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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of lower back pain and right...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results are obtained:

      Calcium 2.20 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.8 mmol/l
      ALP 890 u/L

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Paget's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting around 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities.

      Several factors can predispose an individual to Paget’s disease, including increasing age, male sex, living in northern latitudes, and having a family history of the condition. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. In untreated cases, patients may experience bowing of the tibia or bossing of the skull.

      To diagnose Paget’s disease, doctors may perform blood tests to check for elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), a marker of bone turnover. Other markers of bone turnover, such as procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline, may also be measured. X-rays and bone scintigraphy can help identify areas of active bone lesions.

      Treatment for Paget’s disease is typically reserved for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fractures, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, such as oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are commonly used to manage the condition. Calcitonin may also be used in some cases. Complications of Paget’s disease can include deafness, bone sarcoma, fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman complains that her right ring finger regularly becomes locked after...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman complains that her right ring finger regularly becomes locked after it has been flexed. It is difficult to straighten out without pulling on it with the other hand and sometimes a click is heard when it straightens.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trigger finger

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trigger Finger

      Trigger finger, also known as stenosing tenosynovitis, is a condition where the tendon to the finger cannot easily slide back into the tendon sheath due to swelling. This causes the finger to remain fixed in flexion unless it is pulled straight. The name trigger finger comes from the sudden release of the finger when it unlocks, similar to releasing a trigger on a gun. A small tender nodule may be felt in the tendon in the palm at the base of the affected finger, impeding the return of the tendon to its sheath. While trauma can cause trigger finger, often there is no obvious cause. Some patients improve spontaneously, while others require corticosteroid injections or tendon release surgery. It is important to differentiate trigger finger from other conditions such as cramp, Dupuytren’s contracture, osteoarthritis of the proximal interphalangeal joint, and tetany.

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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man from Ghana complains of back pain, fatigue, and increased thirst....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man from Ghana complains of back pain, fatigue, and increased thirst. His ESR is 95 mm/hour and he has normocytic normochromic anemia.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Bone Pain and Elevated ESR

      Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells and is more common in Afro-Caribbeans. It can cause bone pain, fractures, and hypercalcemia, leading to lethargy and thirst. An elevated ESR and normochromic normocytic anemia are typical features of multiple myeloma.

      Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy (CPA), also known as chondrocalcinosis, primarily affects the knee joint and doesn’t typically cause anemia. Osteoarthritis may cause back pain but doesn’t typically present with systemic symptoms such as lethargy and thirst. Osteoporosis is rare in men at this age and doesn’t cause anemia or elevated ESR. Paget’s disease of bone may cause bone pain, deformity, and fractures, but the patient in this scenario doesn’t have classical features of the disease.

      Differential Diagnosis for Bone Pain and Elevated ESR

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  • Question 4 - You see a 62-year-old man with severe lower back pain on a home...

    Correct

    • You see a 62-year-old man with severe lower back pain on a home visit. He has had lumbar back pain on and off for 3 years but it got much worse yesterday when he bent over. His back is in severe spasm and he has taken to his bed, he was unable to get to the practice today in the car due to the pain. He has no bladder or bowel symptoms and no symptoms in his legs. He is taking regular co-codamol and ibuprofen.

      What statement below regarding this patient is true?

      Your Answer: A short course of benzodiazepine can be used to relieve the muscle spasms

      Explanation:

      For patients experiencing muscle spasms and back pain, a benzodiazepine like diazepam may be prescribed for a brief period. Additionally, self-help measures such as using warm compresses (with proper skin protection) can be helpful. NSAIDs are the first line of pain relief. It is not recommended to remain in bed for an extended period, as gradually resuming normal activities and movements should not cause harm, even if some pain is present. It is not necessary for the patient to be completely pain-free before returning to work or regular activities, and adjustments can be made to facilitate an early return to work, which may be arranged through an Occupational Health department if available.

      Management of Lower Back Pain: NICE Guidelines

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of lower back pain. These guidelines apply to patients with nonspecific lower back pain, which means it is not caused by malignancy, infection, trauma, or other specific conditions.

      According to the updated guidelines, NSAIDs are now recommended as the first-line treatment for back pain. Paracetamol monotherapy is relatively ineffective for back pain, so NSAIDs are a better option. Proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs.

      Lumbar spine x-ray should not be offered as an investigation for nonspecific back pain. MRI should only be offered to patients with nonspecific back pain if the result is likely to change management, or if malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina, or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected. MRI is the most useful imaging modality as it can see neurological and soft tissue structures.

      Patients with low back pain should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. A group exercise program within the NHS is recommended for people with back pain. Manual therapy, such as spinal manipulation, mobilization, or soft tissue techniques like massage, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid can also be used for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the updated NICE guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for nonspecific back pain. Patients should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. MRI is the most useful imaging modality for investigating nonspecific back pain. Other treatments, such as manual therapy, radiofrequency denervation, and epidural injections, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy.

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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman comes in with a painless lump located at the back...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in with a painless lump located at the back of her left knee. Upon examination, it appears to be an uncomplicated Baker's cyst. What is the recommended course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Excision

      Correct Answer: No treatment required

      Explanation:

      If the patient’s baker’s cyst is asymptomatic, there is no need for any treatment such as aspiration, excision, or antibiotics. The use of low molecular weight heparin is not appropriate for managing Baker’s cysts, as it is typically used for preventing and treating DVT.

      Baker’s cysts, also known as popliteal cysts, are not true cysts but rather a distension of the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa. They can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Baker’s cysts are not associated with any underlying pathology and are typically seen in children. On the other hand, secondary Baker’s cysts are caused by an underlying condition such as osteoarthritis and are typically seen in adults. These cysts present as swellings in the popliteal fossa behind the knee.

      In some cases, Baker’s cysts may rupture, resulting in symptoms similar to those of a deep vein thrombosis, such as pain, redness, and swelling in the calf. However, most ruptures are asymptomatic. In children, Baker’s cysts usually resolve on their own and do not require any treatment. In adults, the underlying cause of the cyst should be treated where appropriate. Overall, Baker’s cysts are a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of back pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of back pain and stiffness in the morning that has been worsening for the past 2 years. She reports that the pain improves with exercise. She also mentions having experienced an episode of anterior uveitis (iritis) recently. Upon investigation, it is found that she is negative for rheumatoid factor but positive for human leukocyte antigen B27 (HLA-B27). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis (AS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Spondyloarthropathy

      Spondyloarthropathy is a group of inflammatory diseases that affect the joints and spine. Among the different types of spondyloarthropathy, ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is the most common. It typically affects people under 30 years old and is characterized by inflammatory back pain that causes stiffness and wakes patients up in the early morning hours. AS is strongly associated with the HLA-B27 gene, and about 20-30% of patients also experience acute anterior uveitis.

      Enteropathic spondyloarthropathy is another type of spondyloarthropathy that is linked to inflammatory bowel disease. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient’s history. Like AS, enteropathic spondyloarthropathy is also associated with HLA-B27.

      Mechanical back pain, on the other hand, is not an inflammatory condition. It usually starts suddenly and varies in severity depending on posture and movement. In contrast, the patient’s pain has developed gradually over a year.

      Psoriatic arthritis is another type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with psoriasis of the skin and/or nails. However, there is no mention of this in the patient’s history. Psoriatic arthritis can affect any joint but mostly affects the knees, ankles, hands, and feet. It is also linked to HLA-B27.

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by asymmetrical aseptic arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. It usually occurs after a sexually transmitted infection or gastrointestinal illness. However, there is no indication of this in the patient’s history or examination.

      In summary, understanding the different types of spondyloarthropathy can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 7 - Dr. Patel, a family physician, receives a Ted Baker wallet from a patient...

    Correct

    • Dr. Patel, a family physician, receives a Ted Baker wallet from a patient during the holiday season. The wallet is priced at £80 online. Dr. Patel had been extensively involved in the care of the patient who was suffering from osteoarthritis of the left shoulder. The patient required several joint injections and consultations to discuss oral analgesia. What should Dr. Patel do regarding the gift?

      Your Answer: Call up the patient to thank them, accept the gift and not place the gift on the practice gift register

      Explanation:

      According to the NHS General Medical Services Contracts Regulations 2004, GPs are required to maintain a register of gifts worth £100 or more from patients or their relatives. The register should contain details such as the name and address of the patient, the nature and estimated value of the gift, and the name of the recipient. The register must be made available to NHS England upon request. However, if the GP believes that the gift is unrelated to the services provided or is unaware of the gift, it need not be included in the register.

      The GMC’s Good Medical Practice guidelines provide guidance on accepting gifts from patients. It states that doctors should not accept any gift or hospitality that may influence or appear to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. Doctors should also not encourage patients to offer gifts that may benefit them directly or indirectly. However, gifts may be accepted if they do not affect the doctor’s professional judgment and if the patient or their relatives have not been pressured or influenced to offer the gift.

      In this scenario, it would not be appropriate to decline the gift as it may offend the patient who is expressing gratitude for their care. It would also be unfair to ask the patient to provide cash instead of the gift. Offering longer appointment times as an advantage to patients who provide gifts would be considered unethical and unfair to other patients.

      As a doctor, it is important to adhere to the guidelines set forth by the GMC. One such guideline states that doctors should not accept any gifts, inducements, or hospitality from patients, colleagues, or others that could potentially influence or be perceived to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. It is crucial to maintain a professional and ethical relationship with patients, and accepting gifts can compromise this relationship. Therefore, doctors should always be mindful of the GMC’s guidance and avoid accepting any gifts that could potentially affect their judgment or decision-making.

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  • Question 8 - An 85-year-old woman has short history of bone pain. Serum biochemistry reveals plasma...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman has short history of bone pain. Serum biochemistry reveals plasma calcium concentration 2.08 mmol/l, phosphate 0.70 mmol/l, alkaline phosphatase activity twice the upper limit of what is normal. The concentration of parathyroid hormone is elevated.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal osteodystrophy

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes and Diagnosis

      Osteomalacia is a condition that is often caused by a lack or impaired metabolism of vitamin D. This can lead to hypocalcaemia, although it may not be immediately noticeable due to increased parathyroid hormone secretion, which can also increase renal phosphate excretion. As a result, alkaline phosphatase levels may be elevated due to increased osteoblastic activity. To diagnose osteomalacia, it is important to measure vitamin D levels and supplement when low levels are confirmed.

      Other conditions may present with similar symptoms, but can be ruled out based on specific markers. Osteolytic metastases, for example, may also cause elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, but calcium concentrations are typically normal or elevated. Osteoporosis may also cause elevated calcium levels, but bone markers are typically normal in uncomplicated cases. Renal osteodystrophy, on the other hand, is characterized by increased plasma phosphate concentration due to underlying kidney disease. Primary hyperparathyroidism may also cause hypophosphataemia, but plasma calcium concentration is usually elevated, unless there is concomitant vitamin D deficiency.

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  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old man with osteoarthritis affecting his left shoulder presents for follow-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with osteoarthritis affecting his left shoulder presents for follow-up. He is currently on regular co-codamol 30/500 for pain relief and takes oral ibuprofen as needed. The patient has been experiencing shoulder problems for several years and has had to increase his pain medication to manage his symptoms. He has also tried using heat and cold packs and has purchased a TENS machine. Despite these interventions, he continues to experience significant daily pain and reduced function of his left arm due to restricted shoulder movement. The patient is hesitant to pursue surgical intervention. What would be an appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Capsaicin topically

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline orally

      Explanation:

      Intra-Articular Corticosteroid Injections for Osteoarthritis Pain

      Intra-articular corticosteroid injections can be a helpful addition to treating moderate to severe osteoarthritis pain. If traditional treatments have failed, a corticosteroid injection may be an appropriate option for patients who are not interested in surgical intervention. While the injection provides short-term pain relief, it may also allow patients to engage in other interventions such as physiotherapy, which can provide longer-lasting benefits in terms of both pain and function. However, repeated injections over longer periods may cause joint damage and are generally not recommended.

      Other treatment options such as capsaicin, electro-acupuncture, amitriptyline, and glucosamine are not recommended for osteoarthritis pain. Capsaicin is not recommended for shoulder problems, electro-acupuncture is not recommended for any form of osteoarthritis, and amitriptyline is not a licensed or recommended treatment for osteoarthritis. Glucosamine has insufficient data of significant efficacy to justify its cost, but patients can try over-the-counter glucosamine sulfate at a dose of 1500 mg daily and monitor their symptoms before and after three months.

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  • Question 10 - You see a 45-year-old gentleman that presents with a 3-week history of neck...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 45-year-old gentleman that presents with a 3-week history of neck pain. He reports occasional shooting pains in his right arm. The symptoms have been improving since they first started. He reports no weight loss, gait disturbance, clumsiness, loss of sexual, bladder or bowel function. On examination, no neurological signs are noted.

      According to NICE, what would be the next appropriate step in his management?

      Your Answer: Routine MRI

      Correct Answer: Reassurance, encourage activity, analgesia

      Explanation:

      Management of Cervical Radiculopathy

      Cervical radiculopathy is a condition that affects the nerves in the neck, causing pain, weakness, and numbness in the arms. For patients with this condition that has been present for less than 4-6 weeks and no objective neurological signs present, NICE advises conservative management. This includes reassurance, encouragement of activity, and analgesia. The long-term prognosis for patients with radiculopathy is good, and most cases improve without surgery.

      However, clinicians should be aware of red flags that warrant an urgent referral. These include patients who are younger than 20 years or older than 55 years, severe or increasing pain, weakness involving more than one myotome, signs and symptoms suggestive of compression of the spinal cord, signs and symptoms suggestive of cancer, infection or inflammation, and signs and symptoms suggestive of severe trauma or skeletal injury. It is important to identify these red flags to ensure prompt and appropriate management of cervical radiculopathy.

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  • Question 11 - A 32-year old man comes in with recurrent elbow pain. The pain worsens...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year old man comes in with recurrent elbow pain. The pain worsens when he resists wrist flexion and pronation of the forearm.

      What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Correct Answer: Medial epicondylitis

      Explanation:

      Common Upper Limb Injuries

      Medial epicondylitis, also known as golfer’s elbow, is caused by inflammation at the common flexor origin at the medial epicondyle of the elbow. Patients with this condition experience pain when performing resisted wrist flexion and resisted pronation of the forearm.

      Bicipital tendonitis is inflammation of the long head of biceps tendon, which causes anterior shoulder pain. Pain is also experienced when flexing the elbow against resistance.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the hand in the median nerve distribution. Symptoms can be reproduced by forced wrist flexion (Phalen’s sign) and tapping over the median nerve at the wrist (Tinel’s sign).

      Lateral epicondylitis, or tennis elbow, is more common than golfer’s elbow. It is characterized by tenderness at the lateral epicondyle of the elbow and pain when performing resisted wrist extension.

      Ulnar neuritis is caused by a compressive neuropathy at the elbow. It can lead to wasting and weakness of the small muscles of the hand supplied by the ulnar nerve.

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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, red and painful left knee....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, red and painful left knee. On examination, he is afebrile, and aspiration of the knee effusion reveals slightly turbid fluid. Under microscopy, positively birefringent crystals are seen that are rod-shaped with blunt ends.
      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Radiographs of the knee are diagnostic

      Correct Answer: The patient is suffering from pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Pseudogout from Gout and Septic Arthritis

      Pseudogout is a joint inflammation caused by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals. It is often idiopathic but can also be associated with metabolic abnormalities such as hyperparathyroidism and haemochromatosis. Symptoms can last for days to weeks and commonly affect the knees, wrists, and hips. Radiographs may show chondrocalcinosis or osteoarthrosis. Urate crystals in gout are shaped like needles with pointed ends and exhibit negative birefringence. Septic arthritis requires cues such as exposure to gonorrhoea, a recent puncture wound over the joint, or systemic signs of disseminated infection. Synovial fluid examination can exclude infection. Anticoagulant therapy is not a cause of pseudogout.

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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is currently on methotrexate. What medication should...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is currently on methotrexate. What medication should be avoided if prescribed concurrently?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Combining methotrexate with antibiotics that contain trimethoprim can lead to bone marrow suppression and potentially fatal pancytopenia. The risk of haematological toxicity is higher when trimethoprim is used in conjunction with methotrexate.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old patient presents to your clinic complaining of toe pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old patient presents to your clinic complaining of toe pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 days. He reports that his toe is swollen and red, and he has never experienced this before. A friend suggested that he may be suffering from gout and he has come to ask if you can prescribe him with something stronger than paracetamol.

      The patient's medical history includes hypercholesterolaemia and atrial fibrillation, and he currently takes atorvastatin and amiodarone. He is also intolerant to opioids. Based on this information, what medication would you safely recommend for this patient?

      Your Answer: Piroxicam

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Gout

      Gout is a painful condition that can be effectively treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory tablets or colchicine. However, it is important to consider the patient’s medical history and current medications before choosing a treatment option.

      Piroxicam, while effective, has a high risk of gastro-intestinal side effects and should not be the first choice. Codeine, an opioid, should be avoided if the patient is intolerant to this class of drugs. Allopurinol is typically used as prophylaxis rather than for acute attacks.

      Colchicine is a good choice for treating gout, but patients on statins have an increased risk of myopathy when given colchicine, and patients on amiodarone have a possible increased risk of colchicine toxicity. Therefore, it is important to consider these factors before prescribing colchicine.

      Prednisolone is not a first-line option for uncomplicated cases of acute gout. Overall, the choice of treatment for gout should be individualized based on the patient’s medical history and current medications.

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  • Question 15 - A 52-year-old woman suffered a whiplash injury to her neck six weeks ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman suffered a whiplash injury to her neck six weeks ago when her car was struck from behind by another vehicle. She has just had a private assessment by an orthopaedic surgeon because she is pursuing a compensation claim. He has told her to come to see you to get some better treatment for her persisting neck pain. She says that until now she has been self-medicating with paracetamol with only limited benefit. She denies any symptoms of anxiety or depression.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate INITIAL management?

      Your Answer: Keep a pain diary

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations

      Whiplash is a common injury that can cause pain and discomfort in the neck and shoulders. If a patient has already been taking paracetamol for their symptoms, the addition of Ibuprofen or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be the next logical step. In some cases, patients may need to take both drugs regularly. Codeine is another alternative that can be added to paracetamol or ibuprofen.

      It’s important to encourage patients to return to their normal activities as soon as possible. Physiotherapy can be helpful, but it’s most effective when started soon after the injury occurs. For those with late whiplash syndrome who don’t respond well to full-dose analgesics, a trial of amitriptyline, pregabalin, or gabapentin for one month may be helpful.

      Keeping a pain diary can be useful, but it’s important to focus on function and abilities rather than pain and disability. Referral to a pain clinic is recommended at an early stage for chronic symptoms. Finally, behaviors that promote disability and enhance expectations of a poor outcome and chronic disability (such as wearing a collar) should be discouraged.

      Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations

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  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old woman seeks your guidance regarding the possibility of developing osteoporosis after...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman seeks your guidance regarding the possibility of developing osteoporosis after her friend experienced a hip fracture. Assuming she has average risk based on her age and gender, what is her likelihood of having osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.

      If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.

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  • Question 17 - A 50-year old female presents with diffuse pain throughout her body. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old female presents with diffuse pain throughout her body. She has a history of irritable bowel symptoms, tension headaches, and anxiety. The patient reports feeling stiff in the mornings with sore muscles, particularly around the neck, shoulders, and hips. She also experiences poor concentration, disturbed sleep, and constant exhaustion. There are no bowel or menstrual symptoms. On examination, her weight is stable, pulse rate is 78 regular, blood pressure is 112/72 mmHg, and she is afebrile. Palpation reveals tenderness around the muscles of the neck and shoulders, the outer aspect of the gluteal muscles, and around the greater trochanters. There are also areas of focal discomfort on palpation of the muscles around the elbows and knees. The patient walks with a normal gait, and her joints are clinically normal. Recent blood tests show a normal FBC, normal ESR, and normal CK levels. What treatments are most likely to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone 15 mg OD

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen 400 mg TDS

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fibromyalgia

      Fibromyalgia is a condition that causes chronic diffuse pain in the muscles, with a higher prevalence in women aged 40-50 years. It is often associated with anxiety and depression, as well as symptoms such as fatigue, paraesthesia, urinary frequency, and headaches. To diagnose fibromyalgia, a patient must have chronic widespread pain and tender points on digital palpation of specific sites around the body. Other conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, hypothyroidism, osteomalacia, and polymyositis must be ruled out through examination and investigation.

      Treatment options for fibromyalgia include pharmacological options such as amitriptyline and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressants, as well as trigger point injections, acupuncture, graded exercise regimens, and psychological therapies. Anti-inflammatories are not typically effective in treating fibromyalgia and can even worsen symptoms in some cases. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for fibromyalgia can help patients manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man comes to you with a complaint of posterior heel pain...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to you with a complaint of posterior heel pain that has been bothering him for the past three months. He reports that the pain is particularly worse in the mornings and after playing squash. Upon examination, you note that his Achilles is tender and thickened, but there are no signs of rupture or palpable gap. You recommend simple analgesia and avoiding activities that may worsen the pain. What other interventions can be suggested to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Calf muscle eccentric exercises

      Explanation:

      Understanding Achilles Tendon Disorders

      Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of posterior heel pain, which can present as tendinopathy, partial tear, or complete rupture of the Achilles tendon. Certain risk factors, such as quinolone use and hypercholesterolaemia, can predispose individuals to these disorders.

      Achilles tendinopathy typically presents with gradual onset of posterior heel pain that worsens following activity, along with morning pain and stiffness. Management usually involves supportive measures, such as simple analgesia, reduction in precipitating activities, and calf muscle eccentric exercises.

      On the other hand, Achilles tendon rupture should be suspected if the person experiences an audible ‘pop’ in the ankle, sudden onset significant pain in the calf or ankle, or the inability to walk or continue the sport. Simmond’s triad can be used to help exclude Achilles tendon rupture, and ultrasound is the initial imaging modality of choice for suspected cases. An acute referral to an orthopaedic specialist is necessary following a suspected rupture.

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  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old nulliparous female with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old nulliparous female with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis presents with shortness of breath. The full blood count and clotting screen reveals the following results:

      Hb 12.4 g/dl
      Plt 137
      WBC 7.5 * 109/l

      PT 14 secs
      APTT 46 secs

      What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Third generation oral contraceptive pill use

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most probable diagnosis due to the paradoxical occurrence of prolonged APTT and low platelets.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical increase in the APTT due to an ex-vivo reaction of lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.

      Other features of antiphospholipid syndrome include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with other autoimmune disorders and lymphoproliferative disorders, as well as rare cases of phenothiazines. Management of antiphospholipid syndrome is based on EULAR guidelines, with primary thromboprophylaxis and low-dose aspirin being recommended. For secondary thromboprophylaxis, lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is recommended for initial venous thromboembolic events, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and may benefit from the addition of low-dose aspirin and an increased target INR of 3-4. Arterial thrombosis should also be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

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  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old woman has developed symmetrical synovitis affecting the small joints of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has developed symmetrical synovitis affecting the small joints of the hands and feet. This has persisted for eight weeks. She has returned to her General Practitioner (GP) to discuss her test results. Her C-reactive protein is slightly elevated but her test for rheumatoid factor is negative.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management option in primary care in addition to analgesia?

      Your Answer: Repeat the tests in six weeks

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to rheumatology

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Urgent Referral to Rheumatology for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Suspected rheumatoid arthritis requires urgent referral to a rheumatologist to prevent irreversible joint damage. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends immediate referral as there is no specific diagnostic test for rheumatoid arthritis, and delaying treatment can lead to joint deformity and pain. Corticosteroids and DMARDs such as sulfasalazine are effective treatments, but should only be prescribed by a specialist. Repeat testing is not recommended as rheumatoid factors can be negative in a significant number of cases. Early referral to rheumatology is crucial for managing suspected rheumatoid arthritis and preventing long-term disability.

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  • Question 21 - A 7-year-old girl has fallen off the monkey bars and is now not...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl has fallen off the monkey bars and is now not using her right arm. Her mother brings her to the minor injury department and an X-ray is taken. The X-ray shows a non-displaced fracture of the distal third of the humerus. There is no neurovascular involvement.
      What is the most appropriate management option in this case?

      Your Answer: Refer for closed reduction

      Correct Answer: Immobilising sling

      Explanation:

      Management of Clavicle Fracture: Immobilising Sling and Analgesia

      When a patient presents with an uncomplicated clavicle fracture, the correct management is to use an immobilising sling. This allows the fracture to heal in the correct position and reduces the patient’s pain during the healing process. Without immobilisation, the fracture could become displaced, leading to poor healing and loss of function. Analgesia and reassurance are also important to manage the patient’s pain and anxiety.

      It is important to note that a closed reduction is only necessary if the bones are out of alignment, and an open reduction and internal fixation are only indicated if there is neurovascular compromise. In this case, neither procedure is required as the fracture is non-displaced and there is no neurovascular compromise.

      Overall, the management of a clavicle fracture involves immobilisation, pain management, and careful monitoring for any complications.

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  • Question 22 - What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy?

      Your Answer: Distal interphalangeal joints

      Correct Answer: Proximal interphalangeal joints

      Explanation:

      Heberden’s Nodules: Bony Swellings in Osteoarthritis

      Heberden’s nodules are bony swellings that typically develop around the distal interphalangeal joints, particularly in the second and third fingers. These nodules are caused by calcific spurs of the articular cartilage at the base of the terminal phalanges in osteoarthritis. This condition is more common in females and usually occurs in middle age. Heberden’s nodules can cause pain and stiffness in the affected joints, and may limit hand function. Proper management of osteoarthritis can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life.

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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old man is experiencing foot pain for the past two days. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is experiencing foot pain for the past two days. Upon examination, there is a shiny and red area over the first metatarsal of his left foot, which is extremely sensitive to touch. He has no history of gout.

      When would be the best time to initiate allopurinol treatment?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Correct Answer: Once inflammation and pain has resolved

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol should not be started until the inflammation has subsided and the patient is no longer experiencing pain. Immediate treatment for acute gout should involve the use of colchicine, as starting allopurinol too soon can lead to a recurrence or prolongation of acute attacks. The current recommendation is to base treatment on symptoms rather than a specific time frame, and joint aspiration is not typically necessary for diagnosis. Tophi, which are crystal deposits that form from untreated gout over a long period of time, may indicate the need for allopurinol treatment. However, joint aspiration may be necessary to differentiate between gout and septic arthritis.

      Allopurinol can interact with other medications such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. It can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine when used with azathioprine, reduced renal clearance when used with cyclophosphamide, and an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline. Patients at a high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele.

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  • Question 24 - A 15-year-old girl presents with difficulty walking and issues with her feet. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with difficulty walking and issues with her feet. Upon examination, she displays mild pes cavus and possible muscle wasting in her distal legs. She has a slight high-steppage gait and exhibits weakness in both feet and ankles with reduced ankle jerks. There are no abnormalities in her cranial nerves or cerebellar function, and she has no significant medical history or regular medications. However, she reports that several family members have experienced similar problems, and her grandfather, who is still alive in his 70s, used to receive special shoes and a foot brace from the hospital. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syringomyelia

      Correct Answer: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pes Cavus and its Association with Genetic Diseases

      Pes cavus, also known as claw foot, is a condition characterized by an excessively arched foot that gives an unnaturally high instep. This condition is often associated with genetic diseases such as Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease and Friedreich’s ataxia.

      Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal recessive condition that affects the nervous system. It is characterized by progressive limb and gait ataxia, dysarthria, loss of proprioception and vibration sense, absent tendon reflexes in the lower limbs, and extensor plantar responses. The disease can also lead to pes cavus and scoliosis due to muscle weakness, as well as cardiomyopathy. Unfortunately, the disease is often debilitating, with more than 95% of those affected being wheelchair-bound by the age of 45 and an average life expectancy of approximately 50.

      On the other hand, CMT affects both motor and sensory nerves and is often first noticed in adolescence or early adulthood. Symptoms include weakness of the foot and lower leg muscles, which may result in foot drop and a characteristic high-stepped gait. Weakness of the small muscles in the feet can lead to deformities such as pes cavus. In addition, the lower legs may take on an ‘inverted champagne bottle’ appearance due to the loss of muscle bulk. Although the disease can progress to affect the hands, it is not considered fatal, and people with most forms of CMT have a normal life expectancy.

      In summary, understanding the association between pes cavus and genetic diseases such as CMT and Friedreich’s ataxia is crucial in diagnosing and managing these conditions. While Friedreich’s ataxia can be debilitating and life-threatening, CMT is generally not fatal, but can still significantly impact a person’s quality of life.

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  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old woman presents with discomfort in her shoulder. She indicates that the...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presents with discomfort in her shoulder. She indicates that the pain is mainly in the deltoid area and worsens when she moves her shoulder. She reports no previous trauma or injury. She is in good health otherwise. She has observed that the pain is most bothersome when she reaches up to place things on a high shelf in her kitchen.
      Upon examination, the shoulder appears normal with no redness or visible swelling. She experiences limited mobility and pain between 70-120 degrees of abduction. The internal rotation of the shoulder is somewhat stiff and tender. She has good external rotation of the joint without pain.
      What is the most probable underlying cause of her shoulder pain based on this presentation?

