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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue. Routine blood tests reveal Hb...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue. Routine blood tests reveal Hb of 105 g/L, MCV of 104 fL, platelets of 305 * 109/L, and WBC of 9.3 * 109/L. Further tests reveal positive intrinsic factor antibodies. During the discussion of the diagnosis with the patient, the potential serious complications are brought up. What is one serious complication that can arise from this condition?

      Your Answer: Gastritis

      Correct Answer: Gastric cancer

      Explanation:

      The presence of pernicious anaemia, as indicated by the patient’s macrocytic anaemia and positive intrinsic factor antibodies, can increase the risk of developing gastric carcinoma. Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disease that impairs the production of intrinsic factor, leading to low levels of vitamin B12 and anaemia. While chronic lymphocytic leukaemia and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma are not strongly linked to pernicious anaemia, they may be associated with genetic mutations acquired over time. Gastritis, which is not a serious complication, is more commonly associated with conditions such as Helicobacter pylori infection.

      Understanding Pernicious Anaemia

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in vitamin B12 deficiency due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious means causing harm in a gradual or subtle way, and this is reflected in the often subtle symptoms and delayed diagnosis of the condition. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition.

      The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia involves antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells. These antibodies can bind to intrinsic factor, blocking the vitamin B12 binding site, or reduce acid production and cause atrophic gastritis. This leads to reduced intrinsic factor production and reduced vitamin B12 absorption, which can result in megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Risk factors for pernicious anaemia include being female, middle to old age, and having other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid arthritis, and vitiligo. It is also more common in individuals with blood group A.

      Symptoms of pernicious anaemia include anaemia features such as lethargy, pallor, and dyspnoea, as well as neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Neuropsychiatric features such as memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, and irritability may also be present, along with mild jaundice and glossitis.

      Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia involves a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and testing for antibodies such as anti intrinsic factor antibodies and anti gastric parietal cell antibodies. Treatment involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly, and folic acid supplementation may also be required. Complications of pernicious anaemia include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

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  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man has been referred to the hepatology clinic by his GP...

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    • A 45-year-old man has been referred to the hepatology clinic by his GP due to concerns of developing chronic liver disease. The patient reports feeling increasingly fatigued over the past few years, which he attributes to poor sleep and low libido causing relationship problems with his partner. During examination, the hepatologist notes the presence of gynaecomastia, palmar erythema, and grey skin pigmentation. Blood tests are ordered to investigate the underlying cause.

      The following results were obtained:

      Bilirubin: 18 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP: 110 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT: 220 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT: 90 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin: 37 g/L (35 - 50)
      Ferritin: 1,250 ng/mL (20 - 230)

      What is the initial treatment that should be offered to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venesection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.

      The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.

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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension has a 10-year cardiovascular disease...

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    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension has a 10-year cardiovascular disease risk of 20%. Atorvastatin 20 mg is prescribed, and liver function tests are conducted before starting treatment:

      Bilirubin 10 µmol/l (3 - 17 µmol/l)
      ALP 96 u/l (30 - 150 u/l)
      ALT 40 u/l (10 - 45 u/l)
      Gamma-GT 28 u/l (10 - 40 u/l)

      After three months, the LFTs are repeated:

      Bilirubin 12 µmol/l (3 - 17 µmol/l)
      ALP 107 u/l (30 - 150 u/l)
      ALT 104 u/l (10 - 45 u/l)
      Gamma-GT 76 u/l (10 - 40 u/l)

      What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue treatment and repeat LFTs in 1 month

      Explanation:

      If serum transaminase levels remain consistently 3 times higher than the upper limit of the reference range, treatment with statins must be stopped.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20 mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

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  • Question 4 - An aged man with aortic stenosis is evaluated. What could potentially decrease the...

    Incorrect

    • An aged man with aortic stenosis is evaluated. What could potentially decrease the intensity of his ejection systolic murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left ventricular systolic dysfunction

      Explanation:

      A reduction in flow-rate across the aortic valve and a murmur that is less audible are consequences of left ventricular systolic dysfunction.

      Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.

      If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

      In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.

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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with symptoms of fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with symptoms of fever and headache after returning from a trip to central America. He has no significant medical history or regular medications. Upon investigation, he is diagnosed with Plasmodium vivax and completes a course of acute treatment without adverse effects. It is confirmed that he has no allergies. What is the appropriate treatment to initiate at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primaquine

      Explanation:

      Non-Falciparum Malaria: Causes, Features, and Treatment

      Non-falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi. Plasmodium vivax is commonly found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent, while Plasmodium ovale is typically found in Africa. Plasmodium malariae is associated with nephrotic syndrome, and Plasmodium knowlesi is found predominantly in South East Asia.

