallow, which reveal a dilated oesophagus, lack of peristalsis, and bird-beak deformity.
What diagnosis is consistent with these symptoms and test results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Achalasia is a condition where the lower oesophageal sphincter fails to relax during swallowing, causing difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. The cause is often unknown, and diagnosis involves various tests such as chest X-ray, barium swallow, oesophagoscopy, CT scan, and manometry. Treatment options include sphincter dilation using Botox or balloon dilation, and surgery if necessary. Oesophageal web is a thin membrane in the oesophagus that can cause dysphagia to solids and reflux symptoms. Chagas’ disease, scleroderma, and diffuse oesophageal spasm are other conditions that can cause similar symptoms but have different causes and treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department, complaining of severe headache, neck stiffness and photophobia. There is no history of trauma and there has been no recent foreign travel. On examination, he has fever and a non-blanching rash on his chest. Meningococcal septicaemia is suspected and treatment is commenced. A lumbar puncture was performed.
Select the result most consistent with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose low and the predominant cells are polymorphs
Explanation:Interpreting CSF Results: Understanding Meningitis
Meningitis is a serious condition that can be caused by bacterial, viral, or tuberculous infections. The diagnosis of meningitis is often made by analyzing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) obtained through a lumbar puncture. The results of the CSF analysis can provide important clues about the underlying cause of the infection.
CSF pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose low and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result is indicative of bacterial meningitis, specifically meningococcal septicaemia. Immediate antibiotic treatment is necessary to prevent serious complications.
CSF pressure raised, protein elevated, glucose raised and the predominant cells are lymphocytes: This result can be consistent with either viral or tuberculous meningitis. Further testing, such as PCR, may be necessary to determine the specific cause.
CSF pressure low, protein normal, glucose raised and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result is less indicative of infection, as the normal protein level and raised glucose level make bacterial meningitis unlikely. However, further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause.
CSF pressure normal, protein low, glucose normal and the predominant cells are polymorphs: This result suggests that infection is unlikely, as the low CSF pressure and protein level are not consistent with meningitis.
CSF pressure normal, protein elevated, glucose raised and the predominant cells are lymphocytes: This result is consistent with viral meningitis, and further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
Understanding the results of a CSF analysis is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of meningitis. Prompt and appropriate treatment can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy has been experiencing progressive gait disturbance and falls. He was initially evaluated by a paediatric neurologist at the age of 5 years due to unsteady gait and toe walking. His gait unsteadiness began around the age of 4 years with frequent falls, and he had also developed hand tremors prior to this visit. Upon further examination, he was found to have pes cavus, mild scoliosis, and no cardiac murmur. What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Friedreich’s ataxia is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. This is the most common type of hereditary ataxia and typically presents with symptoms before the age of 25, including ataxia, cardiomyopathy, motor weakness, pes cavus foot deformity, and scoliosis. It should be noted that Friedreich’s ataxia is not inherited in an autosomal dominant or X-linked recessive manner, nor is it caused by mitochondrial dysfunction.
Autosomal Recessive Conditions
Autosomal recessive conditions are genetic disorders that occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. These conditions are often referred to as ‘metabolic’ as they affect the body’s metabolic processes. However, there are notable exceptions, such as X-linked recessive conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD, and autosomal dominant conditions like hyperlipidemia type II and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.
Some ‘structural’ conditions, like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia, are also autosomal recessive. The following conditions are examples of autosomal recessive disorders: albinism, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, cystic fibrosis, cystinuria, familial Mediterranean fever, Fanconi anemia, glycogen storage disease, haemochromatosis, homocystinuria, lipid storage disease (Tay-Sach’s, Gaucher, Niemann-Pick), mucopolysaccharidoses (Hurler’s), PKU, sickle cell anemia, thalassemias, and Wilson’s disease.
It is worth noting that Gilbert’s syndrome is still a matter of debate, and many textbooks list it as autosomal dominant. Nonetheless, understanding the inheritance patterns of these conditions is crucial for genetic counseling and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is undergoing investigation by her GP for potential issues in her hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis. The following findings were recorded:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.2 mu/l (0.4-4.0 mu/l)
fT4 8.0 pmol/l (9.0-26.0 pmol/l)
fT3 3.5 pmol/l (3.0-9.0 pmol/l)
What condition is indicated by these results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Thyroid Disorders: Understanding the Different Presentations
Thyroid disorders can present with various symptoms and laboratory findings. Here are some of the common presentations of different thyroid disorders:
Hypothyroidism: This condition is characterized by elevated TSH and low fT4 levels. It is more common in females and occurs mainly in middle life. The elevated TSH is due to reduced negative feedback at the level of the pituitary.
Thyroid Hormone Resistance: In this condition, TSH and fT4 levels are raised. Thyroid hormone resistance results in decreased response to a given thyroid hormone, which prompts the thyroid axis to increase TSH and fT4 levels. The patient may not be symptomatic and may even present hypothyroid clinically.
Hyperthyroidism: This condition is characterized by low TSH and usually raised fT4 and fT3 levels.
Pituitary TSH-Secreting Tumour: This condition presents with raised TSH and fT4 levels.
Subclinical Hypothyroidism: This condition presents with elevated TSH but normal fT4 levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old business woman recently returned from a work conference in Turkey, where she spent a lot of her time in air-conditioned conference rooms. She has a dry cough and a respiratory rate of 24. She also reports multiple episodes of vomiting and loose stools.
What is the most likely causative organism of this patient symptom?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Legionella
Explanation:Common Bacterial Causes of Pneumonia and their Characteristics
Pneumonia is a common respiratory infection caused by various bacteria, including Legionella, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylococcus aureus, Pneumocystis jiroveci, and Mycoplasma. Each bacterium has its own unique characteristics and mode of transmission.
Legionella is an atypical causative agent that spreads through air-conditioning systems. Patients with Legionella pneumonia typically present with a dry cough and may have hyponatremia and deranged liver function.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is most commonly seen in patients with aspiration pneumonia, cystic fibrosis, and bronchiectasis.
Staphylococcus aureus is often seen after the flu, but the above travel and air-conditioning history makes it less likely to be the causative agent.
Pneumocystis jiroveci is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS patients.
Mycoplasma is a cause of atypical pneumonia that often affects younger patients and is associated with erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a neonate who is 2 hours old in the delivery suite. The baby was delivered through an elective Caesarean section. The mother's antenatal history reveals gestational diabetes. During a heel prick test, the baby's blood glucose level was found to be 2.2 mmol/L. What should be the subsequent course of action in managing the baby?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observe and encourage early feeding
Explanation:It is typical for newborns to experience temporary hypoglycaemia during the first few hours after birth. However, infants born to mothers with diabetes (whether gestational or pre-existing) are at a higher risk of developing this condition. This is due to the fact that high blood sugar levels in the mother during labour can trigger the release of insulin in the foetus, and once born, the baby no longer has a constant supply of glucose from the mother.
Fortunately, in most cases, transient hypoglycaemia does not require any medical intervention and is closely monitored. It is recommended that mothers feed their newborns early and at regular intervals. For babies born to diabetic mothers, a hypoglycaemia protocol will be initiated and discontinued once the infant has at least three blood glucose readings above 2.5 mmol/L and is feeding appropriately.
Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male patient arrives in hospital with a hip fracture. His wife mentions that he drinks around two bottles of wine per day. He is prescribed chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, for alcohol withdrawal.