      Your Answer: Bicipital tendonitis

      Correct Answer: Impingement

      Explanation:

      Understanding Shoulder Pain: Impingement, Bicipital Tendonitis, and ACJ Arthritis

      Shoulder pain can be caused by various conditions, including impingement, bicipital tendonitis, and ACJ arthritis. To distinguish between impingement and frozen shoulder, external rotation is an important examination finding. Patients with impingement typically have good external rotation, while external rotation is affected in frozen shoulder. Impingement is characterized by pain in the deltoid region with impaired abduction of the affected arm, often noticed during overhead reaching or activities that require internal rotation. On the other hand, frozen shoulder causes global restriction of shoulder movement, especially external rotation and elevation. Plain x-rays can help distinguish frozen shoulder from glenohumeral arthritis, which can give similar clinical findings.

      Bicipital tendonitis is characterized by tenderness on palpation of the tendon in the bicipital groove. Pain may also be elicited with resisted flexion with the elbow straight and the forearm supinated, and resisted supination of the forearm with the elbow flexed. Meanwhile, ACJ arthritis can cause diffuse lateral shoulder pain as well as localized ACJ pain. Local tenderness may be present, and cross-adduction often worsens the pain. Treatment for impingement includes rest, corticosteroid injection, physiotherapy, and analgesia/anti-inflammatory use.

      In summary, understanding the different causes of shoulder pain and their distinguishing features can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of a swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of a swelling on his right wrist. He suspects it may be scar tissue from an old injury and has been present for approximately two years, but over the past six months, it has been gradually increasing in size.

      Upon examination, you note a discrete swelling on the dorsal surface of his right wrist, measuring about 4 cm in diameter. It is firm but mobile to palpation and non-tender. There is no associated skin discoloration or increased vascularity.

      What characteristic of the swelling would prompt you to urgently refer for investigation of a possible sarcoma?

      Your Answer: The age of the patient

      Correct Answer: The recent increase in size

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Suspicion of Soft Tissue Sarcoma

      Clinical guidelines recommend an urgent referral for suspicion of soft tissue sarcoma if a patient presents with a palpable lump that is greater than about 5 cm in diameter, deep to fascia, fixed or immobile, painful, increasing in size, or a recurrence after previous excision. It is important to note that if there is any doubt about the need for referral, discussion with a local specialist should be undertaken.

      Of these criteria, the increase in the size of the swelling is particularly concerning when it comes to the possibility of a soft tissue sarcoma. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of these guidelines and to promptly refer patients who meet these criteria for further evaluation and management. By doing so, early detection and treatment can greatly improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 27 - A 59-year-old woman has been treated for six months for reflux oesophagitis. She...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman has been treated for six months for reflux oesophagitis. She also has a history of hypertension, Raynaud syndrome and telangiectasia. Autoimmune screening reveals a positive antinuclear antibody test and positive extractable nuclear antibody to Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase-1). Renal function testing reveals a creatinine of 215 µmol/l (50–120 µmol/l).
      What is the most probable reason for this patient's kidney dysfunction? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from systemic sclerosis, a connective tissue disease that affects multiple systems in the body. Symptoms such as oesophageal dysmotility, telangiectasia, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and renal dysfunction are all indicative of this condition. Treatment can be challenging, especially if there is associated pulmonary fibrosis, hypertension, and cardiac fibrosis. Renal involvement in systemic sclerosis carries a poor prognosis, and renal failure is a common outcome. The presence of positive anti-SCL-70 antibodies strongly supports a diagnosis of systemic sclerosis. Other conditions such as membranous glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis are less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old woman who is a non-smoker complains of rib pain. A bone...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman who is a non-smoker complains of rib pain. A bone scan reveals multiple lesions highly indicative of metastases. Physical examination is unremarkable except for unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. An excision biopsy of an affected lymph node confirms the presence of adenocarcinoma. What investigation should be given priority to identify the primary site of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Mammography

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Cancer of Unknown Primary Site

      Cancers of unknown primary site make up a small percentage of all cancers and can present in various locations such as bones, lymph nodes, lungs, and liver. If the presentation is in the axillary lymph node, an occult breast primary may be the cause, and mammography should be the first investigation. If the mammogram is negative, other tests can identify alternative occult sites. Identifying the primary site is crucial for guiding treatment and determining prognosis, even in metastatic disease. However, some investigations may not be appropriate for certain presentations. Cancer antigen-125 (CA-125) is not a diagnostic tool for ovarian cancer, and colonoscopy and gastroscopy are unlikely to be useful for identifying the primary site in cases of metastases to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Instead, Virchow’s nodes in the left supraclavicular area may be sentinel lymph nodes for abdominal cancer, particularly gastric cancer.

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  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a swollen and red first...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a swollen and red first metatarsophalangeal joint on his left foot. He is experiencing significant pain and difficulty walking. He has no history of similar episodes in the past. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking warfarin, metformin, and simvastatin. What is the best course of treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients taking warfarin should steer clear of NSAIDs as it could lead to a dangerous gastrointestinal haemorrhage. Although oral steroids are a viable alternative, they may disrupt diabetic control. While anticoagulation doesn’t prohibit joint injection, it may not be the most desirable option.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic worried about his bone health. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic worried about his bone health. He has a history of polycystic-kidney disease leading to chronic kidney disease.

      He is a non-smoker and abstains from alcohol. His BMI is 23 kg/m2. His mother suffered a hip fracture at the age of 52.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Calculate his QFracture. Consider a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan depending on results

      Correct Answer: Refer to the osteoporosis clinic and arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.

      For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.

      For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.

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  • Question 31 - What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to the 2014 NICE guidance?

      Your Answer: Acupuncture is a useful adjunct therapy

      Correct Answer: Patients with mechanical knee locking symptoms should be referred for arthroscopic lavage and debridement

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance for Managing Osteoarthritis Pain

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends exercise for all patients with osteoarthritis. When analgesia is necessary, paracetamol and topical NSAIDs should be the first line of treatment, followed by oral NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors if needed. However, a proton pump inhibitor should be used alongside these medications to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.

      NICE doesn’t recommend the use of acupuncture or glucosamine for managing osteoarthritis pain. Arthroscopic debridement, a surgical procedure to remove damaged tissue from the joint, is only indicated if the patient has a clear history of mechanical locking, rather than morning joint stiffness, giving way, or X-ray evidence of loose bodies.

      Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of exercise and non-pharmacological interventions in managing osteoarthritis pain, while also providing recommendations for safe and effective use of analgesic medications.

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  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old man has rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
    What is the single correct statement about...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
      What is the single correct statement about his condition?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis is a common disease complication

      Correct Answer: C-reactive protein (CRP) is typically normal in non-infected patients with active disease

      Explanation:

      There are some inaccuracies in the given explanation about systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Firstly, C-reactive protein (CRP) is not a reliable indicator of disease activity in SLE, but it can help distinguish between a lupus flare and infection. Secondly, neutropenia is less common than lymphopenia in SLE. Thirdly, while SLE can lead to various pulmonary complications, severe pulmonary fibrosis is uncommon. Fourthly, rheumatoid factor can be positive in up to 40% of SLE patients. Lastly, the low-dose combined oral contraceptive pill is not contraindicated in SLE, but caution should be exercised in women with certain antibodies and alternative methods of contraception may be preferred.

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  • Question 33 - Samantha is a 58-year-old woman who works from home as a freelance writer....

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 58-year-old woman who works from home as a freelance writer. She owns her own home but requires assistance with daily tasks due to her severe osteoarthritis. She recently applied for Attendance Allowance but was informed that she is not eligible. What is the reason for Samantha's ineligibility for Attendance Allowance?

      Your Answer: Because Greg is in employment

      Correct Answer: Because Greg is aged under 65 years

      Explanation:

      The reason why Greg is not eligible for Attendance Allowance is because he is under 65 years of age. This benefit is specifically for individuals who are over 65 and require assistance with personal care due to physical or mental disability. Those who are under 65 and require similar assistance should apply for Personal Independence Payment instead. To be eligible for Attendance Allowance, one must have a physical or mental disability that is severe enough to require assistance with personal care or supervision for safety reasons. The allowance is paid at different levels depending on the level of assistance required.

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

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  • Question 34 - A 50-year-old office worker visits the GP complaining of a painful right elbow....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old office worker visits the GP complaining of a painful right elbow. He specifically indicates the medial epicondyle of the humerus as the source of pain. Although he cannot recall any injury that may have caused it, he mentions that the pain worsens when he uses his arm, and sometimes extends to his forearm. As a result, he has stopped playing tennis. Apart from this, he is in good health and not taking any medications.

      Based on the patient's history, the GP has a particular diagnosis in mind. What finding during the examination would be most indicative of this suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Worsening symptoms with the wrist extended and pronated

      Correct Answer: Worsening symptoms with the wrist flexed and pronated

      Explanation:

      Medial epicondylitis is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, as seen in a golf player presenting with pain at the medial epicondyle. This condition is caused by repetitive use of the wrist flexor muscles, resulting in damage to the tendons where they attach to the medial epicondyle of the humerus. Examination would reveal worsening symptoms with the wrist flexed and pronated, as this aggravates the affected muscles. A fluctuant swelling over the olecranon process would suggest olecranon bursitis, which presents with swelling, pain, and tenderness over the olecranon process. Worsening symptoms with the wrist extended and pronated or supinated are incorrect, as these movements would aggravate different conditions such as lateral epicondylitis (‘tennis elbow’) or not be relevant to medial epicondylitis.

      Understanding Medial Epicondylitis

      Medial epicondylitis, commonly referred to as golfer’s elbow, is a condition characterized by pain and tenderness in the medial epicondyle. This area is located on the inner side of the elbow and is responsible for attaching the forearm muscles to the elbow. The pain is often aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, which can make it difficult to perform everyday activities such as gripping objects or lifting weights.

      In addition to pain, individuals with medial epicondylitis may also experience numbness or tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers due to ulnar nerve involvement. This can further impact their ability to perform daily tasks and may require medical attention.

      It is important to seek treatment for medial epicondylitis as soon as possible to prevent further damage and alleviate symptoms. Treatment options may include rest, ice, physical therapy, and in severe cases, surgery. By understanding the symptoms and seeking prompt medical attention, individuals can effectively manage and treat medial epicondylitis.

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  • Question 35 - What is a possible truth about idiopathic adolescent scoliosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a possible truth about idiopathic adolescent scoliosis?

      Your Answer: Typically occurs in late teens

      Correct Answer: Has no other anatomical clues

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scoliosis Examination

      During scoliosis examination, it is important to take note of certain anatomical clues such as waist asymmetry, uneven shoulders, and humps in the lumbar or thoracic area. Non-structural scoliosis is often caused by unequal leg length, while idiopathic adolescent scoliosis is of the structural type and is usually noticed during the early adolescent growth spurt, particularly in girls. When bending, the structural type is exaggerated while the non-structural type is improved. Proper identification of these factors is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for scoliosis patients.

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  • Question 36 - You arrange a routine pelvic X-ray for a 60-year-old man with painful hips....

    Incorrect

    • You arrange a routine pelvic X-ray for a 60-year-old man with painful hips. The report comments on the possibility of Paget’s disease. You arrange some blood tests.
      Which of the following tests is most likely to show an abnormal result?

      Your Answer: Phosphate

      Correct Answer: Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Markers for Paget’s Disease of Bone

      Paget’s disease of bone is a condition characterized by cellular remodelling and deformity of one or more bones. To aid in its diagnosis, several diagnostic markers are used, including alkaline phosphatase (ALP), calcium, parathyroid hormone, phosphate, and uric acid.

      ALP is a useful marker for Paget’s disease as bone-specific ALP levels are elevated due to increased osteoblastic activity and bone formation. However, the adequacy of total ALP levels depends on the patient having normal liver function and a normal level of liver ALP. Serial measuring of ALP is also used to monitor the effects of treatment and disease activity.

      Calcium levels should be normal in patients with Paget’s disease, but hypercalcaemia or hypercalciuria may develop in patients who are immobile. Parathyroid hormone levels are usually normal in Paget’s disease, but hyperparathyroidism causes osteitis fibrosa cystica with low bone mineral density, bone pain, skeletal deformities, and fractures. Phosphate levels are usually normal.

      Hyperuricaemia can occur in Paget’s disease and is more common in men than women. It is due to the increased turnover of nucleic acids as a result of high bone turnover, and attacks of gout may be precipitated.

      In conclusion, the measurement of ALP and other diagnostic markers can aid in the diagnosis and monitoring of Paget’s disease of bone.

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  • Question 37 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and widespread...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and widespread body aches. He reports experiencing stiffness and difficulty reaching items above eye level, particularly in the morning. His ESR is elevated at 72.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Elevated ESR and its association with inflammatory diseases and malignancy

      ESR, or erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a blood test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a period of time. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in inflammatory disease processes such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and polymyalgia rheumatica, which are associated with other raised inflammatory markers like fibrinogen. It is also seen in malignancy, particularly myeloma.

      Apart from these conditions, ESR tends to increase with age, with the normal ESR being roughly half of the age. Females also tend to have higher ESR levels.

      When a patient presents with vague bony aches, a markedly elevated ESR may suggest myeloma or polymyalgia rheumatica. Polymyalgia rheumatica predominantly affects the shoulder girdle, while systemic lupus erythematosus has a higher incidence in women. Rheumatoid arthritis, on the other hand, usually presents with swollen joints in the hands and feet and morning stiffness.

      In summary, elevated ESR levels can be indicative of various inflammatory diseases and malignancy, and should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical findings.

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  • Question 38 - Which one of the following statements regarding raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding raloxifene in the management of osteoporosis is incorrect for elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Increases risk of thromboembolic events

      Correct Answer: Increases the risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The risk of breast cancer may be reduced by Raloxifene.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.

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  • Question 39 - A 49-year-old patient comes in with a severely tender and swollen big toe...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old patient comes in with a severely tender and swollen big toe on their left foot. The area is very sensitive to touch and moving the toe causes pain. The patient reports no fever and is able to move their toe in all directions despite the discomfort. They have a history of chronic kidney disease and are currently taking ramipril for hypertension. Additionally, they have had a past duodenal ulcer. What is the initial medication recommended for treatment?

      Your Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      Gout causes joint swelling, redness, and tenderness, which can be very painful. However, indomethacin and prednisolone should be avoided due to the individual’s history of duodenal ulcer. Naproxen can also worsen kidney function and exacerbate ulcer disease. While tramadol is an analgesic, it is not targeted specifically for joint disease. Colchicine is a suitable medication for treating gout in individuals with the mentioned co-morbidities.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

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  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of antiphospholipid syndrome presents with a swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of antiphospholipid syndrome presents with a swollen and painful leg. Doppler ultrasound confirms a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She had a previous DVT 6 months ago and was taking warfarin (with a target INR of 2-3) when the DVT occurred. How should her anticoagulation be managed?

      Your Answer: A further 6 months warfarin, target INR 3 - 4

      Correct Answer: Lifelong warfarin, increase target INR to 3 - 4

      Explanation:

      Although there is limited evidence available, many clinicians would recommend raising the target INR to 3-4 for patients who have experienced another thrombosis while maintaining an INR of 2-3. For further information, please refer to the BCSH guidelines.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical increase in the APTT due to an ex-vivo reaction of lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.

      Other features of antiphospholipid syndrome include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with other autoimmune disorders and lymphoproliferative disorders, as well as rare cases of phenothiazines. Management of antiphospholipid syndrome is based on EULAR guidelines, with primary thromboprophylaxis and low-dose aspirin being recommended. For secondary thromboprophylaxis, lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is recommended for initial venous thromboembolic events, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and may benefit from the addition of low-dose aspirin and an increased target INR of 3-4. Arterial thrombosis should also be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

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  • Question 41 - What is the most precise statement about the effectiveness of cervical spine X-rays...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most precise statement about the effectiveness of cervical spine X-rays in evaluating degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Cervical spine radiographs are a useful first line investigation where a diagnosis of DCM is suspected

      Correct Answer: Cervical spine radiographs cannot diagnose DCM

      Explanation:

      Degenerative Cervical Myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that affects the spinal cord in the neck region. It is caused by the compression of the spinal cord due to degenerative changes in the cervical spine. DCM is a common condition, with an estimated prevalence of 1-2% in the general population [1]. The condition is more common in older adults, with a peak incidence in the sixth decade of life [2].

      The pathophysiology of DCM involves the gradual degeneration of the cervical spine, which can lead to the compression of the spinal cord. This compression can cause a range of symptoms, including neck pain, arm pain, weakness, and numbness. In severe cases, DCM can lead to paralysis and loss of bladder and bowel control [2].

      Diagnosis of DCM requires the finding of MRI compression in conjunction with appropriate signs and symptoms. Asymptomatic degenerative disk disease and spondylosis of the cervical spine can be seen on MRI, but these findings alone do not indicate DCM [3].

      In conclusion, DCM is a common condition that affects the spinal cord in the neck region. It is caused by the compression of the spinal cord due to degenerative changes in the cervical spine. Diagnosis of DCM requires the finding of MRI compression in conjunction with appropriate signs and symptoms.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

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  • Question 42 - A 24-year-old kayaker complains of discomfort in the right distal dorsoradial forearm, approximately...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old kayaker complains of discomfort in the right distal dorsoradial forearm, approximately 5-10 cm away from the wrist joint. Upon examination, there is slight redness and swelling in the area. The patient experiences crepitus when moving their right hand. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carpo-metacarpal osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Intersection syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intersection Syndrome

      Intersection syndrome is a condition that occurs when the tendons of the extensor carpi radialis longus and the extensor carpi radialis brevis intersect with the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis muscles. This results in inflammation and tenosynovitis, which can cause pain in the distal dorsoradial forearm, around 5-10 cm proximal of the wrist joint. Swelling and erythema may also be present.

      It is important to note that intersection syndrome is often misdiagnosed as de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who engage in activities such as skiing, tennis, weightlifting, and canoeing.

      Fortunately, intersection syndrome can be managed with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), steroid injections, and physiotherapy. Surgical treatment is rarely required. By understanding the symptoms and causes of intersection syndrome, individuals can seek appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

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  • Question 43 - You encounter a 44 year old woman who complains of a painful, swollen...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 44 year old woman who complains of a painful, swollen left calf that has been bothering her for the past 2 days. Upon examination, she appears to be stable hemodynamically and has oxygen saturation levels of 98% on air. Her left leg is visibly inflamed, measuring 3 cm larger in diameter than her right leg, and she experiences tenderness along the deep venous system. After conducting a thorough history and physical examination, you calculate her two level Wells score to be 3. Given this score, what would be the most appropriate next step in her management, taking into account local resources?

      Your Answer: Arrange urgent hospital admission

      Correct Answer: Arrange a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan within the next four hours

      Explanation:

      If the patient has symptoms and signs of a left leg DVT and a 2-level DVT Wells score of ≥ 2 points, a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be arranged within 4 hours. It is important to rule out pulmonary embolus, but hospital admission may not be necessary if this is unlikely. If a scan cannot be done within 4 hours, a D-dimer test may be performed with interim treatment dose LMWH. NICE guidelines recommend a scan within 4 hours for a score of 3.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban nor rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

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  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney disease stage 3 due to type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney disease stage 3 due to type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of pain and swelling in his right first metatarsophalangeal joint. During examination, the joint is tender to touch, hot, and erythematous, but he can still flex his big toe. What is the best initial approach to managing this?

      Your Answer: Indomethacin

      Correct Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      If the creatinine clearance is below 50 ml/min, co-codamol 30/500 can be used in combination with other medications for pain relief. However, it should be avoided if the creatinine clearance is less than 10 ml/min. Using prednisolone as a standalone treatment may not provide sufficient pain relief, and it may also have a negative impact on the patient’s diabetic management.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

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  • Question 45 - You examine a femoral X-ray of a 14-year-old girl that you ordered yesterday....

    Incorrect

    • You examine a femoral X-ray of a 14-year-old girl that you ordered yesterday. She complained of persistent bone pain in her distal femur for the past month. The X-ray reveals destruction of the medullary and cortical bone in the distal femur. What is the recommended follow-up for this X-ray?

      Your Answer: Prescribe alendronate

      Correct Answer: Ensure patient is seen by a specialist within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral is required for specialist assessment of children and young people who have an X-ray indicating bone sarcoma, with a timeframe of less than 48 hours. This is particularly important for a child who presents with symptoms suggestive of osteosarcoma, as bony destruction is a typical finding. According to NICE guidelines, suspected cancer in children should be referred urgently within 48 hours, rather than the 2-week pathway for adults. Medications such as vitamin D, calcium, and alendronate are used to treat osteoporosis, which is not likely to be the primary cause of the child’s X-ray. If required, specialists may request a bone marrow biopsy, which cannot be performed at the GP surgery.

      Sarcomas: Types, Features, and Assessment

      Sarcomas are malignant tumors that originate from mesenchymal cells. They can either be bone or soft tissue in origin. Bone sarcomas include osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, and chondrosarcoma, while soft tissue sarcomas are a more diverse group that includes liposarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and synovial sarcomas. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is a sarcoma that can arise in both soft tissue and bone.

      Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, such as a large (>5cm) soft tissue mass, deep tissue or intramuscular location, rapid growth, and a painful lump. Imaging of suspicious masses should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Blind biopsy should not be performed prior to imaging, and where required, should be done in such a way that the biopsy tract can be subsequently included in any resection.

      Ewing’s sarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 0.3/1,000,000 and onset typically between 10 and 20 years of age. Osteosarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 5/1,000,000 and peak age 15-30. Liposarcoma is rare, with an incidence of approximately 2.5/1,000,000, and typically affects an older age group (>40 years of age). Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most common sarcoma in adults and is usually treated with surgical resection and adjuvant radiotherapy.

      In summary, sarcomas are a diverse group of malignant tumors that can arise from bone or soft tissue. Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, and imaging should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Treatment options vary depending on the type and location of the sarcoma.

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  • Question 46 - You are assessing a 65-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 65-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica and is undergoing treatment. She has been taking a gradually decreasing dose of prednisolone for the past 2 months. Currently, she is on a daily dose of 30 mg prednisolone, with a plan to decrease by 5mg each week. Although her symptoms are under control, she is concerned about the possibility of developing osteoporosis and asks if she should be on any medication for this. She has no history of fractures and no other risk factors for osteoporosis.

      What advice would you give her?

      Your Answer: Advise no action needed as will be finishing the course soon

      Correct Answer: Calculate the 10 year fragility fracture risk score to guide further investigation and treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who take the equivalent of 7.5mg prednisolone daily for 3 months or more are at risk of developing osteoporosis and require bone protection. In this case, the patient has already been on a higher dose of prednisolone for the past 2 months and will continue treatment for at least another 6 weeks, making her susceptible to osteoporosis. Therefore, it is crucial to evaluate her 10-year fragility fracture risk score. Abruptly reducing or stopping the prednisolone could be hazardous. While ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake is essential, the patient needs a comprehensive risk assessment and consideration of bisphosphonate therapy while still on steroids.

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

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  • Question 47 - A 25-year-old man wakes up on a Monday morning unable to extend his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man wakes up on a Monday morning unable to extend his wrist. He had consumed a large amount of alcohol the night before. What could be the probable reason for his weakness?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The cause of this man’s condition, known as ‘Saturday night palsy’, is the compression of the radial nerve against the humeral shaft. It is likely that this was caused by sleeping on a hard chair with his arm hanging over the back.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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  • Question 48 - A 35-year-old woman presents with low back pain that radiates down her legs....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with low back pain that radiates down her legs. She reports no loss of sensation or movement. Her ESR is elevated and serum rheumatoid factor is negative. X-ray of the spine reveals anterior squaring of the vertebrae.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Ankylosing Spondylitis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Lumbar Disc Prolapse, Spinal Stenosis, and Paget’s Disease

      When examining X-rays of the spine, certain abnormalities can suggest specific conditions. For example, irregularity and loss of cortical margins, widening of the joint space, and subsequent marginal sclerosis, narrowing, and fusion of the sacroiliac joint may indicate ankylosing spondylitis. Anterior squaring of the vertebrae, or loss of normal concavity of the anterior border of a vertebral body, may also be present in ankylosing spondylitis, particularly in the lumbar spine.

      Rheumatoid arthritis, on the other hand, typically affects peripheral joints such as the hips, knees, hands, and feet. It is more common in women and often presents in the fifth decade of life.

      Lumbar disc prolapse and spinal stenosis can both cause a reduction in joint space. Lumbar disc prolapse may present with sciatica, while spinal stenosis may cause pseudoclaudication, or discomfort and pain in the legs on walking that is relieved by rest and bending forwards. Spinal stenosis is more common in older individuals.

      Paget’s disease, which is typically diagnosed after the age of 40, may present with bone pain, deformity, deafness, and pathological fractures. While it can be associated with vertebral body squaring, it usually involves individual vertebrae. Diagnosis is established by a raised serum alkaline phosphatase level and normal liver function tests.

      In summary, careful examination of X-rays can help differentiate between various spinal conditions, including ankylosing spondylitis, rheumatoid arthritis, lumbar disc prolapse, spinal stenosis, and Paget’s disease.

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  • Question 49 - How should folic acid be prescribed for elderly patients taking methotrexate? ...

    Correct

    • How should folic acid be prescribed for elderly patients taking methotrexate?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 5 mg once weekly at least 24 hours after methotrexate dose

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, methotrexate is typically prescribed once a week and is often accompanied by a co-prescription of folic acid. This is done to minimize the risk of adverse effects and toxicity. Folic acid is taken on a day when methotrexate is not being taken. The British National Formulary recommends a weekly dose of 5mg for adults to prevent methotrexate-induced side effects in rheumatic disease. It is important to take the folic acid dose on a different day than the methotrexate dose.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

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  • Question 50 - You see a 25-year-old woman who is complaining of aches and pains in...

    Correct

    • You see a 25-year-old woman who is complaining of aches and pains in the joints of her hands.
      Her mother has just been diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) and she wants to know if she has it as well.

      In what age range would you expect to diagnose polymyalgia rheumatica?

      Your Answer: Over 50 years

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition Common in the Elderly

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is a condition that typically affects individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those over 70 years old. One of the core features of PMR is age greater than 50. The most common symptoms of PMR include bilateral shoulder and/or pelvic girdle aching that lasts for more than two weeks, morning stiffness lasting for more than 45 minutes, and raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein (CRP). It is important to note that these symptoms can also be present in other conditions, so a proper diagnosis is necessary.

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  • Question 51 - A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated in surgery. She has asthma that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated in surgery. She has asthma that is hard to manage and is presently on a tapering regimen of steroids. Her respiratory specialist has requested that you consider measures to protect her bones. Upon reviewing her medical history, it is discovered that she has undergone 11 rounds of oral prednisolone in the past year, some of which have lasted for more than a week. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Reassure her that she is very low risk

      Correct Answer: Arrange a DEXA scan

      Explanation:

      To protect the bones of patients who are taking corticosteroids, those who are under 65 years old should undergo a DEXA scan before any treatment is initiated. For those who are 65 years old or older, it is recommended to begin taking alendronate as a preventative measure.

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

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  • Question 52 - A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of lower back pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of lower back pain and a burning sensation in her right upper thigh that began 2 weeks ago. She reports that the pain is more noticeable when she stands for extended periods of time at work, but it doesn't interfere with her sleep. During a hip and knee examination, no motor abnormalities are detected. She speculates that the pain may be related to her recent participation in a spin class.

      What condition is likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Trochanteric bursitis

      Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica

      Explanation:

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition that occurs when the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh is compressed, resulting in burning and numbness in the upper lateral portion of the thigh. This condition typically affects only one side of the body and doesn’t cause any motor deficits. Symptoms may worsen with hip extension or prolonged standing, but sitting down can provide temporary relief.

      Femoral neuropathy, on the other hand, affects both the sensory and motor functions of the muscles innervated by the nerve. While burning pain and paraesthesia may be present, weakness in the legs, especially when climbing stairs, is also a common symptom. A hip and knee exam may reveal abnormalities such as weakness when extending or flexing these joints.

      Referred lumbar radiculopathy is another condition that can cause leg pain, but the pain is typically located in the back of the leg rather than the upper-lateral portion. The pain is often described as a shooting pain, and patients may also experience motor deficits.

      Superior cluneal nerve dysfunction can also cause burning pain and paraesthesia, but this condition affects the lower back and upper gluteal area rather than the thigh.

      Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.

      The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, leading to the development of meralgia paraesthetica. The condition is more common in men than women and is often seen in those with diabetes or obesity.

      Symptoms of meralgia paraesthetica include burning, tingling, numbness, and shooting pain in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. These symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. Diagnosis can be made through the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive, or through nerve conduction studies. Treatment options include injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic or surgical decompression.