      The general features of non-falciparum malaria include fever, headache, and splenomegaly. Cyclical fever every 48 hours is observed in Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, while Plasmodium malariae has a cyclical fever every 72 hours. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage, which may cause relapse following treatment.

      In areas known to be chloroquine-sensitive, the World Health Organization recommends either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine for treatment. However, in areas known to be chloroquine-resistant, an ACT should be used. Pregnant women should avoid ACTs. Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.

      Overall, non-falciparum malaria has distinct causes, features, and treatment options that should be considered for effective management.

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  • Question 6 - Liam, a 17-year-old boy, comes in for his annual asthma review. He has...

    Incorrect

    • Liam, a 17-year-old boy, comes in for his annual asthma review. He has generally well-controlled asthma, with only one exacerbation requiring steroids this year. He takes 2 puffs of his beclomethasone inhaler twice daily, and salbutamol as needed, both via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).

      You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and exhaling before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down on the canister while taking a slow breath in and then holding his breath for 10 seconds. He then immediately repeats this process for the second dose.

      What suggestions could you offer to improve his technique?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should wait 30 seconds before repeating the dose

      Explanation:

      To ensure proper drug delivery, it is important to use the correct inhaler technique. This involves removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and taking a slow breath in while delivering the dose. After holding the breath for 10 seconds, it is recommended to wait for approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. In this case, the individual should have waited for the full 30 seconds before taking a second dose.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Proper inhaler technique is crucial for effective treatment of respiratory conditions such as asthma. The following guidelines are recommended by Asthma.org.uk, a resource recommended to patients by the British Thoracic Society, for using metered-dose inhalers.

      To begin, remove the cap and shake the inhaler. Breathe out gently before placing the mouthpiece in your mouth. As you begin to breathe in slowly and deeply, press down on the canister and continue to inhale steadily. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable, before exhaling. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating the steps.

      It is important to note that the inhaler should only be used for the number of doses indicated on the label before starting a new inhaler. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

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  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing a strange episode. He appears confused and unable to provide a clear history, but his wife reports being awakened by him shaking around in bed. She notes that her husband has been complaining of headaches for the past five days and mentioned earlier today that his left hand felt weak. His vital signs are BP 128/85 mmHg, heart rate 82/min, temperature 39.5ºC, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, and respiratory rate 18/min. His blood glucose level is 5.6mmol/L, and his ECG is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain abscess

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, headache, and a focal neurological deficit, such as arm weakness, suggests a brain abscess as the correct diagnosis. Additionally, the patient’s history of seizures supports this diagnosis. However, diagnosing a brain abscess can be challenging, as the classic triad of symptoms is only present in a minority of cases. Epilepsy is unlikely due to the presence of fever and arm weakness, and the absence of a seizure history. Hypoglycemia is not the correct answer as the patient’s blood glucose level is within the normal range. Meningitis is a key differential diagnosis, but it is less likely to cause focal neurological abnormalities and tends to present with reduced consciousness or confusion in addition to fever and headache.

      Understanding Brain Abscesses

      Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a considerable mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include dull and persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.

      To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered. Additionally, intracranial pressure management with dexamethasone may be necessary.

      Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options can help individuals seek medical help early and improve their chances of recovery.

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  • Question 8 - A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of vomiting and abdominal pain. He has a medical history of heart failure and COPD. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 105/72 mmHg, pulse 94 bpm, respiratory rate 14/min, and temperature 36.9 deg C. His initial blood tests reveal hyponatremia with a sodium level of 123 mmol/L (135 - 145). What is the best approach to manage this patient's hyponatremia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV isotonic normal saline

      Explanation:

      Hypertonic saline is not the appropriate treatment for this patient as they do not have acute severe hyponatraemia with symptoms.

      Treating Hyponatremia: Factors to Consider

      Hyponatremia, if left untreated, can lead to cerebral edema and brain herniation. Therefore, it is crucial to identify and treat it promptly. However, the management of hyponatremia is complex and depends on several factors. These include the duration and severity of hyponatremia, the patient’s symptoms, and the suspected cause of hyponatremia. Over-rapid correction can also result in osmotic demyelination syndrome, which can cause irreversible symptoms.