What is the reason for using this medication in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol withdrawal leads to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) deficiency; benzodiazepines facilitate GABA-A binding to its receptor
Explanation:A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter who has noticed that he is becoming increasingly forgetful and unsteady on his feet. Unfortunately his daughter does not know anything about his previous medical history or whether he takes any medications. Routine investigations reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular value 101 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 x 109/
Sodium 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 1.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatine 78 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Random blood sugar 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Given these results, which is the most likely cause of his symptoms? -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has been experiencing increasing pain in his left hip for the past six months, resulting in severe limitations in movement. Upon examination, there is significant restriction in flexion and external rotation of the left hip. An X-ray of the hip reveals significant joint deformity with loss of joint space and extensive new bone growth. The possibility of Paget's disease is being considered. What is the most likely elevated factor in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alkaline phosphatase
Explanation:Laboratory Markers in Paget’s Disease: Understanding Their Significance
Paget’s disease is a condition characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, leading to bone deformities and fractures. Laboratory markers can provide valuable information about the disease activity and response to treatment. Here are some key markers and their significance in Paget’s disease:
Alkaline phosphatase: This enzyme is produced by osteoblasts and is a marker of bone formation. Elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase are commonly seen in patients with Paget’s disease. Treatment with bisphosphonates can lead to a decrease in alkaline phosphatase levels, indicating a reduction in disease activity.
Calcium: Calcium levels are typically normal in patients with Paget’s disease and do not provide any useful information about disease activity.
Magnesium: Low levels of magnesium are associated with highly active Paget’s disease, likely due to increased uptake by bone. However, elevated levels of magnesium are not a feature of the disease.
Phosphate: Phosphate accumulation is not a feature of Paget’s disease. Low-phosphate diet and phosphate binders are important in the management of patients with chronic kidney disease.
Vitamin D: Elevated levels of vitamin D are not involved in the pathogenesis of Paget’s disease. However, in other conditions such as sarcoidosis, increased production of vitamin D can lead to hypercalcemia.
Understanding the significance of these laboratory markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of Paget’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man is undergoing an elective transurethral resection of prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hyperplasia with spinal anaesthesia. After 40 minutes into the procedure, he complains of headache and visual disturbances. A venous blood gas analysis is ordered, and the results show severe hyponatremia. What could be the reason for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irrigation with glycine
Explanation:TURP syndrome can be caused by irrigation with glycine during a transurethral resection of prostate. This complication presents with various symptoms affecting the central nervous system, respiratory system, and the body as a whole. The hypo-osmolar nature of glycine leads to its systemic absorption when the prostatic venous sinuses are opened up during the procedure. This results in hyponatremia, which is further exacerbated by the breakdown of glycine into ammonia by the liver. The resulting hyper-ammonia can cause visual disturbances. It is important to note that TURP syndrome can occur under general anesthesia or spinal anesthesia, but it is not a side effect of spinal anesthesia.
Understanding TURP Syndrome
TURP syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can occur during transurethral resection of the prostate surgery. This condition is caused by the use of large volumes of glycine during the procedure, which can be absorbed into the body and lead to hyponatremia. When the liver breaks down the glycine into ammonia, it can cause hyper-ammonia and visual disturbances.
The symptoms of TURP syndrome can be severe and include CNS, respiratory, and systemic symptoms. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including a surgical time of more than one hour, a height of the bag greater than 70cm, resection of more than 60g, large blood loss, perforation, a large amount of fluid used, and poorly controlled CHF.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of TURP syndrome in order to quickly identify and treat this condition if it occurs. By taking steps to minimize the risk of developing TURP syndrome and closely monitoring patients during and after the procedure, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman underwent a kidney transplant four years ago due to end stage renal failure caused by lupus nephritis. The transplant was from her sister, and she received anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) induction and plasma exchange pre-transplant due to low-grade donor specific antibodies. She has been stable on tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil and prednisolone, with only one episode of acute cellular rejection at six months post-transplant. During her four-year follow-up, she presented with a creatinine level of 150 umol/l and high blood pressure at 150/95 mmHg, which increased to 160 umol/l in a repeat sample one month later. She was admitted for further investigations and biopsy, which revealed double contouring of the glomerular capillary basement membrane, without inflammatory infiltrate and negative C4d. Donor specific antibodies were still present, but titres were low. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transplant glomerulopathy
Explanation:Pathological Processes in Renal Transplant Patients
Double contouring of the glomerular capillary basement membrane is a characteristic feature of transplant glomerulopathy, a chronic antibody-mediated rejection that affects up to 15% of renal transplant patients at five years post-transplant. Acute cellular rejection, on the other hand, is characterized by interstitial inflammation, tubulitis, and/or arthritis, and is unlikely to occur in patients on stable medication doses. Acute humoral rejection, which is characterized by C4d deposition, capillaritis, and/or arthritis, is another possible pathological process in renal transplant patients.
BK viral nephropathy, which occurs in 1-8% of renal transplant patients, is associated with T cell depleting agents such as ATG. Biopsy findings in BK viral nephropathy typically show nuclear viral inclusions in the tubular epithelial cells, which can be limited to the medulla in early disease, and tubulointerstitial inflammation. Urine cytology can also be used to detect decoy cells and urothelial cells with characteristic nuclear viral inclusions, thus avoiding the need for biopsy.
Finally, acute calcineurin inhibitor (CNI) toxicity is unlikely in patients on stable doses of tacrolimus, but almost all patients develop chronic CNI nephrotoxicity. Biopsy findings in chronic CNI nephrotoxicity typically show interstitial fibrosis, tubular atrophy, and arteriolar hyalinosis. In the case of this patient, some background CNI toxicity is likely, but the biopsy findings are more consistent with transplant glomerulopathy as the primary pathological process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being involved in an altercation, during which he was stabbed in his lower back. On examination, he has right leg weakness in all muscle groups. Further examination reveals that he has loss of vibration and proprioception on the same side. In his left leg, there is loss of pain and temperature sensation, but preserved motor strength. He has no problems with bladder or bowel retention. His motor strength is preserved in his upper limbs.
With which one of the following spinal cord syndromes is his presentation consistent?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hemisection of the cord
Explanation:Overview of Spinal Cord Syndromes
Spinal cord syndromes are a group of neurological disorders that affect the spinal cord and its associated nerves. These syndromes can be caused by various factors, including trauma, infection, and degenerative diseases. Here are some of the most common spinal cord syndromes:
Hemisection of the Cord (Brown-Sequard Syndrome)
This syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, as well as ipsilateral hemiplegia. On the other hand, there is contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Hemisection of the cord is usually caused by a stab injury.Central Cord Syndrome
Central cord syndrome causes bilateral weakness of the limbs, with the upper limbs being more affected than the lower extremities. This is because the upper limbs are represented medially in the corticospinal tracts.Anterior Cord Syndrome
In anterior cord syndrome, proprioception, vibratory sense, and light touch are preserved. However, there is bilateral weakness and loss of pain and temperature sensation due to involvement of the spinothalamic tracts.Posterior Cord Syndrome
Posterior cord syndrome is characterized by loss of vibratory sense and proprioception below the level of the lesion, as well as total sensory loss at the level of the lesion.Cauda Equina Syndrome
Cauda equina syndrome is caused by compressive lesions at L4/L5 or L5/S1. Symptoms include asymmetric weakness, saddle anesthesia, decreased reflexes at the knee, and radicular pain. Bowel and bladder retention may develop as late complications.In conclusion, understanding the different types of spinal cord syndromes is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl presents with a 1-day history of abdominal pain. Her mother reports that the pain woke the child up this morning, with one episode of vomiting this afternoon, and she has since lost her appetite. She has had no fever or diarrhoea. There is no history of foreign travel and no ill contacts. On examination, the temperature is 37.5 °C and heart rate (HR) 123 bpm, and there is generalised abdominal tenderness, without guarding or rigidity. Urine dip is negative, and blood tests show white cell count (WCC) of 15 with C-reactive protein (CRP) of 10.