      In conclusion, meralgia paraesthetica is a condition that can cause significant discomfort and restriction in patients. Understanding its causes, symptoms, and diagnostic methods can aid in its timely diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 53 - A 55-year-old woman complains of neck pain. Yesterday she was stopped at a...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of neck pain. Yesterday she was stopped at a red light when a car rear-ended her, causing her to jolt forward. She did not experience any neck pain immediately after the incident. However, it has gradually worsened since yesterday evening and she woke up with it today. Her neurological and musculoskeletal examinations are normal, and she has no tenderness in the midline of her cervical spine. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Offer oral analgesia

      Explanation:

      Management of Whiplash Neck Injury: Recommendations and Precautions

      Whiplash neck injuries are caused by sudden movements of the neck, such as extension, flexion, or rotation. To manage the pain associated with this injury, oral analgesics should be offered based on the severity of the pain, personal preferences, tolerability, and risk of adverse effects. However, certain factors such as age, mechanism of injury, paraesthesiae, tenderness, or altered consciousness may indicate a serious neck injury and require immediate assessment in the Emergency Department.

      While muscle relaxants like diazepam are not recommended for whiplash injuries, a cervical spine MRI may be useful in patients with upper limb radicular symptoms, weakness, radicular pain, myelopathy, or severe neck pain associated with a neurological deficit. Antidepressants like sertraline are not recommended for the management of whiplash injuries. Therefore, it is important to follow the recommended precautions and treatment options to ensure proper management of whiplash neck injuries.

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  • Question 54 - What is the most probable outcome of using allopurinol as the sole treatment...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable outcome of using allopurinol as the sole treatment for an acute gout attack?

      Your Answer: Worsening renal function

      Correct Answer: Exacerbation and/or prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol: A Drug for Gout Treatment

      Allopurinol is a medication used for the treatment of gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. It works by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is responsible for the production of uric acid. Allopurinol is typically prescribed after two or more gout attacks within a year or for individuals at higher risk with certain medical conditions. The drug should be started after the inflammation has settled and the dose should be titrated until the serum uric acid level is below 300 micromol/L. However, an abrupt lowering of urate levels can trigger an acute gout attack, so prophylactic treatment with a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug or colchicine is recommended. Allopurinol is not a uricosuric drug, so it can be used in people with poor kidney function, but lower doses are advisable. Febuxostat is an alternative for individuals who are intolerant to allopurinol.

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  • Question 55 - A 73-year-old man presents with back pain that is most severe in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man presents with back pain that is most severe in his lumbosacral spine. He has a past medical history of prostate cancer but has been managing well and is able to walk his dog daily without difficulty. During the physical examination, there is no tenderness over the back, but there is significant weakness in his right leg, specifically in knee extension. This is a new development. What steps should be taken next?

      Your Answer: Prescribe painkillers

      Correct Answer: Refer to hospital immediately

      Explanation:

      Spinal Cord Compression: A Serious Condition

      Spinal cord compression is a serious condition that needs immediate attention. It occurs when there is pressure on the spinal cord, which can lead to irreversible loss of power and bladder or bowel function. This condition is often seen in patients with a history of cancer and back pain and weakness.

      Symptoms and signs of spinal cord compression include radicular pain, limb weakness, difficulty in walking, sensory loss, and bladder or bowel dysfunction. Any delay in diagnosis and treatment can result in permanent damage to the spinal cord. An MRI scan is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

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  • Question 56 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-day history of a painful and swollen right knee. She is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.0 °C and has had chills. She mentions that she developed a painful left ear and saw her doctor six days ago who told her she had an ear infection and prescribed antibiotics. Her right knee is swollen, red, tender and slightly flexed. A diagnosis of septic arthritis is made.
      Which of the following is the single most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Septic Arthritis: Common Causal Organisms and Symptoms

      Septic arthritis is a condition resulting from joint infection with pyogenic organisms. The most common causal organism is Staphylococcus aureus, which enters the joint through the bloodstream from known sites of infection. Patients typically experience pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in a single joint, most commonly the knee. Aspiration and fluid culture are diagnostic, and immediate treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent cartilage destruction. Joint immobilization is also recommended. Patients with prior joint damage or prosthetic joints are at higher risk.

      Other causal organisms include Neisseria meningitides, which can cause polyarthropathy, fever, and skin changes; Haemophilus influenza, which is common in children under three years old; and Streptococcus pyogenes, a common organism in ear, nose, and throat infections. Gram-negative rods, such as Escherichia coli, are rare causes of septic arthritis. It is important to differentiate septic arthritis from other similar conditions, such as transient synovitis, especially in children.

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  • Question 57 - A 35-year-old man works for a removal firm. While manoeuvring a package through...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man works for a removal firm. While manoeuvring a package through a difficult space on the previous day, he felt pain in his lower back. Now he has persistent pain that is worse on movement but no other symptoms. He walks awkwardly into the room. He is reasonably comfortable in bed if he takes ibuprofen.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Advise bed rest

      Correct Answer: Advise to keep active

      Explanation:

      Active Rehabilitation for Low Back Pain: Advice and Referral Guidelines

      Low back pain, also known as mechanical low back pain, is a common condition that cannot be attributed to any specific pathology. In the past, rest was recommended for back pain, but current guidelines recommend active rehabilitation. This involves keeping the patient active and providing pain relief to facilitate this. Most people experience a reduction in pain within a month and can return to work in that time. However, there is a high risk of recurrence.

      Bed rest should not be recommended except in exceptional cases and for no longer than 48 hours. Physiotherapy should be considered if pain or disability persists for more than two weeks or if there is a risk of a poor outcome. Referral to the Accident & Emergency Department is only appropriate if there are red flag symptoms and signs suggesting cauda equina syndrome or a spinal fracture. Urgent orthopaedic referral is only necessary if there are red flag symptoms and signs suggesting cauda equina syndrome, spinal fracture, cancer, or infection. Psychological factors are also important in the transition from acute to chronic low back pain.

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  • Question 58 - A 42-year-old woman complains of increasing pain in her right hand and forearm...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of increasing pain in her right hand and forearm over the past few weeks. She denies any history of trauma. The pain is localized around her thumb and index finger and is particularly bothersome at night. Shaking her hand seems to alleviate some of the discomfort. Upon examination, there is weakness of the abductor pollicis brevis and decreased sensitivity to fine touch at the index finger. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cervical rib

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      A C6 entrapment neuropathy would likely result in more proximal symptoms, such as weakened biceps muscle or decreased biceps reflex. In exam questions, it is important to note that patients with carpal tunnel syndrome may experience relief from shaking their hands.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

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  • Question 59 - You come across a 79-year-old woman who has a medical history of diabetes,...

    Correct

    • You come across a 79-year-old woman who has a medical history of diabetes, osteoarthritis, and hypertension. She experienced pain while bearing weight after twisting her leg while getting out of a car. The pain has reduced with simple analgesia. She also mentions a lump under her knee. During the examination, you notice a non-tender 4 cm lump just below the popliteal fossa that becomes tense when the leg is extended. The patient has full power throughout. What could be the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Baker's cyst

      Explanation:

      The usual individual with a Baker’s cyst is someone who has arthritis or gout and has experienced a minor knee injury. When the knee is extended, Foucher’s sign indicates an increase in tension in the Baker’s cyst. It is important to consider the possibility of a DVT, which can imitate a Baker’s cyst. Furthermore, a DVT may coexist with a Baker’s cyst, and an ultrasound should be performed with a low threshold.

      Knee Problems in Older Adults

      As people age, they become more susceptible to knee problems. Osteoarthritis of the knee is a common condition in older adults, especially those who are overweight. It is characterized by severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling.

      Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may occur due to twisting of the knee, often accompanied by a popping noise and rapid onset of knee effusion. A positive draw test is used to diagnose this condition. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as hitting the knee on the dashboard during a car accident.

      Collateral ligament injuries are characterized by tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and are often accompanied by locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help older adults seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

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  • Question 60 - An 80-year-old woman with a limp presents to you with heel pain that...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman with a limp presents to you with heel pain that started after she hurried to catch a bus five days ago. You suspect a ruptured Achilles tendon. She has a medical history of temporal arteritis and is currently taking prednisolone 10 mg per day. Additionally, she is on an antibiotic prescribed during her last hospital visit, but she cannot recall the name of the medication nor does she have it with her. Which antibiotic is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Quinolones and Achilles Tendon Damage

      Achilles tendon damage is a well-known side effect of quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin and ofloxacin. This risk is particularly high in individuals over the age of 60, heart, lung, or kidney transplant recipients, and patients taking corticosteroids. Patients with a history of tendon disorders related to quinolone use should not take these antibiotics. If tendonitis is suspected, the use of quinolones should be discontinued immediately. It is important to note that other antibiotics do not cause tendon damage and are safe to use. By being aware of the risks associated with quinolones, healthcare providers can make informed decisions when prescribing antibiotics to their patients.

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  • Question 61 - A 15-year-old boy who is active in sports comes to you for consultation...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy who is active in sports comes to you for consultation after seeing your colleague 4 weeks ago due to right knee pain. He plays basketball and had a fall during a game 6 weeks ago. Despite the initial consultation, his pain has not subsided and he experiences discomfort at night, which affects his sleep. During the examination, you detect a solid, immovable lump on his distal femur. What would be the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Referral to physiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Urgent XR of right knee (within 48 hours)

      Explanation:

      When an adolescent experiences persistent night time pain and has a palpable bony mass, it is important to consider the possibility of a bone tumour until proven otherwise. The NICE guidelines for childhood cancer recommend obtaining an urgent X-ray within 48 hours for suspected sarcoma. Referring the patient to physiotherapy or providing reassurance is not appropriate as it doesn’t address the concerning symptoms. Ultrasound is not the most suitable imaging modality for bone pain and swelling. Urgent outpatient orthopaedic referral is also not the correct answer as it may cause delays in further investigation and management.

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Benign and malignant bone tumours are two types of bone tumours. Benign bone tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a benign overgrowth of bone that usually occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, the most common benign bone tumour, is a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma that occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones.

      Malignant bone tumours are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and is associated with t(11;22) translocation. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age.

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  • Question 62 - A 32-year-old female patient visits her GP for a follow-up on her metacarpophalangeal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient visits her GP for a follow-up on her metacarpophalangeal joint pain. She has been taking ibuprofen which has provided some relief. Upon examination, the doctor observes swelling and tenderness in the metacarpophalangeal joint on one side, indicating synovitis. The patient's vital signs are normal and she doesn't have a fever. Blood tests are ordered and the patient is scheduled for a subsequent review.

      What would be the next best course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer routinely to rheumatology

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to rheumatology

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to refer any patient who presents with new synovitis to a rheumatologist urgently for evaluation. This is because the patient may have an inflammatory joint disease that requires immediate attention. The rheumatologist can conduct blood tests to check for related auto-immune antibodies, including Antinuclear antibody and rheumatoid factor, while the patient is being referred.

      In case the patient is febrile or has risk factors for septic arthritis, such as intravenous drug use, it would be useful to organise joint aspiration. However, it is best to leave this decision to the rheumatologist.

      It is not advisable to reassure the patient and avoid referring them to a specialist. Early identification and treatment of inflammatory arthropathy can prevent long-term functional impairment.

      Referring the patient to rheumatology is necessary and should be done urgently. Delaying the referral can lead to the loss of hand function and other debilitating effects of untreated inflammatory arthritis.

      Referring the patient to the emergency department is not required unless the patient is febrile and hypotensive.

      Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria. However, the American College of Rheumatology has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis. These criteria require the presence of at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The score is based on factors such as the number and type of joints involved, serology (presence of rheumatoid factor or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody), acute-phase reactants (such as CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. These criteria are used to classify patients with rheumatoid arthritis for research and clinical purposes.

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  • Question 63 - Which of the following results is atypical in a patient with antiphospholipid syndrome?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following results is atypical in a patient with antiphospholipid syndrome?

      Your Answer: Prolonged APTT

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by arterial and venous thrombosis, miscarriage, and livedo reticularis. Additionally, thrombocytopenia is a common feature of this syndrome.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical increase in the APTT due to an ex-vivo reaction of lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.

      Other features of antiphospholipid syndrome include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with other autoimmune disorders and lymphoproliferative disorders, as well as rare cases of phenothiazines. Management of antiphospholipid syndrome is based on EULAR guidelines, with primary thromboprophylaxis and low-dose aspirin being recommended. For secondary thromboprophylaxis, lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is recommended for initial venous thromboembolic events, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and may benefit from the addition of low-dose aspirin and an increased target INR of 3-4. Arterial thrombosis should also be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

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  • Question 64 - According to probability, what is the most probable cause of a fall in...

    Correct

    • According to probability, what is the most probable cause of a fall in an elderly person? Please

      Your Answer: Environmental hazards

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Falls in the Elderly: Environmental Hazards and Other Factors

      Falls are a common and serious problem among the elderly, with significant consequences such as increased morbidity, mortality, and nursing home placement. While there are many risk factors for falls, including muscle weakness, medication use, and cognitive impairment, environmental hazards are a major cause, accounting for 31% of falls. Loose rugs, poor lighting, and clutter are just a few examples of hazards that can contribute to falls.

      Other factors that contribute to falls include gait and balance disorders, dizziness and vertigo, and confusion. Postural hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, is also a common cause of falls, often due to medication use. Vasovagal syncope, a reflex-mediated autonomic failure, can also cause falls in the elderly.

      Visual impairment is another significant risk factor for falls, as it can affect perception of environmental elements. Individuals with visual impairment are almost twice as likely to fall compared to those with normal vision.

      To prevent falls, it is important to address all risk factors, including environmental hazards, through exercise, medication review, vision assessment, and home safety modifications. By understanding the causes of falls in the elderly, we can take steps to prevent them and improve the health and well-being of older adults.

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  • Question 65 - An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures due to osteoporosis is worried about her own risk. What is the best method to evaluate her risk?

      Your Answer: Order an x-ray of her hips and lumbar spine

      Correct Answer: Assess her using the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Although radiographs can reveal osteopenia, they are insufficient for accurately assessing the extent of osteopenia/osteoporosis. Normal calcium and phosphate levels are observed in osteoporosis.

      The tool for Birmingham Hip Score doesn’t exist.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

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  • Question 66 - A 35-year-old woman recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has increasing joint pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has increasing joint pain and stiffness throughout the day.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints. The following are some of the treatment options available for managing this condition:

      Oral Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)
      NSAIDs are the first-line medication recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for managing ankylosing spondylitis. They help to reduce pain and stiffness in the affected joints.

      Corticosteroid Injection
      Intra-articular steroid injections can be used to treat a flare of ankylosing spondylitis that has not responded to oral NSAIDs or other oral treatments. However, repeated injections are associated with risks such as joint infection.

      Oral Corticosteroids
      Oral corticosteroids can be used to treat symptoms that are not responding to other oral treatments. However, their use is limited due to the multiple complications and side effects associated with long-term use.

      Paracetamol and Codeine
      If patients have an allergy, severe asthma, or a high risk for gastrointestinal bleeding, alternative analgesia should be considered, such as paracetamol and codeine.

      Tumour Necrosis Factor (TNF)-Alpha Inhibitor
      TNF-alpha inhibitors are used to treat ankylosing spondylitis in patients whose symptoms are not controlled on other treatments. However, they must be prescribed and monitored in secondary care.

      Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis: Treatment Options

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  • Question 67 - Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who has presented with left groin pain. She...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who has presented with left groin pain. She has also noticed a clicking sensation in her hip when she moves. She is a keen runner and is unable to participate in races. She thinks the pain may have started after a twisting injury she had during one of her runs. On examination, you notice that she complains of pain adduction and internal rotation of the hip. She is afebrile, and there is no pain on palpation of the outside of the hip and no joint swelling. A recent X-ray of her hip was normal.

      What could be a possible cause of Sarah's pain?

      Your Answer: Acetabula labral tear

      Explanation:

      Hip and groin pain accompanied by a snapping sensation are common symptoms of acetabular labral tears. On the other hand, plain radiographs can reveal left hip osteoarthritis and an acetabular fracture. Septic arthritis is characterized by hip swelling and fever, while trochanteric bursitis typically causes pain when the side of the hip is palpated. Acetabular labral tears are a mechanical cause of hip pain that may result from minor injuries like twisting or falling. Diagnosis usually requires an MRI.

      Acetabular labral tear is a condition that can occur due to trauma or degenerative changes. Younger adults are more likely to experience this condition as a result of trauma, while older adults may develop it due to degenerative changes. The main symptoms of this condition include hip and groin pain, a snapping sensation around the hip, and occasional locking sensations.

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  • Question 68 - A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent back pain. He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent back pain. He has a history of disc prolapse due to his previous manual labor job. The patient reports that he experienced sudden lower back pain while bending over to pick something up.

      During the examination, the patient showed reduced sensation on the posterolateral aspect of his left leg and lateral foot. The straight leg raise test resulted in pain in his thigh, buttock, and calf region. Additionally, there was weakness on plantar flexion with reduced ankle reflexes.

      What type of root compression has this patient experienced?

      Your Answer: L3 nerve root compression

      Correct Answer: S1 nerve root compression

      Explanation:

      The observed symptoms suggest the presence of a spinal disc prolapse, which is causing sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. L5 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, S1 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. The first-line treatment is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia (e.g., duloxetine). If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate.

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  • Question 69 - Sarah, a 13-year-old girl presented with hip pain, particularly when walking. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 13-year-old girl presented with hip pain, particularly when walking. The pain had been progressively worsening. She also reported a snapping sensation in her hip when moving. Sarah has a history of recurrent dislocations in her left shoulder, but no previous diagnosis of congenital hip dysplasia. Her father has been diagnosed with Ehler-Danlos syndrome.

      During the hip examination, Sarah displayed normal active and passive movement with no limitations in range of motion. There was no swelling in the joint. What is a useful method for assessing hypermobility?

      Your Answer: Galeazzi test

      Correct Answer: Beighton score

      Explanation:

      The Beighton score is a valuable method for evaluating hypermobility, with a positive result indicating at least 5 out of 9 criteria met in adults or at least 6 out of 9 in children. In contrast, Schirmer’s test is commonly employed to diagnose Sjogren syndrome, while plain radiographs and MRI scans are not effective for assessing hypermobility.

      Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue, specifically type III collagen. This causes the tissue to be more elastic than usual, resulting in increased skin elasticity and joint hypermobility. Common symptoms include fragile skin, easy bruising, and recurrent joint dislocation. Additionally, individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome may be at risk for serious complications such as aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse, aortic dissection, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and angioid retinal streaks.

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  • Question 70 - A 55-year-old man experiences chronic and severe pain due to a brachial plexus...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man experiences chronic and severe pain due to a brachial plexus injury from a motorcycle accident. Despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen, he has not found any relief. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should be considered as the most suitable option?

      Your Answer: Gabapentin, duloxetine or topical lidocaine

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and doesn’t respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      In 2013, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance on the management of neuropathic pain. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment doesn’t work, patients may be switched to one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, they should be switched rather than added to.

      Tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that the guidance may vary for specific conditions. For example, carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.

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  • Question 71 - An 80-year-old woman has had Paget's disease of bone for at least 10...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman has had Paget's disease of bone for at least 10 years. She has complained of a worsening pain at rest around her lower back and hip area. You arrange an X ray which shows a destructive mass in the bony pelvis.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of Bone

      Paget’s disease of bone is a condition that typically affects individuals in later life. It occurs when the normal repair process of bone is disrupted, leading to the formation of weak bones that are prone to fractures. Specifically, the repair process ends at the stage of vascular osteoid bone, which is not as strong as fully mineralized bone.

      Unfortunately, Paget’s disease of bone can also lead to complications such as osteogenic sarcoma, which occurs in approximately 5% of cases. As such, it is important for individuals with Paget’s disease to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to prevent and manage potential complications. By understanding the underlying mechanisms of Paget’s disease and its associated risks, individuals can take steps to protect their bone health and overall well-being.

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  • Question 72 - A 55-year-old man playing squash suddenly experiences a snap in his right lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man playing squash suddenly experiences a snap in his right lower calf, causing acute severe pain. He develops localised swelling and bruising behind the ankle and is unable to stand on his toes on that side. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Deep vein thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Achilles tendon rupture

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Achilles Tendon Rupture from Other Lower Leg Injuries

      Achilles tendon rupture is a common injury that can be easily misdiagnosed as other lower leg injuries. The hallmark of Achilles tendon rupture is a sudden onset of pain followed by a dull ache. A palpable defect in the Achilles tendon may be present on examination, but bruising can mask the defect. Active plantar flexion is weak or absent, and Thompson’s test can confirm a complete tendon rupture. Treatment options include surgical repair or non-surgical approaches such as casting or splinting.

      It is important to differentiate Achilles tendon rupture from other lower leg injuries such as Achilles tendinopathy, deep vein thrombosis, retrocalcaneal bursitis, and rupture of a Baker’s cyst. Achilles tendinopathy is a chronic overuse injury with gradual onset of pain and tenderness between 2-6 cm above the calcaneal insertion. Deep vein thrombosis presents with limb pain and tenderness along the deep veins, unilateral calf or leg swelling, and pitting edema. Retrocalcaneal bursitis causes pain on the back of the heel and swelling medial or lateral to the tendon. Rupture of a Baker’s cyst can mimic deep vein thrombosis with pain and swelling of the calf, but may also cause bruising below the medial malleolus of the ankle.

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  • Question 73 - A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle of her right humerus for a few weeks. The pain radiates into her forearm and is aggravated by resisted dorsiflexion of her wrist. What is the most cost-effective management option for her in the long-term (12 months)?

      Your Answer: Surgical release of the extensor origin

      Correct Answer: Wait-and-see approach with analgesia

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: A Comparison of Effectiveness and Costs

      Tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, is a common condition that causes pain and tenderness on the outer part of the elbow. In a randomized controlled trial, three treatment options were compared: physiotherapy, corticosteroid injections, and a wait-and-see policy with analgesia.

      At six weeks, corticosteroid injections showed the most significant improvement in symptoms, but the benefits were short-lived. At 52 weeks, physiotherapy was found to be superior to corticosteroid injections for all outcome measures. The wait-and-see policy also showed beneficial long-term effects compared with corticosteroid injections.

      While physiotherapy may be the most effective treatment option, it is also the most expensive. A wait-and-see policy with adequate advice and provision of analgesia may be enough for most patients, as nearly 90% of patients will recover within one year.

      Acupuncture and surgical release of the extensor origin are not recommended due to limited evidence. Clinicians should discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each option with their patients to determine the best course of treatment.

      Comparing Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: Which is Most Effective and Cost-Efficient?

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  • Question 74 - Sophie is a 26-year-old woman who has come to you with a rash...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 26-year-old woman who has come to you with a rash on her cheeks and bridge of her nose. She has also been experiencing nonspecific muscle and joint aches and extreme fatigue.

      You order some blood tests to investigate any potential systemic causes, with a particular concern for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).

      Which of the following positive blood test results would strongly indicate a diagnosis of SLE?

      Your Answer: Anti-CCP

      Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA

      Explanation:

      The anti-dsDNA test is highly specific for detecting lupus, making it useful in ruling out systemic lupus erythematosus if the results are negative. On the other hand, anti-CCP is used to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis, while anti-La is primarily found in patients with Sjogren’s syndrome, but can also be present in those with lupus. However, it is not very specific. Interestingly, babies born to mothers with anti-La and anti-Ro antibodies are at a higher risk of developing neonatal lupus. ANCA is an antibody that targets neutrophils and is commonly seen in patients with autoimmune vasculitis.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

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  • Question 75 - You see a 35-year-old lady who reports episodes of paresthesia in her right...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 35-year-old lady who reports episodes of paresthesia in her right thumb, index and middle finger. This often happens at night time. Examination is unremarkable but the patient can recreate the symptoms by keeping her wrists at the extreme of flexion for about 30 seconds.

      What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Naproxen

      Correct Answer: Wrist splint

      Explanation:

      Management of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be managed through lifestyle modifications and wrist splinting in the neutral position. Lifestyle modifications involve avoiding repetitive tasks that may trigger symptoms. Wrist splints can be purchased over-the-counter and are the first line of management. Nerve conduction studies are not typically necessary unless there is uncertainty in the diagnosis. Referral is advised in cases of severe symptoms, unclear diagnosis, recurrence after surgery, failure of conservative management, or if the patient requests a referral. For a full list of referral criteria, please refer to the link below.

      Overall, the management of carpal tunnel syndrome involves simple lifestyle changes and the use of wrist splints. Referral is only necessary in certain cases, as outlined by NICE guidelines.

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  • Question 76 - You encounter a 35-year-old woman who is experiencing lower back pain. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 35-year-old woman who is experiencing lower back pain. She reports that the pain began two months ago, but over the past week, it has started to radiate down her left leg. She cannot recall any specific incident that may have caused the pain. Currently, the leg pain is more severe than the back pain. The pain starts from her buttock and extends down the back of her leg and into her foot. She occasionally experiences a tingling sensation down the back of her leg. She finds that standing for extended periods exacerbates the pain. She is typically healthy, with no significant medical history, but she is overweight.

      Upon examination, you perform a straight leg raise test, which elicits symptoms. Aside from that, her examination is normal, and she doesn't exhibit any red flag symptoms.

      You diagnose the patient with sciatica and provide self-management advice, including weight loss, exercise, and analgesia.

      The patient inquires about the duration of these symptoms. Typically, how long does it take for sciatica symptoms to resolve?

      Your Answer: 3-4 months

      Correct Answer: 4-6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Typically, sciatica symptoms resolve themselves within a period of 4 to 6 weeks.

      Understanding Lower Back Pain and its Possible Causes

      Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. Although most cases are due to nonspecific muscular issues, it is important to consider possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Some red flags to watch out for include age below 20 or above 50 years, a history of previous malignancy, night pain, history of trauma, and systemic symptoms such as weight loss and fever.

      There are several specific causes of lower back pain that healthcare providers should be aware of. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, with pain typically worse in the morning and on standing. On examination, there may be pain over the facets, which is typically worse on extension of the back. Spinal stenosis, on the other hand, usually has a gradual onset and presents with unilateral or bilateral leg pain (with or without back pain), numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking and resolves when sitting down. Ankylosing spondylitis is typically seen in young men who present with lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arthritis is also common in this condition. Finally, peripheral arterial disease presents with pain on walking that is relieved by rest, and may be accompanied by absent or weak foot pulses and other signs of limb ischaemia. A past history of smoking and other vascular diseases may also be present.

      In summary, lower back pain is a common presentation in clinical practice, and healthcare providers should be aware of the possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. By identifying red flags and conducting a thorough examination, providers can help ensure that patients receive appropriate care and management.

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  • Question 77 - A 65-year-old gentleman presents with a complaint of 'pain in his right elbow'...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman presents with a complaint of 'pain in his right elbow' for the last six to eight weeks. He points to his elbow and triceps area when asked to identify the main site of his symptoms. He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, angina and osteoarthritis affecting his knees.

      He reports that the pain is worse at night and he is unable to lie on the affected side as this aggravates his pain. He feels that his arm is stiff and sore to move. He cannot remember a specific trigger for the symptoms. He is a retired plumber and tells you that about 10 years ago he was treated with a steroid injection for tennis elbow which seemed to settle things.

      There is no focal tenderness around the elbow which has a full range of movement and appears normal to examination. What is the next most appropriate approach in this patient?

      Your Answer: Request a musculoskeletal ultrasound of the elbow

      Correct Answer: Examine his shoulder

      Explanation:

      Importance of Examining Joints Above and Below in Orthopaedic Cases

      This case emphasizes the significance of examining the joints above and below when an orthopaedic issue arises. The patient reports experiencing pain in the elbow and triceps region, with a history of tennis elbow. However, there are no clinical indications that suggest a recurrence of this problem.

      In such cases, it is crucial to examine the shoulder as well. For instance, if the patient is diabetic and has a stiff or sore arm with nocturnal pain in the upper arm, it could be a frozen shoulder. Therefore, examining the joints above and below the affected area is essential to identify the root cause of the problem and provide appropriate treatment. Proper examination and diagnosis can help prevent further complications and ensure a speedy recovery.

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  • Question 78 - A 28-year-old woman complains of sudden pain in her left elbow and right...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman complains of sudden pain in her left elbow and right ankle. She also reports experiencing dysuria, conjunctivitis, and fever. She returned from a trip to South America 4 weeks ago where she had unprotected sex. She has developed hard tender papules, scaly plaques, and pustules on her hands.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Between Arthritis Types: A Brief Overview

      Arthritis can present in various forms, making it crucial to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here are some key features to look out for:

      Reactive Arthritis: This type is characterized by a triad of nonspecific urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis. It may follow bacterial dysentery or exposure to sexually transmitted infections. Patients may also have Achilles tendonitis or plantar fasciitis, as well as circinate balanitis, keratoderma blenorrhagica, and skin lesions on the hands and feet.