      In all patients, initial steps include ruling out a spurious result and reviewing medications that may cause hyponatremia. For chronic hyponatremia without severe symptoms, the treatment approach depends on the suspected cause. If hypovolemic, normal saline may be given as a trial. If euvolemic, fluid restriction and medications such as demeclocycline or vaptans may be considered. If hypervolemic, fluid restriction and loop diuretics or vaptans may be used.

      For acute hyponatremia with severe symptoms, patients require close monitoring and may need hypertonic saline to correct the sodium level more quickly. However, over-correction can lead to osmotic demyelination syndrome, which can cause irreversible symptoms.

      Vasopressin/ADH receptor antagonists (vaptans) can be used in some cases but should be avoided in patients with hypovolemic hyponatremia and those with underlying liver disease. They can also stimulate thirst receptors, leading to the desire to drink free water.

      Overall, treating hyponatremia requires careful consideration of various factors to avoid complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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  • Question 9 - Sarah is a 75-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of a persistent...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 75-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of a persistent cough, coughing up blood, and losing weight. She used to work in a shipyard and was exposed to a significant amount of asbestos. What is the most conclusive method to diagnose the probable condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thoracoscopy and histology

      Explanation:

      To diagnose mesothelioma, a thoracoscopy and histology are necessary. Other tests such as bronchoscopy and endobronchial ultrasound guided transbronchial needle aspiration are not appropriate as mesothelioma does not spread into the airways. While a CT scan or MRI can show evidence of a tumor, a histological examination is required to confirm the diagnosis.

      Understanding Mesothelioma: A Cancer Linked to Asbestos Exposure

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the mesothelial layer of the pleural cavity, which is strongly associated with exposure to asbestos. Although it is rare, other mesothelial layers in the abdomen may also be affected. Symptoms of mesothelioma include dyspnoea, weight loss, and chest wall pain, as well as clubbing. About 30% of cases present as painless pleural effusion, and only 20% have pre-existing asbestosis. A history of asbestos exposure is present in 85-90% of cases, with a latent period of 30-40 years.

      To diagnose mesothelioma, suspicion is typically raised by a chest x-ray showing either pleural effusion or pleural thickening. The next step is usually a pleural CT, and if a pleural effusion is present, fluid should be sent for MC&S, biochemistry, and cytology. However, cytology is only helpful in 20-30% of cases. Local anaesthetic thoracoscopy is increasingly used to investigate cytology-negative exudative effusions as it has a high diagnostic yield of around 95%. If an area of pleural nodularity is seen on CT, then an image-guided pleural biopsy may be used.

      Management of mesothelioma is typically symptomatic, with industrial compensation available for those affected. Chemotherapy and surgery may be options if the cancer is operable. However, the prognosis for mesothelioma is poor, with a median survival of only 12 months.

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  • Question 10 - A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of 'flutters in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of 'flutters in his chest' for the past 24 hours. He is aware of when his symptoms started and mentions having had 2 non-ST-elevation myocardial infarctions before. He has hypertension, which is controlled with perindopril monotherapy, and hypercholesterolaemia treated with atorvastatin. He has no other relevant medical history.

      During the examination, the patient is alert and oriented. His blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg, heart rate is 112 beats per minute, temperature is 37.3ºC, and respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute. An ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm. After discussing with the patient, a management plan is suggested.

      What is the most likely management plan to be initiated for this patient based on his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Begin anticoagulation, undergo immediate direct current (DC) cardioversion

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with new-onset atrial fibrillation (AF), the management plan depends on the duration and recurrence of symptoms, as well as risk stratification. If symptoms have been present for less than 48 hours, electrical cardioversion is recommended, but anticoagulation should be started beforehand. Heparin is a good choice for rapid onset anticoagulation. However, if symptoms have been present for more than 48 hours, there is a higher risk of atrial thrombus, which may cause thromboembolic disease. In this case, a transoesophageal echocardiogram (TOE) should be obtained to exclude a thrombus before cardioversion, or anticoagulation should be started for 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. Amiodarone oral therapy is not adequate for cardioversion in acute AF. If cardioversion is not possible, a DOAC such as apixaban or rivaroxaban should be started. Discharge home is appropriate for patients with chronic AF or after cardioversion. While pharmacological cardioversion with intravenous amiodarone is an option, electrical cardioversion is preferred according to NICE guidelines, especially in patients with structural heart disease.

      Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.

      NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

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  • Question 11 - John is a 44-year-old man who presented to you a month ago with...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 44-year-old man who presented to you a month ago with a 6-week history of upper abdominal pain, heartburn, and occasional reflux. His medical history is unremarkable, and you both agreed on a plan for a 1-month trial of omeprazole 20 mg daily.

      John returns for a follow-up appointment after completing the course of omeprazole. Unfortunately, his symptoms have only slightly improved and are still causing him distress.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to manage John's persistent symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test for Helicobacter pylori infection in 2 weeks and treat if positive

      Explanation:

      If initial treatment for dyspepsia with either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach fails, the other approach should be tried next. NICE guidelines recommend prescribing a full-dose PPI for 1 month or testing for H. pylori infection and prescribing eradication therapy if positive. If symptoms persist, switch to the alternative strategy. Referral for routine upper GI endoscopy is not indicated at this stage.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

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  • Question 12 - Which type of neurone has its cell body situated in the central nervous...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of neurone has its cell body situated in the central nervous system and is primarily responsible for connecting other neurones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An association neurone (inter-neurone)

      Explanation:

      Association Neurones and neuroglial Cells in the Central Nervous System

      Association neurones are present in the central nervous system and their primary function is to connect afferent neurones that bring information into the central nervous system to efferent neurones that carry information away from the central nervous system. Afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory information from peripheral receptors to the central nervous system, while efferent neurones transmit motor information from the central nervous system to effectors such as muscles or glands.

      In addition to neurones, the nervous system also contains neuroglial cells. These non-neuronal cells provide support and nutrition to the nervous system. neuroglial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the nervous system and play a crucial role in maintaining the health of neurones.

      the role of association neurones and neuroglial cells is essential for comprehending the functioning of the central nervous system. These cells work together to ensure that the nervous system can receive and transmit information effectively. By studying these cells, researchers can gain insights into the mechanisms underlying various neurological disorders and develop new treatments to address them.

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  • Question 13 - A 76-year-old male who is currently receiving end of life care and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old male who is currently receiving end of life care and is on opioids for pain management requests some pain relief for breakthrough pain. He has a medical history of metastatic lung cancer, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease. Earlier in the day, his latest blood results were as follows:

      Hb 121 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 340 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 9.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)

      K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      Urea 25.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Creatinine 624 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      eGFR 9 mL/min/1.73m² (>90)

      CRP 19 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most appropriate pain relief for this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sublingual fentanyl

      Explanation:

      For palliative care patients with severe renal impairment, fentanyl or buprenorphine are the preferred opioids for pain relief. This is because they are not excreted through the kidneys, reducing the risk of toxicity compared to morphine. Fentanyl is the top choice due to its liver metabolism, making it less likely to cause harm in patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 10 mL/min/1.73². Oxycodone can be used in mild to moderate renal impairment (GFR 10-50 mL/min/1.73²), but it should be avoided in severe cases as it is partially excreted through the kidneys. Ibuprofen is not recommended as it is a weaker pain reliever than opioids and is contraindicated in patients with poor renal function.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

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  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of occasional double...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of occasional double vision that occurs during the day. She reports that her vision returns to normal after taking a break. The symptoms have been worsening over the past six months, and she has already consulted an optometrist who could not identify a cause. There have been no indications of muscle or peripheral nerve issues. What medication is typically attempted as a first-line treatment for the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyridostigmine

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in insufficient functioning acetylcholine receptors. It is more common in women and is characterized by muscle fatigability, extraocular muscle weakness, proximal muscle weakness, ptosis, and dysphagia. Thymomas are present in 15% of cases, and autoimmune disorders are also associated with the disease. Diagnosis is made through single fibre electromyography and CT thorax to exclude thymoma. Management includes long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, immunosuppression, and thymectomy. Plasmapheresis and intravenous immunoglobulins are used to manage myasthenic crisis. Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors are seen in 85-90% of cases.

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  • Question 15 - A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of shortness of breath and a...