What would the next best step in management be?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nil by mouth, intravenous fluids and review
Explanation:Management of Appendicitis in Children: Nil by Mouth, Laparoscopy, and Monitoring
Appendicitis in children can present with atypical symptoms, such as general abdominal pain, anorexia, and vomiting, accompanied by a low-grade fever. If a child presents with these symptoms, it is important to suspect appendicitis and admit the child for monitoring.
The first line of management is to keep the child nil by mouth and monitor their condition closely. If the child’s pain worsens or their condition deteriorates, a diagnostic or Exploratory laparoscopy may be necessary, with or without an appendicectomy.
While a laparotomy may be necessary in emergency situations where the child is haemodynamically unstable, a laparoscopic appendicectomy is usually the preferred option.
An abdominal X-ray is not the best diagnostic tool for appendicitis, but it can rule out bowel perforation and free pneumoperitoneum. Ultrasound is the preferred modality for children due to the lower radiation dose compared to CT scans.
It is crucial to monitor the child’s condition closely and prevent any complications from a perforated appendix. Discharge with oral analgesia is not recommended if the child is tachycardic and has a low-grade fever, as these symptoms can be associated with peritonitis. Overall, early recognition and prompt management are essential in the successful treatment of appendicitis in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left eye pain and slightly blurred vision. He has no significant medical history and does not wear glasses or contact lenses. His family history includes type 2 diabetes and Crohn's disease.
Upon examination, the patient is wearing sunglasses due to photophobia and his left eye appears red. Ophthalmoscopy is not possible due to the severity of his symptoms. A white fluid level is visible in the inferior part of the anterior chamber and his pupil is small and irregular. Based on these findings, ophthalmology is urgently consulted. What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:The patient has a medical history of a systemic condition such as rheumatoid arthritis or ankylosing spondylitis, which can lead to recurrent episodes. Although he has a family history of IBD, his symptoms do not match the typical presentation, as he does not experience a gritty sensation in his eye and his pupil does not appear abnormal.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A loud systolic murmur, which extends into diastole and is ‘machinery-like’ in quality, is found in a toddler at his 18-month check-up. The murmur radiates to the back between the scapulae. His first heart sound is normal; the second sound is obscured by the murmur. He has bounding pulses. His mother reports that he is asymptomatic.
Which of the following is correct of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: This condition is likely to occur with increased frequency in those with hyaline membrane disease of the lungs
Explanation:Misconceptions about a Pediatric Cardiac Condition
Clearing Up Misconceptions About a Pediatric Cardiac Condition
There are several misconceptions about a pediatric cardiac condition that need to be addressed. Firstly, the condition is likely to be patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which can occur more frequently in children with hyaline membrane disease and cyanotic congenital heart conditions. However, it is treatable, with surgical repair required for larger defects.
Secondly, the right recurrent laryngeal nerve hooks around the right subclavian artery, which is not affected by PDA. Thirdly, the condition is not due to failure of closure of a fetal vessel derived from the fourth aortic arch.
Lastly, the underlying diagnosis is not Tetralogy of Fallot, which is a separate condition consisting of pulmonary stenosis, a ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta. It is important to clear up these misconceptions to ensure accurate understanding and treatment of this pediatric cardiac condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man, who has been a heavy drinker for many years, arrives at the Emergency Department with intense abdominal pain. During the abdominal examination, caput medusae is observed. Which vessels combine to form the obstructed blood vessel in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric and splenic veins
Explanation:Understanding the Hepatic Portal Vein and Caput Medusae
The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins. When this vein is obstructed, it can lead to caput medusae, a clinical sign characterized by dilated varicose veins that emanate from the umbilicus, resembling Medusa’s head. This condition is often seen in patients with cirrhotic livers, particularly those who are alcoholics.
While the inferior mesenteric vein can sometimes contribute to the formation of the hepatic portal vein, this is only true for about one-third of individuals. The left gastric vein, on the other hand, does not play a role in the formation of the hepatic portal vein.
It’s important to note that the right and left common iliac arteries are not involved in this condition. Additionally, neither the inferior mesenteric artery nor the paraumbilical veins contribute to the formation of the hepatic portal vein.
Understanding the anatomy and physiology of the hepatic portal vein and caput medusae can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with liver disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing exertional dyspnoea accompanied by bilateral peripheral oedema. He reports feeling extremely fatigued lately. During the physical examination, his lungs are clear, but he has ascites. On auscultation of his heart sounds, you detect a holosystolic murmur with a high pitch at the left sternal edge, extending to the right sternal edge. What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs and Symptoms
Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by signs of right heart failure, such as dyspnea and peripheral edema, and a classical murmur. The backflow of blood to the right atrium leads to right heart dilation, weakness, and eventually failure, resulting in ascites and poor ejection fraction causing edema.
Mitral regurgitation has a similar murmur to tricuspid regurgitation but is heard best at the apex.
Aortic regurgitation is identified by an early diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal edge.
Aortic stenosis does not typically result in ascites, and its murmur is ejection systolic.
Pulmonary stenosis is characterized by a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur best heard over the pulmonary post and not a holosystolic murmur at the left sternal edge.
Understanding Heart Murmurs and Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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An obese 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with ongoing vague abdominal pain and fatigue for the last three months. His past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.
Physical examination suggests hepatomegaly. Laboratory studies reveal a negative hepatitis panel and normal iron studies. Antibodies for autoimmune liver disease are also normal.
A diagnosis of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is likely.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight loss
Explanation:Management of Hepatomegaly and Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)
Hepatomegaly and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) are common conditions that require appropriate management to prevent progression to liver cirrhosis and other complications. The following are important considerations in the management of these conditions:
Diagnosis: Diagnosis of NAFLD involves ruling out other causes of hepatomegaly and demonstrating hepatic steatosis through liver biopsy or radiology.
Conservative management: Most patients with NAFLD can be managed conservatively with maximized control of cardiovascular risk factors, weight loss, immunizations to hepatitis A and B viruses, and alcohol abstinence. Weight loss in a controlled manner is recommended, with a 10% reduction in body weight over a 6-month period being an appropriate recommendation to patients. Rapid weight loss should be avoided, as it can worsen liver inflammation and fibrosis. Unfortunately, no medications are currently licensed for the management of NAFLD.
Liver transplant: Patients with NAFLD do not require a liver transplant at this stage. Conservative management with weight loss and controlling cardiovascular risk factors is the recommended approach.
Oral steroids: Oral steroids are indicated in patients with autoimmune hepatitis. Patients with autoimmune hepatitis typically present with other immune-mediated conditions like pernicious anemia and ulcerative colitis.
Penicillamine: Penicillamine is the treatment for patients with Wilson’s disease, a rare disorder of copper excretion that leads to excess copper deposition in the liver and brain. Patients typically present with neurological signs like tremor, ataxia, clumsiness, or abdominal signs like fulminant liver failure.