      Gonococcal Arthritis: This is a rare type of arthritis caused by disseminated gonococcal infection. It presents with asymmetric migratory arthralgia, which tends to involve the upper extremities more than the lower extremities. Symptoms may resolve spontaneously or evolve into septic arthritis.

      HIV-Associated Psoriasis and Psoriatic Arthritis: Patients with HIV may experience more severe symptoms of psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis than non-HIV-infected patients. Reactive arthritis can also be severe in HIV-infected patients.

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Patients with psoriatic arthritis share many features with those with reactive arthritis, including histologically identical skin lesions. However, patients with psoriasis have fewer constitutional symptoms but may have an asymmetric pattern, sausage digits, and distal interphalangeal joint involvement.

      Syphilitic Arthritis: This is a rare late feature of syphilis and presents as monoarthritis.

      By understanding the unique features of each type of arthritis, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and management for their patients.

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  • Question 79 - A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of thoracic back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of thoracic back pain at night. He reports that the pain has been present for a few months and has recently worsened over the past two weeks. He denies any other symptoms and states that he generally feels well. He has no history of limb weakness, walking difficulties, pins and needles, or bladder and bowel problems. Additionally, he has never had any previous back injuries.
      The patient's medical history includes childhood asthma, mild osteoarthritis of the fingers and knees, and prostate cancer three years ago.
      Upon examination, there is tenderness over the thoracic spine area, and he experiences discomfort on flexion. Straight leg raising is normal, and there are no neurological abnormalities in the limbs.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Request plain radiograph of the spine

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to oncology

      Explanation:

      Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression: A Medical Emergency

      Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) is a medical emergency that should be considered in all cancer patients with back pain. Back pain is the most common sign, occurring in 90% of cases and may pre-date neurological changes by a considerable length of time. However, once neurological symptoms and signs are present, such as leg weakness, increased reflexes, a sensory ‘level’ and sphincter disturbance, the prognosis for recovery with treatment (surgery or radiotherapy) is much poorer.

      NICE guidelines on metastatic spinal cord compression (CG75) advise contacting the MSCC coordinator urgently (within 24 hours) to discuss the care of patients with cancer and any symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases. These symptoms include pain in the middle or upper spine, progressive lower spinal pain, severe unremitting lower spinal pain, spinal pain aggravated by straining, localised spinal tenderness, or nocturnal spinal pain preventing sleep.

      It is worth noting that 77% of people diagnosed with MSCC have an established diagnosis of cancer, where 23% present with MSCC as the first presentation of malignancy. This medical emergency can occur in any area of the spine, and prompt recognition and treatment are essential for the best possible outcome. Therefore, it is crucial to contact the MSCC coordinator immediately to discuss the care of patients with cancer and symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases who have any neurological symptoms or signs suggestive of MSCC.

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  • Question 80 - A 47-year-old male has been diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome. He suffers...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male has been diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome. He suffers with significant pain around his foot and ankle, which started after ankle surgery. He has been reviewed by orthopaedics and a specialist pain clinic.

      What management options are recommended for his condition?

      Your Answer: Triptans

      Correct Answer: Physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      For patients with complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), early physiotherapy is a highly recommended management option. It is often necessary to involve a pain specialist and provide ongoing neuropathic analgesia.

      Although counselling may be beneficial for chronic pain, it is not a recommended treatment option. Referring patients to psychiatry is not appropriate as there is no clear evidence of a mental health issue.

      Opiate analgesia and triptans are not recommended for CRPS management.

      Understanding Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

      Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that cause neurological and related symptoms following surgery or minor injury. It is more common in women, and there are two types: type I, where there is no visible nerve lesion, and type II, where there is a lesion to a major nerve.

      Symptoms of CRPS include progressive and disproportionate pain to the original injury or surgery, allodynia, changes in skin color and temperature, swelling, sweating, and motor dysfunction. The Budapest Diagnostic Criteria are commonly used in the UK to diagnose CRPS.

      Early physiotherapy is important in managing CRPS, along with neuropathic analgesia in line with NICE guidelines. Specialist management from a pain team is also required. Understanding CRPS and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.

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  • Question 81 - A 49-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her elbow discomfort. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her elbow discomfort. She recently spent time painting her home. During the examination, the doctor notices pain around the lateral epicondyle and suspects lateral epicondylitis. Which of the following movements would typically exacerbate the pain?

      Your Answer: Pronation of the forearm with the elbow flexed

      Correct Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis is aggravated when the wrist is extended or supinated against resistance while the elbow is extended.

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that usually occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged between 45 and 55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The condition is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle, which is worsened by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended.

      Episodes of lateral epicondylitis usually last between six months and two years, with patients experiencing acute pain for six to twelve weeks. To manage the condition, patients are advised to avoid muscle overload, take simple analgesia, undergo steroid injection, or receive physiotherapy. With proper management, patients can recover from lateral epicondylitis and return to their normal activities.

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  • Question 82 - A 56-year-old woman who has had two Colle's fractures in the past two...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman who has had two Colle's fractures in the past two years undergoes a DEXA scan:

      T-score
      L2-4 -1.4
      Femoral neck -2.7

      What is the result of the scan?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis in vertebrae, osteopaenia in femoral neck

      Correct Answer: Osteopaenia in vertebrae, osteoporosis in femoral neck

      Explanation:

      Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis

      When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.

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  • Question 83 - A 65-year-old retired farmer contacts his GP seeking advice on preventing gout. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old retired farmer contacts his GP seeking advice on preventing gout. Despite making dietary changes and limiting alcohol consumption, he has experienced four flares in the past year. The patient has a BMI of 28 kg/m² and is attempting to lower it through lifestyle modifications. He has a controlled hiatus hernia with omeprazole and no other underlying health issues or medications. His most recent gout attack occurred six weeks ago, and his latest blood test revealed a urate level of 498 micromol/L. What is the most appropriate treatment in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Start allopurinol

      Correct Answer: Start allopurinol + colchicine

      Explanation:

      According to current NICE guidelines, patients with gout who experience two or more attacks per year should receive urate-lowering therapy (ULT). When starting ULT, it is recommended to also prescribe colchicine cover for up to six months. If colchicine is not suitable, an alternative option is to consider NSAID cover.

      While high-dose prednisolone can effectively treat acute gout, low-dose prednisolone is not recommended for gout prevention due to the negative effects of long-term corticosteroid use.

      Although NSAIDs like naproxen or ibuprofen can be used to treat gout, this may not be the best option for someone with a history of hiatus hernia. Unlike xanthine oxidase inhibitors such as allopurinol or febuxostat, NSAIDs are not considered ULT and are therefore not suitable for gout prevention.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

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  • Question 84 - You assess an 80-year-old woman who was initiated on alendronate following vertebral wedge...

    Incorrect

    • You assess an 80-year-old woman who was initiated on alendronate following vertebral wedge fractures. She discloses that she discontinued the medication due to intolerable side effects. What alternative treatment options do you suggest?

      Your Answer: Strontium ranelate

      Correct Answer: Risedronate

      Explanation:

      Alendronate is the preferred bisphosphonate for individuals who are at risk of fragility fractures, with risedronate being the second-line option if alendronate is not well-tolerated. Both medications can be prescribed in either weekly or smaller daily doses. If a patient is unable to tolerate either alendronate or risedronate, they should be referred to a specialist for consideration of alternative treatments such as strontium ranelate or raloxifene. Hormone replacement therapy is typically only used for preventing fragility fractures in women who have experienced menopause before the age of 45 and is only continued until age 50.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.

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  • Question 85 - A twelve-year-old girl is presented by her mother with a one-year history of...

    Incorrect

    • A twelve-year-old girl is presented by her mother with a one-year history of low back pain related to physical activity. During sports activities at school, she sometimes has to take a break but can usually continue after a few minutes of rest. There are no red flag symptoms, and her neurological examination of the lower limbs is normal.

      During the examination, you observe a curvature of her spine and diagnose scoliosis. You plan to refer her to the local pediatric orthopedic department. What diagnostic investigation would confirm her condition?

      Your Answer: X-ray whole spine

      Correct Answer: No investigation necessary

      Explanation:

      Scoliosis can be diagnosed through clinical examination alone and doesn’t require further imaging or investigations. While X-rays and MRIs can assist in managing the condition, they are not essential for diagnosis. Therefore, no investigations are necessary.

      CT scans are not recommended for young people as they expose them to high levels of radiation.

      MRI is not the best imaging tool for examining bones, but it may be necessary for young people experiencing back pain if nerve or spinal cord issues are suspected.

      While an X-ray of the entire spine can provide valuable information, it exposes the patient to significant levels of radiation. A targeted X-ray of the lumbosacral spine may be more appropriate, but it is still not necessary for diagnosis.

      Diseases Affecting the Vertebral Column

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects the axial skeleton, with sacro-ilitis being visible in plain films. Scheuermann’s disease is an epiphysitis of the vertebral joints that predominantly affects adolescents, with symptoms including back pain and stiffness. Scoliosis consists of curvature of the spine in the coronal plane, with structural scoliosis affecting more than one vertebral body and being the most common type. Spina bifida is a non-fusion of the vertebral arches during embryonic development, with myelomeningocele being the most severe type. Spondylolysis is a congenital or acquired deficiency of the pars interarticularis of a particular vertebral body, while spondylolisthesis occurs when one vertebra is displaced relative to its immediate inferior vertebral body.

      Overview of Diseases Affecting the Vertebral Column

      The vertebral column is susceptible to various diseases that can affect its structure and function. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects the axial skeleton, while Scheuermann’s disease predominantly affects adolescents and causes back pain and stiffness. Scoliosis is a curvature of the spine that can be structural or non-structural, with idiopathic being the most common type. Spina bifida is a non-fusion of the vertebral arches during embryonic development, and spondylolysis is a deficiency of the pars interarticularis of a particular vertebral body. Spondylolisthesis occurs when one vertebra is displaced relative to its immediate inferior vertebral body. Understanding these diseases can aid in their diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 86 - Which of the following features is not typically seen in Marfan's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is not typically seen in Marfan's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Pectus excavatum

      Correct Answer: Learning difficulties

      Explanation:

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      Individuals with Marfan’s syndrome often have a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05. They may also have a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, they may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm, which can lead to aortic dissection and aortic regurgitation. Other symptoms may include repeated pneumothoraces (collapsed lung), upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, myopia, and ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and medication such as beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, the life expectancy has significantly improved. Despite this, cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.

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  • Question 87 - A 75-year-old woman is being evaluated. She experienced a wrist fracture 2 years...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is being evaluated. She experienced a wrist fracture 2 years ago and underwent a DEXA scan, which revealed a T-score of -2.6 SD. Calcium and vitamin D supplements were initiated, and she was prescribed oral alendronate, but it was discontinued due to oesophagitis. According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action now?

      Your Answer: Start hormone replacement therapy

      Correct Answer: Switch to risedronate

      Explanation:

      According to the 2008 NICE guidelines, if a patient cannot tolerate alendronate, it is recommended to switch to risedronate or etidronate.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.

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  • Question 88 - A 48-year-old man has pain on the underside of his right heel that...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man has pain on the underside of his right heel that is worse when he takes his first few steps of the day. He is locally tender just in front of the calcaneum on the medial side of the foot. Attempting to stand on his toes reproduces the pain.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Morton’s neuroma

      Correct Answer: Plantar fasciitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Plantar Fasciitis from Other Foot Conditions

      Plantar fasciitis is a common foot condition that causes pain and inflammation in the connective tissue on the sole of the foot. It is often caused by overuse of the arch tendon or plantar fascia. The pain is typically felt near the heel, where stress is greatest and the fascia is thinnest. While an X-ray is not necessary for diagnosis, it may be used to rule out other conditions. Treatment options include rest, pain relief, arch supports, physiotherapy, and corticosteroid injections. Most people experience improvement within a year. It is important to distinguish plantar fasciitis from other foot conditions, such as Achilles tendinitis, Morton’s neuroma, stress fractures of the calcaneum, and tarsal tunnel syndrome, which have different symptoms and require different treatments.

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  • Question 89 - A 42-year-old woman reports to her General Practitioner with complaints of lateral left...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman reports to her General Practitioner with complaints of lateral left elbow pain while lifting books at work with her forearm pronated. She experiences tenderness at the insertion of the common extensor tendon and pain with resisted wrist extension. What is the most suitable course of action to enhance this patient's long-term prognosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Botulinum toxin injections

      Correct Answer: Reducing lifting

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tennis Elbow: Managing Symptoms and Long-Term Prognosis

      Tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, is a painful condition that can be triggered by certain activities, such as lifting objects. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends modifying these activities to alleviate symptoms. However, in severe cases, other treatment options may be necessary.

      Botulinum toxin A injections can be effective in paralyzing the affected fingers, but the resulting paralysis can significantly impact daily activities and is only recommended for severe cases. Corticosteroid injections can provide short-term pain relief, but the high relapse rate at three months makes them less suitable for long-term management.

      Glyceryl trinitrate patches have shown short-term benefits in managing pain, but their long-term efficacy is uncertain. Ibuprofen may provide temporary pain relief, but it doesn’t affect the long-term prognosis. Overall, managing symptoms and preventing further injury through activity modification is the most important aspect of treating tennis elbow.

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  • Question 90 - You encounter a 41-year-old male patient complaining of lower back pain. He cannot...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 41-year-old male patient complaining of lower back pain. He cannot recall a specific injury but reports that the pain has been worsening for the past 2 months. He has experienced muscle spasms in his lower back over the last 48 hours, causing him significant discomfort and preventing him from working. He works in a warehouse and frequently engages in heavy lifting. He is overweight but has no other relevant medical history. There are no red flag symptoms of back pain.

      What is a true statement about nonspecific lower back pain?

      Your Answer: Advise the patient to not return to work or normal activities until they are pain-free

      Correct Answer: 'StarT BACK' is an online risk stratification tool which can be used to assess a person with lower back pain

      Explanation:

      The online tool ‘StarT BACK’ can be utilized to evaluate individuals with lower back pain who do not exhibit any red flags and determine modifiable risk factors.

      When it comes to analgesia, NSAIDs are the preferred first-line treatment unless there are any contraindications. Diazepam may be prescribed for a brief period if muscle spasms are present.

      It is not necessary for the patient to be completely pain-free before returning to work or normal activities. The NICE CKS guidelines suggest encouraging the individual to stay active, gradually resuming normal activities, and returning to work as soon as possible. Prolonged bed rest is not recommended, and some pain may be experienced during movement, which should not be harmful if activities are resumed gradually and as tolerated. Occupational Health departments may assist in arranging work adjustments to facilitate an early return to work.

      To reduce the risk of recurrence, it is essential to remain as active as possible and engage in regular exercise. Unfortunately, individuals who have experienced low back pain may experience repeated episodes of recurrence and develop acute on chronic symptoms.

      Understanding Lower Back Pain and its Possible Causes

      Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. Although most cases are due to nonspecific muscular issues, it is important to consider possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Some red flags to watch out for include age below 20 or above 50 years, a history of previous malignancy, night pain, history of trauma, and systemic symptoms such as weight loss and fever.

      There are several specific causes of lower back pain that healthcare providers should be aware of. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, with pain typically worse in the morning and on standing. On examination, there may be pain over the facets, which is typically worse on extension of the back. Spinal stenosis, on the other hand, usually has a gradual onset and presents with unilateral or bilateral leg pain (with or without back pain), numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking and resolves when sitting down. Ankylosing spondylitis is typically seen in young men who present with lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arthritis is also common in this condition. Finally, peripheral arterial disease presents with pain on walking that is relieved by rest, and may be accompanied by absent or weak foot pulses and other signs of limb ischaemia. A past history of smoking and other vascular diseases may also be present.

      In summary, lower back pain is a common presentation in clinical practice, and healthcare providers should be aware of the possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. By identifying red flags and conducting a thorough examination, providers can help ensure that patients receive appropriate care and management.

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  • Question 91 - You are asked to do a house call on a 35-year-old man with...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to do a house call on a 35-year-old man with aching legs. Not unreasonably you suggest that a surgery consultation would be more appropriate. The wife is insistent that he cannot get there.

      When you visit, you find a well-looking man lying in bed. He gives a story of having done a sponsored walk two days previously and halfway through after a mile uphill, he had to be carried back.

      He is overweight. He doesn't normally take exercise and reports that he found exercise painful as a child. He also smokes. Since that episode he has been virtually unable to walk due to stiff legs. He is eating and drinking normally but his urine is a brownish colour. You confirm that, and the dipstick is positive for blood.

      When you examine him, he is barely able to move his legs, and has absent knee and ankle jerks both sides. His thigh muscles feel quite solid in texture, and he has no sphincter disturbance. He is on no medication.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: He has myasthenia gravis

      Correct Answer: He is overweight and unfit

      Explanation:

      Myoglobinuria: A Rare Condition Causing Muscle Breakdown

      The texture of the muscles and brown urine are key indicators of myoglobinuria, a condition caused by catastrophic muscle breakdown. In this case, confirmation was made through a CK level beyond 16,000, a creatinine level of 360, and a urea level of 18. The large myoglobin molecules quickly compromised the glomerular filtration rate, leading to the need for dialysis within 24 hours. Further investigation revealed a rare congenital enzyme deficiency that causes rhabdomyolysis on exertion, which explains why the patient experienced pain during physical exercise as a child and adolescent.

      It is important to note that a urine dipstick test can also be used to diagnose myoglobinuria. This test involves dipping a strip into a urine sample and checking for the presence of myoglobin. Early detection and treatment of myoglobinuria is crucial to prevent kidney damage and other complications.

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  • Question 92 - A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with joint issues. He has been...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with joint issues. He has been experiencing swelling of the small joints in both hands upon waking up for the past few weeks, along with severe morning stiffness that takes about three hours to improve. He occasionally experiences discomfort in other joints and has had a swollen knee in the past. His current medications include allopurinol and Nizoral shampoo, which he has been purchasing over the counter to treat the scales on his scalp. He has tested negative for rheumatoid factor. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Possible Seronegative Arthritis Diagnosis

      It is possible that the patient is taking allopurinol for gout, which can suppress symptoms once the correct dose is established. Haemochromatosis typically causes joint pain but not acute swelling. Palindromic rheumatism is often a diagnosis of exclusion and can progress to rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) causes morning stiffness and mainly affects the shoulder girdle in older individuals. Although the description could fit for RA, acute psoriatic arthropathy can be clinically indistinguishable. However, the patient’s seronegative arthritis and likely scalp psoriasis provide further clues. While skin lesions may not be present, nail changes are usually observed. Approximately 25% of RA cases are seronegative, but the overall presentation suggests a possible diagnosis of seronegative arthritis.

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  • Question 93 - You are reviewing a 40-year-old lady who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a 40-year-old lady who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). She presented to you with swollen and tender multiple metacarpal-phalangeal (MCP) joints. Blood tests revealed a raised rheumatoid factor, and you referred her urgently to rheumatology.

      She was seen by a rheumatologist last week who diagnosed RA and started treatment.

      Can you provide her with some additional information about RA?

      Your Answer: RA doesn't increase your risk of infection

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis predisposes a patient to lymphoproliferative diseases

      Explanation:

      Lymphoproliferative diseases, especially lymphoma, are more likely to occur in individuals with RA. Additionally, RA increases the risk of infection by about two-fold, with chest infections and sepsis being particularly concerning. Furthermore, those with RA have a higher likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease compared to the general population.

      Complications of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing inflammation and pain. However, it can also lead to a variety of extra-articular complications. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and mental health.

      Respiratory complications of RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, methotrexate pneumonitis, and pleurisy. Ocular complications can include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, steroid-induced cataracts, and chloroquine retinopathy. RA can also lead to osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and an increased risk of infections. Depression is also a common complication of RA.

      Less common complications of RA include Felty’s syndrome, which is characterized by RA, splenomegaly, and a low white cell count, and amyloidosis, which is a rare condition where abnormal proteins build up in organs and tissues.

      In summary, RA can lead to a variety of complications that affect different parts of the body. It is important for patients with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or treat any complications that may arise.

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  • Question 94 - As a registrar in General Practice for the past 8 months, you encounter...

    Incorrect

    • As a registrar in General Practice for the past 8 months, you encounter a 55-year-old female patient who visits your clinic at least once a week, sometimes more frequently. The patient has a history of depression and fibromyalgia but no other significant chronic illness. Her usual complaints include persistent arthralgia, myalgia, low mood, and pruritus. Despite extensive investigations, no underlying organic cause has been identified for her symptoms. The patient is always courteous and prompt. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Tell the patient she is limited to one consultation every 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Have a conversation with the patient about her frequent attendance and suggest booking a regular appointment every two weeks initially

      Explanation:

      The patient in question seems to have become overly reliant on their doctor, which could be seen as doctor dependence. To address this issue, it is important to have an open and honest conversation with the patient and suggest a solution. One effective approach is to schedule regular appointments, gradually increasing the time between them.

      It is important to remember that some patients hold doctors in high regard and may feel hurt if advised to see another doctor. Limiting consultations to once every two weeks could also be risky if the patient experiences an urgent medical issue.

      Removing the patient from the practice list is not a suitable solution.

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  • Question 95 - A 27-year-old woman complains she has been feeling generally unwell for several weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman complains she has been feeling generally unwell for several weeks. She reports a relapsing pain in her left ankle for the last four weeks following a 2-week history of diarrhoea. Over the last two weeks, she has also developed lower back pain. On further questioning, she mentions that for the last few days she has noticed painful nodules over her shins. Her full blood count and kidney and liver function tests are all normal. An autoimmune screen is negative.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Reactive Arthritis from Other Arthropathies

      Reactive arthritis is an autoimmune condition that occurs as a response to an infection. It typically develops 2-4 weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection and presents with joint pain, malaise, and fever. However, it is important to differentiate reactive arthritis from other arthropathies based on their unique features.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy that affects the axial skeleton and doesn’t present with ankle pain or erythema nodosum. Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic lesions and presents with joint swelling in the knees, ankles, hands, and feet, but the rash described in this case is typical for erythema nodosum, not psoriasis. Rheumatic fever is a complication of an untreated streptococcal throat infection and can affect the heart and nervous system, but the patient in this case has symptoms of a gastrointestinal infection preceding her joint pain. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory autoimmune condition that affects the small joints of the hands and feet and tends to have bilateral symmetrical distribution of joint involvement, unlike in this case where there is unilateral ankle pain.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history and symptoms is necessary to accurately diagnose reactive arthritis and differentiate it from other arthropathies.

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  • Question 96 - A 55-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of right hip pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of right hip pain that has been bothering him for a few months. He reports that the pain usually sets in towards the end of the day after he has been working on his feet for long hours. He also experiences significant discomfort while climbing up and down stairs. He denies any history of joint stiffness or any recent injury. The patient has a medical history of peripheral vascular disease, for which he takes aspirin, and hypertension, for which he takes ramipril. On examination, there is no tenderness along the joint line, but the patient's gait is slightly antalgic. He experiences pain while moving his hip joint, and there is no redness or heat. The patient has already tried paracetamol without any relief and is now seeking stronger medication. You have discussed his lifestyle and current medication regimen with him. What medication would you prescribe for him?

      Your Answer: Colchicine tablets

      Correct Answer: Codeine tablets

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hip Osteoarthritis

      There are a few important points to consider when treating a patient with hip osteoarthritis. In this case, the patient is already taking aspirin but is interested in stronger tablets rather than a topical preparation. However, it is important to note that co-prescribing with an NSAID can lead to renal failure, so ibuprofen and naproxen are not ideal options. Additionally, colchicine would not be indicated as this scenario doesn’t sound like gout. The use of ibuprofen gel is also not recommended for hip osteoarthritis. Therefore, the best option for this patient is codeine. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s medical history and current medications when selecting a treatment option for hip osteoarthritis.

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  • Question 97 - A 32-year-old female has reported experiencing clumsiness and has observed that her legs...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female has reported experiencing clumsiness and has observed that her legs are taking on an abnormal shape. She has noticed that the area around her ankles is becoming thinner and weaker over the past several months. This is causing her concern as she is typically active and in good physical shape and has not had to seek medical attention before.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cerebral palsy

      Correct Answer: Charcot-Marie-Tooth

      Explanation:

      Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is known to cause distal muscle wasting, which is evident in this patient’s symptoms of weakness and muscle wasting in the extremities.

      Cerebral palsy, on the other hand, is a condition that affects movement and coordination and typically presents in early childhood.

      Guillain Barre Syndrome is characterized by ascending weakness that develops over a period of days to weeks, often following a recent respiratory or gastrointestinal infection.

      Mononeuritis multiplex is associated with pain, including neuropathic pain within the area of sensory loss and deep pain in the affected limb.

      Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease is a prevalent genetic peripheral neuropathy that primarily affects motor function. Unfortunately, there is no known cure for this condition, and treatment is mainly centered around physical and occupational therapy. Some common symptoms of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease include a history of frequent ankle sprains, foot drop, high-arched feet (also known as pes cavus), hammer toes, distal muscle weakness and atrophy, hyporeflexia, and the stork leg deformity.

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  • Question 98 - A 35 years old soccer player injures his knee while pivoting. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 years old soccer player injures his knee while pivoting. He is brought to the emergency department and reports hearing a 'pop' sound and is unable to put weight on the affected knee. Upon examination, the doctor observes that the affected knee is also swollen.

      What diagnostic test can aid in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Phalen's test

      Correct Answer: Thessaly's test

      Explanation:

      Meniscal Tear: Causes and Symptoms

      A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that usually occurs due to twisting injuries. The symptoms of a meniscal tear include pain that worsens when the knee is straightened, a feeling that the knee may give way, tenderness along the joint line, and knee locking in cases of displaced tears. A positive Thessaly’s test, which involves weight-bearing at 20 degrees of knee flexion while the patient is supported by a doctor, indicates pain on twisting the knee.

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  • Question 99 - A 50-year-old woman presents with lower back and bilateral leg pain. The lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with lower back and bilateral leg pain. The lower back pain has been present for 6 months but gradually getting worse. Recently she has noticed that her legs ache when she walks further than about 300 meters. She is normally very active and enjoys hiking. The pain radiates to her buttocks, thighs and legs bilaterally (but her right leg is worse than the left). She describes the pain as 'aching' and 'tingling'. If she walks further than about 300 meters her legs become weak and numb. If she sits down and leans forward the symptoms go, and she can then carry on for another 300 meters. She says that the pain is better if she walks downhill. She finds standing exacerbates the symptoms but she can swim without any problems.

      The patient has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, but is otherwise healthy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case, and what is the first line investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan to assess the aorta

      Correct Answer: Spinal MRI

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with gradual onset leg and back pain, weakness, and numbness that is triggered by walking, spinal stenosis is the most probable diagnosis, especially if the clinical examination is normal. Patients with spinal stenosis typically experience relief from pain when sitting, leaning forward, or crouching, and walking uphill is less painful than walking on flat ground. Cycling doesn’t usually cause pain. The preferred imaging modality for spinal stenosis is an MRI.

      Peripheral vascular disease causing claudication is the most likely differential diagnosis, but this patient has good pulses and no risk factors. Lower limb dopplers would be used if vascular disease is suspected.

      While a spinal CT can be used if an MRI is contraindicated, it is not the first choice. An abdominal USS and a spinal x-ray are not appropriate for evaluating a patient with suspected spinal stenosis, so both of these options are incorrect.

      Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

      Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.

      Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.

      After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.

      Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.

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  • Question 100 - A 63-year-old poorly controlled, diabetic man comes back to your clinic with persistent...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old poorly controlled, diabetic man comes back to your clinic with persistent swelling and pain in his left ankle over the past 4 weeks. He was previously evaluated by one of your colleagues who ordered an ankle x-ray. The result revealed significant disruption and subluxation of the tarsometatarsal joints. His HbA1c level was 74mmol/mol two months ago.

      What condition is the patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Charcot joint

      Explanation:

      When a patient with poorly controlled diabetes presents with foot pain lasting more than a week, it is important to consider the possibility of Charcot joint. While septic arthritis should be ruled out in a hot swollen joint, this patient’s symptoms have persisted for several weeks, making septic arthritis less likely. Gout or pseudogout may also be considered, but typically affect the 1st MTPJ and are often recurrent. An anterior talo-fibular ligament tear could be a potential cause of forefoot pain and swelling, but would require a history of trauma. Ultimately, Charcot joint should be considered as a possible diagnosis in this patient.

      Understanding Charcot Joints

      A Charcot joint, also known as a neuropathic joint, is a condition where a joint becomes severely damaged due to a loss of sensation. While it was previously caused by syphilis, it is now commonly seen in diabetic patients. Despite the degree of joint disruption, Charcot joints are typically less painful than expected due to the sensory neuropathy. However, patients may still experience some degree of pain, with 75% reporting it. The joint is often swollen, red, and warm.

      Charcot joints are characterized by extensive bone remodeling and fragmentation, particularly in the midfoot. This condition can cause significant disability and deformity if left untreated. Therefore, early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent further damage and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 101 - Sarah is a 50-year-old woman who has recently started experiencing pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 50-year-old woman who has recently started experiencing pain in her fingers bilaterally when exposed to cold temperatures. She has also observed that her fingers change colour from white to blue and then red. Apart from blepharitis, she has no significant medical history. However, she does report some stiffness in her hands upon waking up.