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    • A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of shortness of breath and a cough with green sputum for the past week. She has no known drug allergies and is not taking any medication. Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 18/min, and her oxygen saturation is 95%. Her blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, and her pulse rate is 84 bpm. She has a body temperature of 37.8 ºC. A chest x-ray is ordered. What is the most appropriate drug treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Amoxicillin is the recommended first-line antibiotic for treating low-severity community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). In this case, the patient’s CRB-65 score indicates that she has low-severity CAP, making amoxicillin the appropriate choice for treatment. Clarithromycin and doxycycline are also used to treat pneumonia, but they are typically reserved for cases caused by atypical organisms. Co-amoxiclav and co-amoxiclav with clarithromycin are not recommended for low-severity CAP, as they are typically used for more severe cases. To be classified as high-severity CAP, a patient would need to meet specific criteria, such as confusion, a respiratory rate over 30 breaths/min, and being 65 years or older.

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

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  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of fatigue and lower back...

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    • A 70-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of fatigue and lower back pain. Upon conducting a thorough examination and taking a complete medical history, the physician orders blood tests. The results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 101 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 138 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 4.9 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Sodium (Na+): 132 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - Potassium (K+): 3.7 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 27 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29)
      - Urea: 8.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 142 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - Calcium: 3.2 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate: 1.4 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
      - Magnesium: 1.0 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0)

      What is the recommended first-line imaging for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Whole body MRI

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations

      Multiple myeloma is a type of blood cancer that occurs due to genetic mutations in plasma cells. It is commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 70. The disease is characterized by the acronym CRABBI, which stands for Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bleeding, Bones, and Infection. Patients with multiple myeloma may experience hypercalcemia, renal damage, anaemia, bleeding, bone pain, and increased susceptibility to infections. Other symptoms may include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.

      To diagnose multiple myeloma, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including blood tests, protein electrophoresis, bone marrow aspiration, and imaging studies. Blood tests may reveal anaemia, elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine, and renal failure. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised concentrations of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum or urine. Bone marrow aspiration confirms the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can detect osteolytic lesions or the characteristic raindrop skull pattern.

      The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, and elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, and low levels of antibodies not produced by the cancer cells in the blood.

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  • Question 17 - A 15-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing difficulty breathing during a sports event. Despite using her salbutamol inhaler, she could not catch her breath. She has a history of asthma.

      Upon initial assessment, her heart rate is 110 bpm, and her respiratory rate is 28 /min. She is unable to complete full sentences, and there is a widespread wheeze on chest auscultation.

      Further investigations reveal the following results:
      - PEFR 52% (>75%)
      - pH 7.43 (7.35-7.45)
      - pO2 10.9 kPa (11-14.4)
      - pCO2 4.7 kPa (4.6-6.0)

      What is the classification of this patient's acute asthma episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Life-threatening

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms indicate a life-threatening severity of asthma, as evidenced by their inability to complete full sentences and a PEFR measurement within the severe range. This is further supported by their normal pCO2 levels, which confirm the severity classification. The classification of moderate severity is incorrect in this case.

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

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  • Question 18 - A 21-year-old with type one diabetes is brought to the emergency department due...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old with type one diabetes is brought to the emergency department due to feeling unwell for the past few days. Upon examination, his blood glucose level is found to be 25.7 mmol/l and his ketone level is 5.8 mmol/l. What is the expected result of the arterial blood gas test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap

      Explanation:

      Based on the information provided in the presentation and the patient’s medical history, it can be concluded that the patient is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which results in metabolic acidosis and an elevated anion gap.

      Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation Made Easy

      Arterial blood gas interpretation can be a daunting task for healthcare professionals. However, the Resuscitation Council (UK) has provided a simple 5-step approach to make it easier. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, which is indicated by a PaO2 level of less than 10 kPa on air. The third step is to check if the patient is academic or alkalaemic, which is determined by the pH level. A pH level of less than 7.35 indicates acidaemia, while a pH level of more than 7.45 indicates alkalaemia.

      The fourth step is to assess the respiratory component by checking the PaCO2 level. A PaCO2 level of more than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level of less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth and final step is to evaluate the metabolic component by checking the bicarbonate level or base excess. A bicarbonate level of less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess of less than -2mmol/l indicates metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level of more than 26 mmol/l or a base excess of more than +2mmol/l indicates metabolic alkalosis.

      To make it easier to remember, healthcare professionals can use the ROME acronym. Respiratory is opposite, which means that low pH and high PaCO2 indicate acidosis, while high pH and low PaCO2 indicate alkalosis. Metabolic is equal, which means that low pH and low bicarbonate indicate acidosis, while high pH and high bicarbonate indicate alkalosis. By following this simple approach, healthcare professionals can easily interpret arterial blood gas results and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.

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  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old girl who recently returned from a trip to Italy visits her...