Ursodeoxycholic acid: Ursodeoxycholic acid is used in the management of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), a condition more common in women. Given this patient’s normal autoimmune screen, PBC is an unlikely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents for a health check and his thyroid function tests (TFTs) from three months ago showed elevated TSH levels and normal Free T4 levels. His recent TFTs show similar results and he reports feeling more tired and cold than usual. He denies any other symptoms and has no past medical history, but his mother has a history of autoimmune thyroiditis. What is the next step in managing his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe levothyroxine for 6 months and repeat thyroid function tests
Explanation:For patients under 65 years old with subclinical hypothyroidism and a TSH level between 5.5-10mU/L, a 6-month trial of thyroxine should be offered if they have hypothyroidism symptoms and their TSH remains elevated on two separate occasions 3 months apart. This is because subclinical hypothyroidism increases the risk of cardiovascular disease and progression to overt hypothyroidism, and treatment with levothyroxine generally resolves symptoms. Repeat thyroid autoantibody tests and thyroid function testing after 3 months are unnecessary if the patient has already had negative autoantibody results and two elevated TSH levels 3 months apart. Prescribing levothyroxine only if further symptoms develop is not recommended as it delays treatment and increases the risk of negative impacts on the patient’s quality of life.
Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism
Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men, with a 2-5% chance per year. This risk is further increased if thyroid autoantibodies are present.
Not all patients with subclinical hypothyroidism require treatment, and guidelines have been produced by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS) to help determine when treatment is necessary. If the TSH level is above 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, levothyroxine may be offered. If the TSH level is between 5.5 – 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be considered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms of hypothyroidism. For older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients may simply have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.
In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and consideration of treatment options based on individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old construction worker complains of worsening pain in his feet over the past two weeks, describing it as feeling like he is walking on gravel. He also reports experiencing lower back pain.
The patient recently returned from a trip to Spain two months ago and recalls having a brief episode of urethral discharge, but did not seek medical attention for it.
What is a possible diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive Arthritis
Reactive arthritis is a medical condition that is characterized by a combination of symptoms including seronegative arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. The condition is often associated with sacroiliitis and painful feet, which reflects plantar fasciitis. Reactive arthritis is known to occur after gastrointestinal infections with Shigella or Salmonella, as well as following non-specific urethritis.
Gonococcal arthritis, on the other hand, tends to occur in patients who are systemically unwell and have features of septic arthritis. It is important to note that reactive arthritis is not contagious and cannot be spread from one person to another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A father brings his 15-month-old daughter into surgery. Since yesterday she seems to be straining whilst passing stools. He describes her screaming, appearing to be in pain and pulling her knees up towards her chest. These episodes are now occurring every 15-20 minutes. This morning he noted a small amount of blood in her nappy. She is taking around 60% of her normal feeds and vomiting 'green fluid' every hour. On examination, she appears irritable and lethargic but is well hydrated and apyrexial. On examination, her abdomen seems distended but no discrete mass is found.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Understanding Intussusception
Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.
To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.
In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visited his doctor as his son has expressed concern about his alcohol consumption. He admits to drinking two bottles of wine (750ml capacity) every night along with six pints of 5% beer.
(A bottle of wine typically contains 12% alcohol)
What is the total number of units this man is consuming per night?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 36
Explanation:Understanding Units of Alcohol
Alcohol consumption is often measured in units, with one unit being equal to 10 ml of alcohol. The strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40% is equivalent to one unit, while a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6% is also one unit. Half a standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12% is also one unit.
To calculate the number of units in a drink, you can use the ABV and the volume of the drink. For instance, one bottle of wine with nine units is equivalent to two bottles of wine or six pints of beer, both of which contain 18 units.
It’s important to keep track of your alcohol consumption and stay within recommended limits. Drinking too much can have negative effects on your health and well-being. By understanding units of alcohol, you can make informed decisions about your drinking habits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A nine-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her mother after falling on her outstretched left hand during recess. She is experiencing pain and swelling around her left elbow and forearm.
Upon examination:
Heart rate: 92/minute. Respiratory rate: 20/minute. Blood pressure: 102/70 mmHg. Oxygen saturations: 99%. Temperature: 37.5 ºC. Capillary refill time: 2 seconds.
Left arm: the elbow is swollen and red. The skin is intact. The joint is tender to the touch and has limited range of motion. Sensation is normal. Pulses are present.
Right arm: normal.
X-rays of the patient’s left elbow and forearm reveal a proximal fracture of the ulna with a dislocation of the proximal radial head.
What is the term used to describe this injury pattern?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monteggia fracture
Explanation:A Monteggia fracture is characterized by a dislocated proximal radioulnar joint and a fractured ulna. This type of fracture is most commonly observed in children aged 4 to 10 years old. To differentiate it from a Galeazzi fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture and a dislocated distal radioulnar joint, one can associate the name of the fracture with the affected bone: Monteggia ulna (Manchester United), Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers). Other types of fractures include Colles fracture, which is a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, Smith’s fracture, which is a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, and Bennett’s fracture, which is a fracture of the base of the first metacarpal that extends into the carpometacarpal joint.
Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.
Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.
Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes in with a painful red eye. What feature would not indicate a diagnosis of acute angle closure glaucoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small pupil
Explanation:Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient is referred to the orthopaedics department with a history of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma three years ago. Despite regular follow-up scans showing no signs of disease recurrence, she has been experiencing worsening pain in her right hip for the past two months, particularly during exercise. During examination, she experiences pain in all directions when her hip is moved passively, with internal rotation being particularly painful. An x-ray ordered by her GP has come back as normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
Explanation:Avascular necrosis is strongly associated with prior chemotherapy treatment. Although initial x-rays may appear normal in patients with this condition, it is unlikely that they would not reveal any metastatic deposits that could cause pain.
Understanding Avascular Necrosis of the Hip
Avascular necrosis of the hip is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, leading to bone destruction and loss of joint function. This condition typically affects the epiphysis of long bones, such as the femur. There are several causes of avascular necrosis, including long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma.
Initially, avascular necrosis may not present with any symptoms, but as the condition progresses, pain in the affected joint may occur. Plain x-ray findings may be normal in the early stages, but osteopenia and microfractures may be seen. As the condition worsens, collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign.
MRI is the preferred investigation for avascular necrosis as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. In severe cases, joint replacement may be necessary to manage the condition. Understanding the causes, features, and management of avascular necrosis of the hip is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP requesting contraception.
In which of the following scenarios could contraception be legally withheld?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She does not have an understanding of the implications of contraception
Explanation:Legal Considerations for Prescribing Contraception to a 15-Year-Old Girl
When considering prescribing contraception to a 15-year-old girl, there are legal criteria that must be met. The Fraser criteria state that the patient must have the ability to understand the implications of contraception for herself and her family. If this is the case, and there is no medical contraindication, the girl can request whichever form of contraception she prefers.
The Fraser criteria also state that the girl must have made a decision to start or continue to have sexual intercourse, despite attempts at persuasion, and that prescribing contraception is in her best interests. In Scotland, the legal underpinnings are statutory, and the girl must be capable of understanding the nature and possible consequences of the procedure or treatment.
It is important to note that the type of contraception used will not have legal implications on whether contraception should be provided. However, if the girl is frightened to say no to her boyfriend, this may be a child safeguarding issue that requires careful handling. In this case, contraception can still be legally prescribed.