      What would be the optimal approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a course of prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Refer to rheumatology

      Explanation:

      Patients who are suspected to have secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon should be referred to secondary care, particularly if they exhibit joint stiffness and dry eyes. Rheumatology, not orthopaedics, is the appropriate specialty for referral.

      To manage Raynaud’s symptoms, it is important to keep the hands and feet warm. If lifestyle changes are not effective, nifedipine (not amlodipine) may be considered as a treatment option.

      If an underlying autoimmune disease is present, prednisolone may be prescribed as a treatment.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

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  • Question 102 - An 80-year-old man presents with chronic back pain, which worsened one week ago....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with chronic back pain, which worsened one week ago. He has been wheelchair-bound for six months because of severe osteoporosis with multiple lumbosacral spine fractures. He has severe asthma, which has required large doses of glucocorticoids for many years. The patient reports a progressive loss of height and kyphosis over the past year. Other medications include salbutamol and ipratropium inhalers and long-acting theophylline 300 mg twice a day. Significant physical findings include bilateral cataracts, multiple ecchymoses and a prolonged expiratory phase with bilateral wheezes. Calcium and phosphate are in the middle of the normal range.
      Which of the following treatments would be the first choice in this patient for treatment of his bone disease?

      Your Answer: Testosterone replacement

      Correct Answer: Bisphosphonate therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoporosis in Chronic Asthma Patients on Glucocorticoid Therapy

      Chronic use of glucocorticoid therapy for asthma can lead to significant osteoporosis. Bisphosphonates are the first-line therapy for improving bone mass in the lumbar spine and hip. While daily preparations were associated with significant gastrointestinal side effects, weekly and monthly options are now available with less propensity for adverse effects. An IV infusion is also a potential delivery option for bisphosphonates. Testosterone replacement is not indicated in this situation, as there is no indication of androgen deficiency. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation alone are inadequate as treatments for osteoporosis. Long-term calcitonin therapy is not recommended due to increased risk of osteosarcoma.

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  • Question 103 - A 70-year old man complains of neck pain, tingling in his fingertips, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old man complains of neck pain, tingling in his fingertips, and gradual weakness in his legs. After undergoing an MRI scan of his spine, he is diagnosed with degenerative cervical myelopathy caused by a C4/5 disc prolapse. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Analgesia, a hard cervical collar and review in 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: Cervical decompressive surgery

      Explanation:

      Specialist spinal services (neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery) should urgently assess all patients with degenerative cervical myelopathy due to the importance of early treatment. The timing of surgery is crucial as any existing spinal cord damage can be permanent. Early treatment, within 6 months of diagnosis, offers the best chance of a full recovery. However, most patients are presenting too late, with an average of over 5 appointments before diagnosis, representing more than 2 years in one study.

      Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment that has been shown to prevent disease progression. Close observation is an option for mild stable disease, but anything progressive or severe requires surgery to prevent further deterioration. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services as manipulation can cause more spinal cord damage.

      To ensure good outcomes for patients, prompt diagnosis and onward referral are crucial. National initiatives are underway to raise awareness of the condition and improve referral times. None of the other listed options in this question control the patient’s primary pathology.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

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  • Question 104 - A 75-year-old woman comes to your clinic requesting the shingles vaccine. She will...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman comes to your clinic requesting the shingles vaccine. She will be turning 76 in 2 months and is concerned that she may have missed the opportunity to receive the vaccine, as her friend received it after turning 70. Her medical history includes hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and rheumatoid arthritis. She had shingles once at the age of 55 and had Chickenpox as a child. She is currently taking amlodipine 5mg, levothyroxine 75 micrograms, and rituximab, which is administered at the local hospital.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise she cannot have the vaccine anymore as she is only eligible from the ages of 70-75

      Correct Answer: Advise that she cannot have the shingles vaccine at the moment due to the current medication she is on

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended for patients who are taking biological DMARDS to receive live vaccines due to their immunosuppressed state. The shingles vaccine, which is a live vaccine, is offered to individuals in their 70s by the NHS regardless of whether they have had Chickenpox or shingles before. This vaccine can reduce the likelihood of future occurrences of shingles. However, it is not as effective in individuals over the age of 80 and is only available to those born after 1st September 1942. It is important to note that having had shingles in the past doesn’t provide immunity against future episodes.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.

      In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).

      Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.

      TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.

      Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.

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  • Question 105 - During an injury involving valgus displacement and external rotation of the knee, which...

    Correct

    • During an injury involving valgus displacement and external rotation of the knee, which ligament is most commonly torn?

      Your Answer: Medial collateral

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Injuries and Diagnostic Tests

      Knee injuries are common among young athletes participating in sports that involve aggressive knee flexion. Of all knee injuries, those to the medial side are the most frequent. Symptoms include pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the knee joint, instability with side-to-side movement, and tenderness along the course of the medial collateral ligament. Medial collateral ligament injuries often occur in association with cruciate and meniscal injuries, which should be excluded.

      The valgus stress test is a diagnostic test used to measure the amount of joint-line opening of the medial compartment of the knee when a valgus stress is applied at the ankle. A proficient tester may be able to quantify the amount of joint-line opening to determine the severity of the tear of the medial collateral complex of ligaments.

      Other knee injuries include anterior cruciate, lateral collateral, patellar, and posterior cruciate injuries. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries are most often a result of low-velocity, non-contact deceleration injuries and contact injuries with a rotational component. Lateral collateral ligament injuries may be due to a direct blow to the medial aspect of the knee or a varus stress. Patellar tendon ruptures are relatively infrequent and often the result of chronic tendon degeneration or sudden contraction of the quadriceps. Posterior cruciate injuries are most often due to hyperflexion, such as from a fall on a flexed knee or a car accident.

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  • Question 106 - During a football match a 26-year-old man twists over on his knee.

    After the...

    Incorrect

    • During a football match a 26-year-old man twists over on his knee.

      After the initial injury he continues to play and completes the match. However, two days later he has noticed increasing pain and swelling of the knee joint.

      Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament tear

      Correct Answer: Medial meniscus tear

      Explanation:

      Medial Meniscus Tear

      The medial meniscus is a cartilage that acts as a shock absorber for the bones in the knee joint. It can be injured due to collisions or deep knee bends. While minor injuries may heal on their own with rest, surgery is often required for more serious cases. Symptoms of a medial meniscus tear include pain along the joint line or throughout the knee, inability to fully extend the knee (often described as knee locking), and swelling. It is important to note that these symptoms are not consistent with those of a deep vein thrombosis.

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  • Question 107 - A 30-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of stiffness and lower back...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of stiffness and lower back pain, which occasionally wakes him up at night and improves on movement. He has a family history of ankylosing spondylitis through his mother. The GP performs an HLA-B27 test which is positive and refers him to rheumatology for assessment. In the meantime, the patient asks for some help managing the pain and stiffness.

      What is the most suitable approach for managing the patient's pain and stiffness?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for lower back pain is NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen. In the case of this patient, who has not yet been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis, NICE guidelines suggest using NSAIDs while awaiting referral.

      Management of Lower Back Pain: NICE Guidelines

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of lower back pain. These guidelines apply to patients with nonspecific lower back pain, which means it is not caused by malignancy, infection, trauma, or other specific conditions.

      According to the updated guidelines, NSAIDs are now recommended as the first-line treatment for back pain. Paracetamol monotherapy is relatively ineffective for back pain, so NSAIDs are a better option. Proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs.

      Lumbar spine x-ray should not be offered as an investigation for nonspecific back pain. MRI should only be offered to patients with nonspecific back pain if the result is likely to change management, or if malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina, or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected. MRI is the most useful imaging modality as it can see neurological and soft tissue structures.

      Patients with low back pain should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. A group exercise program within the NHS is recommended for people with back pain. Manual therapy, such as spinal manipulation, mobilization, or soft tissue techniques like massage, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid can also be used for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the updated NICE guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for nonspecific back pain. Patients should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. MRI is the most useful imaging modality for investigating nonspecific back pain. Other treatments, such as manual therapy, radiofrequency denervation, and epidural injections, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy.

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  • Question 108 - A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with concerns of a gritty...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with concerns of a gritty feeling in his eyes and a dry mouth that has been going on for several months. During the examination, there is a bilateral non-tender enlargement of his parotid glands. His HbA1c and thyroid function tests come back normal.
      Which of the following illnesses is frequently linked to this condition?
      Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Conditions and their Association with Sjögren Syndrome

      Sjögren syndrome is an autoimmune condition that affects exocrine glands, leading to dry mouth and eyes and parotid gland enlargement. It is strongly associated with other autoimmune inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and scleroderma. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, affects the thyroid gland and leads to hyperthyroidism, with ocular manifestations including dry, gritty eyes but not dry mouth or parotid enlargement. Myasthenia gravis is a disorder of neuromuscular transmission leading to muscle weakness and fatiguability, with eyelid drooping as a common presenting feature but not associated with dry eyes or Sjögren syndrome. Polymyositis is a chronic autoimmune inflammatory condition affecting proximal muscles and leading to proximal muscle weakness, but Sjögren syndrome is not associated with this condition. Polymyalgia rheumatica, an inflammatory condition that causes pain and stiffness of proximal muscles, is strongly associated with temporal arteritis/giant cell arteritis but not Sjögren syndrome. In summary, Sjögren syndrome is commonly associated with other autoimmune conditions, particularly those affecting connective tissues.

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  • Question 109 - A 50-year-old man complains of pain and stiffness in his hands that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man complains of pain and stiffness in his hands that has been progressively worsening over the past few months. He reports experiencing stiffness in the mornings as well.

      During the examination, you observe swelling in both the metacarpal phalangeal (MCP) and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. One of the fingers is swollen throughout its entire length.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is the most likely diagnosis when there is swelling in the DIP and dactylitis in an inflammatory arthritis case, while morning stiffness indicates either rheumatoid or psoriatic arthritis.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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  • Question 110 - A 30-year-old male patient visits your clinic 48 hours after being hit on...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male patient visits your clinic 48 hours after being hit on the outer side of his right knee by a car's bumper that was moving at a slow pace. Despite an antalgic gait, he can walk. However, he cannot dorsiflex his ankle, evert his foot, or extend his toes. The dorsum of his foot has lost sensation. What is the most probable structure that has been injured?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      When the common peroneal nerve is damaged, it can lead to weakness in the muscles responsible for dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot. This nerve supplies the peroneal and anterior muscles in the leg and provides sensation to the top of the foot. It runs through the popliteal fossa and loops around the head of the fibula, which can be felt in some cases. Peroneal neuropathy can occur due to habitual leg crossing, prolonged bed rest, hyperflexion of the knee, pressure in obstetric stirrups, or conditioning in ballet dancers, which can compress the nerve against the head of the fibula. Temporary neurapraxia can result from transient trauma, while permanent foot drop can occur from prolonged or severe trauma.

      Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion

      A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This condition is characterized by foot drop, which is the most common symptom. Other symptoms include weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, weakness of extensor hallucis longus, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.

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  • Question 111 - You assess a 32-year-old female patient who complains of recurrent tension-type headaches. She...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 32-year-old female patient who complains of recurrent tension-type headaches. She reports partial relief with paracetamol and ibuprofen but inquires about preventive measures. What is the best course of action to address her concerns?

      Your Answer: Trial of citalopram

      Correct Answer: Refer for acupuncture

      Explanation:

      Tension-type headache is a type of primary headache that is characterized by a sensation of pressure or a tight band around the head. Unlike migraine, tension-type headache is typically bilateral and of lower intensity. It is not associated with aura, nausea/vomiting, or physical activity. Stress may be a contributing factor, and it can coexist with migraine. Chronic tension-type headache is defined as occurring on 15 or more days per month.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has produced guidelines for managing tension-type headache. For acute treatment, aspirin, paracetamol, or an NSAID are recommended as first-line options. For prophylaxis, NICE suggests up to 10 sessions of acupuncture over 5-8 weeks. Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used in the UK for prophylaxis, but the 2012 NICE guidelines do not support this approach. The guidelines state that there is not enough evidence to recommend pharmacological prophylactic treatment for tension-type headache, and that pure tension-type headache requiring prophylaxis is rare. Assessment may uncover coexisting migraine symptomatology with a possible diagnosis of chronic migraine.

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  • Question 112 - An 80-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of generalised muscle aches...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of generalised muscle aches and pains that have been increasing in severity. She reports that the symptoms occur in her upper arms and are not accompanied by any head or neck symptoms. She also mentions that the symptoms worsen after rest. A recent blood test shows her ESR to be 98 mm/hr (normal range: 0–29 mm/hr). Her weight and appetite are stable, and she is a diet-controlled diabetic. What is the most likely diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Generalized Muscle Aches and Elevated ESR

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with generalized proximal muscle aches and an elevated ESR, especially if they are over the age of 50. Treatment with prednisolone can quickly resolve symptoms and confirm the diagnosis. Cervical spondylosis may cause cervical pain and stiffness worsened by movement, but typically exhibits normal ESR levels. Giant-cell arteritis (GCA) presents with headache and scalp tenderness, along with significantly elevated ESR levels. Immediate specialist referral is required due to the risk of vision loss. Multiple myeloma (MM) can present with a variety of symptoms, including hypercalcaemia, anaemia, renal impairment, and bone pain, but the patient in question doesn’t describe any of these symptoms specifically. The ESR is typically increased in MM, but this is not specific. Rheumatoid arthritis typically presents with an insidious symmetrical polyarthritis, often with nonspecific systemic symptoms, and the ESR is usually raised.

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  • Question 113 - A 52-year-old patient presents with another episode of gout. She has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old patient presents with another episode of gout. She has been experiencing pain in her left big toe for the past 5 days which has not improved with paracetamol. The patient has a history of gout which is usually well managed with allopurinol 100 mg. Additionally, she has atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin. Her INR was 2.9 last week and her warfarin dose has been stable.
      What is the most appropriate treatment option for her current acute gout attack?

      Your Answer: Increase allopurinol dose on prescription

      Correct Answer: Aspirin prescription

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Gout Attacks in Patients on Warfarin

      Gout is a condition that can be prevented with allopurinol, but patients may still experience acute attacks. However, patients taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, so non-steroidal anti-inflammatory tablets and steroid tablets are not recommended if they can be avoided. Aspirin is also not indicated in gout. Increasing the dose of allopurinol will not provide symptomatic relief for the acute attack. After treating the acute attack, it is important to check the uric acid level and adjust the allopurinol dose accordingly. Colchicine can be used in patients receiving anti-coagulants.

      Examiner’s comment: This question emphasizes the importance of selecting the most appropriate treatment option. In general practice, it is often necessary to choose the best option from several possibilities. The best questions will have multiple possible answers, but one will be the most appropriate. In this case, Colchicine is the better choice because NSAIDs are not recommended for patients on warfarin. Remember to prioritize your answers based on the patient’s specific circumstances.

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  • Question 114 - Which of the following medications has been linked to a higher likelihood of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications has been linked to a higher likelihood of atypical stress fractures in the proximal femoral shaft?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      An elevated risk of atypical stress fractures is linked to the use of bisphosphonates.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

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  • Question 115 - Which one of the following is a recognized indication for the application of...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a recognized indication for the application of Botulinum toxin?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Correct Answer: Blepharospasm

      Explanation:

      Medical Uses of Botulinum Toxin

      Botulinum toxin, commonly known as Botox, is not just used for cosmetic purposes. There are several licensed indications for its use in medical treatments. These include blepharospasm, hemifacial spasm, focal spasticity in patients with cerebral palsy, hand and wrist disability associated with stroke, spasmodic torticollis, severe hyperhidrosis of the axillae, and achalasia.

      Blepharospasm is a condition where the eyelids twitch uncontrollably, while hemifacial spasm is a similar condition that affects one side of the face. Focal spasticity is a condition where certain muscles become stiff and difficult to move, often due to damage to the brain or spinal cord. Botulinum toxin can help relax these muscles and improve mobility.

      Spasmodic torticollis is a condition where the neck muscles contract involuntarily, causing the head to twist or turn to one side. Severe hyperhidrosis of the axillae is excessive sweating in the armpits, which can be embarrassing and uncomfortable. Achalasia is a condition where the muscles in the esophagus do not work properly, making it difficult to swallow.

      In all of these cases, botulinum toxin can be a useful treatment option. It works by blocking the signals that cause muscles to contract, leading to temporary muscle relaxation. While it is important to use botulinum toxin under the guidance of a medical professional, it can be a safe and effective treatment for a range of conditions.

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  • Question 116 - A 38-year-old teacher presents to your clinic with complaints of joint stiffness and...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old teacher presents to your clinic with complaints of joint stiffness and pain. The stiffness is more pronounced in the mornings and lasts for over an hour, but improves as the day progresses. The patient reports feeling fatigued but denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, synovitis is observed in two interphalangeal joints of the left hand, left wrist, and a single distal interphalangeal joint in the right foot. The patient is referred to a rheumatologist who diagnoses psoriatic arthritis.

      What is the most distinguishing feature between psoriatic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Asymmetrical joint pains

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis patients may experience a symmetrical polyarthritis similar to rheumatoid arthritis. Fatigue is a common symptom in inflammatory arthritides, including psoriatic arthritis, but it is not specific to this condition. Joint pain caused by mechanical factors like osteoarthritis and fibromyalgia can also cause fatigue. Prolonged morning stiffness is a sign of inflammatory arthritis, such as psoriatic or rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also occur in other inflammatory arthritides. In osteoarthritis, morning stiffness or gelling is usually brief, lasting less than an hour. Improvement in stiffness with use is a distinguishing feature of inflammatory arthritis, such as psoriatic and rheumatoid arthritis, while physical activity in osteoarthritis tends to worsen symptoms.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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  • Question 117 - A 37-year-old woman with painful swollen metacarpo-phalangeal joints on both hands for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman with painful swollen metacarpo-phalangeal joints on both hands for the last three weeks presents in surgery.
      What is the most appropriate investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Plain radiograph

      Correct Answer: C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis

      When a patient is suspected to have rheumatoid arthritis, urgent referral to secondary care is necessary. While investigations may be carried out in primary care, they should not delay the referral process. The most appropriate investigation for this condition is rheumatoid factor, which is positive in 60-70% of people with rheumatoid arthritis. However, in this question, CRP or ESR are the most appropriate investigations for the initial acute phase. These are inflammatory markers that may support the clinical suspicion if elevated.

      Other investigations, such as Antinuclear antibodies, HLA-B27 testing, plain radiograph, and total immunoglobulin E levels, are not useful in this case. ANAs may suggest connective tissue diseases, but they are not a useful test at this stage. HLA-B27 testing may be appropriate for reactive arthritis or ankylosing spondylitis, but these diseases do not present similarly to rheumatoid arthritis. Plain radiograph may be useful early in the course of the disease, but it is unlikely to be arranged by a general practitioner if urgent referral to secondary care has been made. Total immunoglobulin E levels are measured in allergic disease and are not relevant to rheumatoid arthritis.

      Investigations for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis: What to Consider and What to Avoid

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  • Question 118 - A 60-year-old man visits the general practice clinic with complaints of painful and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits the general practice clinic with complaints of painful and stiff hands, as well as swelling and pain in both knees. During the examination, the doctor observes bony nodules at the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Arthritis: A Brief Overview

      Arthritis is a common condition that affects millions of people worldwide. However, not all types of arthritis are the same. Here, we will briefly discuss some of the most common types of arthritis and their distinguishing features.

      Osteoarthritis is the most prevalent form of arthritis and is associated with older age. It typically affects the knee and hip joints, as well as the DIP joints in the hands, where it causes bony lumps known as Heberden nodes.

      Pseudogout is caused by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals in the joints, particularly in the knees. It can cause acute monoarticular or oligoarticular arthritis, similar to gout but milder.

      Psoriatic arthritis affects the DIP joints and is almost always associated with nail dystrophy. It is often accompanied by psoriatic skin lesions, which are absent in this patient’s case.

      Reactive arthritis follows a gastrointestinal or venereal infection and typically affects young adults, causing lower-limb asymmetrical oligoarthritis, lower back pain, and heel pain. This patient doesn’t fit these criteria.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is characterised by symmetrical arthralgia and synovitis of the small joints of the hands, feet, and wrists, with swelling of the metacarpophalangeal and PIP joints.

      In summary, understanding the distinguishing features of different types of arthritis can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 119 - You are evaluating a 32-year-old male patient who has chronic plaque psoriasis that...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 32-year-old male patient who has chronic plaque psoriasis that is currently managed with calcipotriol monotherapy. He has previously used potent corticosteroids to control flares of his condition. During the examination, he mentions a swollen finger that has been stiff and slightly painful for the past three weeks. There is no history of trauma. Upon examination, you confirm the swelling. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a course of naproxen and review in 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: Refer him to rheumatology

      Explanation:

      Referral to a rheumatologist is necessary for all individuals who are suspected to have psoriatic arthropathy.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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  • Question 120 - A 32-year-old woman has a two-month history of pain in her right hip...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has a two-month history of pain in her right hip radiating to her buttock, thigh, calf and ankle. She has a good range of movement in the hip and no focal tenderness.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sacroiliitis

      Correct Answer: Sciatica

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Sciatica from Other Causes of Leg Pain

      Leg pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to accurately diagnose the underlying issue in order to provide appropriate treatment. Sciatica is a common cause of leg pain, but it is not a diagnosis in itself. Rather, it is a description of symptoms that can be caused by pressure on the sciatic nerve. Other conditions that can cause leg pain include osteoarthritis of the hip, polymyalgia rheumatica, sacroiliitis, and trochanteric bursitis. Each of these conditions presents with unique symptoms and requires a different approach to treatment. By carefully evaluating a patient’s symptoms and conducting appropriate diagnostic tests, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose the underlying cause of leg pain and provide effective treatment.

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  • Question 121 - A 40-year-old man who has just returned from a skiing trip to Switzerland...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man who has just returned from a skiing trip to Switzerland presents with a painful swollen knee, which he injured in a fall two days ago. He has not sought medical attention as he doesn't speak Swiss German.
      Which of the following physical signs is most indicative of an anterior cruciate ligament tear?

      Your Answer: Excessive backward movement of the tibia

      Correct Answer: Excessive forward movement of the tibia

      Explanation:

      Assessing Ligamentous Integrity in the Knee: Tests for Excessive Movement and Sagging

      The knee joint is stabilized by four major ligaments: the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), posterior cruciate ligament (PCL), medial collateral ligament (MCL), and lateral collateral ligament (LCL). Injuries to these ligaments can result in instability and pain in the knee. Here are some tests to assess the integrity of these ligaments.

      Excessive forward movement of the tibia is prevented by the ACL. To test for ACL disruption, flex the knee to 90° with the hip flexed to 45° and pull the tibia forward (anterior drawer test). Excessive movement may indicate ACL injury, although ligamentous laxity may be difficult to detect in the acute situation.

      Excessive backward movement of the tibia is prevented by the PCL. To test for PCL integrity, push backwards in relation to the tibia instead of pulling forwards.

      Excessive valgus movement of the tibia is prevented by the MCL, while excessive varus movement is prevented by the LCL. These ligaments can be tested by applying pressure to the inside or outside of the knee joint, respectively.

      Sagging of the tibia when the knee is flexed can indicate PCL injury. To test for this, perform the posterior sag test (gravity drawer test) by flexing the hip and knee to 90° while supporting the leg and looking for posterior sag of the tibia relative to the patella caused by gravitational pull.

      By performing these tests, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat knee injuries related to ligamentous instability.

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  • Question 122 - A 45-year-old male reports experiencing shoulder pain following a day of intense labor...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male reports experiencing shoulder pain following a day of intense labor painting a garage. The pain radiates to the anterior upper arm and is exacerbated by shoulder flexion beyond 90 degrees. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Correct Answer: Biceps tendonitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Biceps Tendonitis

      The biceps muscle is located in the front part of the upper arm and attaches at the elbow and in two places at the shoulder. Biceps tendonitis, also known as bicipital tendonitis, is a condition that causes inflammation and pain in the front part of the shoulder or upper arm. This condition is usually caused by overuse of the arm and shoulder or an injury to the biceps tendon.

      Symptoms of biceps tendonitis include pain when moving the arm and shoulder, especially during forward arm movement over shoulder height. Patients may also experience pain when touching the front of the shoulder. To diagnose biceps tendonitis, doctors may perform a Speed’s test, which involves testing the strength and pain in the biceps tendon.

      It’s important to note that while lateral epicondylitis can also cause arm pain, it is typically caused by activities such as painting or repetitive use of a screwdriver, and is not worsened by shoulder flexion alone.

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  • Question 123 - A 65-year-old woman presents with gradual onset proximal shoulder and pelvic girdle muscular...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with gradual onset proximal shoulder and pelvic girdle muscular pains and stiffness. She is experiencing difficulty getting dressed in the morning and cannot raise her arms above the horizontal. She is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and recently completed a course of clarithromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection (penicillin-allergic). Blood tests reveal the following results:

      Hb 128 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      WBC 12.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Platelets 380 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 66 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 64 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 32 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 55 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 37 g/L (35 - 50)

      CRP 72 mg/L (< 5)
      ESR 68 mg/L (< 30)
      Creatine kinase 58 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Statin-induced myopathy

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with an increase in creatine kinase levels. Instead, blood tests typically reveal signs of inflammation, such as elevated white blood cell count, C-reactive protein, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. These findings, combined with the patient’s medical history and demographics, strongly suggest polymyalgia rheumatica as the diagnosis.

      In contrast, polymyositis and dermatomyositis are characterized by a significant rise in creatine kinase levels, and dermatomyositis also presents with a distinctive rash. Fibromyalgia doesn’t typically show any signs of inflammation on blood tests. While statin-induced myopathy is a possibility given the patient’s history, the high levels of inflammatory markers and normal creatine kinase levels make this diagnosis less likely.

      Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 124 - You see a 75-year-old male patient with back pain. He reports having lower...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 75-year-old male patient with back pain. He reports having lower back pain for the past year, which has gradually worsened. The pain now radiates bilaterally to his buttocks, thighs, and legs, with the left leg being worse than the right. He describes the pain as 'cramping' and 'burning'. Walking for more than a few minutes causes weakness and numbness in his legs, which improves when he sits down and leans forward. Standing exacerbates the symptoms, and he has lost his independence and now uses a walking aid. His wife has noticed a more stooped posture than 12 months ago.

      The patient's medical history includes hypertension, which is controlled with medication. He has never smoked and has a normal BMI. On examination, he has a wide-based gait, and neurological examination of his lower limbs is normal. Peripheral pulses feel normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation and examination findings?

      Your Answer: Sciatica

      Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      A patient who experiences gradual leg and back pain, weakness, and numbness while walking, with a normal clinical examination, is most likely suffering from spinal stenosis. This condition is characterized by symptoms that are relieved by sitting and leaning forward, and worsened by walking, especially on flat surfaces. Although physical examination findings are often normal in patients with lumbar spinal stenosis, it is important to rule out other conditions such as vascular claudication. Sciatica, which typically presents with unilateral leg pain, is less likely to be the cause of these symptoms.

      Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

      Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.

      Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.

      After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.

      Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.

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  • Question 125 - A 65-year-old diabetic woman with chronic arthritis presents with a swollen, red, hot...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old diabetic woman with chronic arthritis presents with a swollen, red, hot and painful right knee following an intra-articular injection of steroid for pain relief four days earlier.
      What is the single test that would confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Joint aspiration and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Septic Arthritis Following Intra-Articular Injection

      Septic arthritis is a serious condition that can occur following joint surgery, trauma, or infection in another part of the body. In this case, the patient most likely developed septic arthritis after receiving an intra-articular injection. To diagnose the causative organisms, joint aspiration and culture are necessary. The most common organisms are streptococci or staphylococci. Empirical antibiotic therapy should be started immediately, usually with intravenous flucloxacillin. Blood culture may be negative, and microscopy under polarised light can identify negatively birefringent crystals of gout. Serum rheumatoid factor estimation is not necessary, as the patient doesn’t have features of rheumatoid arthritis. Estimation of blood sugar levels is important, but not useful for diagnosing the cause of acute symptoms. Septic arthritis following intra-articular injection is uncommon, but diabetes is a risk factor.

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  • Question 126 - A 75-year-old woman is being evaluated in surgery. She has a medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is being evaluated in surgery. She has a medical history of vertebral fractures caused by osteoporosis. However, she cannot tolerate bisphosphonates, so her doctor has initiated raloxifene. What condition would make it inappropriate to prescribe raloxifene?

      Your Answer: Epilepsy

      Correct Answer: A history of venous thromboembolism

      Explanation:

      The use of Raloxifene is associated with an elevated risk of venous thromboembolism.