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    • A 16-year-old girl who recently returned from a trip to Italy visits her doctor with complaints of a headache and sore throat. During the examination, the doctor observes swollen tonsils and cervical lymphadenopathy. The girl also has swollen axillary lymph nodes and a palpable mass in the left hypochondriac region upon abdominal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Generalised lymphadenopathy can be caused by several conditions, including CMV and Infectious mononucleosis (IM), which are mentioned in the question. However, the presence of large swollen tonsils and a palpable mass in the left hypochondriac regions, which suggests splenomegaly, together with the patient’s history, highly suggests IM. Tonsillitis, viral throat infection, and dengue fever do not typically present with generalised lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophile antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

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  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

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    • A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of sharp chest pain on the left side and difficulty breathing. He has a medical history of COPD and uses a salbutamol inhaler. Upon examination, there is decreased chest expansion and breath sounds on the left side, as well as hyper-resonance on percussion. A chest x-ray reveals a 2.1 cm left-sided pneumothorax at the lung hilum. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest drain

      Explanation:

      For a patient with a history of COPD, a pneumothorax is classified as secondary. If the pneumothorax is greater than 2 cm or the patient is experiencing shortness of breath, the recommended first-line treatment is a chest drain, not aspiration. However, if the pneumothorax is primary and greater than 2 cm or the patient is breathless, or if the secondary pneumothorax is between 1-2 cm, needle aspiration may be indicated. If a patient is admitted for observation, they may receive high flow oxygen unless they are oxygen sensitive. Admission for observation is recommended for a secondary pneumothorax measuring less than 1 cm or a secondary pneumothorax measuring 1-2 cm that is aspirated and subsequently measures less than 1 cm. A primary pneumothorax measuring less than 2 cm may be considered for discharge.

      Management of Pneumothorax: BTS Guidelines

      Pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The British Thoracic Society (BTS) has published updated guidelines for the management of spontaneous pneumothorax, which can be primary or secondary. Primary pneumothorax occurs without any underlying lung disease, while secondary pneumothorax is associated with lung disease.

      The BTS guidelines recommend that patients with a rim of air less than 2 cm and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with a larger rim of air or shortness of breath should undergo aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, patients over 50 years old with a rim of air greater than 2 cm or shortness of breath should undergo chest drain insertion. Aspiration may be attempted for those with a rim of air between 1-2 cm, but chest drain insertion is necessary if aspiration fails.

      For iatrogenic pneumothorax, observation is usually sufficient, but chest drain insertion may be necessary in some cases. Ventilated patients and those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) may require chest drain insertion. If a patient has persistent or recurrent pneumothorax, video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) may be necessary.

      Patients should be advised to avoid smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes. Fitness to fly is an absolute contraindication, but patients may travel 1 week after successful drainage if there is no residual air. Scuba diving should be permanently avoided unless the patient has undergone bilateral surgical pleurectomy and has normal lung function and chest CT scan postoperatively.

      Overall, the BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the management of pneumothorax, taking into account the type of pneumothorax, patient characteristics, and potential complications.

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  • Question 21 - A 90-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic for evaluation due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 90-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic for evaluation due to his family's concerns about his increasing forgetfulness in recent months. He scores 14/30 on the Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE). The consultant requests that you initiate treatment with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
      Which of the following drugs would you prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Donepezil is classified as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and is considered a first-line treatment option for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, along with galantamine and rivastigmine. Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is typically used as a second-line or adjunctive treatment for mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia, although it may be used as a first-line option for severe cases. Oxybutynin and tolterodine are anti-muscarinic medications that are commonly prescribed for urge incontinence, but immediate release oxybutynin should be avoided in frail older women, according to NICE guidelines. Finally, rotigotine is a dopamine agonist that is used to treat Parkinson’s disease and restless legs syndrome.

      Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.

      Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.

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  • Question 22 - A 29-year-old man comes to your clinic with concerns about his fertility. He...

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    • A 29-year-old man comes to your clinic with concerns about his fertility. He and his partner have been trying to conceive for the past 2 years, but have been unsuccessful. The patient's medical history includes frequent chest infections and ear infections, which have required multiple rounds of antibiotics. He reports that he often experiences upper respiratory tract infections. Upon examination, you note that his right testicle hangs lower than his left, but there are no other abnormalities. As part of a routine check-up, you perform a chest examination and observe that the apex beat is in the 5th intercostal space on the right midclavicular line. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kartagener's syndrome

      Explanation:

      In Kartagener’s syndrome, the right testicle hangs lower than the left due to situs inversus. Normally, it is the left testicle that hangs lower. This condition can be similar to cystic fibrosis, but patients with cystic fibrosis would have additional symptoms such as diabetes, diarrhoea, and deficiencies in fat-soluble vitamins. It is important to note that there is no indication that the patient is currently taking antibiotics that could affect sperm function and motility.