If the girl refuses to discuss matters with her parents, this is not a legal reason to withhold contraception. As long as the sustained and consistent refusal to discuss with parents criteria are met, contraception can be supplied. Similarly, if the girl’s parents are abroad, this does not affect the decision to provide contraception as long as all other criteria are met.
In conclusion, when considering prescribing contraception to a 15-year-old girl, it is important to ensure that the legal criteria are met and that the decision is in the girl’s best interests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man presented with decreased libido. He had read about testosterone in a magazine and ordered a test through an online laboratory, which showed a low level. He had a history of morphine addiction for the past 4 years and had recently started treatment at a detox clinic, where he was taking methadone orally. He smoked 15 cigarettes per day.
What is the most appropriate advice to give to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To come back once his detoxification regimen is over
Explanation:Management of Low Testosterone in a Patient on Methadone
When managing a patient on methadone with low testosterone levels, it is important to consider the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options. Methadone use inhibits the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in men, leading to low testosterone levels. Therefore, advising the patient to come back after detoxification is necessary before considering any treatment options.
Starting oral or intramuscular depo testosterone is not appropriate at this point. Instead, it is recommended to have the patient stop smoking and repeat the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) tests after stopping methadone. These tests will help determine if there are any other causes for testosterone deficiency that need to be addressed.
In conclusion, managing low testosterone levels in a patient on methadone requires a thorough understanding of the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options. Advising the patient to come back after detoxification and repeating FSH and LH tests are important steps in managing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left-sided headaches that have been occurring intermittently for the past two weeks. She reports that her vision in the left eye has worsened over the last two days and appears blurrier than usual. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, which is well-managed with ramipril. During the examination, the GP notes tenderness in the left temporal region with reproducible pain when the patient chews. There are no abnormalities found during external eye examination. What is the underlying pathology responsible for this patient's visual disturbance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy
Explanation:The main ocular complication in temporal arthritis is anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, which is likely the cause of the patient’s vision loss given their symptoms of headache, temporal tenderness, and jaw claudication. Retinal artery occlusion, retinal detachment, and retinal vein occlusion are not the primary causes of visual impairment in temporal arthritis and are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 65 year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. There was an associated dry cough, but no fever. Examination revealed scattered wheezes and some expiratory high-pitched sounds. C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal. Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry revealed the following report:
FEV1 51%
FVC 88%
FEV1/FVC 58%
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO)
Explanation:Respiratory Disorders: Bronchiolitis Obliterans, ARDS, Pneumocystis Pneumonia, COPD Exacerbation, and Idiopathic Pulmonary Hypertension
Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a respiratory disorder that may occur after bone marrow, heart, or lung transplant. It presents with an obstructive pattern on spirometry, low DLCO, and hypoxia. CT scan shows air trapping, and chest X-ray may show interstitial infiltrates with hyperinflation. BO may also occur in connective tissue diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic variety called cryptogenic organising pneumonia (COP). In contrast, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) patients deteriorate quickly, and pneumocystis pneumonia usually presents with normal clinical findings. Infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is associated with a productive cough and raised CRP, while idiopathic pulmonary hypertension has a restrictive pattern and inspiratory fine crepitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents to your clinic after being diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. You inform him that this diagnosis increases his likelihood of developing diabetes mellitus. What tests should you suggest to assess his risk for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual HbA1c
Explanation:Type 3c diabetes mellitus is a rare complication of pancreatitis that is more difficult to manage than type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus due to the accompanying exocrine insufficiency, which leads to malabsorption and malnutrition. The development of diabetes mellitus may take years after the onset of pancreatitis, necessitating lifelong monitoring through annual HbA1c measurements. An ultrasound of the pancreas will not provide any indication of diabetes development. Additionally, it is crucial to counsel the patient on their alcohol misuse, as it may exacerbate their pancreatitis.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is seeking a consultation before undergoing breast reconstruction following a mastectomy due to breast cancer. She is worried about potential adverse effects. Which nerves should you caution her about potential harm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve
Explanation:The long thoracic nerve is at risk during breast surgery due to its location and susceptibility to injury. Damage to this nerve causes paralysis of the serratus anterior, resulting in the scapula appearing like a wing and limited arm abduction. The axillary and radial nerves are less likely to be damaged in breast surgery as they arise from the posterior cord and continue down the upper arm. The intercostal nerves run along the intercostal spaces and are initially protected from damage, passing between the internal intercostal membrane and muscle near the middle of the intercostal space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man presented with weakness and fatigue. On examination, he was emaciated with a body weight of 40 kg. Blood tests revealed abnormalities including low haemoglobin, low MCV, low MCH, high platelet count, low albumin, and low calcium. His peripheral blood showed Howell-Jolly bodies. To which department should this patient be referred?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroenterology Department
Explanation:Specialty Departments and Diagnosis of Coeliac Disease
The patient presents with microcytic, hypochromic anaemia, Howell-Jolly bodies, and splenic dysfunction, along with low albumin and calcium suggestive of malabsorption and emaciation. The most likely diagnosis is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by antibody tests and a duodenal biopsy in the Gastroenterology department. Haematology can investigate the abnormal blood count, but treatment is not within their scope. Chronic kidney or liver disease is less likely, and there are no neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man has a high thoracic spine injury at T2 sustained from a motorbike accident. He is now 10 days post injury and has had a spinal fixation. He is paraplegic with a sensory level at T2. He has had a normal blood pressure today requiring no haemodynamic support. You are called to see him on the trauma ward as he has a tachycardia at about 150/beat per minute and very high blood pressure, up to 230/110 mmHg. The nurses have just changed his catheter. He says he feels slightly strange, sweaty and flushed in his face.
What would explain this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autonomic dysreflexia
Explanation:Understanding Autonomic Dysreflexia: Symptoms, Causes, and Differentiation from Other Conditions
Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition characterized by hypertension, sweating, and flushing, with bradycardia being a common feature. It occurs due to excessive sympathetic activity in the absence of parasympathetic supply in a high spinal lesion, typically above the level of T6. The exact physiology of this condition is not fully understood, but it is believed to be a reaction to a stimulus below the level of the spinal lesion. Simple stimuli such as urinary tract infection, a full bladder, or bladder or rectal instrumentation can trigger autonomic dysreflexia. It usually occurs at least 10 days after the injury and after the initial spinal shock has resolved.
