-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman with a history of Graves’ disease presents with a 6-month history of progressive tingling and weakness of her legs. On examination of the lower limbs, there is bilateral spastic weakness, depressed deep tendon reflexes and flexor plantar responses. There is reduced joint position sense and vibration sensation in her lower limbs, but no other sensory abnormalities. General examination reveals pale conjunctivae, glossitis and oral ulceration.
What is the single most likely cause?Your Answer: Transverse myelitis
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:Possible Causes of Spinal Cord Dysfunction: Symptoms and Characteristics
Spinal cord dysfunction can have various causes, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Here are some possible causes and their corresponding features:
Vitamin B12 deficiency: This can lead to subacute combined degeneration of the cord, which affects the dorsal columns and pyramidal tracts. Symptoms include ataxic gait, upper motor neuron signs in the lower limbs, absent reflexes, glossitis, oral ulceration, and pale conjunctivae. Pernicious anemia, which is often autoimmune in nature, is a common underlying cause.
Human T-cell lymphotropic virus-1 infection: This retrovirus can cause T-cell lymphoma and a chronic demyelinating disease resembling multiple sclerosis. It is transmitted through sexual relations, breastfeeding, and blood transfusions. It is most prevalent in certain regions such as Central and West Africa, Japan, the Caribbean, and South America. Infection is rare in the UK, and the patient’s lack of risk factors and travel history makes it unlikely.
Anterior spinal artery thrombosis: This typically presents acutely with severe back pain and loss of pain and temperature sensations due to interruption of the spinothalamic tract. Proprioception and vibratory sensation remain intact due to the intact dorsal columns.
Epidural abscess: This often results from the spread of infection from a distant source through the blood. Symptoms include localised spinal pain, nerve root pain, paraesthesia, muscular weakness, sensory loss, sphincter dysfunction, and paralysis. Back or neck pain is usually present.
Transverse myelitis: This presents with a sensory level, usually in the mid-thoracic region, leg weakness with reduced tone and lower motor neuron signs, and incontinence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 60-year-old male smoker develops increasing shoulder pain. After a few weeks, he complains of loss of power and feeling in his left hand. Shortly after, he notices visual disturbances and a left-sided ptosis.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pancoast tumour
Explanation:Common Causes of Arm and Shoulder Pain: Symptoms and Characteristics
Arm and shoulder pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own unique symptoms and characteristics. Here are some common causes:
Pancoast Tumour: This tumour in the superior pulmonary sulcus can cause constant pain in the shoulder, upper anterior chest, or interscapular region. Other symptoms include weakness and atrophy of hand muscles, Horner syndrome, hoarseness, and spinal cord compression.
Stable Angina: Chest pain is precipitated by exercise and can also occur in the arms, shoulders, neck, jaw, throat, or back. Ischaemic pain in the arm is described as cramp-like, squeezing, or a band around the arm.
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Tingling, numbness, or pain in the thumb, index, and middle fingers, and medial half of the ring finger on the palmar aspect are characteristic of this condition resulting from median nerve compromise at the wrist.
Coronary Heart Disease: Chest pain, weakness, light-headedness, nausea, or a cold sweat are common symptoms. Pain or discomfort in the arms or shoulder may also occur.
Syringomyelia: A cyst (syrinx) forms within the spinal cord, causing sensory, motor, and autonomic dysfunction. Chronic severe pain is a common symptom.
Vertebral Disc Prolapse of the Cervical Spine: Myelopathy with neck and arm pain, a lower motor neuron lesion of the upper limbs, and upper motor lesion of the lower limbs can result from ventral compression of the spinal cord by a prolapsed cervical disc.
Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these conditions can help with proper diagnosis and treatment of arm and shoulder pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old male presents with bilateral paraesthesia in the radial aspects of both hands, over the thumbs and first fingers, as well as paraesthesia in the lateral aspects of both forearms and lower limb spasticity. His HBA1c level is 46 mmol/mol and nerve conduction studies and EMG show evidence of denervation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: Degenerative cervical myelopathy
Explanation:The patient’s muscle twitches are likely fibrillations, indicating dysfunction in the lower motor neurons. The neurophysiology report confirms denervation. The patient’s symptoms are mainly in the C6 dermatome distribution on both sides, which is not likely to be caused by median nerve compression at the elbow, given the patient’s age. The patient is probably suffering from degenerative cervical myelopathy, which can take more than two years to diagnose. Symptoms of this condition include pain and stiffness in the neck and limbs, loss of function, and sphincter disturbance. Neurological examination can reveal lower motor neuron signs at the level of the lesion and upper motor neuron signs below. The other answer options are unlikely for various reasons.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 26-year-old female patient visits her doctor complaining of an increase in the frequency of her migraine attacks. She is currently experiencing approximately four migraines per month. What medication would be the most suitable to prescribe in order to decrease the frequency of her migraine attacks?
Your Answer: Beta-blocker
Explanation:When it comes to treating migraines, the recommended acute treatment options are a combination of triptan with either NSAID or paracetamol. For prophylaxis, the first-line options are topiramate or propranolol. While topiramate is recommended by NICE, it’s important to consider that the patient is a woman of childbearing age, making a beta-blocker like propranolol a safer choice.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with motor neuron disease. Is there any drug that has been proven to increase survival rates in such cases?
Your Answer: Interferon-beta
Correct Answer: Riluzole
Explanation:Managing Motor Neuron Disease
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It typically presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. While the cause of the disease is unknown, there are several management strategies that can help improve the patient’s quality of life and prolong survival.
One such strategy is the use of riluzole, which prevents the stimulation of glutamate receptors and is mainly used in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Studies have shown that it can prolong life by about three months. Respiratory care is also crucial, and non-invasive ventilation, usually BIPAP, is used at night. This has been shown to provide a survival benefit of around seven months.
Nutrition is another important aspect of managing motor neuron disease, and the preferred method of support is through a percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG). This has been associated with prolonged survival. However, despite these management strategies, the prognosis for motor neuron disease remains poor, with 50% of patients dying within three years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female presents with a one-sided throbbing headache, along with photophobia and nausea. She has been experiencing these attacks several times a month for the past half-year. The patient has no comorbidities, is not taking any other medications, and has no known drug allergies.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Prescribe oral triptan and verapamil prophylaxis
Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral triptan and propranolol prophylaxis
Explanation:For the treatment of migraine, this patient should be prescribed an oral triptan along with either an NSAID or paracetamol for acute attacks. Additionally, prophylaxis should be considered as the patient experiences two or more attacks per month. Propranolol would be the most appropriate prophylaxis for this patient, as she is of childbearing age and topiramate may not be suitable. Pizotifen is no longer recommended for migraine prophylaxis due to its common side effects, while verapamil is used for prophylaxis of cluster headaches.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia presents as an emergency. She was at home when she suddenly experienced weakness in her right arm and slurred speech. Her husband noticed that her face appeared droopy on one side and she had difficulty raising her right arm. The episode lasted for over an hour before things returned to normal. Her husband brought her to the clinic for evaluation. On examination, her blood pressure is 162/94 mmHg, she is in sinus rhythm at 72 bpm and there are no focal neurological findings. She reports feeling back to normal. The diagnosis is a transient ischaemic attack. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Start aspirin 300 mg OD immediately and refer for outpatient specialist assessment and investigation as soon as possible, but definitely within one week of onset of symptoms
Correct Answer: Give aspirin 300 mg and arrange urgent assessment by a specialist stroke physician within 24 hours
Explanation:Updated Guidance for TIA Management
The old ABCD2 scoring system for TIA management has been replaced by updated guidance. If a patient has had a TIA within the last week, immediate administration of 300 mg aspirin is recommended. Urgent assessment by a specialist stroke physician should be arranged within 24 hours, unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant, in which case immediate admission for urgent assessment and imaging is necessary. If the patient is taking low-dose aspirin regularly, the current dose should be continued until reviewed by a specialist. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. These updated guidelines aim to improve the management of TIA and reduce the risk of stroke.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of headaches on the left side of his face and watery eyes for the past two weeks. He reports experiencing approximately two episodes per day, each lasting about 30 minutes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Meningioma
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Daily occurrence of eye pain, lacrimation, and nasal stuffiness in episodes – indicative of cluster headache.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Your next patient is a 50-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis who suffers from severe spasticity that has failed to respond to conventional treatment.
Of which of the following would NICE support a trial?Your Answer: Ketamine
Correct Answer: Cannabis based product
Explanation:Patients with intractable spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis may undergo a trial of THC:CBD spray, a medicinal product derived from cannabis. CKS suggests a 4 week trial for those with moderate to severe spasticity who have not found relief from other treatments, under the supervision of a specialist. Other treatments are not recommended.
Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products
Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.
Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.
Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.
It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.
Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 43-year-old former beef farmer is currently being looked after in a care home after a severe deterioration in his memory and ability to care for himself.
You examine him and note that he has nystagmus, bilateral lateral rectus palsy, ataxia, a broad based gait and peripheral neuropathy with sensory loss in his feet. You understand that his father died at an early age, apparently from Alzheimer's disease.
He is known to drink alcohol.
Which one of the following is most likely to be the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: New variant CJD
Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy and Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that occurs in patients with thiamine deficiency, often associated with chronic alcohol abuse or other malnutrition states. It is characterized by haemorrhage into the mamillary bodies of the brain. If left untreated, it can progress to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is a chronic stage of the same condition.
Early stages of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can be reversible, especially the eye signs. However, if left untreated, it can lead to memory loss and other irreversible symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This highlights the importance of early thiamine replacement in patients admitted to the hospital with symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. By recognizing and treating Wernicke’s encephalopathy early, we can prevent the progression to Korsakoff’s syndrome and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old woman complains of unpleasant sensations in the legs accompanied by an urge to move the legs. The sensations occur only at night when she is inactive and sometimes occur in bed making it difficult to get off to sleep. There are no abnormal signs on examination of the legs and she is otherwise in good health.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Correct Answer: Restless legs syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment Options
Restless legs syndrome is a condition characterized by an irresistible urge to move, typically in the legs, accompanied by abnormal sensations such as tingling, aching, or burning. The symptoms tend to worsen in the evening and are temporarily relieved by movement. While some people experience only minor discomfort, others may suffer from severe pain and disruption of sleep, leading to a significant impairment in their quality of life.
The prevalence of restless legs syndrome increases with age and can be associated with various medical conditions and drugs. Iron deficiency, pregnancy, and stage 5 chronic kidney disease are some of the medical conditions that can cause restless legs syndrome, while antidepressants, antiepileptic, and antipsychotic drugs are some of the medications that can trigger the symptoms.
Treatment is necessary only for moderate to severe cases of restless legs syndrome. For idiopathic restless leg syndrome, the first-line treatment options include non-ergot dopamine agonists such as pramipexole, ropinirole, or rotigotine, or alpha-2-delta ligands such as pregabalin or gabapentin.
In summary, restless legs syndrome is a common condition that can cause significant discomfort and disruption of sleep. Understanding the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 78-year-old man presents to the Elderly Medicine clinic with concerns about his recent memory loss and overall decline in cognitive function. His daughter reports that he has been noticeably slower and has difficulty keeping up with conversations. Additionally, he has experienced frequent urinary incontinence over the past month and one episode of fecal incontinence in the past week. Upon examination, he exhibits brisk reflexes and a shuffling gait, but no cerebellar signs are present. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Explanation:Normal pressure hydrocephalus may be the cause of urinary incontinence and gait abnormality in the presence of dementia, while the absence of cerebellar signs suggests that multiple system atrophy is unlikely.
Understanding Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of dementia that is reversible and commonly seen in elderly patients. It is believed to be caused by a reduction in the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the arachnoid villi, which may be due to head injury, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or meningitis. The condition is characterized by a classical triad of symptoms, including urinary incontinence, dementia and bradyphrenia, and gait abnormality that may resemble Parkinson’s disease. These symptoms usually develop over a few months, and around 60% of patients will have all three features at the time of diagnosis.
Imaging studies typically show hydrocephalus with ventriculomegaly, which is an enlargement of the ventricles in the brain, in the absence of or out of proportion to sulcal enlargement. The management of normal pressure hydrocephalus involves ventriculoperitoneal shunting, which can help alleviate symptoms. However, around 10% of patients who undergo shunting may experience significant complications such as seizures, infection, and intracerebral hemorrhages. Therefore, careful consideration and monitoring are necessary when deciding on treatment options for patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
You are evaluating a 28-year-old female patient who has been experiencing deteriorating migraines over the last half-year. She usually experiences aura before the onset of the headache. During the history-taking process, what is the maximum duration of aura that NICE and the British Association for the Study of Headache (BASH) consider to be normal?
Your Answer: 2 hours
Correct Answer: 1 hour
Explanation:The typical duration of an aura is from 5 to 60 minutes.
Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man has been admitted to the hospital for investigation of worsening muscle weakness in his upper and lower limbs over the last 10 years. The patient says he had never been interested in sports at school and that his father had problems with his gait for years. On examination, cognition, bulbar function and cranial nerves are all normal. Examination of the limbs shows distal symmetrical wasting and weakness in his arms and legs. There is areflexia. Tone is normal. There are no visible fasciculation. Vibration, pain and temperature are impaired in both hands and feet. There is kyphoscoliosis and bilateral pes cavus.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Motor neurone disease
Correct Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease
Explanation:Neurological Disorders: A Comparison
When presented with a patient exhibiting neuromuscular symptoms and signs, it is important to consider various possible diagnoses. In this case, the presence of musculoskeletal deformities and a family history of gait difficulties suggest a hereditary basis for the patient’s condition. The following are some potential diagnoses to consider:
Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease (CMT): This is the most common inherited polyneuropathy, affecting approximately 1 in 2500 people. It typically presents with distal limb muscle wasting and sensory loss, with proximal progression over time. However, the disease course can vary greatly.
Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Neurological features of this deficiency may include peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. However, skeletal defects will be absent.
Acquired Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP): This is a chronically progressive or relapsing symmetric sensorimotor disorder that lacks the skeletal deformities of CMT.
Motor Neurone Disease (MND): This tends to present with early signs of weakness in an ankle or leg, or a weak grip. It then progresses, leading to problems with slurred speech or swallowing. However, this patient’s relatively young age and symptoms suggest an inherited neurological problem rather than MND.
Spinal Muscular Atrophy: This is a spectrum of genetically inherited disorders that present with muscle weakness and wasting. It lacks the sensory loss of CMT.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which patient is NOT appropriate for urgent referral for suspected brain tumour from the given list?
Your Answer: A 23-year-old woman who has been previously fit and well complaining of severe headache, worse in the mornings and in certain postures
Correct Answer: A 17-year-old girl complaining of recurrent episodes of flashing lights in one eye, nausea and headache
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Neurological Symptoms
When a patient presents with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider a range of possible diagnoses. In the case of a patient with migraine, the symptoms may include headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound. However, if the symptoms are more severe or progressive, other conditions may need to be considered.
One possible diagnosis is a brain tumour, which can cause symptoms of a space-occupying lesion and raised intracranial pressure. Another potential concern is central nervous system cancer, which should be assessed with an MRI or CT scan within two weeks of onset.
Elderly patients with a first seizure may have underlying factors such as cerebrovascular disease, dementia, or tumours. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the cause of the symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 50-year-old woman presents with paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, vomiting and impaired hearing on the right side lasting for 1-4 hours. She has experienced six such episodes over the last 10 months. Neurological examination shows evidence of right sensorineural deafness. An audiogram confirms the presence of right low-frequency sensorineural deafness. She also reports worsening tinnitus.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ménière’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Vertigo: A Guide
Vertigo is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions. Here are some key features to help differentiate between different causes of vertigo.
Ménière’s disease is characterized by paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, nausea/vomiting, and deafness lasting for hours. An audiogram typically shows unilateral low-frequency sensorineural deafness. Treatment involves antiemetics, betahistine, bendroflumethiazide, and salt restriction.
Vertebrobasilar insufficiency refers to transient ischemic attacks in the vertebrobasilar vascular territory. Attacks typically last about eight minutes and may include vertigo, nausea/vomiting, syncope, facial numbness, visual field defects, sudden hearing loss, speech disturbance, and ataxia.
Acoustic neuroma usually presents with slowly progressive deafness and disequilibrium, but not paroxysmal vertigo. True vertigo is uncommon and usually only occurs with small tumors.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is the most common cause of vertigo and is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo induced by head movement. It may coexist with Ménière’s disease and has a high chance of recurrence.
Labyrinthitis is characterized by sudden onset vertigo, hearing loss, and often tinnitus. Nausea and vomiting are common. It is not triggered by movement but may be exacerbated by it. Most cases are thought to be viral in origin and resolve within days or weeks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 60-year-old man presents to the neurology outpatient clinic with a resting tremor in his left hand. Parkinson's disease is diagnosed, but he is currently not experiencing any significant disability. What is the recommended treatment approach?