      Understanding Kartagener’s Syndrome

      Kartagener’s syndrome, also known as primary ciliary dyskinesia, is a rare genetic disorder that was first described in 1933. It is often associated with dextrocardia, which can be detected through quiet heart sounds and small volume complexes in lateral leads during examinations. The pathogenesis of Kartagener’s syndrome is caused by a dynein arm defect, which results in immotile Ciliary.

      The syndrome is characterized by several features, including dextrocardia or complete situs inversus, bronchiectasis, recurrent sinusitis, and subfertility. The immotile Ciliary in the respiratory tract lead to chronic respiratory infections and bronchiectasis, while the defective ciliary action in the fallopian tubes can cause subfertility.

      In summary, Kartagener’s syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects the motility of Ciliary in the respiratory tract and fallopian tubes. It is often associated with dextrocardia and can lead to chronic respiratory infections, bronchiectasis, recurrent sinusitis, and subfertility. Early diagnosis and management are crucial in preventing complications and improving the quality of life for individuals with this syndrome.

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  • Question 23 - A 57-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea and pyrexia. He has a history of alcohol abuse and emits a strong smell of alcohol. While in the department, he begins to cough up currant jelly sputum. He is admitted and given the appropriate antibiotics. The sputum is cultured and the causative agent is identified. What other condition is associated with this organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pleural empyema

      Explanation:

      Empyema formation can be caused by Klebsiella.

      Alcoholics are often affected by Klebsiella infections, which have unique characteristics such as sputum resembling currant jelly. They are also linked to various other conditions, including ascending cholangitis. Patients may develop empyema after pneumonia, which is a collection of pus in an existing cavity, such as the pleural space, and should not be confused with an abscess, which is a collection of pus in a newly formed cavity.

      Tuberculosis is associated with Addison’s disease, while parvovirus B19 infection is linked to aplastic anemia in individuals with sickle cell anemia. Although erythema multiforme can have multiple causes, it is not caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae. The most common cause of this condition is Mycoplasma pneumonia.

      Klebsiella Pneumoniae: A Gram-Negative Rod Causing Infections in Humans

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is a type of Gram-negative rod that is typically found in the gut flora of humans. Although it is a normal part of the body’s microbiome, it can also cause a variety of infections in humans, including pneumonia and urinary tract infections. This bacterium is more commonly found in individuals who have diabetes or who consume alcohol regularly. In some cases, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections can occur following aspiration.

      One of the distinctive features of Klebsiella pneumoniae infections is the presence of red-currant jelly sputum. This type of sputum is often seen in patients with pneumonia caused by this bacterium. Additionally, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections tend to affect the upper lobes of the lungs.

      Unfortunately, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections can be quite serious and even life-threatening. They commonly lead to the formation of lung abscesses and empyema, and the mortality rate for these infections is between 30-50%. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for Klebsiella pneumoniae infections, particularly in patients who are at higher risk due to underlying health conditions.

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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being submerged. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being submerged. Upon arrival, the patient is found to be in ventricular fibrillation (VF) on ECG and has a temperature of 26 degrees centigrade. You have already administered three defibrillation shocks and initiated active and passive rewarming, but the patient remains in VF. What should be your next steps in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue chest compressions but withhold shocks until patient's temperature >30 degrees

      Explanation:

      When hypothermia leads to cardiac arrest, defibrillation is not as effective and should be limited to three shocks before the patient is warmed up to 30 degrees Celsius. Pacing is also ineffective until the patient reaches normal body temperature. Medications should be held off until the patient reaches 30 degrees Celsius, and then administered at double the usual intervals until the patient achieves normal body temperature or experiences the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).

      Hypothermia is a condition where the core body temperature drops below normal levels, often caused by exposure to cold environments. It is most common in the winter and the elderly are particularly susceptible. Signs include shivering, cold and pale skin, slurred speech, and confusion. Treatment involves removing the patient from the cold environment, warming the body with blankets, securing the airway, and monitoring breathing. Rapid re-warming should be avoided as it can lead to peripheral vasodilation and shock. Certain actions, such as putting the person in a hot bath or giving them alcohol, should be avoided.