Differentiating autonomic dysreflexia from other conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Pulmonary embolus, for instance, is associated with sinus tachycardia but rarely causes hypertension. Neurogenic shock, on the other hand, causes hypotension and occurs at the acute onset of the injury. Stress cardiomyopathy is typically associated with head injury and causes heart failure and hypotension. Anxiety and depression are unlikely to cause such a swift and marked rise in blood pressure and heart rate and would typically be associated with hyperventilation. Understanding the symptoms, causes, and differentiation of autonomic dysreflexia is essential for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and management for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man comes to the Cancer Outpatient Department complaining of severe back pain. He reports that the NSAIDs and opioids he has been taking are not providing relief. The patient has been diagnosed with CRPC that is advancing rapidly. He has completed a full course of taxane chemotherapy and imaging has revealed metastases in his vertebrae and organs.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External beam radiation therapy (EBRT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pain Relief in Metastatic Prostate Cancer Patients
External beam radiation therapy (EBRT) is the preferred treatment for pain relief in men with castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC). It has a success rate of 60-80% in providing complete or partial pain relief in palliative care management. Bisphosphonates can also be prescribed in combination with other agents for mild to moderate pain relief in hormone-resistant prostate cancer patients. Enzalutamide, an antineoplastic, antiandrogen systemic drug, is not preferred in rapidly progressing cases of CRPC. Radium-223, an alpha-particle-emitting radiopharmaceutical agent, is contraindicated in cases with visceral metastases. Stereotactic body radiotherapy (STBRT) is the preferred modality for pain relief in metastatic prostate cancer patients with longer survival times, using targeted irradiation to minimize damage to adjacent normal tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department complaining of a foreign body sensation in his left eye. He reports experiencing pain and sensitivity to light on the left side. When asked about eye protection, he states that he wears it 99% of the time. Upon examination, you notice crusty, gold-colored lesions on his face. Using a slit lamp and fluorescein eye stain, you identify a dendritic ulcer in his left eye.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex keratitis
Explanation:A dendritic ulcer seen on fluorescein eye stain is indicative of herpes simplex keratitis, which is the likely diagnosis in this case. While mechanics may be at a higher risk for photokeratitis, it typically does not cause a foreign body sensation. While the other options are possible, the presence of a dendritic ulcer is a key diagnostic feature.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to the Emergency department after confessing to consuming 14 units of alcohol and taking 2 ecstasy tablets tonight. He is alert and oriented but is experiencing palpitations. He denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 180 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 115/80 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed and reveals an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (SVT).
What would be your first course of action in terms of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vagal manoeuvres
Explanation:SVT is a type of arrhythmia that occurs above the ventricles and is commonly seen in patients in their 20s with alcohol and drug use as precipitating factors. Early evaluation of ABC is important, and vagal manoeuvres are recommended as the first line of treatment. Adenosine is the drug of choice if vagal manoeuvres fail, and DC cardioversion is required if signs of decompensation are present. Amiodarone is not a first-line treatment for regular narrow complex SVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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You are asked to see an elderly patient who has not opened their bowels for several days. Their abdomen is distended, and they describe cramping abdominal pain that comes and goes. A supine abdominal X-ray is performed to identify features of bowel obstruction and suggest the location of the obstruction.
Which of the following is more characteristic of the large bowel, rather than the small bowel, on an abdominal X-ray?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haustral folds
Explanation:Characteristics of Small and Large Bowel Anatomy
The human digestive system is composed of various organs that work together to break down food and absorb nutrients. Two important parts of this system are the small and large bowel. Here are some characteristics that differentiate these two structures:
Haustral Folds and Valvulae Conniventes
Haustral folds are thick, widely separated folds that are characteristic of the large bowel. In contrast, valvulae conniventes are thin mucosal folds that pass across the full width of the small bowel.Location
The small bowel is located towards the center of the abdomen, while the large bowel is more peripheral and frames the small bowel.Diameter
The normal maximum diameter of the small bowel is 3 cm, while the large bowel can have a diameter of up to 6 cm. The caecum, a part of the large bowel, can have a diameter of up to 9 cm.Air-Fluid Levels in Obstruction
The appearance of air-fluid levels is characteristic of small bowel obstruction.Remembering the 3/6/9 Rule
To help remember the normal diameters of the small and large bowel, use the 3/6/9 rule: the small bowel has a diameter of 3 cm, the large bowel can have a diameter of up to 6 cm, and the caecum can have a diameter of up to 9 cm.Understanding the Differences Between Small and Large Bowel Anatomy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 85
Incorrect
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Which patient has abnormal blood results that suggest they may have myeloma?
Patient A:
Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 132 μmol/L
Albumin - 36 g/L
Total protein - 77 g/L
Patient B:
Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L
PTH - 7.2 pmol/L
Urea - 5 mmol/L
Creatinine - 140 μmol/L
Albumin - 38 g/L
Total protein - 68 g/L
Patient C:
Adjusted calcium - 2.8 mmol/L
Phosphate - 1.2 mmol/L
PTH - 0.45 pmol/L
Urea - 7.2 mmol/L
Creatinine - 150 μmol/L
Albumin - 28 g/L
Total protein - 88 g/L
Patient D:
Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 190 μmol/L
Albumin - 40 g/L
Total protein - 82 g/L
Patient E:
Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
Albumin - 18 g/L
Total protein - 55 g/LYour Answer:
Correct Answer: Patient C
Explanation:Myeloma Diagnosis in Patient C
Patient C has been diagnosed with myeloma, a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. This diagnosis is supported by several indicators, including elevated total protein levels with low albumin and abnormally high globulins. Additionally, the patient has high serum calcium levels and suppressed parathyroid hormone, which are consistent with hypercalcaemia of malignancy. High phosphate levels are also present, which is a common occurrence in haematological malignancies where there is a large amount of cell turnover.
Furthermore, the patient is experiencing renal impairment, which is typically caused by chronic kidney deterioration due to the deposition of myeloma casts in the nephrons. However, the hypercalcaemia can also cause dehydration, exacerbating the renal impairment. Overall, these indicators point towards a diagnosis of myeloma in Patient C.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with back pain. The pain has come on gradually over several weeks and is getting worse. He denies any shooting pain down his legs. He has a past medical history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He was also diagnosed with localised prostate cancer five years ago and was treated with radiotherapy as he declined surgery. The prostate showed a significant reduction in size following the radiotherapy. On examination, there is a mild reduction in power in his legs and reduced anal tone on digital rectal examination.
Which imaging modality would be most useful to perform for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) spine
Explanation:Importance of Appropriate Imaging in Spinal Cord Compression
Spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that requires urgent investigation and appropriate management. The choice of imaging modality is crucial in determining the cause and extent of the compression.
For a patient with a history of malignancy who develops gradual-onset back pain, an urgent MRI spine is required to investigate the possibility of metastatic cancer to the spine. Failure to diagnose this condition promptly could result in severe paralysis.
In cases of spinal cord compression, a non-urgent (routine) CT scan would be inadequate as it does not allow for detailed soft tissue viewing. Similarly, an X-ray of the spine would only show the vertebrae and not the extent of the compression.
Delaying investigation of spinal cord compression could result in permanent spinal cord damage. Therefore, appropriate imaging, such as an urgent MRI spine, is crucial in guiding further management and preventing irreversible damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 87
Incorrect
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What is the most probable diagnosis for a 56-year-old man who has lethargy, haematuria, haemoptysis, hypertension, and a right loin mass, and whose CT scan shows a lesion in the upper pole of the right kidney with a small cystic centre?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal adenocarcinoma
Explanation:The most frequent type of renal tumors are renal adenocarcinomas, which usually impact the renal parenchyma. Transitional cell carcinomas, on the other hand, tend to affect urothelial surfaces. Nephroblastomas are extremely uncommon in this age range. While renal adenocarcinomas can cause cannonball metastases in the lungs that result in hemoptysis, this is not a characteristic of PKD.
Renal Cell Carcinoma: Characteristics, Diagnosis, and Management
Renal cell carcinoma is a type of adenocarcinoma that develops in the renal cortex, specifically in the proximal convoluted tubule. It is a solid lesion that may be multifocal, calcified, or cystic. The tumor is usually surrounded by a pseudocapsule of compressed normal renal tissue. Spread of the tumor may occur through direct extension into the adrenal gland, renal vein, or surrounding fascia, or through the hematogenous route to the lung, bone, or brain. Renal cell carcinoma accounts for up to 85% of all renal malignancies, and it is more common in males and in patients in their sixth decade.