      Therapeutic Management of Osteoporosis According to NICE Guidelines

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects bone density and increases the risk of fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines on the therapeutic management of osteoporosis. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is oral alendronate, taken once weekly at a dose of 70mg. If oral alendronate is not tolerated, NICE recommends the use of risk tables to determine whether it is worth trying another treatment. The tables display a minimum T score based on a patient’s age and number of clinical risk factors. If another treatment is indicated, alternative oral bisphosphonates such as risedronate or etidronate are recommended as the second-line treatment.

      If bisphosphonates are not tolerated, NICE recommends reviewing risk tables again to see if further treatment is indicated. Strontium ranelate or raloxifene are recommended as alternative treatments. Strontium ranelate is a ‘dual action bone agent’ that increases the deposition of new bone by osteoblasts and reduces the resorption of bone by inhibiting osteoclasts. However, concerns regarding its safety profile have been raised recently, and it should only be prescribed by a specialist in secondary care. Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that has been shown to prevent bone loss and reduce the risk of vertebral fractures. It may worsen menopausal symptoms and increase the risk of thromboembolic events.

      In summary, NICE guidelines recommend oral alendronate as the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, followed by alternative oral bisphosphonates if necessary. Strontium ranelate or raloxifene may be considered if bisphosphonates are not tolerated, but their use should be carefully monitored due to safety concerns. Clinical judgement may be required when determining the best course of action for individual patients.

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  • Question 127 - A 56-year-old woman presents with a four month history of right-sided hip pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with a four month history of right-sided hip pain. The pain has developed spontaneously without any apparent cause. She reports that the pain is more severe on the outer side of the hip and is particularly bothersome at night when she lies on her right side.

      Upon examination, there is a complete range of motion in the hip joint, including internal and external rotation. However, deep palpation of the lateral aspect of the right hip joint reproduces the pain.

      An x-ray of the right hip reveals the following findings:

      Right hip: Slight narrowing of the joint space, but otherwise normal appearance.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lumbar nerve root compression

      Correct Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

      Explanation:

      Trochanteric bursitis is now referred to as greater trochanteric pain syndrome. Although joint space narrowing is visible in the x-ray, it is a common occurrence and doesn’t necessarily indicate osteoarthritis. Additionally, the pain is palpable and the symptoms have not been present for a long period, making osteoarthritis less likely.

      Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can cause pain in the morning, systemic symptoms, and elevated inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is often seen in women aged 50-70 and is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and results in a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis can have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and causes pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, causing groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, with elevated ESR.

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  • Question 128 - Liam is a 50-year-old man who visits his GP complaining of fatigue and...

    Correct

    • Liam is a 50-year-old man who visits his GP complaining of fatigue and low mood. Upon further inquiry, he reveals experiencing muscle stiffness, particularly in his shoulders, which can last up to an hour upon waking. During examination, Liam exhibits 5/5 power in all muscle groups, but movement is painful when he abducts and elevates his shoulders. There is no apparent joint swelling, and there are no other neurological issues. Despite the pain, Liam has a good range of motion. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, for which he takes metformin.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      The usual progression of rheumatoid arthritis involves experiencing pain first, followed by stiffness. However, in this particular case, the patient is experiencing both pain and stiffness simultaneously. The condition commonly causes swelling, stiffness, and pain in the small joints of the hands and feet.

      Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 129 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic after sustaining a Colles fracture during...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic after sustaining a Colles fracture during a fall while on vacation in Italy. The fracture clinic diagnosed her with a fragility fracture and advised her to see her GP in the UK for bone protection. She has no family history of hip fracture or osteoporosis, is a non-smoker, and doesn't drink alcohol. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2, and she has no other significant medical issues.

      What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Calculate her FRAX score then arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan depending on results

      Correct Answer: Arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      As per the current NICE CKS guidance, individuals who are above 50 years of age and have a previous fragility fracture should be referred for a DEXA scan to measure bone mineral density (BMD). It is not necessary to calculate their QFracture risk or FRAX score before arranging the scan. Even if their QFracture risk is low, they are still at risk due to their history of fragility fracture. For patients over 75 years of age who have had a fragility fracture, treatment (oral bisphosphonates as first line) should be initiated immediately without the need for a DEXA scan. However, it is important to note that this differs from the NOGG guidelines 2014, which recommend treatment for all women over 50 years who have had a fragility fracture.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.

      For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.

      For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.

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  • Question 130 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a four-week history of stiffness, pain and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a four-week history of stiffness, pain and swelling of her wrists and knuckles. The symptoms improve by mid-day but persist daily. She reports feeling unwell.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Rheumatoid Arthritis from Other Joint Conditions

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the small joints of the fingers, thumbs, wrists, feet, and ankles. Unlike carpal tunnel syndrome, which can affect both hands and is often worse in bed and in the morning, rheumatoid arthritis is typically symmetrical and develops gradually. In addition, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience systemic symptoms such as pyrexia, feeling unwell, weight loss, and muscle aches. Gout, on the other hand, usually presents as an acute monoarthritis in the metatarsal-phalangeal joint of the great toe, while osteoarthritis commonly affects the hands and is characterized by bony nodules at the distal interphalangeal joints. Rheumatic fever, which is caused by a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus, is more common in children and presents as a migratory arthritis affecting large joints like the knees, ankles, wrists, and elbows, along with pyrexia and constitutional symptoms. By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat joint disorders.

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  • Question 131 - A 60-year-old man has been experiencing pain in his right shoulder for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been experiencing pain in his right shoulder for a few weeks. Upon examination, the doctor passively abducts the shoulder. Passive abduction is complete but painful, especially between 70° and 120° of abduction. As the patient lowers his arm slowly, it drops to the side when it reaches 90°. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subacromial bursitis

      Correct Answer: Rotator cuff tear

      Explanation:

      Understanding Shoulder Pain: Differentiating Rotator Cuff Tear from Other Shoulder Disorders

      The shoulder joint is a complex structure composed of bones, muscles, tendons, and ligaments. Shoulder pain is a common complaint, and one of the most frequent causes is rotator cuff tendon disease. The rotator cuff is a group of four muscles that help with shoulder movement and stability. When the tendons of these muscles become inflamed, they can cause pain, particularly during abduction, resulting in a painful arc.

      However, not all shoulder pain is due to rotator cuff tendon disease. Other disorders, such as biceps tendinitis, frozen shoulder, and subacromial bursitis, can also cause similar symptoms. Biceps tendinitis is characterized by tenderness over the bicipital groove, while frozen shoulder causes a global restriction of all movements. Subacromial bursitis, on the other hand, is an inflammatory condition of the bursa that sits between the supraspinatus tendon and the bony arch of the acromion process.

      To differentiate rotator cuff tear from other shoulder disorders, several tests can be performed. The drop arm test, for instance, can distinguish a complete rotator cuff tear from rotator cuff tendinitis. A tear usually follows trauma in young people, while in the elderly, it is often caused by attrition from bony spurs or intrinsic degeneration of the cuff.

      In conclusion, diagnosing shoulder pain can be challenging, as several different problems may exist in the same shoulder at the same time. Understanding the different disorders that can cause shoulder pain and performing appropriate tests can help differentiate rotator cuff tear from other shoulder disorders and guide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 132 - You are evaluating a 55-year-old man with osteoarthritis. His symptoms are not adequately...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 55-year-old man with osteoarthritis. His symptoms are not adequately managed with regular paracetamol and a topical NSAID. During your discussion of treatment options, he mentions experiencing constipation with previous use of opioid analgesics. As a result, you decide to initiate a brief course of oral anti-inflammatory therapy on an as-needed basis. What is the most suitable initial NSAID to recommend for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen 400 mg TDS

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs and COX-2 Inhibitors: Balancing Thrombotic and GI Risks

      Cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitors (COX-2 inhibitors) and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they carry different risks. COX-2 inhibitors have an increased risk of thrombotic events, while all NSAIDs are associated with potential serious gastrointestinal (GI) problems. However, there is variation in risk among different NSAIDs.

      Diclofenac at high doses and high dose ibuprofen are linked with an increased thrombotic risk, while naproxen and lower doses of ibuprofen have not been shown to increase the risk of myocardial infarction. In terms of GI toxicity, azapropazone has the highest risk, ibuprofen the lowest, and naproxen and diclofenac are intermediate. Selective COX-2 inhibitors provide the lowest risk of serious GI toxicity.

      When choosing a pain reliever, the specific indication and patient factors should be considered. Etoricoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, should only be used if a specific indication to avoid a traditional NSAID is present. Ketorolac is licensed for short-term management of postoperative pain. The doses of diclofenac given in the options increase the risk of thrombotic events. The naproxen and ibuprofen doses given provide the lowest thrombotic risk, but ibuprofen has a better GI safety profile and is the cheapest option. Gastroprotection, such as proton-pump inhibitors, should also be considered based on patient factors.

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  • Question 133 - A 72-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic neck pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic neck pain that has recently become more severe, making it difficult for her to find a comfortable sleeping position at night. Upon examination, there is no tenderness in the area, but her range of motion is limited in all directions. She has been taking regular paracetamol, but it has not been effective in relieving her pain. When codeine was added to her regimen, she experienced constipation. What is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Long-term regular treatment with an oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAIDs)

      Correct Answer: Short course of an oral NSAID

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cervical Spondylosis Pain

      Cervical spondylosis is a chronic degenerative condition affecting the cervical spine. The pain can be caused by poor posture, muscle strain, and other factors. Here are some treatment options:

      Short Course of Oral NSAID: A standard non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), such as ibuprofen, can be prescribed for a short period. This should be co-prescribed with a proton pump inhibitor and the patient must have no contraindications to using NSAIDs.

      Capsaicin: Some local guidelines support the use of capsaicin, particularly for hand or knee osteoarthritis, but a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) would be tried first.

      Long-term Regular Treatment with Oral NSAIDs: An oral NSAID is the best next step, but at the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible period of time, due to the extra risks associated with taking them regularly.

      Oral Glucosamine: Oral glucosamine is not recommended in guidelines and has no consistent evidence supporting its use as an analgesic.

      Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation: A transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation machine may be effective but often is not readily available, and affordability may be an issue for patients.

      Treatment Options for Cervical Spondylosis Pain

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  • Question 134 - A 75-year-old man who is known to have severe OA of both his...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man who is known to have severe OA of both his knees presents with increasing pain of the right knee. He is on the waiting list to see an orthopaedic surgeon, with at least a 6 month wait.

      He is currently taking 1 g of paracetamol QDS, 2400 mg of ibuprofen daily with PPI cover. He has tried taking codeine and tramadol in the past and it made him feel very unwell, he also tried numerous NSAIDs and found ibuprofen to be the most effective. He is not keen on any other opioid-based medications because he lives on his own and is afraid he may lose his balance. He uses a walking stick and wears sensible walking shoes all the time.

      A few months previously he had a very similar episode and applied ice to the knee to good effect but this time it has not helped that much. He is systemically well.

      On examination the knee is cool, there is no noticeable redness, there is a mild effusion on the right knee, no joint margin tenderness, and ligaments are intact.

      According to established guidelines, which one of the following is the best management option?

      Your Answer: Morphine sulphate sustained release 5 mg BD

      Correct Answer: Intra-articular corticosteroid injection

      Explanation:

      Management of Osteoarthritis Flare

      The patient has been diagnosed with an osteoarthritis flare, which is not uncommon for someone with severe OA of the knee. Despite having tried several NSAIDs in the past, ibuprofen has been found to be the most effective for this patient. However, since he is intolerant of opioid medications, management options are limited. Non-pharmacological options such as ice or heat have also been tried without success. According to NICE guidelines on Osteoarthritis (CG177), intra-articular corticosteroid injections are recommended as an adjunct to core therapies when pain is moderate to severe. Other options such as Traumeel injections, intra-articular hyaluronan injections, rubefacients, chondroitin, glucosamine, or chondroitin and glucosamine combinations are not recommended. However, there are other options such as topical capsaicin, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS), and assessment for bracing/joint supports/insoles that may be helpful. Expert advice from occupational therapists or disability equipment assessment centres may also be required.

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  • Question 135 - A 42-year-old male presents with fatigue and widespread pain. He has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male presents with fatigue and widespread pain. He has been experiencing these symptoms for the past six months, and they tend to worsen when he is stressed or exposed to cold temperatures. Physical examination reveals numerous tender points throughout his body, but no other significant findings. Despite undergoing various blood tests, including an autoimmune screen, inflammatory markers, and thyroid function, all results are within normal limits. Considering the probable diagnosis, which of the following is not useful in managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Trigger point injections

      Explanation:

      According to a study published in JAMA, the use of antidepressants has been found to be effective in treating fibromyalgia. The meta-analysis, conducted in 2009, supports the use of these medications for managing the symptoms of the condition.

      Fibromyalgia is a condition that causes widespread pain throughout the body, along with tender points at specific anatomical sites. It is more common in women and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 50. Other symptoms include lethargy, cognitive impairment (known as fibro fog), sleep disturbance, headaches, and dizziness. Diagnosis is made through clinical evaluation and the presence of tender points. Management of fibromyalgia is challenging and requires an individualized, multidisciplinary approach. Aerobic exercise is the most effective treatment, along with cognitive behavioral therapy and medication such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline. However, there is a lack of evidence and guidelines to guide treatment.

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  • Question 136 - A 57-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of persistent pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of persistent pain in his right hip. He underwent a metal-on-metal hip resurfacing arthroplasty 3 years ago to address early osteoarthritis. Despite improved mobility after the procedure, he has been experiencing discomfort in his hip.

      Your Answer: Refer to pain clinic

      Correct Answer: Refer to orthopaedics

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences pain after undergoing hip resurfacing with a metal-on-metal bearing, it is crucial to refer them for further investigations, such as an MRI, to rule out the possibility of a pseudotumour. While managing the patient’s pain with analgesics is important, the priority should be to refer them to orthopaedics for further evaluation. Delaying investigations by opting for physiotherapy or a watch-and-wait approach could potentially worsen the situation if a pseudotumour is present. Therefore, referring the patient to orthopaedics should be the primary next step in management.

      Joint Replacement for Osteoarthritis

      Joint replacement, also known as arthroplasty, is the most effective treatment for osteoarthritis patients who experience significant pain. Around 25% of patients are now younger than 60 years old, and despite the common belief that obesity is a barrier to joint replacement, there is only a slight increase in short-term complications. There is no difference in long-term joint replacement survival.

      For hips, the most common type of operation is a cemented hip replacement, where a metal femoral component is cemented into the femoral shaft, accompanied by a cemented acetabular polyethylene cup. However, uncemented hip replacements are becoming increasingly popular, particularly in younger and more active patients, despite being more expensive than conventional cemented hip replacements. Hip resurfacing is also sometimes used, where a metal cap is attached over the femoral head, often in younger patients, and has the advantage of preserving the femoral neck, which may be useful if conventional arthroplasty is needed later in life.

      postoperative recovery involves both physiotherapy and a course of home-exercises, and walking sticks or crutches are usually used for up to 6 weeks after hip or knee replacement surgery. Patients who have had a hip replacement operation should receive basic advice to minimize the risk of dislocation, such as avoiding flexing the hip more than 90 degrees, avoiding low chairs, not crossing their legs, and sleeping on their back for the first 6 weeks.

      Complications of joint replacement surgery include wound and joint infection, thromboembolism, and dislocation. NICE recommends that patients receive low-molecular weight heparin for 4 weeks following a hip replacement to prevent thromboembolism.

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  • Question 137 - A 58-year-old woman with knee osteoarthritis presents to your clinic. She currently manages...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman with knee osteoarthritis presents to your clinic. She currently manages her symptoms with regular paracetamol and PRN oral ibuprofen, but has experienced localised skin reactions with previous topical NSAID use. She expresses a dislike for taking tablets and asks if there are any other options available for her flare-ups of pain and stiffness in both knees.

      What is the most suitable treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical rubefacient

      Correct Answer: Topical capsaicin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Knee Osteoarthritis Flare-Ups

      Topical capsaicin is recommended by NICE as a treatment option for knee and hand osteoarthritis. Although there is limited data on its efficacy for hand arthritis, NICE believes that its effectiveness for knee osteoarthritis can be extrapolated. Capsaicin is a safe and easy-to-use topical treatment that promotes self-management of flare-ups, making it a good option for patients who cannot tolerate oral NSAIDs. It can be used in conjunction with existing oral medications.

      While opioid analgesia in the form of a buprenorphine patch is also an option, it may not be appropriate for patients who are currently taking oral paracetamol and PRN ibuprofen. Additionally, buprenorphine patches are associated with skin reactions in 40% of patients and lack flexibility in managing flare-ups. Copper bracelets, lidocaine patches, and topical rubefacients are not recommended for the management of osteoarthritis symptoms. Patients should be counseled to watch for early signs of sensitivity to topical preparations and to discontinue use if necessary.

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  • Question 138 - A 13-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father. She has been experiencing pain in her left leg which feels like it is originating from her bone just below her knee. She reports that the pain has been present for a few weeks and is persistent and achy, frequently worsening at night. During the examination, a bony lump is observed on her tibia, just below her knee joint. What investigation should this child be referred for within 48 hours?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound of the lump

      Correct Answer: X-ray of his right leg

      Explanation:

      If a child or young person presents with unexplained bone swelling or pain, it is crucial to consider the possibility of bone sarcoma, especially in teenagers who are at higher risk of osteosarcoma. In such cases, a direct access X-ray should be arranged urgently within 48 hours to assess for this condition. While other investigations such as a DEXA scan may be useful in the future, they are not the first-line investigations and are not necessary within the first 48 hours. It is important to note that a standard X-ray is the appropriate investigation for assessing for osteosarcoma.

      Sarcomas: Types, Features, and Assessment

      Sarcomas are malignant tumors that originate from mesenchymal cells. They can either be bone or soft tissue in origin. Bone sarcomas include osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, and chondrosarcoma, while soft tissue sarcomas are a more diverse group that includes liposarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, and synovial sarcomas. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is a sarcoma that can arise in both soft tissue and bone.

      Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, such as a large (>5cm) soft tissue mass, deep tissue or intramuscular location, rapid growth, and a painful lump. Imaging of suspicious masses should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Blind biopsy should not be performed prior to imaging, and where required, should be done in such a way that the biopsy tract can be subsequently included in any resection.

      Ewing’s sarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 0.3/1,000,000 and onset typically between 10 and 20 years of age. Osteosarcoma is more common in males, with an incidence of 5/1,000,000 and peak age 15-30. Liposarcoma is rare, with an incidence of approximately 2.5/1,000,000, and typically affects an older age group (>40 years of age). Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most common sarcoma in adults and is usually treated with surgical resection and adjuvant radiotherapy.

      In summary, sarcomas are a diverse group of malignant tumors that can arise from bone or soft tissue. Certain features of a mass or swelling should raise suspicion for a sarcoma, and imaging should utilize a combination of MRI, CT, and USS. Treatment options vary depending on the type and location of the sarcoma.

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  • Question 139 - You are conducting a medication review for Mrs Jones, a 75-year-old woman. You...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a medication review for Mrs Jones, a 75-year-old woman. You observe that she has been on alendronate for the past 4 years following a FRAX score that indicated a risk of fracture. She has not experienced any fractures before. Her other medications consist of ramipril, amlodipine, atorvastatin, and allopurinol. She reports no adverse effects from her medications.

      What is the best course of action concerning her bisphosphonate treatment?

      Your Answer: Switch to an alternative bisphosphonate such as risedronate

      Correct Answer: Arrange a repeat DEXA scan and reassess need to continue alendronate

      Explanation:

      According to the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group and NICE guidelines, individuals with osteoporosis who are undergoing treatment with alendronate should have their 10 year fracture risk evaluated again after 5 years. After this point, it may be appropriate to discontinue treatment, although this decision should be made on a case-by-case basis. Patients who are over 75, have a history of hip or vertebral fracture, have experienced any low trauma fracture while on treatment, or are still taking steroid therapy should continue with their treatment.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.

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  • Question 140 - What is a risk factor for clubfoot in infants? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk factor for clubfoot in infants?

      Your Answer: Down's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Spina bifida

      Explanation:

      Talipes Equinovarus: A Common Birth Defect

      Talipes equinovarus, also known as club foot, is a common birth defect that affects 1 in 1,000 newborns. It is more prevalent in males than females and can occur bilaterally in 50% of cases. The condition is characterized by an inward turning and plantar flexed foot, which is usually diagnosed during the newborn exam. While the cause of talipes equinovarus is often unknown, it can be associated with conditions such as spina bifida, cerebral palsy, and oligohydramnios.

      Diagnosis of talipes equinovarus is typically clinical, and imaging is not usually necessary. In recent years, there has been a shift towards conservative management methods, such as the Ponseti method. This approach involves manipulation and progressive casting, which begins soon after birth and can correct the deformity within 6-10 weeks. In some cases, an Achilles tenotomy may be required, but this can usually be done under local anesthesia. Night-time braces are also recommended until the child is four years old to prevent relapse, which occurs in 15% of cases.

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  • Question 141 - A 67-year-old retired coal miner is presenting with long-standing hand symptoms. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old retired coal miner is presenting with long-standing hand symptoms. He reports experiencing intermittent color changes in the tips of all digits of both hands up to the proximal interphalangeal joints in all digits. These changes occur when his hands are exposed to cold and the affected areas of the digits appear markedly white. They then turn red in color and become numb and painful before recovering. He tries to warm his hands when they turn white, and it takes about 20 minutes for the fingers to return to a normal appearance. He has no issues affecting his feet and is otherwise healthy, taking no regular medication. His hand difficulties developed gradually over many years, but his daughter is concerned about them and convinced him to seek a review as she has noticed he seems to struggle gripping objects at times. What is the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Refer for nerve conduction tests

      Explanation:

      Hand Arm Vibration Syndrome in Ex-Miners

      Hand arm vibration syndrome (HAVS) is a condition caused by prolonged exposure to vibration, often through work, that damages nerves and blood vessels. Ex-miners are at high risk of developing HAVS due to their frequent use of hand-held vibrating tools in their work. Symptoms of HAVS include numbness, tingling, and pain in the hands and fingers, as well as a blanching or whitening of the fingers known as vibration white finger.

      If an ex-miner presents with these symptoms, it is important to take a detailed occupational history to determine if they were exposed to handheld vibrating tools in their previous work. If there is no history of such exposure, an alternative diagnosis should be considered and further investigation may be necessary. Early diagnosis and management of HAVS is crucial to prevent further damage and improve outcomes for affected individuals.

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  • Question 142 - A 30-year-old woman presents with malaise, fever, malar rash, two swollen joints and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with malaise, fever, malar rash, two swollen joints and the following results: ANA positive, double-stranded DNA antibody (anti-dsDNA) positive, rheumatoid factor positive and reduced C3, C4 complement levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Screening Tests

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs in the body. It is more common in women, especially those aged between 15 and 35. SLE is characterized by the presence of antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and autoantibodies, which can be detected through screening tests such as ESR, ANA, and anti-dsDNA antibodies. However, the diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of 11 criteria specified by the American College of Rheumatology, including rash, joint swelling, ANA positivity, and autoantibodies. The course of SLE is unpredictable, with periods of illness alternating with remissions. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and screening tests for SLE is crucial for early detection and management of this complex disease.

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  • Question 143 - A 39-year-old woman experiences lower back pain that travels down her left leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman experiences lower back pain that travels down her left leg while doing DIY work. She reports a severe, sharp, stabbing pain that worsens with movement. During clinical examination, a positive straight leg raise test is observed on the left side. The patient is given appropriate pain relief. What is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Perform a vaginal examination

      Correct Answer: Arrange physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      A prolapsed disc is suspected based on the patient’s symptoms. However, even if an MRI scan confirms this diagnosis, the initial management would remain the same as most patients respond well to conservative treatment like physiotherapy.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. L5 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, S1 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. The first-line treatment is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia (e.g., duloxetine). If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate.

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  • Question 144 - A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of pain in her right ankle. She twisted her ankle while stepping off a curb, resulting in an inversion injury to the right ankle. What is the most significant feature that would require an ankle X-ray to check for a fracture?

      Your Answer: Swelling of the whole ankle joint

      Correct Answer: Tenderness of the lateral malleolus

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Need for X-rays in Ankle Injuries

      The Ottawa ankle rules are a reliable tool for determining whether an ankle injury requires an X-ray. If there is pain in the medial or lateral malleolus, an X-ray is necessary if there is bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or fibula, or an inability to bear weight for four steps. Bruising and swelling of the ankle joint do not necessarily indicate the need for an X-ray, as they can occur in both bony and soft-tissue injuries. Ankle joint instability may suggest a ligamental injury, but an X-ray is not always necessary unless there are other indications. Pain on walking may occur with both types of injuries, but an inability to walk for four steps immediately after the injury or at the time of assessment would warrant an X-ray. The initial management of soft-tissue injuries is rest, ice, compression, and elevation, with physiotherapy or surgery as needed for more severe cases.

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  • Question 145 - A 61-year-old man is diagnosed with gout.

    He experiences four attacks within six months,...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man is diagnosed with gout.

      He experiences four attacks within six months, prompting you to prescribe allopurinol to reduce his serum urate level.

      What target level of serum urate would you aim for?

      Your Answer: <0.5 µmol/L

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Recommended Levels of Homocysteine

      Homocysteine is a naturally occurring amino acid in the body that can be harmful in high levels. The upper limit of normal for homocysteine was previously set at 0.42 µmol/L, with reducing levels below that considered acceptable. However, recent guidelines have recommended even lower levels, with most sources suggesting levels below 0.36 µmol/L and the latest guidelines aiming for 0.30 µmol/L. It is important to monitor homocysteine levels and take steps to reduce them if they are too high, as elevated levels have been linked to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease and other health issues.

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  • Question 146 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of pain in her right forefoot that has been bothering her for the past few months. She describes the pain as a burning sensation that is triggered by walking. The patient denies any history of injury and doesn't engage in regular physical activity. She reports consuming 28 units of alcohol per week. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the middle of her forefoot, and squeezing her metatarsals together reproduces her symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Plantar fasciitis

      Correct Answer: Morton's neuroma

      Explanation:

      Based on the examination results, it is unlikely that the patient is suffering from alcohol-induced peripheral neuropathy.

      Understanding Morton’s Neuroma

      Morton’s neuroma is a non-cancerous growth that affects the intermetatarsal plantar nerve, typically in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space. It is more common in women than men, with a ratio of 4:1. The condition is characterized by pain in the forefoot, particularly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space, which worsens when walking. Patients may describe the pain as a shooting or burning sensation, and they may feel as though they have a pebble in their shoe. In addition, there may be a loss of sensation in the toes.

      To diagnose Morton’s neuroma, doctors typically rely on clinical examination, although ultrasound may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis. One diagnostic technique involves attempting to hold the neuroma between the finger and thumb of one hand while squeezing the metatarsals together with the other hand. If a clicking sound is heard, it may indicate the presence of a neuroma.

      Management of Morton’s neuroma typically involves avoiding high-heels and using a metatarsal pad. If symptoms persist for more than three months despite these measures, referral to a specialist may be necessary. Orthotists may provide patients with a metatarsal dome orthotic, while secondary care options may include corticosteroid injection or neurectomy of the affected interdigital nerve and neuroma.

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  • Question 147 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain in her hands...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of joint pain in her hands and feet for the past 6 weeks. The pain is more severe in the morning and slightly relieved by ibuprofen. She used to smoke and has a smoking history of 30 pack-years. During the physical examination, the doctor noticed ulnar deviation and swan neck deformity in her hands.

      What is the most suitable medication to treat this acute flare, considering her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anakinra

      Correct Answer: Steroids IM

      Explanation:

      Methylprednisolone, an intramuscular steroid, is commonly used to manage acute flares of rheumatoid arthritis. However, NICE guidelines recommend first-line treatment with conventional disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (cDMARDs) such as oral methotrexate, leflunomide, or sulfasalazine for adults with newly diagnosed active RA. Short-term bridging treatment with glucocorticoids may be considered when starting a new cDMARD. Anakinra, codeine, and paracetamol are not recommended for the treatment of RA, while infliximab IV is not recommended as first-line treatment. NSAIDs may be used for symptom control in acute flares or early disease. Overall, the goal of treatment is to rapidly decrease inflammation and manage symptoms.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.

      In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).

      Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.

      TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.

      Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.

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  • Question 148 - A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and has been experiencing progressively worsening knee pain after exercising. She reports a sensation of locking and a painful clicking when extending her knee. There is no history of recent trauma. Upon examination, there is slight swelling, tenderness on the inner side of the knee, and discomfort during knee flexion and extension.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Patellar subluxation

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this young athlete is osteochondritis dissecans, which commonly affects children and young adults. Symptoms include knee pain after exercise, locking, and clunking. X-rays and MRI are used for diagnosis, and referral to an orthopaedic specialist is necessary for further management.

      While a medial collateral ligament sprain is possible, there is no history of an acute injury that could have caused it. Patellar subluxation is common in teenage girls but typically presents with giving-way episodes, which is not the case in this scenario. Patellar tendonitis, which is more common in teenage boys, causes vague anterior knee pain that worsens with activities such as walking. However, the pain, swelling, and knee clunking in this case are more indicative of a more serious condition.

      Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans

      Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee.

      Signs of OCD include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed. Wilson’s sign can also be used to detect a medial condyle lesion. Diagnosis is typically made through X-rays and MRI scans, which can show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies and evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage, and assess the stability of the lesion.

      Early diagnosis is crucial in managing OCD, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion. Treatment options may include rest, physical therapy, and surgery in severe cases. By understanding OCD and its symptoms, patients can seek early intervention and prevent further damage to their joints.

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  • Question 149 - A 94-year-old woman is receiving visits from district nurses. She has recently developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 94-year-old woman is receiving visits from district nurses. She has recently developed a grade 2 pressure ulcer on her left buttock which is causing her discomfort. Upon examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, there are no indications of cellulitis, and there is no discharge. The skin surrounding the ulcer is red but not hot to the touch.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient based on her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Wound dressing

      Correct Answer: Wound dressing, Analgesia, Nutritional assessment

      Explanation:

      When treating pressure ulcers, antibiotics should only be used if there are signs of infection, rather than being routinely prescribed. This is important to consider for an elderly patient with a grade 2 pressure ulcer on their right buttock. Management of pressure ulcers should include wound dressings, appropriate pain relief, and a nutritional assessment. NICE recommends that all patients with pressure ulcers receive a nutritional assessment from a healthcare professional with the necessary skills. Antibiotics should only be used in cases where there is evidence of systemic sepsis, spreading cellulitis, or underlying osteomyelitis. As this patient has a normal temperature and no signs of infection in the wound, oral or IV antibiotics are not necessary.

      Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management

      Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.

      The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.

      To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.

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  • Question 150 - You are reviewing an 80-year-old gentleman. He is known to suffer with osteoarthritis...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing an 80-year-old gentleman. He is known to suffer with osteoarthritis affecting both knees but over the last couple of years his left knee has deteriorated and is giving him increasing pain and has started to affect his mobility.

      He is a very active gentleman who walks his dog daily and maintains an independent lifestyle. He uses regular co-codamol 30/500 and PRN ibuprofen orally, and also topical capsaicin. He has recently been having some sessions with the physiotherapists and has had three steroid injections in the knee over the last year.

      Although things are just about manageable at the moment he is concerned that the way his knee is going he will soon not be able to walk the dog and remain as independent. On occasion he has needed to use a walking stick when his knee has flared up and he tells you he is concerned about further worsening and having to rely on a walking aid more permanently. He is also concerned that his use of pain medication has escalated and that he has needed the steroid injections periodically.

      He is overweight (BMI 29 kg/m2) and also smokes between 10 and 20 cigarettes a day.

      He asks you about being referred for consideration of joint replacement surgery.

      Which if the following is the correct approach in this case?

      Your Answer: The patient should be advised that they must lose weight and stop smoking before referral can be made

      Correct Answer: The patient should be counselled about the risks and benefits of surgery and referral should be made without any further delay if the patient decides it is an appropriate option

      Explanation:

      Referring Patients for Joint Replacement Surgery

      Referring patients for joint replacement surgery can be a challenging decision. With the increasing demand for this procedure, healthcare professionals must consider various factors before making a referral. These factors include the severity of the patient’s symptoms, their overall health and any comorbidities, their functional abilities and expectations, and the effectiveness of non-surgical treatments.

      Orthopaedic assessment tools such as the Oxford hip and knee scores can be helpful in evaluating the impact of osteoarthritis on daily activities. However, they should not be the sole basis for referral decisions. Similarly, x-rays may provide additional information, but they should not be relied upon as the only factor in making a referral decision.

      It is important to note that factors such as smoking status, age, and comorbidities should not be used as obstacles to referral. While they may increase postoperative risks and affect long-term outcomes, some patients may still benefit greatly from joint replacement surgery.

      In summary, joint replacement surgery should be considered for patients with osteoarthritis who experience significant symptoms that do not respond to non-surgical treatments. Referral should occur before functional limitations and severe pain develop, and the decision should be made collaboratively between the healthcare professional and the patient. Scoring tools and x-rays can be helpful adjuncts, but they should not be the sole basis for referral decisions.

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  • Question 151 - A 39-year-old woman presents with pain and swelling of the metacarpo-phalangeal joints and...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman presents with pain and swelling of the metacarpo-phalangeal joints and the proximal inter-phalangeal joints of both hands. She reports that the symptoms are worse in the morning and her hands are very stiff. The symptoms have been present for eight weeks. Her rheumatoid factor is reported as weakly positive.
      What is the most suitable course of action for a general practitioner? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis

      If a patient presents with persistent synovitis of unknown cause, it is important to consider the possibility of rheumatoid arthritis. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, an urgent referral to a rheumatologist is necessary if the small joints of the hands or feet are affected, more than one joint is affected, or symptoms have been present for three months or longer before presentation. This referral should be made even if the patient’s erythrocyte sedimentation rate is normal and they are negative for rheumatoid factor and anticyclic citrullinated peptide.

      While a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug may be prescribed by a general practitioner for pain control, the urgent referral to a rheumatologist is the most appropriate option. In secondary care, a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) such as methotrexate, leflunomide, or sulfasalazine should be started as soon as possible, ideally within three months of the onset of persistent symptoms. Short-term bridging treatment with glucocorticoids may also be considered when starting the DMARD.

      In summary, an urgent referral to a rheumatologist is necessary for suspected rheumatoid arthritis, even if certain diagnostic markers are negative. Prompt treatment with a DMARD is crucial for managing the disease and preventing long-term joint damage.

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  • Question 152 - A 68-year-old woman presents after a fall she had the previous night while...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents after a fall she had the previous night while walking in the dark. She believes she tripped on a curb and fell onto her left side, causing pain in her chest. On examination, she is tender over the lower ribs on the left side but has no respiratory distress, and her chest appears normal. She is typically active and walks about six miles per week. She is retired but still enjoys gardening and volunteering at a local charity shop.
      What is the most crucial management consideration for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to a specialist falls service for assessment

      Correct Answer: Identify if there is a need to prevent or treat osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Preventing and Treating Osteoporosis: A Case Study

      In the National Service Framework for Older People, general practitioners are reminded of the importance of assessing the risk of osteoporosis and identifying those who need prevention or treatment. This is particularly relevant for older individuals who may experience minor falls or injuries, which can seriously restrict their ability to carry out normal activities at home.

      In the case of a patient who has fallen and potentially fractured ribs, it is important to consider the risk of further falls and the potential for more serious fractures. While no specific treatment may be required for the current injury, this episode presents an opportunity to assess the patient’s risk of osteoporosis and take preventative measures.

      While options such as arranging an occupational therapy review of home safety or referring to a specialist falls service may be appropriate in certain circumstances, they are not necessary in this case. Similarly, referring to physiotherapy for an exercise program or to the Accident & Emergency Department is not necessary.

      Overall, the focus should be on assessing the patient’s risk of osteoporosis and taking preventative measures to reduce the risk of future falls and fractures.

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  • Question 153 - What is the primary treatment for Morton's neuroma? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary treatment for Morton's neuroma?

      Your Answer: Avoid high heels + supinatory insoles + NSAIDs

      Correct Answer: Avoid high heels + metatarsal pads

      Explanation:

      Understanding Morton’s Neuroma

      Morton’s neuroma is a non-cancerous growth that affects the intermetatarsal plantar nerve, typically in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space. It is more common in women than men, with a ratio of 4:1. The condition is characterized by pain in the forefoot, particularly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space, which worsens when walking. Patients may describe the pain as a shooting or burning sensation, and they may feel as though they have a pebble in their shoe. In addition, there may be a loss of sensation in the toes.

      To diagnose Morton’s neuroma, doctors typically rely on clinical examination, although ultrasound may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis. One diagnostic technique involves attempting to hold the neuroma between the finger and thumb of one hand while squeezing the metatarsals together with the other hand. If a clicking sound is heard, it may indicate the presence of a neuroma.

      Management of Morton’s neuroma typically involves avoiding high-heels and using a metatarsal pad. If symptoms persist for more than three months despite these measures, referral to a specialist may be necessary. Orthotists may provide patients with a metatarsal dome orthotic, while secondary care options may include corticosteroid injection or neurectomy of the affected interdigital nerve and neuroma.

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  • Question 154 - A 25-year-old woman complains she has had pain in her abdomen, wrists and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman complains she has had pain in her abdomen, wrists and ankles for the last ten days. She had a urinary tract infection three weeks ago. She also has a non-blanching rash on her arms and legs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral arthritis

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Different Types of Arthritis: A Brief Overview

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura is a type of arthritis that typically follows an upper respiratory tract infection and is characterized by abdominal and joint pain, non-thrombocytopenic purpura over the buttocks and legs, and potential complications such as intussusception, rectal bleeding, subcutaneous edema, and renal involvement. Arthralgias occur in up to 80% of cases and usually involve the large joints, with pain and edema being the primary symptoms. Enteropathic arthritis, on the other hand, is associated with ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease and presents acutely with migratory, oligo-arthritis of the weight-bearing joints. Reactive arthritis is an autoimmune condition that develops in response to a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection and is characterized by an acute onset of malaise, fatigue, and fever, as well as asymmetrical, predominantly lower extremity, oligoarthritis. Sarcoidosis and viral arthritis are other types of arthritis that have different symptoms and signs. It is important to distinguish between these different types of arthritis in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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  • Question 155 - A 50-year old man comes to your clinic complaining of not being able...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old man comes to your clinic complaining of not being able to achieve an erection for the past 6 months. He has a medical history of obesity and ischemic heart disease and is currently taking ramipril and amlodipine without any known drug allergies. After taking his history and conducting a physical examination, you decide to order some blood tests. What is the essential test that should be performed for every man who presents with erectile dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Serum lipids, fasting plasma glucose, serum testosterone and prostate specific antigen

      Correct Answer: Serum lipids, fasting plasma glucose and serum testosterone

      Explanation:

      According to NICE clinical knowledge summaries, it is recommended to measure lipids and fasting glucose in all men to determine their 10-year cardiovascular risk. Additionally, free testosterone levels should be measured between 9 and 11am. If the results show low or borderline levels of free testosterone, the test should be repeated and follicle-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, and prolactin should also be measured. Any abnormalities found should prompt referral to an endocrinologist.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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  • Question 156 - Which of the following statements about joint replacement surgery is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about joint replacement surgery is accurate?

      Your Answer: Hip replacement surgery should not be offered to patients with a BMI > 28 kg/m^2

      Correct Answer: Following a hip replacement patients should avoid crossing their legs

      Explanation:

      Joint Replacement for Osteoarthritis

      Joint replacement, also known as arthroplasty, is the most effective treatment for osteoarthritis patients who experience significant pain. Around 25% of patients are now younger than 60 years old, and despite the common belief that obesity is a barrier to joint replacement, there is only a slight increase in short-term complications. There is no difference in long-term joint replacement survival.

      For hips, the most common type of operation is a cemented hip replacement, where a metal femoral component is cemented into the femoral shaft, accompanied by a cemented acetabular polyethylene cup. However, uncemented hip replacements are becoming increasingly popular, particularly in younger and more active patients, despite being more expensive than conventional cemented hip replacements. Hip resurfacing is also sometimes used, where a metal cap is attached over the femoral head, often in younger patients, and has the advantage of preserving the femoral neck, which may be useful if conventional arthroplasty is needed later in life.

      postoperative recovery involves both physiotherapy and a course of home-exercises, and walking sticks or crutches are usually used for up to 6 weeks after hip or knee replacement surgery. Patients who have had a hip replacement operation should receive basic advice to minimize the risk of dislocation, such as avoiding flexing the hip more than 90 degrees, avoiding low chairs, not crossing their legs, and sleeping on their back for the first 6 weeks.

      Complications of joint replacement surgery include wound and joint infection, thromboembolism, and dislocation. NICE recommends that patients receive low-molecular weight heparin for 4 weeks following a hip replacement to prevent thromboembolism.

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  • Question 157 - A 68-year-old woman has falls at home. You diagnose a chest infection and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman has falls at home. You diagnose a chest infection and find that she is also confused. You start antibiotics but her family is mainly concerned about the falls.

      Neither the patient nor family wants her to be admitted to hospital.

      What measures would you suggest to minimize her risk of falling?

      Your Answer: Midodrine treatment

      Correct Answer: Ensure adequate hydration and treatment of infection

      Explanation:

      Preventing Falls in Elderly Patients

      To prevent falls in elderly patients, it is important to ensure adequate hydration and treat any infections promptly. Cot-sides and restraints should be avoided as they can be dangerous. Hip protectors may not be effective in preventing falls or fractures. In cases where postural hypotension is the cause of falls, midodrine can be used as a treatment option. By taking these precautions, the risk of falls can be reduced in elderly patients.

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  • Question 158 - Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) antibodies are most commonly found in which of the following conditions?...

    Incorrect

    • Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) antibodies are most commonly found in which of the following conditions? Choose ONE option from the list.

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The Role of Anti-Ro (Anti-SSA) Autoantibodies in Various Autoimmune Diseases

      Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) autoantibodies are a type of antinuclear antibody (ANA) that bind to the contents of the cell nucleus. These antibodies are associated with several autoimmune diseases, including systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and Sjögren syndrome. In SLE, up to 50% of ANA-positive patients have the anti-Ro subtype, particularly if there is cutaneous involvement. In Sjögren syndrome, up to 90% of patients have anti-Ro antibodies. Anti-La (anti-SS-B) is also typically present in Sjögren syndrome but only in about 15% of SLE patients. Inflammatory myopathy, rheumatoid arthritis, and seronegative arthropathy have lower rates of anti-Ro presence, while vitiligo is not typically associated with these antibodies. Understanding the role of anti-Ro antibodies in different autoimmune diseases can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 159 - A 50-year-old teacher comes to the clinic seeking a medical certificate after undergoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old teacher comes to the clinic seeking a medical certificate after undergoing an open repair for an inguinal hernia. As per the guidelines of the Department of Work and Pensions, what is the recommended duration before he can resume work?

      Your Answer: After 3 - 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: After 2 - 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      Returning to work after inguinal hernia repair takes 2-3 weeks for open surgery and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic surgery.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

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  • Question 160 - A 42-year-old shop stocking agent presents to her GP with complaints of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old shop stocking agent presents to her GP with complaints of pain in both wrists and numbness and tingling at night. She reports needing to shake her wrists in the morning to regain feeling in her fingers. On examination, there is no evidence of neurovascular compromise in her hands, but Phalen's test is positive. Grip strength is reduced, and wrist range of motion is normal.

      What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Physiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Wrist splinting +/- steroid injection

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

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  • Question 161 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her lower limbs. Upon examination, both of her knees are warm and swollen, with tenderness upon palpation of the joint. The joints exhibit crepitus and painful active and passive movement, but there is no ligamental instability. Which of the following findings would indicate an inflammatory cause of joint pain, rather than osteoarthritis, in this patient?

      Your Answer: Crepitus

      Correct Answer: Swelling and warmth

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Inflammatory Arthritis and Osteoarthritis: Symptoms and Signs

      When it comes to joint pain, it can be difficult to determine whether it is caused by inflammatory arthritis or osteoarthritis. However, there are certain symptoms and signs that can help distinguish between the two.

      Swelling and warmth are more likely to be associated with inflammatory arthritis, as it is characterized by the presence of synovial fluid and inflammation. On the other hand, osteoarthritis is more commonly associated with bony joint enlargement and tenderness, rather than swelling and warmth.

      Crepitus, or joint cracking and popping, can occur in both types of arthritis, but is more common in osteoarthritis due to joint-space narrowing. Joint instability can also occur in all types of arthritis, but is most commonly caused by injury or trauma that has damaged ligaments.

      Painful range of motion is another symptom that can occur in both inflammatory arthritis and osteoarthritis. However, it can be managed with analgesia and physiotherapy.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and signs of inflammatory arthritis and osteoarthritis can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 162 - What is a common symptom or condition associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common symptom or condition associated with carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer: Peyronie's disease

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin treatment

      Explanation:

      Associated Conditions with Dupuytren’s Contracture

      Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects the hand’s connective tissue, causing the fingers to bend towards the palm. Along with genetic factors, several other conditions are associated with Dupuytren’s contracture. These include diabetes mellitus, rheumatoid arthritis, sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, acromegaly, leukaemia, and pregnancy. Additionally, alcoholic liver disease, Peyronie’s disease, and phenytoin treatment are also linked to Dupuytren’s contracture. It is essential to be aware of these associated conditions to identify and manage Dupuytren’s contracture effectively.

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  • Question 163 - A previously well, 60-year-old hypertensive builder presents with pain, redness and swelling in...

    Correct

    • A previously well, 60-year-old hypertensive builder presents with pain, redness and swelling in the right knee, which started 12 hours ago. There is a family history of hypertension and joint problems.

      What investigation is most important in identifying the cause of this patient's knee symptoms?

      Your Answer: HLA status

      Explanation:

      Importance of Joint Aspiration in Identifying the Cause of Acute Monoarthropathy

      This patient is presenting with an acute monoarthropathy, characterized by pain, swelling, and erythema of a single joint. To identify the cause of these knee symptoms, the most important investigation is joint aspiration. This is because more than one diagnosis is possible with the limited information given, with septic arthritis and gout being the top differentials.

      Joint aspiration involves the removal of synovial fluid from the affected joint for microscopy and culture. If the cause is septic arthritis, the aspirate would be turbid or purulent, and microscopy would reveal the presence of infective organisms. This information is crucial in guiding appropriate therapy. On the other hand, if the cause is gout, the aspirate would be cloudy, and microscopy would reveal crystals.

      Other investigations, such as x-rays, would not be able to differentiate between these key differential diagnoses. X-rays are of no value in septic arthritis as they only become abnormal following joint destruction. Therefore, joint aspiration is the most important investigation in identifying the cause of acute monoarthropathy.

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  • Question 164 - A 65-year-old woman suffers from dementia and is in a care home. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman suffers from dementia and is in a care home. The staff reported that she could not bear weight on her right leg. Because movement at the hip was painful, a fracture was suspected and she was sent to hospital. An X-ray showed some osteoarthritic change, but no fracture was seen, so she was sent home. She still cannot bear weight on that leg one week later because of hip pain.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis of the hip

      Correct Answer: Fracture neck of femur

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Hip Pain in an Elderly Patient

      Hip pain in an elderly patient can have various causes. One possible cause is a fractured neck of femur, which may present as sudden inability to bear weight. If hip X-rays do not show a fracture, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) should be performed. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, hip sprain, osteoarthritis of the hip, and referred pain from the lower spine are less likely causes. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome is due to minor tears or damage to nearby muscles, tendons, or fascia, and patients are able to bear weight. Hip sprain implies stretching or tearing of ligaments around the hip, and is likely to cause a fracture in an elderly patient. Osteoarthritis of the hip may cause pain, but the patient should still be able to bear some weight. Low back problems can cause hip pain, but the patient should also be able to bear some weight.

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  • Question 165 - A 10-year-old boy presents to your clinic with complaints of left hip pain....

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to your clinic with complaints of left hip pain. He is an avid runner. According to his mother, he has been limping intermittently and his gait has changed over the last few weeks.

      During the examination, you observe that his left leg is shortened and externally rotated. He also has limited internal rotation and an antalgic gait.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      This young boy displays symptoms consistent with slipped upper femoral epiphysis, a condition that is often misdiagnosed and can lead to poor outcomes. The primary symptom is hip pain, which may also be felt in the knee. Running can exacerbate the pain, and the patient may have an altered gait. Reduced internal and external rotation while walking is also common. Acute transient synovitis, which is typically caused by a viral infection, is a more sudden onset condition that affects younger children. Osgood-Schlatter’s disease causes knee pain, while osteochondritis is more commonly seen in adolescents and also presents with knee pain. Perthes disease, which causes stiffness and reduced range of motion, is typically seen in younger children.

      Common Causes of Hip Problems in Children

      Hip problems in children can be caused by various conditions. Development dysplasia of the hip is often detected during newborn examination and can be identified through positive Barlow’s and Ortolani’s tests, as well as unequal skin folds or leg length. Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is the most common cause of hip pain in children aged 2-10 years and is associated with acute hip pain following a viral infection.

      Perthes disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is more common in boys and can be identified through symptoms such as hip pain, limp, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movement. X-rays may show early changes such as widening of joint space, followed by decreased femoral head size or flattening.

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is more common in obese children and boys aged 10-15 years. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms such as knee or distal thigh pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that occurs in children under 16 years old and lasts for more than three months. Pauciarticular JIA, which accounts for around 60% of JIA cases, affects four or fewer joints and is characterized by joint pain and swelling, usually in medium-sized joints such as knees, ankles, and elbows. ANA may be positive in JIA and is associated with anterior uveitis.

      The image gallery shows examples of Perthes disease and slipped upper femoral epiphysis. It is important to identify and treat hip problems in children early to prevent long-term complications.

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  • Question 166 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic after being diagnosed with breast cancer....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic after being diagnosed with breast cancer. Her oncologist has recommended starting anastrozole due to the cancer being oestrogen-receptor positive. You are asked to discuss bone health with the patient.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Reassure her that the risk of osteoporosis is low and commence vitamin d and calcium supplements only

      Correct Answer: Arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen may cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flashes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors may cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flashes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

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  • Question 167 - A 25-year-old man who suffered a spiral fracture of the humerus while playing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man who suffered a spiral fracture of the humerus while playing rugby has developed wrist drop. Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged in this case?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Correct Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The Radial Nerve: Causes and Effects of Compression Injuries

      The radial nerve is a crucial component of the brachial plexus, carrying fibres from C5-C8 and a sensory component from T1. Compression injuries to this nerve can occur in various locations, leading to different symptoms and levels of muscle power loss.

      One well-known cause of radial nerve compression is Saturday night syndrome, which can occur when someone sleeps with their arm over the back of a chair while in a drunken state. This can compress the brachial plexus and cause damage to the radial nerve, as well as the medial and ulnar nerves. Using crutches can also lead to this syndrome.

      Fractures or dislocation of the head of the humerus can also damage the nerve in the axilla, while fractures or compression may damage the nerve at the wrist, producing a finger drop with normal wrist movement. Entrapment of the radial nerve can occur at the elbow as well.

      The extent of muscle power loss will depend on the level of the lesion. However, in cases of compression injuries such as Saturday night syndrome and simple fractures, the nerve usually recovers spontaneously. Understanding the causes and effects of radial nerve compression can help with prevention and treatment of these injuries.

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  • Question 168 - An 80-year-old woman presents for evaluation after sustaining a Colles' fracture while grocery...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents for evaluation after sustaining a Colles' fracture while grocery shopping. She is seeking advice on further treatment options for bone protection. The patient has a history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine 5 mg and indapamide 1.5 mg, and no other significant medical history. On physical examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 146/82 mmHg. Laboratory results reveal a hemoglobin level of 131 g/L (115-160), a white cell count of 4.2 ×109/L (4-10), and a platelet count of 195 ×109/L (150-400). Her sodium level is 140 mmol/L (134-143), potassium level is 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.0), eGFR is 37 ml/min/1.73m2 (below 75), albumin level is 39 g/L (36-47), and calcium level is 2.25 mmol/L (2.2-2.5). Her T score is −2.7 (> −2.5). What is the recommended first-line therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Teriparatide

      Correct Answer: Calcium alone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them fragile and more likely to break. It is most common in postmenopausal women. Alendronate is a recommended treatment for preventing bone fractures in postmenopausal women who have already had a fracture and have been diagnosed with osteoporosis. Bisphosphonates are the most appropriate initial treatment for osteoporosis, as long as the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is not below 35.

      For patients who are unable to take bisphosphonates or other treatments, or in those with severe osteoporosis as defined by T-score, strontium ranelate was recommended as an alternative. However, the manufacturers stopped supplying it to the UK in August 2017. Teriparatide, a parathyroid hormone (PTH) analogue, is reserved for use in the most severely osteoporotic patient group. It is important to note that any treatment should be started after a full cardiovascular risk assessment.

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  • Question 169 - A 67-year-old man has been experiencing pelvic girdle pain. You are contemplating additional...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has been experiencing pelvic girdle pain. You are contemplating additional investigations and imaging. What condition is most likely to be overlooked on a bone scan?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Bone Scans for Detecting Bone Lesions

      Bone scans, also known as bone scintigraphy, are a diagnostic tool used to detect bone lesions. They rely on the increased blood flow and osteoblastic activity that occur during the repair process following bone destruction. This makes them particularly sensitive in diagnosing bony metastases, such as those seen in breast and prostate cancer, as well as avascular necrosis, osteosarcoma, and Paget’s disease of bone.

      However, bone scans are much less sensitive than plain radiography in diagnosing multiple myeloma, which is typically an osteoclastic disease process. Therefore, bone scans are generally not recommended for routine staging of myeloma. The BCSH Guidelines on the diagnosis and management of multiple myeloma state that bone scintigraphy has no place in the routine staging of myeloma.

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  • Question 170 - Sarah is a 19-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of myalgia and...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 19-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of myalgia and fatigue. She has no significant medical history. In the past, she had a rash on her cheeks that did not improve with Antifungal cream.

      During the examination, her vital signs are normal, and there is no joint swelling or redness. However, she experiences tenderness when her hands are squeezed. Her muscle strength is 5/5 in all groups.

      Sarah's maternal aunt has been diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and she is worried that she might have the same condition. Which of the following blood tests, if negative, can be a useful rule-out test?

      Your Answer: C-reactive protein (CRP)

      Correct Answer: ANA

      Explanation:

      A useful test to rule out SLE is ANA positivity, as the majority of patients with SLE are ANA positive. While CRP and ESR may rise during an acute flare of SLE, they are not specific to autoimmune conditions. ANCA is an antibody associated with autoimmune vasculitis, not SLE.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

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  • Question 171 - One of your adolescent patients with a family history of Marfan's syndrome has...

    Incorrect

    • One of your adolescent patients with a family history of Marfan's syndrome has recently been diagnosed with the condition. What is the most crucial examination to monitor their condition?

      Your Answer: DEXA scan

      Correct Answer: Echocardiography

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection may be more likely to occur in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome due to the dilation of the aortic sinuses.

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      Individuals with Marfan’s syndrome often have a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05. They may also have a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, they may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm, which can lead to aortic dissection and aortic regurgitation. Other symptoms may include repeated pneumothoraces (collapsed lung), upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, myopia, and ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and medication such as beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, the life expectancy has significantly improved. Despite this, cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.

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  • Question 172 - An 84-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of proximal muscle pain and...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of proximal muscle pain and stiffness along with elevated inflammatory markers on blood tests. After being diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica, what medication's inadequate response would lead to considering an alternative diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Naproxen

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      If patients with polymyalgia rheumatica do not respond well to steroids, it is important to consider other possible diagnoses. While alendronic acid is necessary for bone protection during long-term steroid use, it will not alleviate symptoms. Amitriptyline is better suited for chronic or neuropathic pain rather than inflammatory conditions. Aspirin and naproxen may provide some relief due to their anti-inflammatory properties, but the response will not be as significant as with prednisolone.

      Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 173 - A 65-year-old man complains of pain and numbness extending from the buttocks down...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man complains of pain and numbness extending from the buttocks down the legs when he walks about 200 metres. His legs become weak and he has to stop. To obtain relief, he has to sit down. His femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses are easily palpable in both legs. He has type 2 diabetes.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibromyalgia

      Correct Answer: Lumbar spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Neurogenic Intermittent Claudication

      Neurogenic intermittent claudication is a condition that produces fatigue, weakness, leg numbness, and paraesthesiae. The narrowing of the spinal canal or neural foramina is the primary cause of this condition. Lumbar spinal stenosis is the most common cause of neurogenic intermittent claudication, which results from the loss of disc space, osteophytes, and a hypertrophic ligamentum flavum. The symptoms of this condition can be relieved by sitting, leaning forward, putting the foot on a raised stool or step, or lying supine rather than prone.

      However, other conditions can also cause neurogenic intermittent claudication. Diabetic neuropathy, fibromyalgia, mechanical low back pain, and peripheral vascular disease are some of the differential diagnoses that need to be considered. Diabetic neuropathy can cause peripheral sensorimotor or proximal motor neuropathy, but there is no indication of sensory or motor changes in this case. Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder that affects multiple sites and can cause various symptoms, including fatigue, sleep disturbance, paraesthesia, memory disturbance, restless legs, problems with bladder and bowel, and psychological problems. Mechanical low back pain usually occurs after a precipitating event that produces immediate low back pain, which can radiate to the buttocks and thighs. Peripheral vascular disease can cause intermittent claudication, but the presence of palpable pulses makes it an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

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  • Question 174 - A 28-year-old man presents with swelling and pain in the proximal interphalangeal joints...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with swelling and pain in the proximal interphalangeal joints of both hands. Both hands show ulnar deviation, with pitting of the nails and onycholysis.
      What is the single most likely cause of this patient’s condition?