Your Answer: New generation dopamine receptor agonist e.g. ropinirole
Explanation:As per the latest NICE guidelines of 2017, it is advised to administer a dopamine receptor agonist for motor symptoms that do not significantly impact the patient’s quality of life.
Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of recurrent episodes of flashing lights in one eye, nausea, and headache. She experiences these symptoms two to three times a month, and the pain is so severe that she has to lie down for hours. Paracetamol and ibuprofen do not provide relief. Upon examination, her neurological features and blood pressure are normal. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Commence treatment with sodium valproate
Correct Answer: Commence treatment with sumatriptan
Explanation:Differentiating Treatment Options for Headaches: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
When it comes to treating headaches, it’s important to accurately diagnose the underlying cause in order to provide the most effective treatment. Here are some common scenarios and the appropriate course of action:
1. Commence treatment with sumatriptan: This is the recommended course of action for patients experiencing migraines, particularly if first-line treatments like paracetamol or NSAIDs have been ineffective. Prophylactic agents like propranolol may also be necessary for frequent migraines.
2. Commence treatment with high-dose steroids: This is the appropriate treatment for patients with giant-cell arteritis, which typically presents with a temporal headache, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. GCA is rare in patients under 60.
3. Commence treatment with sodium valproate: This medication is not recommended for migraine prophylaxis, and should be avoided in women of childbearing age due to its teratogenicity. First-line agents for migraine prophylaxis include propranolol, topiramate, and amitriptyline.
4. Refer for a computed tomography (CT) head and lumbar puncture scan: This is indicated for patients suspected of having a subarachnoid hemorrhage, which typically presents with a sudden-onset, occipital, thunderclap headache.
5. Refer for an urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan: This is necessary when there is progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function, which could indicate an underlying tumor. This is not indicated in patients with typical migraine symptoms.
By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients with headaches.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman has had a fall. She has been well all her life and has rarely had to see the doctor. She smokes 10 cigarettes a week. Examination is unremarkable other than a left-sided ptosis and some slight thinning of the muscles of her left hand, which she thinks might be long-standing.
What is the most probable reason for her left-sided ptosis?Your Answer: Third nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Horner syndrome
Explanation:Causes and Characteristics of Unilateral Ptosis and Lid Lag in Thyrotoxicosis
Unilateral ptosis, or drooping of one eyelid, can be caused by disinsertion of the aponeurosis of the levator palpabrae superioris, Horner syndrome, or a third nerve palsy. Local inflammation of the conjunctiva can also lead to ptosis. Myasthenia gravis typically results in bilateral ptosis, but it may be asymmetrical.
Disinsertion of the aponeurosis of the levator palpabrae superioris is characterized by the loss of the crease normally seen on the upper eyelid and is often due to dysfunction of the superior rectus and levator muscles. It may be iatrogenic or degenerative due to senility.
Lid lag, where the upper eyelid lags behind the upper edge of the iris as the eye moves downward, is a common characteristic of thyrotoxicosis. A similar phenomenon can occur with the lower edge when the eye moves upwards.
In cases where weakness of hand muscles is present, a T1 root lesion is likely, indicating Horner syndrome. Miosis, or constriction of the pupil, can be subtle and easily missed. In smokers, a high suspicion of a Pancoast’s tumor (apical pulmonary tumor) should be considered in patients with such a presentation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 26-year-old woman presents with weight loss and is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. She is prescribed carbimazole but after 2 weeks reports gradual visual blurring. Her corrected visual acuities are 6/12 in both eyes and she experiences color vision impairment in both eyes. Mild proptosis is observed but her pupillary reactions are normal.
What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Optic nerve compression
Explanation:Understanding Thyroid Eye Disease: Symptoms, Risks, and Treatment Options
Thyroid eye disease (TED) is an autoimmune disease that affects the eyes and can be both sight-threatening and disfiguring. The disease has an active inflammatory phase followed by an inactive fibrotic phase. Symptoms include eye irritation, ache behind the eye, red eyes, and diplopia. Exophthalmos may develop, but it doesn’t always correlate with disease severity. In some cases, patients with minimal exophthalmos are at high risk of optic nerve compression. If the optic nerve is compressed, visual loss can occur, and urgent referral is necessary. Medical management is only available in the active, early phase, and surgery is the only option when the disease becomes inactive. For severe sight-threatening disease, orbital-decompression surgery and intravenous corticosteroids are necessary. Embolic phenomena, optic nerve infiltration, and ophthalmic side-effects of carbimazole are not associated with TED. Optic atrophy is irreversible and takes several weeks to develop. Early referral is appropriate when TED is suspected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old female visited her doctor with a persistent headache that has been ongoing for the past 4 weeks. The headache is mainly felt in the frontal area and she has not experienced any other symptoms such as visual disturbances, nausea, or vomiting. The patient reports waking up with the headache and it persists throughout the day.
The patient is currently taking lansoprazole for a gastric ulcer, inhalers for asthma, regular painkillers for fibromyalgia, and has a Mirena coil for contraception.
Which medication is most likely contributing to the patient's headaches?Your Answer: Lansoprazole
Correct Answer: Co-dydramol
Explanation:Medication overuse headaches are often caused by regular use of opioids like co-dydramol, which is likely the case for this patient. The other medications mentioned are unlikely to be a factor in her symptoms.
Understanding Medication Overuse Headache
Medication overuse headache is a common cause of chronic daily headache that affects up to 1 in 50 people. It is characterized by headaches that occur for 15 days or more per month and are worsened by regular use of symptomatic medication. Patients who use opioids and triptans are at the highest risk of developing this condition. Additionally, there may be psychiatric comorbidity associated with medication overuse headache.
According to the 2008 SIGN guidelines, the management of medication overuse headache involves abruptly withdrawing simple analgesics and triptans, which may initially worsen headaches. On the other hand, opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn. However, withdrawal symptoms such as vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, sleep disturbances, and anxiety may occur when medication is stopped. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before discontinuing any medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
What is the correct statement regarding migraine from the list provided?
Your Answer: A headache lasting more than 6 hours is not due to migraine
Correct Answer: Onset of migraine over the age of 50 years is unusual and should be investigated
Explanation:Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Risks
Migraine is a neurological condition that is often characterized by a prodromal aura preceding a severe headache that can last for several hours or even days. While the first attack usually occurs in childhood, over 80% of individuals experience their first migraine by the age of 30. However, if the onset of migraine occurs after the age of 50, other underlying conditions should be investigated.
While certain foods and additives such as caffeine, chocolate, and aged cheese have been suggested as potential triggers for migraine, large epidemiological studies have failed to confirm these claims. As such, no specific diets have been shown to alleviate migraine symptoms.
It is important to note that both migraine and the use of combined oral contraceptives are independent risk factors for ischemic stroke. However, the risk is low in the absence of other risk factors, and migraine without aura is not a contraindication for the use of combined oral contraceptives. Women with other risk factors for arterial disease should use caution when taking the pill, and those with prothrombotic coagulation disorders should avoid it altogether.
Hemiplegic migraine is a rare form of migraine that is characterized by unilateral weakness that accompanies a migraine headache attack. This form of migraine with aura may occur either in families or only in one individual. It is important to distinguish between migraine aura and other conditions such as epileptic aura or transient ischemic attack, which have different characteristics.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, triggers, and risks associated with migraine is crucial for effective management and treatment of this debilitating condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe, intermittent, daily, left-sided frontotemporal/orbital headache that has been bothering him for the past 6 weeks. The headache seems to occur at the same time every day and lasts for about an hour. The pain makes him feel nauseous, although he has not vomited. Interestingly, he also reports that his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation.
What is the best immediate treatment to administer?Your Answer: Diclofenac with metoclopramide
Correct Answer: Oxygen (100%) + subcutaneous sumatriptan
Explanation:Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
An 81-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her daughter. She lives independently, but her daughter has noticed that she has become increasingly forgetful over the last six months. There are no neurological abnormalities on examination.
Which of the following additional features would be most suggestive of a diagnosis of mild cognitive impairment (MCI)?Your Answer: Insomnia
Correct Answer: Difficulty in finding words
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Mild Cognitive Impairment
Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a condition characterized by a decline in cognitive function that is greater than expected for an individual’s age and education level, but doesn’t significantly interfere with daily activities or affect multiple cognitive domains. Here are some common symptoms associated with MCI and how they differ from those of dementia:
Difficulty in Finding Words: MCI may cause word-finding difficulty without other cognitive deficits, which can be frustrating but doesn’t significantly impact daily life.
Incontinence: While incontinence can be a sign of autonomic dysfunction in dementia, it is not typically associated with MCI.
Apathy: Withdrawal or apathy is a common symptom of dementia, but is not typically present in patients with MCI.