Patients with renal cell carcinoma may present with various symptoms, such as haematuria, loin pain, mass, or symptoms of metastasis. Diagnosis is usually made through multislice CT scanning, which can detect the presence of a renal mass and any evidence of distant disease. Biopsy is not recommended when a nephrectomy is planned, but it is mandatory before any ablative therapies are undertaken. Assessment of the functioning of the contralateral kidney is also important.
Management of renal cell carcinoma depends on the stage of the tumor. T1 lesions may be managed by partial nephrectomy, while T2 lesions and above require radical nephrectomy. Preoperative embolization and resection of uninvolved adrenal glands are not indicated. Patients with completely resected disease do not benefit from adjuvant therapy with chemotherapy or biological agents. Patients with transitional cell cancer will require a nephroureterectomy with disconnection of the ureter at the bladder.
Reference:
Lungberg B et al. EAU guidelines on renal cell carcinoma: The 2010 update. European Urology 2010 (58): 398-406. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male patient (undergoing chemotherapy treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma) complains of severe mouth pain. On examination, you see white plaques over his tongue.
Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole for 7–14 days
Explanation:Treatment Options for Oral Candida Infection During Chemotherapy
During chemotherapy, patients may experience immunosuppression, which can lead to oral candida infection. There are several treatment options available for this condition, including oral fluconazole, nystatin mouthwash, and oral mycafungin. However, the most appropriate choice for mild to moderate oral candida infection is oral fluconazole, as it is more likely to prevent or delay recurrence than nystatin. Intravenous amphotericin B and oral voriconazole are not recommended for this condition, as they are used for systemic fungal infections and other types of fungal infections, respectively. It is important for healthcare providers to consider the patient’s individual needs and medical history when selecting a treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman has come in with acute appendicitis and is currently undergoing surgery to have her appendix removed. The peritoneal cavity has been opened using the appropriate approach and the caecum is visible. What would be the most appropriate feature to follow in order to locate the appendix?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Taeniae coli
Explanation:Anatomy of the Large Bowel: Taeniae Coli, Appendices Epiploicae, Haustrations, Ileocolic Artery, and Right Colic Artery
The large bowel is composed of various structures that play important roles in digestion and absorption. Among these structures are the taeniae coli, which are three bands of longitudinal smooth muscle found on the outside of the large bowel. These bands produce haustrations or bulges in the colon when they contract. Additionally, the appendices epiploicae, or epiploic appendages, are protrusions of subserosal fat that line the surface of the bowel. The large bowel also contains the ileocolic artery, which runs over the ileocaecal junction, and the right colic artery, which supplies the ascending colon. Understanding the anatomy of the large bowel is crucial in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 6-day-old infant has been experiencing noisy breathing since birth. A perceptive resident physician identifies that the sound occurs during inhalation. What is the primary reason for stridor in a newborn?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia
Explanation:1 – Children between 6 months and 3 years old are typically affected by croup.
2 – Stridor is a common symptom of Epiglottitis in children aged 2-4 years, although the introduction of the H. influenzae vaccine has almost eliminated this condition.
4 – Bronchiolitis often affects individuals between 3 and 6 months old.
5 – No information provided.Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms
Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 91
Incorrect
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Patients who have been taking amiodarone for a prolonged period of time may experience what issues related to thyroid function?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism + thyrotoxicosis
Explanation:Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, around 1 in 6 patients taking amiodarone develop thyroid dysfunction. This can manifest as either amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) or amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT).
The pathophysiology of AIH is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. This is an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide. Despite this, amiodarone may be continued if desirable.
On the other hand, AIT may be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 is caused by amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis. In patients with AIT, amiodarone should be stopped if possible.
It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients taking amiodarone for any signs of thyroid dysfunction and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents to her doctor to discuss the results of her recent cervical smear. She is sexually active with one partner for the past 6 months and denies any history of sexually transmitted infections or post-coital bleeding. The results of her cervical smear show low-grade dyskaryosis and a positive human papillomavirus test. What is the next best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:If a patient’s cervical smear shows abnormal cytology and a positive result for a high-risk strain of human papillomavirus, the next step is to refer them for colposcopy to obtain a cervical biopsy and assess for cervical cancer. This patient cannot be discharged to normal recall as they are at significant risk of developing cervical cancer. If the cytology is inadequate, it can be retested in 3 months. However, if the cytology shows low-grade dyskaryosis, colposcopy and further assessment are necessary. Delaying the repeat cytology for 6 months would not be appropriate. If the cytology is normal but the patient is positive for high-risk human papillomavirus, retesting for human papillomavirus in 12 months is appropriate. However, if abnormal cytology is present with high-risk human papillomavirus, colposcopy and further assessment are needed.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is diagnosed with schizophrenia and medical management is initiated by the Community Psychiatry team. Two days later, he presents to the Emergency Department with a temperature and severe muscle rigidity. The patient’s mother notes that he has been confused, and at times seems to be drowsy. He has also developed a tremor and seems to be having difficulty walking. Following assessment, a diagnosis of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is made.
NMS is a serious side-effect of neuroleptic drugs.
Which of the following is true regarding NMS?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It occurs with all known neuroleptic drugs
Explanation:Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prognosis
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a rare but life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic medication. It can occur either on initiation of therapy or after a dose increase and is associated with all known neuroleptic drugs. Symptoms include muscular rigidity, hyperthermia, change in consciousness, delirium, and autonomic instability. The pathophysiology of NMS is not entirely understood, but it is thought to be secondary to dopamine D2 receptor antagonism.
Prognosis is best when the syndrome is identified and treated early. Treatment involves discontinuing all neuroleptic medications, and symptoms tend to settle within 1-2 weeks. The risk of recurrence may be reduced by switching to an atypical, rather than a high-potency, antipsychotic. Sometimes these patients will be managed in the Intensive Care Unit depending on the severity of their symptoms.
Contrary to popular belief, NMS has been associated with all known neuroleptic drugs, including clozapine. Reintroduction of the drug that caused NMS increases the risk of mortality. The use of high-potency neuroleptics like haloperidol has been associated with a mildly increased risk.
In addition to withdrawal of the afflicting medication, adjunctive medications can be given such as muscle relaxants like lorazepam and bromocriptine, however, evidence for these is limited. Most patients will be significantly dehydrated and will have rhabdomyolysis, therefore fluids should be given to prevent renal failure.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, treatment, and prognosis of NMS is crucial for healthcare professionals who prescribe neuroleptic medication. Early identification and prompt treatment can improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset epigastric pain that radiates to his back. He has vomited multiple times and admits to heavy drinking in the past two weeks. The patient is admitted and blood tests are taken. After receiving supportive treatment with intravenous fluids, he reports that the pain has subsided and he no longer feels nauseous or vomits.
What is the initial step to be taken regarding nutrition for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allow patient to eat orally as tolerated
Explanation:Patients with acute pancreatitis should be encouraged to eat orally as tolerated and should not be routinely made nil-by-mouth. Acute pancreatitis is typically caused by gallstones or alcohol abuse, but can also be caused by other factors. Symptoms include severe epigastric pain that radiates to the back and signs of shock. Treatment is supportive, and a low-fat diet should be encouraged following an episode of acute pancreatitis. Feeding via gastrostomy or nasogastric tube is not necessary unless there is a specific indication. Total parenteral nutrition may be considered if the patient is unable to tolerate enteral feeding.