      Your Answer: Dermatophyte fungal infection

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psoriatic Arthritis and its Differential Diagnosis

      Psoriatic arthritis is a condition that affects at least 5% of patients with psoriasis. It can occur with or without visible skin lesions and may only involve the nails. The disease can present in various ways, including asymmetrical oligoarticular arthritis, asymmetrical polyarthritis similar to rheumatoid arthritis, distal interphalangeal arthropathy, arthritis mutilans, and spondylitis with or without sacroiliitis. Dactylitis, or sausage-shaped digits, is a characteristic feature of psoriatic arthritis due to tendon and ligament inflammation.

      Dermatophyte fungal infection is limited to the skin, hair, and nails and doesn’t affect joints. Gonococcal arthritis may cause migratory arthralgia or septic arthritis in a small number of joints. Reactive arthritis typically presents with symmetrical oligoarthritis, low back pain, heel pain, and possible urethritis and conjunctivitis. Rheumatoid arthritis usually presents with tender, warm, and swollen joints, along with joint stiffness that is worse in the morning and after inactivity. However, the nail changes described in this case make psoriatic arthritis a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, understanding the various modes of presentation and differential diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective management of the disease.

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  • Question 175 - A 78-year-old woman presents with lumbar back pain that is causing sleep disturbance...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old woman presents with lumbar back pain that is causing sleep disturbance despite pain relief. On examination, there is perianal numbness and a relaxed anal sphincter. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Immediate hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Cauda Equina Syndrome: A Surgical Emergency

      Cauda equina syndrome is a medical emergency that requires urgent admission and surgical intervention. It is characterized by non-mechanical back pain and symptoms suggestive of spinal cord compression. The most common cause is herniation of a lumbar disc, but it can also be caused by tumours, trauma, or spinal abscess.

      The symptoms of cauda equina syndrome include saddle paraesthesia or anaesthesia, perineal or perianal sensory loss, recent onset of faecal incontinence, recent onset of bladder dysfunction, unexpected laxity of the anal sphincter, and severe or progressive neurological deficit in the lower limbs.

      Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent permanent neurological damage. Urgent surgical spinal decompression is usually indicated to relieve the pressure on the spinal cord and nerves. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of cauda equina syndrome, seek medical attention immediately.

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  • Question 176 - A 40-year-old manual worker has been experiencing back pain with radiating pain down...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old manual worker has been experiencing back pain with radiating pain down the right leg for a few weeks. The pain extends below the knee and he has some tingling sensations affecting his calf.

      During the examination, his knee jerks are reduced, but his ankle jerks are normal and there is no apparent muscle weakness. There are no clear sensory signs. The straight leg raising test is decreased with a positive sciatic stretch test. Additionally, the femoral stretch test is positive.

      What is the location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: S1

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      Nerve Stretch Tests in Musculoskeletal Examination

      The examination of the musculoskeletal system involves standard procedures such as the sciatic nerve stretch test and the femoral nerve stretch test. These tests help assess the function of the nerves in the lower limbs.

      A diminished knee jerk reflex may indicate a lesion in the L4 nerve root, but the ankle jerk reflex remains unaffected.

      The femoral nerve is derived from the lumbar roots 2, 3, and 4, while the sciatic nerve is derived from the lumbar roots L4 and 5 and sacral roots 1, 2, and 3. Interestingly, lumbar root 4 is the only root that is common to both nerves.

      Overall, nerve stretch tests are important tools in the examination of the musculoskeletal system and can provide valuable information about nerve function in the lower limbs.

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  • Question 177 - The main reason for the increased mortality risk in patients with rheumatoid arthritis,...

    Correct

    • The main reason for the increased mortality risk in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, compared to the general population, is:

      Your Answer: Cardiovascular disease

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis and other inflammatory joint diseases increase the risk of premature death, mainly due to cardiovascular disease, which is comparable to the risk in diabetes mellitus. Traditional risk factors and the inflammatory effect of rheumatoid arthritis on the endothelium contribute to this increased risk. In addition to cardiovascular disease, infection, respiratory disease, and malignancies are also leading causes of excess mortality in rheumatoid arthritis. Patients with rheumatoid arthritis have an increased risk of developing certain types of cancer, which may be due to inflammation and medication effects. Concurrent therapy, often immunosuppressive, may contribute to mortality in rheumatoid arthritis, with drugs such as steroids linked to heart attacks and kidney function decline. Kidney disease is also more common in people with rheumatoid arthritis. Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at increased risk of anxiety, depression, and low self-esteem, with high levels of associated mortality and suicide. Disability and loss of function can lead to depression, but medication side-effects, gender, or age may also contribute.

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  • Question 178 - A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic after returning from a trip to...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic after returning from a trip to Spain with complaints of dysuria, red eyes, and left knee pain. He has no significant medical history and has never experienced such symptoms before. His mother has a history of psoriatic arthritis.

      During the examination, the patient has bilaterally injected conjunctiva and a slightly swollen left knee. His vital signs are stable.

      What is the most commonly associated feature with the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Dactylitis

      Explanation:

      Dactylitis is a common symptom of reactive arthritis, which is strongly suggested by this patient’s history. The fact that his mother has psoriatic arthritis may indicate a hereditary HLA-B27 genotype, which is also associated with reactive arthritis. Achilles tendinitis is more commonly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, another seronegative arthritis linked to HLA-B27. Erythema multiforme is a skin reaction caused by various infections and is not specifically associated with reactive arthritis. Herberden’s nodes are bony nodules at the distal interphalangeal joints associated with osteoarthritis, which is a non-inflammatory condition. Although the patient’s positive family history suggested psoriatic arthritis, the rest of his history was more consistent with reactive arthritis, making that option incorrect.

      Dactylitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of a finger or toe. The causes of this condition include spondyloarthritis, such as Psoriatic and reactive arthritis, sickle-cell disease, and other rare causes like tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, and syphilis.

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  • Question 179 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has experienced gastrointestinal...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has experienced gastrointestinal discomfort with two different bisphosphonates and is unwilling to go to the hospital for regular infusions. She smokes ten cigarettes per day and has a BMI of 20 kg/m2. She has a history of a left Colles fracture. Her T-score is −3.5.
      What is the most suitable next step for managing the patient's osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Denosumab

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoporosis: A Comparison

      Osteoporosis is a common condition that affects bone density and increases the risk of fractures. There are several treatment options available, each with its own advantages and disadvantages. In this article, we will compare the most commonly used treatments for osteoporosis.

      Denosumab is a RANK-ligand inhibitor that reduces osteoclast activity and pre-osteoclast to osteoclast maturation, leading to downregulation of bone resorption. It is administered once every six months via subcutaneous injection, making it a convenient option for patients who struggle with compliance. Denosumab is particularly suitable for patients who have not tolerated bisphosphonates and have a low BMI.

      Calcitonin is available as an intravenous preparation for the treatment of acute hypercalcaemia. However, oral calcitonin is not used as chronic therapy due to the risk of osteosarcoma.

      Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator that is less effective than bisphosphonates as a treatment for osteoporosis. However, it does reduce the risk of breast cancer in women who take it.

      Strontium ranelate is reserved as a treatment for osteoporosis for patients who are unable to tolerate other therapies. However, it may be associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular events.

      Teriparatide is a synthetic parathyroid hormone analogue given once a day as a subcutaneous injection for osteoporosis. However, it may not be a preferred option for a 75-year-old woman.

      In conclusion, the choice of treatment for osteoporosis depends on several factors, including the patient’s age, medical history, and tolerance to different therapies. Denosumab is a convenient option for patients who struggle with compliance, while raloxifene may be suitable for women who want to reduce their risk of breast cancer. However, it is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each treatment option with a healthcare professional before making a decision.

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  • Question 180 - A 38-year-old teacher presents with lower back pain. She had a similar episode...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old teacher presents with lower back pain. She had a similar episode a year ago and took paracetamol and diazepam. The pain eventually subsided but has now returned. She reports feeling pain mainly on the lower right side for the past two weeks, which worsens with movement and lifting heavy objects. She denies any muscle spasms, urinary or bowel symptoms, or perianal paresthesia. Paracetamol has not provided relief. On examination, there is no tenderness in the spine, and she has a reasonable range of motion, but experiences pain at the extremes of motion. Power and sensation in her lower legs are normal.
      What is the recommended management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Advise ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Managing Mechanical Back Pain with Anti-Inflammatory Medication

      When a patient presents with mechanical back pain, it is important to rule out any red flags before considering treatment options. Once it has been established that there are no serious underlying conditions, the WHO pain ladder recommends starting with paracetamol and then moving on to anti-inflammatory medication if necessary. Since most back pain is inflammatory in nature, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are often the most effective option.

      It is important to note that not all NSAIDs are created equal. Piroxicam, for example, is associated with a higher risk of gastrointestinal events, while ibuprofen has a lower risk. When prescribing NSAIDs for back pain, it is important to take into account the patient’s individual risk factors, including age and any pre-existing medical conditions.

      It is also worth noting that tramadol, which was previously a common treatment for back pain, is now a controlled drug and is not typically recommended for this purpose. Amitriptyline may be used for nerve-related sciatica symptoms, but is not typically used as a first-line treatment for mechanical back pain.

      In summary, when managing mechanical back pain, it is important to consider the potential benefits and risks of different treatment options. NSAIDs are often the most effective option, but it is important to choose the right medication and to take into account the patient’s individual risk factors.

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  • Question 181 - Which of the following patients is eligible for AAA screening? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following patients is eligible for AAA screening?

      Your Answer: 45-year-old male with a longstanding history of alcohol and substance misuse

      Correct Answer: 65-year-old male with no significant past medical history or family history

      Explanation:

      AAA screening is available for men who are 65 years of age or older, as well as for men and women who have a significant family history of AAA. None of the other options meet the criteria for AAA screening eligibility.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

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  • Question 182 - A 42-year-old man presents with elbow pain.
    Which physical examination finding would be most...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with elbow pain.
      Which physical examination finding would be most indicative of a diagnosis of tennis elbow? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Severe restriction of passive movement

      Correct Answer: Pain on resisted wrist extension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tennis Elbow: Symptoms and Causes

      Tennis elbow, also known as lateral epicondylitis, is a common condition that causes pain and tenderness in the lateral elbow and upper forearm. It is caused by repetitive stress on the extensor forearm muscle, specifically at the muscle-tendon junction at the lateral epicondyle. This article will discuss the symptoms and causes of tennis elbow.

      Symptoms of Tennis Elbow:
      – Lateral elbow and upper forearm pain and tenderness
      – Pain exacerbated by active and resisted movements of the extensor muscles of the forearm
      – Pain on resisted extension of the wrist or middle finger

      Causes of Tennis Elbow:
      – Repetitive stress on the extensor forearm muscle
      – Overuse of the forearm muscles during activities such as tennis, painting, or typing
      – Poor technique or equipment during physical activities
      – Age-related degeneration of the tendons

      It is important to note that decreased sensation in the 4th and 5th fingers is not a symptom of tennis elbow, but rather a feature of ulnar neuropathy that may be associated with medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s elbow). Severe restriction of passive movement and swelling of the elbow joint are also not typical symptoms of tennis elbow. Tenderness over the medial epicondyle of the humerus is a symptom of Golfer’s elbow, which is inflammation of the tendon at the origin of the flexor forearm muscles causing medial elbow pain.

      If you are experiencing symptoms of tennis elbow, it is important to seek medical attention and rest the affected arm to prevent further injury. Treatment options may include physical therapy, pain management, and in severe cases, surgery.

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  • Question 183 - John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged for a routine DEXA scan. The DEXA results are as follows:

      Spine (L2-4) T: -2.6 Z: -1.7
      Left femur T: -1.5 Z: -0.9
      Right femur T: -2.3 Z: -1.5

      What is your interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis of the spine
      Osteopenia of the left and right femur

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The results of the DEXA scan show that the spine has osteoporosis with a T-score below -2.5, while the left and right femur have osteopenia with T-scores between -1 and -2.5. It is important to note that osteoporosis is diagnosed when the T-score is below -2.5, while osteopenia is diagnosed when the T-score is between -1 and -2.5. The z score takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, but the T score is used to determine the presence of osteoporosis and osteopenia.

      Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis

      When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.

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  • Question 184 - A 75-year-old man is discharged after suffering a fractured neck of femur. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is discharged after suffering a fractured neck of femur. Upon follow-up, his progress is satisfactory, but there is a need to consider secondary prevention of future fractures. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange DEXA scan + start strontium ranelate if T-score < -2.5 SD

      Correct Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.

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  • Question 185 - A 55-year-old man presents for follow-up of his knee pain, which began after...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents for follow-up of his knee pain, which began after a bout of gardening 8 weeks ago. He recently had an x-ray and blood tests done by a colleague who advised him on soft tissue injury management and to return if his symptoms did not improve. Despite nightly icing and daily use of over-the-counter ibuprofen, his knee pain remains significant. On examination, there is a small effusion and pain with extreme flexion of the right knee. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and takes methotrexate, folic acid, and amitriptyline. His recent blood tests show normal renal function, bone profile, CRP, and full blood count, but his ALT and ALP are both elevated to over three times the upper limit of normal. He has no jaundice or focal abdominal signs and is otherwise well. What is the most appropriate immediate course of action?

      Your Answer: Repeat his liver function blood test in one week

      Correct Answer: Provide medication advice and discuss his case with a rheumatologist urgently

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate and Liver Toxicity: Importance of Regular Blood Monitoring

      In this case, the patient is taking methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis and has presented with knee pain. However, the finding of raised liver function tests, although unrelated to the knee pain, should not be ignored due to the potential for methotrexate-induced liver toxicity. Regular blood monitoring is essential for patients taking methotrexate, with full blood count and renal and liver function tests performed before starting treatment and repeated weekly until therapy is stabilised. After stabilisation, bloods should be monitored at least every two to three months.

      Local protocols often advise monthly blood tests on stabilised regimens, with GPs responsible for acting on any abnormal results. In this case, the patient’s ALT and ALP levels are raised to three times the upper limit of normal, indicating the need to withhold methotrexate and seek urgent advice from the local rheumatological department.

      It is important to ask about over-the-counter medication use, as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can reduce methotrexate excretion and increase the risk of toxicity. Patients should be advised to avoid self-medication with aspirin and ibuprofen, and close monitoring is required if prescribed concurrently with methotrexate. Rheumatology departments often have specialist nurses available for urgent advice on managing methotrexate-induced liver toxicity.

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  • Question 186 - A 68-year old lady with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis is seen with anaemia.

    She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year old lady with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis is seen with anaemia.

      She originally presented three to four months ago with arthralgia affecting her hands and feet and was referred to secondary care for disease management.

      She has recently been started on methotrexate once weekly to try to control her symptoms. She also continues to take oral steroids which are being tapered off since the initiation of DMARD therapy. Her current prednisolone dose is 5 mg daily. Her other medications consist of folic acid 5 mg weekly and PRN ibuprofen 400 mg.

      She had a full blood count performed recently which revealed:

      Haemoglobin (Hb) 98 g/L (115-165)
      Mean cell volume (MCV) 77.4 fL (80-100)
      Red cell count 4.2 ×1012/L (3.5-5.0)

      Further tests were then arranged which have shown a ferritin of 22 (10-200).

      Which of the following tests is most useful in identifying the underlying cause of this patient's anaemia?

      Your Answer: B12 measurement

      Correct Answer: Serum transferrin receptor / ferritin index

      Explanation:

      Microcytic Anaemia in a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis

      In this case, a patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with microcytic anaemia. While anaemia of chronic disease should be considered in any patient with a chronic inflammatory disorder, the recent onset of arthritic symptoms and normal MCV make it less likely. Further tests should be done to identify any reversible or treatable factors. B12 deficiency and haemolytic anaemia can be ruled out due to elevated MCV measurements. Microcytic anaemia suggests iron deficiency, and thalassaemia trait should also be considered if clinically indicated. The normal ferritin level should be interpreted with caution as it may be elevated due to underlying inflammation or infection. Iron/total iron binding capacity and serum transferrin receptor/ferritin index can help differentiate between anaemia of chronic disease and iron deficiency. In this case, the diagnosis was confirmed as iron deficiency. The patient’s use of ibuprofen and oral prednisolone may cause gastrointestinal bleeding, but there is no macrocytosis despite folic acid supplementation. Overall, microcytic anaemia in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis is most likely due to iron deficiency.

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  • Question 187 - A 26-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner, complaining of long-standing back pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner, complaining of long-standing back pain, with no red flags. On examination, he has tenderness bilaterally in the lower lumbar area and reduced lumbar spine range of movement. He is found to be positive for human leukocyte antigen B27 (HLA-B27) antigen and an X-ray of his sacroiliac joints shows bilateral erosions.
      Which single feature most supports a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis (AS) above another cause of back pain?

      Your Answer: Limited lumbar spine motion on physical examination

      Correct Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ankylosing Spondylitis: Diagnostic Indicators and Symptoms

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a type of inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine and other joints. It is more commonly diagnosed in men aged 20-30 years. Symptoms of AS may take up to 8-10 years to become evident on an X-ray film, but when present, they are diagnostic. However, earlier in the disease course, indirect evidence of sacroiliitis and spondylitis may be detected, including sacroiliac joint tenderness and limited spinal movement, which are nonspecific. Advanced-stage AS is characterized by stiffness of the spine, kyphosis, and a stooped posture. This article discusses the diagnostic indicators and symptoms of AS, including back stiffness, limited lumbar spine motion, presence of HLA-B27 antigen, and tenderness in the lower lumbar area.

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  • Question 188 - One of your elderly patients is prescribed denosumab for osteoporosis.

    What is a potential...

    Incorrect

    • One of your elderly patients is prescribed denosumab for osteoporosis.

      What is a potential adverse effect associated with denosumab therapy?

      Your Answer: Sarcoma

      Correct Answer: Atypical femoral fractures

      Explanation:

      Although denosumab is usually well tolerated, it has the potential to cause atypical femoral fractures.

      Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns

      Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.

      The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.

      Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.

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  • Question 189 - An 82-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of worsening leg cramps for...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of worsening leg cramps for the past six months. What is true about leg cramps?

      Your Answer: Examination of legs in patients who complain of leg cramps tend to be normal

      Explanation:

      The use of quinine as the first line of treatment for leg cramps is not recommended due to its low success rate. Blood tests may not be necessary unless a specific cause is suspected, such as checking urea and electrolytes, thyroid function, and creatine kinase. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends self-care measures as the initial treatment for leg cramps. Referral to secondary care is only necessary if symptoms persist or significantly affect the patient’s quality of life despite self-care measures.

      Managing Leg Cramps

      Leg cramps are a frequent occurrence, particularly in individuals over the age of 60. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) doesn’t recommend quinine as the first line of treatment due to its poor benefit-to-risk ratio. Instead, self-care measures such as stretching exercises for the calves are recommended as the initial management approach. If leg cramps persist despite these measures, quinine may be tried for a short period, but it should be discontinued if no improvement is observed. If the symptoms continue to affect the individual’s quality of life significantly, referral to secondary care is necessary.

      To summarize, leg cramps are a common problem that can be managed with self-care measures such as stretching exercises. Quinine should only be used if the symptoms persist, and referral to secondary care is necessary if the symptoms continue to affect the individual’s quality of life.

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  • Question 190 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-month history of pelvic pain. She denies any history of trauma. An X-ray shows evidence of Paget's disease.
      What is the most suitable course of management?

      Your Answer: Bisphosphonates are the gold-standard treatment

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are the preferred treatment for Paget’s disease, as they can reduce bone turnover, alleviate bone pain, promote healing of osteolytic lesions, and restore normal bone histology. Alendronate is taken daily for two months, while zoledronate is given as a single injection. Asymptomatic Paget’s disease is typically not treated unless there is radiological evidence of the disease. Calcitonin is less effective than bisphosphonates and can cause side effects, so it is only used for patients who cannot tolerate bisphosphonates. Hypocalcaemia is a possible complication, so vitamin D and calcium levels should be checked and corrected before bisphosphonate treatment. Orthopaedic surgery may be necessary for pathological fractures, and bisphosphonates can be used before and after surgery. Although the patient in this case doesn’t currently have a fracture, she is at risk, and surgery would not be contraindicated in the future.

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  • Question 191 - A 36-year-old woman presents with malaise, joint pain and swelling, Raynaud's phenomenon, Sjögren...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with malaise, joint pain and swelling, Raynaud's phenomenon, Sjögren syndrome, muscle pain and sclerodactyly. Her immunology results show a positive ANA and high titre of anti-nRNP, but no antibodies to Ro (SSA), La (SSB), Jo-1 (RNA synthetase), PM-1 (nucleolar protein), double-stranded DNA, SCL-70 (topoisomerase) and centromere. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic sclerosis and/or CREST

      Correct Answer: Mixed connective tissue disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autoimmune Disorders: Differentiating Between Mixed Connective Tissue Disorder and Other Conditions

      Autoimmune disorders can be difficult to diagnose due to their overlapping symptoms and shared antibodies. One such disorder is mixed connective tissue disorder, which presents with undifferentiated connective tissue disorder and anti-nRNP antibodies along with Raynaud’s phenomenon. However, it is important to differentiate this disorder from others with similar features.

      Polymyositis and/or dermatomyositis, for example, are associated with anti-Jo-1 and anti-PM-1 antibodies. Sjögren syndrome, on the other hand, is commonly associated with SSA and SSB antibodies, which can also be seen in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Systemic sclerosis and/or CREST may present with anti-centromere or topoisomerase antibodies.

      Therefore, a thorough understanding of the specific antibodies associated with each autoimmune disorder is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating patients.

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  • Question 192 - You assess a 48-year-old woman who was diagnosed with breast cancer two years...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 48-year-old woman who was diagnosed with breast cancer two years ago. She has been experiencing difficulty walking since yesterday and can only take a few steps. What is the earliest and most common sign of spinal cord compression?

      Your Answer: Reduced sensation in the perianal area

      Correct Answer: Back pain

      Explanation:

      The earliest and most common symptom of spinal cord compression is back pain.

      Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency

      Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, which are more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer. The earliest and most common symptom is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level, while lesions below L1 cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Proper management is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord and improve the patient’s quality of life.

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  • Question 193 - A 75-year-old man presents with a complaint of right leg pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents with a complaint of right leg pain that has been bothering him for two years. He denies any history of falls or injury. The patient has a past medical history of heart failure and currently takes inhaled bronchodilators and inhaled corticosteroids for obstructive airway disease. On examination, he appears to be a healthy elderly man with mild tenderness in his right leg only. Routine blood tests reveal normal serum calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D levels, but a significantly elevated alkaline phosphatase level.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Bisphosphonates

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Paget’s Disease: Bisphosphonates, Calcium and Vitamin D, Co-codamol, NSAIDs, and Prednisolone

      Paget’s disease is a condition that requires treatment to control pain and reduce disease progression and complications. The drug of choice for this condition is oral or intravenous bisphosphonates, which reduce bone turnover and improve bone pain, promoting the healing of osteolytic lesions and the restoration of normal bone histology. However, some progression may still occur, and monitoring of serum alkaline phosphatase is necessary to assess treatment effectiveness and disease activity. Patients must be kept under review due to the risk of osteosarcoma, which is suggested by increased bone pain that is poorly responsive to treatment, local swelling, and sometimes a pathological fracture.

      While calcium and vitamin D may be necessary to correct any deficiencies before commencing bisphosphonate treatment, they are not the primary treatment options for Paget’s disease. Pain relief may be achieved with paracetamol (or co-codamol) and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). However, prednisolone is not used in this condition.

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  • Question 194 - What is a true statement about scaphoid fractures? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about scaphoid fractures?

      Your Answer: Wrist fractures are uncommon

      Correct Answer: Should be treated by bone grafting and internal fixation even if undisplaced

      Explanation:

      Scaphoid Fractures and Wrist Injuries

      Scaphoid fractures are frequently seen in young adult males and are caused by falling on an outstretched hand. If complicated by avascular necrosis, the proximal pole is typically affected due to the scaphoid blood supply’s distal to proximal direction. Undisplaced fractures can be treated with a plaster. Wrist fractures are also common. Due to difficulties in visualizing fractures, initial radiographs usually involve four views of the scaphoid.

      In summary, scaphoid fractures and wrist injuries are prevalent among young adult males. Proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications such as avascular necrosis. Radiographs are essential in identifying fractures, and multiple views may be necessary to ensure accurate diagnosis.

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  • Question 195 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of weakness and tingling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of weakness and tingling in her right hand. Upon examination, she displays atrophy of the thenar eminence and experiences sensory loss in the palmar region of the lateral (radial) three fingers. Which nerve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      It is highly likely that this patient is suffering from carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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  • Question 196 - A 67-year old man with a history of osteoarthritis and prior cervical laminectomy...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year old man with a history of osteoarthritis and prior cervical laminectomy for degenerative cervical myelopathy reports a 2-month progression of gait instability and urinary urgency. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Spinal metastases

      Correct Answer: Recurrent degenerative cervical myelopathy

      Explanation:

      Patients who have undergone decompressive surgery for cervical myelopathy need to be closely monitored postoperatively as there is a risk of adjacent segment disease, where pathology can recur at spinal levels that were not treated during the initial surgery. Additionally, spinal dynamics can be altered by surgery, increasing the likelihood of other levels being affected and causing mal-alignment of the spine, such as kyphosis and spondylolisthesis, which can also impact the spinal cord. If patients experience recurrent symptoms, they should be urgently evaluated by specialist spinal services.

      Transverse myelitis typically presents more suddenly than in this case, with a sensory level and upper motor neuron signs below the affected level. It is often seen in patients with multiple sclerosis or Devics disease (neuromyelitis optica), who may also experience optic neuritis.

      On the other hand, the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with recurrent cervical myelopathy, given his medical history and subacute presentation. Cauda equina syndrome, which results from compression of the cauda equina and typically includes leg weakness, saddle anesthesia, and sphincter disturbance, is less likely in this case.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

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  • Question 197 - A patient in their 60s has been seen by a rheumatologist and diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s has been seen by a rheumatologist and diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. The rheumatologist recommends methotrexate to be prescribed through a shared care agreement. Can you identify which of the patient's current medications interacts with methotrexate?

      Your Answer: Ranitidine

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      According to the British National Formulary, the combination of methotrexate and antibiotics containing trimethoprim can lead to bone marrow suppression and potentially fatal pancytopenia. Therefore, it is advised to avoid prescribing these two medications together. There are no reported interactions between methotrexate and the other listed medications.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

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  • Question 198 - You are conducting the yearly evaluation of a 55-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis....

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting the yearly evaluation of a 55-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most probable complication that may arise due to her condition?

      Your Answer: Type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at a higher risk of developing IHD.

      Complications of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing inflammation and pain. However, it can also lead to a variety of extra-articular complications. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and mental health.

      Respiratory complications of RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, methotrexate pneumonitis, and pleurisy. Ocular complications can include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, steroid-induced cataracts, and chloroquine retinopathy. RA can also lead to osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and an increased risk of infections. Depression is also a common complication of RA.

      Less common complications of RA include Felty’s syndrome, which is characterized by RA, splenomegaly, and a low white cell count, and amyloidosis, which is a rare condition where abnormal proteins build up in organs and tissues.

      In summary, RA can lead to a variety of complications that affect different parts of the body. It is important for patients with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or treat any complications that may arise.

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  • Question 199 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain at the base of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain at the base of her right thumb. She has no significant medical history. During examination, there is widespread tenderness and swelling of her right first carpometacarpal joint. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Hand osteoarthritis most frequently occurs at the trapeziometacarpal joint, which is located at the base of the thumb.

      The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management

      Glucosamine is a natural component found in cartilage and synovial fluid. Several double-blind randomized controlled trials have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee osteoarthritis, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness. Despite this, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for osteoarthritis management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.

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  • Question 200 - A 72-year-old woman comes in with discomfort at the base of her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes in with discomfort at the base of her left thumb. The left first carpometacarpal joint is swollen and tender.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Common Hand and Wrist Pathologies

      The hand and wrist are complex structures that are prone to various pathologies. Three common conditions include osteoarthritis of the first carpometacarpal joint, scaphoid fractures, and De Quervain’s tenosynovitis.

      Osteoarthritis of the first carpometacarpal joint is a prevalent condition in postmenopausal women. Symptoms include tenderness, stiffness, crepitus, swelling, and pain when the thumb is abducted. A characteristic clinical sign is squaring of the hand, caused by swelling, radial subluxation of the metacarpal, and atrophy of the thenar muscles.

      Scaphoid fractures are relatively common and usually occur after a fall onto an outstretched hand. The proximal portion of the scaphoid lacks its blood supply, which can lead to avascular necrosis if a fracture leaves it isolated from the rest of the bone. This produces pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, typically in the anatomical snuffbox, worsened by wrist movement.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. It presents with pain on the radial aspect of the wrist, accompanied by swelling and tenderness. Treatment involves splinting, with or without corticosteroid injection.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal Health (28/199) 14%
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