Delusions: Delusions are a sign of psychosis, which can be present in some forms of dementia but are not typically associated with MCI.
Insomnia: Insomnia can be a symptom of dementia-related sleep disturbances, but is not typically associated with MCI.
Understanding these symptoms can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage MCI, as well as differentiate it from more severe forms of cognitive decline.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
As a GP registrar, you arrive at the surgery and notice a 32-year-old patient with epilepsy parking in the patient's car park. He has an appointment with you later in the day. You recall from previous consultations that his last seizure was 6 months ago. During the consultation, the patient denies driving. What should be your next course of action?
Your Answer: Inform the DVLA anonymously to maintain the doctor-patient relationship
Correct Answer: Inform him of the DVLA rules and your duty to inform the DVLA if he refuses to stop
Explanation:It is not appropriate to ignore the situation when you have witnessed the patient driving. Instead, you should inform the patient about the DVLA regulations and your obligation to report them if they refuse to stop driving. Reporting the patient to the DVLA immediately may harm your relationship with them, and it is better to give them a chance to rectify the situation themselves. It is always best to be transparent with patients about your actions.
Confiscating the patient’s keys is not a practical solution and may lead to conflict.
It is important to note that the new ‘6 month rule’ only applies to patients who have experienced their first seizure and have undergone an investigation, rather than those with pre-existing epilepsy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
John has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease three years ago. He has come to see you for a regular check-up. He reports that he has been experiencing slower movements, a more pronounced tremor, and difficulty falling asleep at night. He is currently taking co-careldopa 100/25 mg three times a day. What recommendations would you make?
Your Answer: Prescribe zopiclone for sleeping
Correct Answer: Liaise with Parkinson's specialist nurse
Explanation:Charles’ condition appears to be worsening and requires a higher level of care for the titration or adjustment of his Parkinson’s medications. Therefore, it is recommended that he consult with the specialist nurse. Monitoring for 3 months is not suitable in this case, and changing the Parkinson’s medications without proper expertise is not advisable. Additionally, Zopiclone is not an appropriate treatment for the exacerbation of Parkinson’s symptoms.
Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 67-year-old woman complains of a sensation of a shadow obstructing a portion of her left eye. She has been experiencing occasional headaches on the same side and reports discomfort in her jaw while eating.
During the assessment, the fundoscopy and eye examination reveal no abnormalities. However, there is slight tenderness on the left side of her head.
What condition is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Giant cell arteritis
Explanation:If an elderly patient complains of a headache on one side accompanied by jaw claudication, it is important to consider the possibility of giant cell arteritis and conduct appropriate investigations. Symptoms of acute glaucoma include eye pain, halos in vision, nausea, and general discomfort. Amaurosis fugax is characterized by temporary vision loss without any pain. Episcleritis typically causes mild eye pain, redness, and watering.
Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.
To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Samantha, a 10-year-old girl, visits your clinic with her mother. She reports having a constant headache for several weeks. Her mother is extremely worried. However, Samantha is always anxious during medical appointments and refuses to cooperate with a thorough examination.
As a healthcare provider, you are concerned about Samantha's condition and decide to request an immediate referral. What is the maximum time frame within which she should receive an appointment with a specialist?Your Answer: 10 days
Correct Answer: 3 days
Explanation:Referral Guidelines for Children with Suspected Cancer
When a child presents with symptoms and signs of cancer, it is important to refer them to a paediatrician or a specialist children’s cancer service, if appropriate. If the child experiences headaches and vomiting that cause early morning waking or occur on waking, this could be a sign of raised intracranial pressure, and an immediate referral should be made.
It is important to note that patients have a legal right to be seen by a specialist within two weeks of being urgently referred for suspected cancer by their GP. If this is not possible, the NHS must do everything it reasonably can to offer them clinically appropriate alternatives. By following these referral guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that children with suspected cancer receive timely and appropriate care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old woman presents with two episodes of right-sided, painless, transient monocular visual loss lasting up to a minute. Each episode was like a curtain descending from the upper visual field to affect the whole vision of her right eye. Neurological examination is normal. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate, glucose and lipids are all within the normal range. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm. Computed tomography brain is normal. Doppler of the carotid arteries shows 40% stenosis of the right internal carotid artery.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Right carotid artery endarterectomy
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:Treatment Options for Amaurosis Fugax
Amaurosis fugax is a condition characterized by temporary loss of vision in one eye, often caused by emboli or stenosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery. The long-term treatment of choice for this condition is antiplatelet therapy with clopidogrel or aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole if clopidogrel is not tolerated or contraindicated. Other vascular risk factors should also be addressed.
Carotid endarterectomy is only recommended for patients with stenosis of 70-99%, and therefore, it is not indicated for this patient. Anticoagulation with apixaban is only indicated for patients with paroxysmal or permanent atrial fibrillation.
Prednisolone is used to treat giant cell arteritis, which can also cause visual loss, but it is unlikely in this case due to normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate and absence of pain. Angioplasty is still an experimental tool and is not recommended for this situation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
What is a negative prognostic factor for individuals with multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Young age of onset
Correct Answer: Male sex
Explanation:Prognostic Features of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system. The prognosis of MS varies depending on several factors. Some features are associated with a good prognosis, such as being female, having a young age of onset (20s or 30s), having relapsing-remitting disease, experiencing sensory symptoms only, having a long interval between the first two relapses, and experiencing complete recovery between relapses.
To remember these prognostic features, it can be helpful to think of the typical patient carrying a better prognosis than an atypical presentation. It is important to note that while these features may indicate a better prognosis, they do not guarantee a positive outcome. MS is a complex disease, and each person’s experience with it is unique. Therefore, it is essential to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage symptoms and develop an individualized treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents to the clinic with a complaint of lethargy lasting for 3 months. The following blood test results are obtained:
- Hb: 9.6 g/dl
- MCV: 123 fl
- Plt: 164 * 109/l
- WCC: 4.6 *109/l
Which medication is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Understanding the Adverse Effects of Phenytoin
Phenytoin is a medication commonly used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects that can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic.
Acute adverse effects of phenytoin include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic adverse effects may include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia.
Idiosyncratic adverse effects of phenytoin may include fever, rashes, including severe reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Finally, teratogenic adverse effects of phenytoin are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease.
It is important to note that phenytoin is also an inducer of the P450 system. While routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked immediately before a dose if there is a need for adjustment of the phenytoin dose, suspected toxicity, or detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old man comes in with atrophy of both the thenar and hypothenar eminences of his right hand, along with weakness of thumb abduction, thumb flexion, and finger abduction and adduction. He also reports sensory loss to pinprick over the ulnar border of the hand and forearm. The rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable.
What is the most probable location of the lesion?Your Answer: Anterior interosseous nerve
Correct Answer: Lower trunk of the brachial plexus
Explanation:Nerve Supply to the Hand Muscles: An Overview
The muscles of the hand are supplied by different nerves, and lesions to specific nerves can cause distinct symptoms. The thenar eminence, which includes the abductor pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis muscles, is supplied by the median nerve, except for the adductor pollicis, which is supplied by the ulnar nerve. On the other hand, the hypothenar eminence, which includes the abductor, flexor, and opponens digiti minimi muscles, as well as the palmaris brevis, is supplied by the ulnar nerve. The first two lumbrical muscles are supplied by the median nerve.
It is important to note that lesions to the ulnar, median, or anterior interosseous nerve alone cannot cause all the symptoms associated with hand muscle weakness or paralysis. A T1 root lesion, for instance, would primarily affect the intrinsic muscles of the hand, especially the abductor pollicis brevis, and other signs would usually be present, such as Horner syndrome.
In some cases, damage to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus, which can occur due to traction on the arm in an abducted position, can produce combined C8/T1 lesions that mimic a combined median and ulnar nerve lesion in the hand. Understanding the nerve supply to the hand muscles is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of hand muscle disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old man visits his General Practitioner after experiencing a single episode of collapse with jerking of all his limbs. Upon recovery, he was disorientated for a short period and has no memory of the event. On further questioning, he reports quick jerks of the upper limbs going back about three years which have not concerned him. There are also reports of him 'switching off' briefly from time to time during this period. What type of seizure is this man most likely to have experienced? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer: Generalised non-motor
Correct Answer: Generalised motor
Explanation:Different Types of Seizures and Their Characteristics
Seizures can be classified into various types based on their characteristics. Here are some of the common types of seizures and their defining features:
1. Generalised motor seizures: These seizures involve both sides of the brain with a motor response. They can be characterised by absence seizures, myoclonic seizures, and generalised tonic-clonic seizures.