Managing Acute Pancreatitis in a Hospital Setting
Acute pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires management in a hospital setting. The severity of the condition can be stratified based on the presence of organ failure and local complications. Key aspects of care include fluid resuscitation, aggressive early hydration with crystalloids, and adequate pain management with intravenous opioids. Patients should not be made ‘nil-by-mouth’ unless there is a clear reason, and enteral nutrition should be offered within 72 hours of presentation. Antibiotics should not be used prophylactically, but may be indicated in cases of infected pancreatic necrosis. Surgery may be necessary for patients with acute pancreatitis due to gallstones or obstructed biliary systems, and those with infected necrosis may require radiological drainage or surgical necrosectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody
Explanation:Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP with a shallow sore on her left leg that has not healed for 2 weeks. She is worried and seeks medical advice. Upon examination, the patient is found to be overweight with a BMI of 35.3 kg/m². An open sore measuring 5 x 3 cm is observed on the medial aspect of her left shin, superior to her medial malleolus. Additionally, an enlarged, tortuous vein is visible on her left calf, and her ABPI is 1.2 with palpable pedal pulses bilaterally. Based on this information, what is the indication for referral to vascular surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She has a venous leg ulcer
Explanation:Patients with varicose veins and a venous leg ulcer, whether active or healed, should be referred to secondary care for treatment. NICE CKS guidelines state that referral is also necessary for patients with symptoms such as ‘heavy’ or ‘aching’ legs, skin changes associated with chronic venous insufficiency, or superficial vein thrombosis. The presence of varicose veins alone is not a sufficient reason for referral unless it is symptomatic or associated with the aforementioned conditions. It is important to consider the patient’s ideas, concerns, and expectations, but unsightliness alone is not a reason for referral. Referral is necessary if the patient’s ABPI is <0.8 or >1.3, as this may suggest mixed arterial/venous disease or unsuitability for compression therapy due to vessel calcification. Age is not a factor in referral criteria, as varicose veins can affect individuals of all ages, including young pregnant women.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs due to the great saphenous vein and small saphenous vein reflux. Although they are a common condition, most patients do not require any medical intervention. However, some patients may experience symptoms such as aching, itching, and throbbing, while others may develop complications such as skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is usually performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options include conservative measures such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and graduated compression stockings. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or complications may require referral to secondary care for further management. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
Understanding varicose veins is important for patients to recognize the symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary. With proper management, patients can alleviate their symptoms and prevent complications from developing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the GP by concerned parents who have noticed swelling of the foreskin during urination and inability to retract it. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 6-months
Explanation:Forcible retraction should be avoided in younger children with phimosis, as it can lead to scar formation. It is important to note that phimosis is normal in children under the age of 2 and typically resolves on its own over time. Therefore, there is no urgent need for referral to paediatrics or paediatric surgeons. While lubricant is not helpful in managing phimosis, topical steroids have been found to be beneficial.
Phimosis in Children: When to Seek Treatment
Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted. In children under two years old, this may be a normal physiological process that will resolve on its own. The British Association of Paediatric Urologists recommends an expectant approach in such cases, as forcible retraction can lead to scarring. However, personal hygiene is important to prevent infections. If the child is over two years old and experiences recurrent balanoposthitis or urinary tract infections, treatment can be considered.
It is important to note that parents should not attempt to forcibly retract the foreskin in young children. This can cause pain and scarring, and may not even be necessary. Instead, parents should focus on teaching their child good hygiene habits to prevent infections. If the child is experiencing recurrent infections or other symptoms, it may be time to seek medical treatment. By following these guidelines, parents can help their child manage phimosis and maintain good health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A gynaecologist is performing a pelvic examination on a 30-year-old woman in the lithotomy position. To palpate the patient’s uterus, the index and middle fingers of the right hand are placed inside the vagina, while the fingers and palm of the left hand are used to palpate the abdomen suprapubically. While palpating the patient’s abdomen with her left hand, the doctor feels a bony structure in the lower midline.
Which one of the following bony structures is the doctor most likely to feel with the palm of her left hand?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pubis
Explanation:Anatomy of the Pelvis: Palpable Bones and Structures
The pelvis is a complex structure composed of several bones and joints. In this scenario, a doctor is examining a patient and can feel a specific bone. Let’s explore the different bones and structures of the pelvis and determine which one the doctor may be palpating.
Pubis:
The pubis is one of the three bones that make up the os coxa, along with the ilium and ischium. It is the most anterior of the three and extends medially and anteriorly, meeting with the opposite pubis to form the pubic symphysis. Given the position of the doctor’s hand, it is likely that they are feeling the pubic symphysis and adjacent pubic bones.Coccyx:
The coccyx is the lowest part of the vertebral column and is located inferior to the sacrum. It is composed of 3-5 fused vertebrae and is a posterior structure, making it unlikely to be palpable in this scenario.Ilium:
The ilium is the most superior of the three bones that make up the os coxa. It is a lateral bone and would not be near the position of the doctor’s palm in this scenario.Sacrum:
The sacrum is part of the vertebral column and forms the posterior aspect of the pelvis. It is formed by the fusion of five vertebrae and articulates with the iliac bones via the sacroiliac joints bilaterally. Although it is found in the midline, it is a posterior structure and would not be palpable.Ischium:
The ischium forms the posteroinferior part of the os coxa. Due to its position, it is not palpable in this scenario.In conclusion, the doctor is most likely palpating the pubic symphysis and adjacent pubic bones during the examination. Understanding the anatomy of the pelvis and its structures is important for medical professionals to accurately diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the doctor with complaints of widespread aches, bone pains, headaches, and nerve entrapment syndromes that have been bothering him for several years. His blood work reveals an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, and his urine test shows an increased urinary hydroxyproline. The X-ray of his skull displays a mix of lysis and sclerosis with thickened trabeculae. What medication would be appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonates to inhibit osteoclastic activity
Explanation:Treatment Options for Paget’s Disease: Oral Bisphosphonates and More
Paget’s disease is a condition characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, which can lead to a range of symptoms including bone pain, fractures, and osteoarthritis. Diagnosis is typically made through radiograph findings and laboratory tests. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of symptoms, with physiotherapy and NSAIDs being effective for mild cases. However, for more severe cases, oral bisphosphonates and calcitonin may be necessary to inhibit osteoclastic activity. Chelation therapy, antidepressant medication, and chemotherapy for osteosarcoma are not indicated for Paget’s disease. Operative therapy may be necessary for patients with degenerative joint disease and pathological fractures, but should be preceded by treatment with oral bisphosphonates or calcitonin to reduce bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A three-year-old male is brought into the paediatric emergency department by his mother. He has been coughing for four days, producing green sputum and has been off his food. He has been drinking water but has only wet two nappies today. On examination, he has a moderate intercostal recession, right-sided lung crackles and appears withdrawn. His mucous membranes appear dry.
Based on the NICE traffic light system, which symptom of the child is the most worrying?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Moderate intercostal recession
Explanation:In paediatric patients with a fever, moderate intercostal recession is a concerning sign. It is considered a ‘red’ flag on the NICE traffic light system, indicating a potentially serious condition. Other ‘amber’ signs to watch for include nasal flaring, lung crackles on auscultation, reduced nappy wetting, dry mucous membranes, and pallor reported by parent or carer. ‘Red’ signs that require immediate attention include not waking if roused, reduced skin turgor, mottled or blue appearance, and grunting.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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