2. Unknown onset motor seizures: These seizures are characterised by a lack of knowledge about their onset, whether focal or generalised. They involve all four limbs and have a motor response.
3. Focal aware seizures: These seizures start in one area of the brain and awareness remains throughout. However, they are less likely to result in collapse and loss of awareness.
4. Focal impaired awareness seizures: These seizures result in loss of awareness and are characterised by generalised jerking. They start in one area of the brain but can spread to other parts.
5. Generalised non-motor seizures: These seizures start from both sides of the brain but do not have a motor response. They can be characterised by absence seizures.
Understanding the different types of seizures and their characteristics can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of numbness and pain in his left thigh. He reports feeling unsteady on his feet and has gained more than 6 kg in weight over the past six months. He also has chronic lower back pain. His family has a history of a neurological condition, with his uncle having multiple sclerosis (MS). He has no other medical conditions.
During the examination, the patient is found to be overweight. He has reduced pinprick sensation over the anterior part of his left thigh, but no motor signs. His tendor reflexes are normal and there are no cerebellar signs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Diabetic lumbosacral plexopathy
Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica
Explanation:Differentiating between causes of lower limb pain: A brief overview
Lower limb pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own unique symptoms and diagnostic criteria. Here, we will briefly discuss four potential causes of lower limb pain and how they can be differentiated.
Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by numbness, paraesthesia, and pain in the anterolateral thigh. It is caused by either an entrapment neuropathy or a neuroma of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The pain can be reproduced by deep palpation just below the anterior superior iliac spine and by extension of the hip. Obesity and weight gain are risk factors.
Diabetic lumbosacral plexopathy is a condition in which patients develop severe pain in the hip and thigh, followed by weakness and wasting of the thigh muscles. This often occurs asymmetrically and is accompanied by distal sensory neuropathy. However, this patient has no diagnosis of diabetes.
Familial MS is a form of multiple sclerosis that usually presents as intermittent episodic sensory, motor, or autonomic disturbances. While a family history of MS may be present, it is not a definitive diagnostic criterion.
Lumbar canal stenosis with nerve root entrapment typically causes pain in the buttocks or lower extremities, with or without back pain. Standing, walking, or lumbar extension often exacerbate the condition, while forward flexion, sitting, or lying flat often relieves the pain.
Finally, lumbar facet arthropathy is characterized by facet joints causing back pain that can radiate to the buttocks and legs. The pain is worsened by retroflexion and lateral flexion of the spine and prolonged standing or walking. However, facet syndrome would not usually cause reduced sensation.
In conclusion, a thorough clinical evaluation and diagnostic testing can help differentiate between these potential causes of lower limb pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with a weak grip and tingling of her left hand. She complains of a dull aching pain in her forearm, which is made worse by carrying a shopping bag. On examination you find weakness of the left abductor pollicis brevis and mild weakness of thumb flexion. Finger abduction and adduction appear to be within normal limits. There is sensory loss to pinprick mainly affecting the left thumb and index finger. Phalen's sign is positive. Sensorimotor examination of the right hand is normal. The deep tendon reflexes are symmetrical.
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Compression of the right median nerve in the forearm
Correct Answer: Compression of the right median nerve in the carpal tunnel
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Differential Diagnosis
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that can be caused by pregnancy, fluid retention, hypothyroidism, osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, diabetes, and hereditary tendency to pressure palsy. The symptoms include weakness and sensory loss in the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis. Phalen’s sign, which involves flexing the wrist for 60 seconds, can help diagnose the condition. Nerve conduction studies can confirm the diagnosis. Pronator teres syndrome, which is rare, can also cause forearm pain, but carpal tunnel syndrome is more likely in pregnant patients with a positive Phalen’s sign. Compression of the ulnar nerve produces symptoms at the medial side of the forearm and hand, while brachial plexopathy and C8 nerve root irritation usually involve the length of the arm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old retired teacher comes to the clinic with her daughter because she has been exhibiting unusual behavior for the past few months. She has been found wandering around the neighborhood at night and has started hoarding items from the grocery store. Her daughter also reports that she has become more aggressive and has made inappropriate comments to strangers. On physical examination, there are no significant findings and she has no known medical history.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer: Multi-infarct dementia
Correct Answer: Fronto-temporal dementia
Explanation:Dementia Diagnosis: Fronto-Temporal Dementia
A former professional footballer is exhibiting behavioural changes such as disinhibition, repetitive checking, and binge eating. These symptoms, along with his previous occupation, suggest a diagnosis of fronto-temporal dementia. The repetitive heading of heavy leather footballs is now recognized as a risk factor for this type of dementia. Lewy body dementia, Alzheimer’s dementia, multi-infarct dementia, and obsessive-compulsive disorder are all ruled out as potential diagnoses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty with balance and stiffness in his lower limbs. He has a history of carpal tunnel syndrome that was diagnosed a year ago, but has not responded to treatment with splints and steroid injections. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer: Degenerative cervical myelopathy
Explanation:DCM can have subtle early symptoms that vary day to day, but worsening or new symptoms should be a warning sign. Other conditions with different symptoms include cauda equina syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, idiopathic Parkinson’s disease, and multiple sclerosis.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
What is a common characteristic of pseudoseizures?
Your Answer: Resisting eye opening
Correct Answer: Incontinence
Explanation:Pseudoseizures: Understanding the Disorder
Pseudoseizure or dissociated non-epileptic attack disorder is a condition that primarily affects disturbed females, with a ratio of 8:1. This disorder is characterized by erratic movements, closed eyes, and resisted eye opening, which are not typical features of epilepsy. However, lateral tongue bite and incontinence may occur, which are common in epilepsy. Patients with pseudoseizures often resist and fight any intervention.
Individuals with pseudoseizures often have a history of abuse or previous illness behavior. These attacks frequently occur in doctors’ surgeries and out-patient departments, and they usually happen in the presence of others. Previous illness behavior is also common in individuals with pseudoseizures.
In summary, pseudoseizures are a disorder that can be challenging to diagnose and treat. Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of this disorder is crucial in providing appropriate care and support to individuals affected by it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old male is referred with episodes of severe vertigo which may last up to four hours and are associated with vomiting and uncomfortable pressure in the right ear.
On examination during an attack he is noted to have right horizontal nystagmus together with mild right-sided sensorineural deafness.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Correct Answer: Ménière's disease
Explanation:Ménière’s Disease: A History of Paroxysmal Attacks
Ménière’s disease is characterized by paroxysmal attacks that can last for hours and consist of vertigo, vomiting, pressure within the ear, and deafness. These attacks can lead to irreversible sensorineural deafness of low frequency. Tinnitus is often present but may not occur in the early stages, making the classic triad of tinnitus, vertigo, and deafness unreliable for diagnosis.
Prochlorperazine or cinnarizine can help with vomiting, and restricting salt and fluid intake may hasten resolution. Diuretics may also be used, but there is little evidence for their efficacy. Unilateral hearing loss caused by acoustic neuroma is uncommonly associated with vertigo.
Benign positional vertigo is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo that are triggered by movement. Labyrinthitis is characterized by acute disabling vertigo, usually preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection, and is rarely episodic. Vertebrobasilar ischaemic attacks last only a few minutes and typically cause a mild swaying or swimming sensation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
For the long-term secondary prevention of stroke, which antiplatelet drug regime is the most appropriate first choice according to current NICE guidelines?
Your Answer: Aspirin and clopidogrel
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:Secondary Prevention after Stroke or Transient Ischaemic Attack
According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (2013), the first choice for antiplatelet therapy in secondary prevention after a stroke or transient ischaemic attack is clopidogrel at a daily dose of 75 mg. In cases where clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated, modified-release dipyridamole at a dose of 200 mg twice a day can be used in combination with low dose aspirin. If both clopidogrel and modified-release dipyridamole are not suitable, aspirin alone can be used. And if both clopidogrel and aspirin are contraindicated or not tolerated, modified-release dipyridamole alone can be used. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure effective secondary prevention after a stroke or transient ischaemic attack.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 41
Correct
-
A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and the right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus.
Joint position sense is impaired at her left big toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal. Upper limb neurological examination is normal.
What is the most likely site of the lesion?
Your Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord
Explanation:Understanding Brown-Séquard Syndrome: Identifying the Location of the Spinal Cord Lesion
Brown-Séquard Syndrome is a rare condition that results from a lesion in one-half of the spinal cord. This can be caused by various factors such as trauma, neoplasia, cysts, multiple sclerosis, haemorrhage, and infections. The syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral hemiplegia and dorsal column sensory loss, with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits due to the crossing of the fibres of the spinothalamic tract.
To identify the location of the spinal cord lesion, a thorough neurological examination is necessary. If the sensory level is around T10, the lesion is likely to be above this, ruling out the left lumbosacral plexus. A cervical spine lesion is unlikely if the upper limb neurological examination is normal. A midline mid-thoracic cord lesion is less likely as a hemicord lesion is more consistent with the combination of one-sided hemiplegia and loss of proprioception, with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits.
Therefore, a right mid-thoracic cord lesion is the most probable cause of Brown-Séquard Syndrome in this scenario. The left-sided hemiplegia and loss of proprioception, with right-sided loss of pinprick sensation, indicate a left-sided hemicord lesion. Understanding the location of the spinal cord lesion is crucial in diagnosing and managing Brown-Séquard Syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 42
Correct
-
You are conducting an audit of anti-epileptic drug prescribing at the clinic, to evaluate the frequency of prescribing branded versus generic medications.
Which of the following drugs is crucial to prescribe by brand name?Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Prescribing by brand is crucial when it comes to phenytoin and carbamazepine, which are the top anti-epileptic medications.
Antiepileptics: Prescribing by Brand
For several years, healthcare professionals have been advised to prescribe certain antiepileptic medications by brand rather than generically. In November 2013, the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued more specific guidance on how to treat individual antiepileptics. The guidance categorizes the more common antiepileptics into three categories: Category 1, Category 2, and Category 3.
Category 1 includes phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, and primodine. Patients taking these medications should be maintained on a specific manufacturer’s product.
Category 2 includes sodium valproate, lamotrigine, clonazepam, and topiramate. For these medications, healthcare professionals should use clinical judgement and consult with the patient, taking into account seizure frequency and treatment history, to determine whether to maintain the patient on a specific manufacturer’s product.
Category 3 includes levetiracetam, gabapentin, pregabalin, ethosuximide, and vigabatrin. For these medications, it is usually unnecessary to maintain the patient on a specific manufacturer’s product unless there are specific reasons such as patient anxiety or risk of confusion/dosing errors.
Overall, the guidance aims to ensure that patients with epilepsy receive consistent and effective treatment by reducing the risk of switching between different manufacturers’ products.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for an urgent appointment. She has a diffuse headache, which she describes as severe. The headache is acute, having developed within the last three hours. She lost consciousness for a brief period. There is no significant past medical history.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Migraine
Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:When a patient presents with a sudden, severe headache, subarachnoid haemorrhage should be considered as a possible cause, with or without loss of consciousness. Menigeal irritation may take some time to appear. In cases of epilepsy, postictal headaches are common, lasting between six and 24 hours. Cluster headaches are characterized by rapid onset and unilateral pain around the eye, temple or forehead, often accompanied by lacrimation or rhinorrhoea. Migraines are also unilateral and may be preceded by an aura, with associated nausea and vomiting. TIAs usually present with focal neurological symptoms, rather than headaches, and loss of consciousness is not typical.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman has had three witnessed episodes when she looked blank, fiddled with her hands and opened and closed her mouth repetitively. She has no recollection of these events but did feel tired for a while afterwards. On direct questioning, she reports what sounds like déjà vu feelings associated with abdominal discomfort occurring over three years, which she had ignored. There is a history of two febrile convulsions in infancy.
Which class of seizure has this patient most likely experienced?
Your Answer: Generalised motor
Correct Answer: Focal impaired awareness
Explanation:Types of Seizures and Their Characteristics
Seizures can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. Here are some common types of seizures and their descriptions:
1. Focal Impaired Awareness Seizures: These seizures originate from one part of the brain and can affect a larger area than focal aware seizures. The patient’s consciousness is impaired, and they may look blank, have no recollection of the event, and feel tired afterwards.
2. Unknown-Onset Motor Seizures: These seizures involve physical movements but occur during sleep or are unwitnessed, making it difficult to determine whether they have a focal or generalized onset.
3. Focal Aware Seizures: These seizures begin and affect one part of the brain, but the patient remains conscious and alert throughout the seizure and has full recollection of the event afterwards. Déjà vu feelings are an example of focal aware seizures.
4. Generalized Motor Seizures: These seizures affect both sides of the brain simultaneously and involve physical movements, such as tonic-clonic or myoclonic seizures.
5. Generalized Non-Motor Seizures: These seizures also affect both sides of the brain but do not involve physical movements. The patient appears blank and unresponsive during the seizure, but repetitive movements may be present.
Understanding the different types of seizures and their characteristics can help in their diagnosis and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has been experiencing headaches for the past year. These headaches occur around 5-6 times per month and last all day. There is no associated aura. He describes the headache as a severe throbbing on both sides of his head with nausea and lethargy. He typically goes to bed when he gets a headache as activity makes it worse. He takes one of his father's diclofenac tablets before bed, which seems to help. Neurological examination is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cluster headache
Correct Answer: Migraine
Explanation:It is highly probable that this headache is indicative of a migraine. The symptoms described align with the typical presentation, although it is worth noting that most patients experience symptoms on only one side of the head. Additionally, there is no indication of medication overuse, which can lead to frequent headaches.
Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female with a past medical history of depression visits her primary care physician complaining of numbness in her right arm affecting the C6 distribution for the past two days. She denies any neck pain or injury. Upon neurological examination, there is a confirmed decrease in sensation in that dermatome, but otherwise, the exam is unremarkable. The patient reports no previous similar episodes, but she does recall an incident three months ago where she experienced reduced vision and painful movements in her right eye, which resolved on its own, and she did not seek medical attention. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Conversion disorder
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:It is probable that the symptoms experienced three months ago were caused by optic neuritis, which is a typical initial symptom of multiple sclerosis.
Although the patient is currently experiencing depression, it cannot be assumed that her symptoms are a result of either conversion or somatization disorder. Depression is a prevalent condition and could potentially be a subtle indication of multiple sclerosis.
Features of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that can present with nonspecific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis is based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.
MS can affect various parts of the body, leading to different symptoms. Visual symptoms include optic neuritis, optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome. Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms may include ataxia and tremor. Other symptoms may include urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration.
It is important to note that MS symptoms can vary greatly between individuals and may change over time. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their symptoms and receive appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman presents with dizziness when she moves, particularly when she turns her head to the side. She has a past history of numbness affecting both hands and around her peri-oral paraesthesia, which caused her to attend the Emergency Department one year ago, but nil else of note. On examination, her BP is 110/80 mmHg, pulse is 65/min and regular. Cardiovascular and respiratory systems are normal, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and her BMI is 22. There are no cranial nerve palsies. Dix Hallpike test is positive to the left.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Correct Answer: Benign positional vertigo
Explanation:Diagnosing Benign Positional Vertigo: Differential Diagnosis
Benign positional vertigo (BPV) is a common cause of vertigo, which occurs when otoliths become detached from the macula and continue to move within the semi-circular canals even when the head has stopped moving. The Dix Hallpike test is used to diagnose posterior canal BPV, which accounts for approximately 90% of cases. Epley’s manoeuvre is an effective treatment for BPV, with a low recurrence rate over a 5-year period.
When considering a differential diagnosis for vertigo, it is important to rule out other conditions. Multiple sclerosis is unlikely in this case, as the Dix Hallpike test is consistent with BPV and the previous history of numbness may represent a panic attack. Acoustic neuroma is also unlikely, as there are no cranial nerve palsies or tinnitus. Labyrinthitis is not a likely diagnosis, as it is associated with vertigo with any movement rather than a movement to one side. Ménière’s disease is also unlikely, as it is characterized by episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and a sensation of aural pressure, which occur in clusters.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 74-year-old woman who had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis two months ago for which she takes apixaban. She presents to her GP following a 20-minute episode of unilateral arm weakness that occurred 2 hours ago and has now completely resolved. Her neurological examination is normal.
What should her initial management be?Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg stat
Correct Answer: Immediate referral to the emergency department for imaging
Explanation:If a patient is suspected of having a TIA and is taking warfarin, a DOAC, or has a bleeding disorder, they must be admitted immediately for imaging to rule out a haemorrhage.
For patients without these conditions, administering 300 mg of aspirin immediately and then evaluating them by a specialist within 24 hours is recommended. The primary secondary prevention method is taking clopidogrel 75 mg once daily.
Referring patients to neurology as a routine measure would cause an unnecessary delay in treatment.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.
Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.
Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old woman presents with severe vertigo provoked by moving her head, including rolling over in bed, lying down, sitting up, leaning forward or even just turning the head in a horizontal plane. The attacks of vertigo last 20–30 seconds and resolve quickly if the head is kept still. Nausea is associated with the episodes. The Dix–Hallpike manoeuvre reproduces symptoms of vertigo and nystagmus.
Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer: Brandt–Daroff exercises
Correct Answer: Epley’s manoeuvre
Explanation:Treatment Options for Benign Positional Vertigo
Benign positional vertigo is a common condition characterized by short episodes of vertigo triggered by head movement. Epley’s manoeuvre is the most effective intervention for this condition, with a number needed to treat of 2. However, it cannot be used for patients with significant underlying neck arthritis. Ondansetron, a 5HT3 receptor antagonist, is not effective in managing symptoms of vertigo and nausea associated with benign positional vertigo. Vestibular suppressant agents like betahistine are not recommended as they can be sedating and not effective over the long term. Brandt-Daroff exercises are less effective than Epley’s manoeuvre. Prokinetic antiemetic agents like domperidone are not effective in treating benign positional vertigo. Therefore, Epley’s manoeuvre is the intervention of choice for this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 50
Correct
-
A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of foot drop following a motorcycle accident. He reports experiencing tingling sensations in his foot. Apart from this, he is in good health.
During the examination, the doctor observes weakness in foot dorsiflexion and eversion. The patient also exhibits altered sensation on the dorsum of his foot. However, his ankle reflexes appear to be intact.
Which of the following structures is the most probable site of injury in this patient?Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Causes of Foot Drop: Nerve Lesions in the Lower Limb
Foot drop is a condition characterized by the inability to lift the foot and toes properly, resulting in a dragging gait. It can be caused by various nerve lesions in the lower limb. Here are some of the common nerve lesions that can lead to foot drop:
1. Common Peroneal Nerve: This nerve, a branch of the sciatic nerve, is responsible for motor function in the peronei and anterior tibial muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in paralysis of dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot. The common peroneal nerve is the most commonly damaged nerve in the lower limb, often due to trauma.
2. Lumbar Nerve Roots: A lesion in the L5 nerve root, usually caused by a prolapsed intervertebral disc, can cause back pain radiating down the leg. Numbness on the sole of the foot, dorsum, and anterolateral shin may also be present.
3. Lumbosacral Plexus: Trauma can damage the lumbosacral plexus, which can lead to foot drop. However, this is usually associated with pain in the hip and thigh.
4. Sciatic Nerve: Damage to the sciatic nerve can cause foot drop, weakness of eversion, and pain radiating down the leg. Widespread numbness and loss of ankle reflex are also common.
5. Tibial Nerve: Damage to the tibial nerve would cause weakness of plantarflexion rather than dorsiflexion, so it would not cause foot drop.
In conclusion, foot drop can be caused by various nerve lesions in the lower limb. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying cause are essential for effective management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain around his right eye. He has been experiencing these episodes once or twice a day for the past week, with each episode lasting around 30 minutes. Although the pain is severe, it has not been getting worse. His girlfriend reports that during an attack, his eye becomes red and starts to water. Upon examination, his eye appears normal, and his visual acuity is intact. He is currently pain-free, with his last episode occurring about 3 hours ago. What would be the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Start carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Discuss with a neurologist the need for neuroimaging
Explanation:These headaches are classified as cluster headaches. It is recommended to consult with a specialist and consider neuroimaging as this is the first occurrence. Simple pain relief medication is not effective for treating cluster headaches.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
What is the appropriate management for post-herpetic neuralgia in a 75-year-old man who is still experiencing it three months after suffering an attack of thoracic herpes zoster?
Your Answer: Tramadol is ineffective as a treatment for post-herpetic neuralgia
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline is the first line treatment for neuropathic pain uncontrolled by simple analgesia
Explanation:Managing Neuropathic Pain: NICE Guidelines and Recommended Treatments
Neuropathic pain can be a challenging condition to manage, but the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines to help healthcare professionals choose the most effective treatments. According to NICE, the first-line treatments for neuropathic pain (excluding trigeminal neuralgia) are oral amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. These medications should be tried one at a time, and the dosage can be gradually increased until pain is controlled or side effects occur.
It’s important to note that using amitriptyline for neuropathic pain is an unlicensed indication, but it has been shown to be effective. If the first-line treatments don’t work, another one should be tried. Tramadol is not recommended for regular use in a non-specialist setting, but it can be used as rescue therapy. Strong opioids like morphine should also be avoided.
For people with localized neuropathic pain who cannot tolerate oral treatments, capsaicin cream may be a good option. However, the intense burning sensation may limit its use. Versatis® is licensed for post-herpetic neuralgia, but it should only be used for 12 hours a day, followed by a 12-hour plaster-free period. If there is no response after four weeks, it should be discontinued. While NICE doesn’t comment on its use, the Scottish Medicines Consortium accepts it as a treatment option when first-line therapies are ineffective or not tolerated.
In summary, managing neuropathic pain requires a tailored approach, and healthcare professionals should work closely with their patients to find the most effective treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
An 88-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with a 24 hours history of painless loss of vision of her left eye, which has resolved. She described the episode 'like a curtain coming down across my eye'. She has a past medical history of coronary heart disease and diabetes. She is a non-smoker and she doesn't drink. She currently takes no medication and has no past medical history of note. Fundoscopic examination is normal and an MRI is taken which shows volumetric loss of white and grey matter throughout with an area of mild white matter hyperintensity in the left frontal lobe on T2-weighted images.
What is her most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Correct Answer: Transient ischaemic attack
Explanation:A brain tumour can cause local brain invasion, compression of adjacent structures, and increased intracranial pressure (ICP), leading to symptoms such as severe unilateral headache, nausea, and vomiting. However, a sudden onset of weakness that resolves quickly is unlikely to be caused by a brain tumour.
MS typically presents with temporary vision loss in a woman in her 20s, but a new presentation may be mistaken for a TIA and have longer-lasting neurological deficits. Other symptoms are usually present in a patient of this age.
While central retinal vein occlusion can cause unilateral vision loss, it usually presents with blurred vision, and the presence of amaurosis fugax or an altitudinal field defect suggests an arterial pathology. A normal fundoscopic examination also makes central retinal vein occlusion unlikely.
A stroke is characterized by an acute neurological deficit lasting more than 24 hours due to cerebrovascular aetiology. However, in this case, the weakness has resolved, and the MRI shows only age-related changes, making a TIA diagnosis more appropriate.
A TIA is a transient episode of neurological dysfunction without acute infarction. Given the patient’s presentation of amaurosis fugax, past medical history of coronary artery disease, and normal MRI scan, a TIA is the most likely diagnosis.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.
Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.
Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled type I diabetes visits his General Practitioner complaining of horizontal diplopia that has lasted for 72 hours. He reports no pain. The images separate more widely when he looks to the right. Covering his right eye during right gaze causes the outer image to disappear. Which cranial nerve is the most likely to be affected? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: Left abducens
Correct Answer: Right abducens
Explanation:Common Causes and Effects of Cranial Nerve Palsies on Diplopia
Diplopia, or double vision, can be caused by various cranial nerve palsies. The effects of paresis on diplopia can be predicted by three rules. Firstly, the distance between the images is at a maximum in the direction of action of the paretic muscles. Secondly, paresis of the horizontally acting muscles tends to produce mainly horizontal diplopia. Lastly, the image projected further from the centre belongs to the paretic eye.
The most common causes of sixth nerve palsy in adults are diabetes, hypertension, atherosclerosis, trauma and idiopathic palsy. A right abducens (sixth nerve) palsy would cause horizontal diplopia that worsens on rightward gaze. On the other hand, a left abducens nerve palsy would cause horizontal diplopia that is more widely separated on looking to the left.
Trochlear nerve palsy causes weakness or paralysis to the superior oblique muscle resulting in vertical or torsional diplopia. A left trochlear nerve palsy would cause vertical or torsional diplopia, while a right trochlear nerve palsy would have the same effect on the opposite eye.
A complete oculomotor nerve palsy will result in a characteristic outward and downward position in the affected eye. The lateral rectus (innervated by the abducens nerve) maintains muscle tone in comparison with the paralysed medial rectus, causing outward displacement. The superior oblique muscle (innervated by the trochlear nerve) is not antagonised by the paralysed superior and inferior rectus muscles and the inferior oblique, causing downward displacement. There will also be ptosis and pupil dilation of the affected eye.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of frequent migraine attacks. Despite using adequate triptans and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, these attacks can incapacitate her for up to three days. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Migraine Prophylactic Drugs: Guidelines and Recommendations
Migraine is a common neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Prophylactic drugs are used to prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks. In this article, we will discuss the guidelines and recommendations for the use of prophylactic drugs in the management of migraines.
Beta-blockers, topiramate, and valproate are considered first-line prophylactic drugs for migraines, according to the British Association for the Study of Headache guidelines. Amitriptyline is regarded as adequate, while other prophylactic drugs are considered poor. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends propranolol as the first-line preventative therapy for migraines.
Amitriptyline is the first-line treatment when migraine co-exists with other chronic pain conditions, disturbed sleep, and depression. It is often used in combination with beta-blockers as a second-line treatment for chronic migraines. However, there is no formal evidence of a synergistic effect.
Pizotifen and clonidine have been widely used for many years, but there is little clinical trial evidence of their efficacy. Sodium valproate is a second-line prophylactic drug that is contraindicated during pregnancy. Topiramate is also a second-line prophylactic agent for migraines, but it has a significant side-effect profile and should be avoided during pregnancy.
In conclusion, the choice of prophylactic drug for migraines should be based on the patient’s individual needs and medical history. The guidelines and recommendations discussed in this article can serve as a starting point for healthcare professionals in the management of migraines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 56
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man is observed by his family to be experiencing increasing confusion. His mental state fluctuates significantly and he appears to be experiencing hallucinations at times. His daughter mentioned that his walking has become abnormal over the past few months and that his doctor had prescribed a medication for his nighttime confusion that seemed to make him much worse. During the examination, he scored 20/30 on the Mini-Mental test, displayed increased tone, and had difficulty performing rapidly alternating movements. His tendon reflexes were slightly brisk, but his plantar responses were normal, and no primitive reflexes were detected.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Explanation:Dementia with Lewy Bodies: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is a neurodegenerative disease that is the second most common cause of dementia in older people after Alzheimer’s disease. DLB is characterized by extrapyramidal features, variable psychiatric symptoms, and complex hallucinations. To diagnose DLB, two of three core diagnostic features must be present, including fluctuating confusion, persistent visual hallucinations, and spontaneous Parkinsonism. Antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol can worsen DLB, while cholinesterase inhibitors like rivastigmine can help treat cognitive decline.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is another neurodegenerative disease that can cause cognitive and functional impairment, along with myoclonus, visual disturbances, and cerebellar, pyramidal, and extrapyramidal signs. To diagnose different types of dementia, clinicians can refer to the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) guidance from February 2006, which lists the full clinical diagnostic features.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old woman presents with complaints of recurrent episodes of dizziness. She has been previously healthy. She reports experiencing repeated episodes of the room spinning around her in a horizontal plane, which occur multiple times a day. Each episode lasts for approximately 10 seconds and seems to happen when she turns in bed, lies down, or sits up from a supine position. There are no other accompanying symptoms, and she is not taking any medication. A standard neurological examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Posterior circulation ischaemia
Correct Answer: Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Benign Positional Paroxysmal Vertigo
Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo (BPPV) is a disorder characterized by short episodes of vertigo that are specifically positional in nature. The cause of BPPV is inner ear dysfunction, where otoliths become detached from the maculae and enter the semicircular canals. The diagnosis of BPPV can be confirmed through a Dix-Hallpike test, which involves observing the patient’s eyes for nystagmus after a quick change in head position.
Other potential causes of vertigo were considered and ruled out in this case. Labyrinthitis, which typically presents with hearing changes and nausea/vomiting, was deemed unlikely. Migraine, which can cause vertigo but is usually accompanied by headaches, was also ruled out. Posterior circulation stroke was considered but deemed unlikely due to a normal neurological examination. Postural hypotension was also ruled out as the patient experienced difficulties with turning in bed and lying down as well as standing up.
Overall, the differential diagnosis for BPPV involves ruling out other potential causes of vertigo through a thorough examination and consideration of the patient’s symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 58
Correct
-
A 10-year-old girl is brought to your clinic by her mother. She has been complaining of headaches for the past six months. The headaches occur over the left frontal area and are described as burning and not sharp in nature. They occur on most days, sometimes during the night, last for one to four hours and are occasionally associated with nausea but no vomiting. She has not experienced any tinnitus, falls, seizures or visual symptoms.
Her mother reports that she has been constantly tired and for the last few months has been less inclined to play with friends, preferring to stay in her room reading. She feels that the headaches seem to occur most frequently on school days rather than weekends. Since the headaches began she has been seen by your colleagues on four occasions. She has been treated twice for sinusitis (including a course of antibiotics) and, more recently, for migraine (when paracetamol was recommended).
On examination, she is pale and quiet but converses normally. Neurological examination is normal and there is no papilloedema.
What is the most appropriate next step in your management of this patient?Your Answer: Refer urgently to paediatric department
Explanation:Childhood Brain Tumours: Early Detection is Key
Childhood cancer is rare, but brain tumours are the most common solid tumour in children. Unfortunately, children with brain tumours often experience symptoms for months before receiving a diagnosis. This delay can lead to increased morbidity and a poorer prognosis.
If a child presents with persistent or recurrent headaches and behaviour changes, it is crucial to investigate further. Additionally, if a child has already presented with these symptoms three or more times without a clear diagnosis, urgent referral is necessary.
To aid in early detection, the Headsmart campaign provides guidelines for medical professionals to identify red flag symptoms of brain tumours. By recognizing these symptoms and referring children for further evaluation promptly, we can improve outcomes for children with brain tumours.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man complains of intermittent, unilateral pain above and behind his left eye, which has been waking him up at night for the past ten days. The pain is described as severe and stabbing, lasting about 20 minutes and causing him to feel restless and agitated. He also experiences tearing from his left eye and nasal congestion. During attacks, he has noticed his left eyelid drooping. He recalls having similar symptoms for a few weeks last year, but they went away on their own and he did not seek medical attention. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. He has been a smoker for most of his life.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Migraine
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Headache Disorders: Cluster Headache, Migraine, Paroxysmal Hemicrania, Temporal Arteritis, and Trigeminal Neuralgia
Cluster headache is a type of headache disorder that commonly affects middle-aged men in clusters lasting weeks to months. Verapamil and prednisolone are used for prophylaxis, while sumatriptan and oxygen are the main treatments for the acute attack. Migraine lacks the specific features of cluster headache and tends to have bilateral autonomic symptoms. Paroxysmal hemicrania is another type of trigeminal autonomic cephalgia that occurs multiple times throughout the day but for shorter periods and is more frequently seen in women. It responds to indomethacin and is often used as a diagnostic aid. Temporal arteritis is unusual in this age group and is usually throbbing and continuous with focal tenderness on direct palpation. Trigeminal neuralgia is sometimes mistaken for cluster headache, but the attacks are much shorter and autonomic activation is rare.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pain and tightness in his head, affecting the frontal and occipital regions and radiating to his neck. The symptoms have been present for four months and occur most days, usually soon after he wakes up in the morning. He is able to work despite the headaches, but they tend to resolve with paracetamol, which he tries to avoid taking most days. He works in a high-pressure environment where there have been recent layoffs. On examination, there are no concerning findings, and he denies feeling depressed.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Treatment and Management of Chronic Tension-Type Headaches
Chronic tension-type headaches (TTH) are a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The following is a guide to the treatment and management of chronic TTH.
Diagnosis and Explanation
Patients with chronic TTH should receive a positive diagnosis and explanation of their condition. It is important to reassure patients that TTH is self-limiting and not a serious condition.Pharmacological Treatment
Amitriptyline is the treatment of choice for prophylaxis of chronic TTH. A starting dose of 10-15 mg at night can be increased to 150 mg, but usually, no more than 20-30 mg is needed. If higher doses are required, this may indicate an alternative diagnosis, such as depression. The dose can be reduced once improvement is maintained for four to six months or held if headaches recur.Non-Pharmacological Approaches
Non-pharmacological approaches to TTH often incorporate relaxation and physical and psychological therapies.Neuroimaging
Neuroimaging should only be considered to rule out a serious underlying cause if there is a history of new, severe headache that is progressive and associated with neurological abnormalities on examination. Atypical aura, visual disturbance, and vomiting may also be seen.Medication Overuse Headache
Codeine should be avoided in patients with chronic TTH as there is a risk of developing medication-overuse headache, given the frequency of headaches seen in this case.Migraine Prophylaxis
Propanolol is used as prophylaxis for recurrent migraine. However, this medication is not suitable for patients with chronic TTH as their headaches do not fit the diagnosis of migraine.Mental Health Referral
Patients with chronic TTH may benefit from stress management techniques, but referral to the local mental health team is not necessary unless the patient exhibits symptoms of depression. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)