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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man undergoes an arterial blood gas test and the results show...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man undergoes an arterial blood gas test and the results show the following while he is breathing room air:
      pH 7.49
      pCO2 2.4 kPa
      pO2 8.5 kPa
      HCO3 22 mmol/l
      What is the most probable condition responsible for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Hyperventilation leads to a respiratory alkalosis (non-compensated) due to the reduction in carbon dioxide levels.

      Disorders of Acid-Base Balance: An Overview

      The acid-base normogram is a useful tool for categorizing the various disorders of acid-base balance. Metabolic acidosis is the most common surgical acid-base disorder, characterized by a reduction in plasma bicarbonate levels. This can be caused by a gain of strong acid (such as in diabetic ketoacidosis) or a loss of base (such as from bowel in diarrhea). Metabolic alkalosis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a rise in plasma bicarbonate levels, which can be due to problems of the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is a rise in carbon dioxide levels, usually as a result of alveolar hypoventilation, while respiratory alkalosis results from hyperventilation, leading to excess loss of carbon dioxide.

      Each of these disorders has its own set of causes and mechanisms. For example, metabolic alkalosis can be caused by vomiting/aspiration, diuretics, or primary hyperaldosteronism, among other factors. The mechanism of metabolic alkalosis involves the activation of the renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone (RAA) system, which causes reabsorption of Na+ in exchange for H+ in the distal convoluted tubule. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, can be caused by COPD, decompensation in other respiratory conditions, or sedative drugs like benzodiazepines and opiate overdose.

      It is important to understand the different types of acid-base disorders and their causes in order to properly diagnose and treat them. By using the acid-base normogram and understanding the underlying mechanisms, healthcare professionals can provide effective interventions to restore balance to the body’s acid-base system.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old individual visits the neurology clinic with complaints of experiencing multiple instances...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old individual visits the neurology clinic with complaints of experiencing multiple instances of involuntary shaking in different limbs. They have some control over which limb is affected the most but are unable to stop the shaking. The intensity of the shaking increases gradually and then subsides in a similar manner. The patient reports that the shaking is more severe when they feel anxious. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudoseizures

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between pseudoseizures and true seizures can be challenging as they share some similarities. However, one key difference is that pseudoseizures tend to have a gradual onset, while true seizures have a sudden onset. Pseudoseizures are often linked to psychiatric conditions and are not voluntary, but rather compulsive and unwanted movements. It is common for individuals experiencing pseudoseizures to have some control over the location of their symptoms. While dystonia may involve shaking, it typically results in rigidity rather than gradual onset and offset.

      Understanding Psychogenic Non-Epileptic Seizures

      Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures, also known as pseudoseizures, are a type of seizure that is not caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Instead, they are believed to be caused by psychological factors such as stress, trauma, or anxiety. These seizures can be difficult to diagnose as they often mimic true epileptic seizures, but there are certain factors that can help differentiate between the two.

      Factors that may indicate pseudoseizures include pelvic thrusting, a family history of epilepsy, a higher incidence in females, crying after the seizure, and the seizures not occurring when the individual is alone. On the other hand, factors that may indicate true epileptic seizures include tongue biting and a raised serum prolactin level.

      Video telemetry is a useful tool for differentiating between the two types of seizures. It involves monitoring the individual’s brain activity and behavior during a seizure, which can help determine whether it is caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain or psychological factors.

      It is important to accurately diagnose and treat psychogenic non-epileptic seizures as they can have a significant impact on an individual’s quality of life. Treatment may involve therapy to address underlying psychological factors, as well as medication to manage any associated symptoms such as anxiety or depression.

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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old patient in the emergency department waiting room suddenly collapses due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient in the emergency department waiting room suddenly collapses due to feeling unwell. Upon transfer to the resuscitation area, the patient's heart rate is recorded at 38 bpm and blood pressure at 86/60mmHg. What is the initial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine 500 micrograms IV

      Explanation:

      Patients who exhibit signs of shock and bradycardia should be administered 500 micrograms of atropine, which can be repeated up to a maximum of 3mg. In the case of this patient, who has experienced syncope and is unstable, atropine is necessary. Amiodarone is used for tachycardias, while bisoprolol is used for rate control in longstanding tachycardias. DC cardioversion is used for tachycardia, and if atropine is ineffective, transcutaneous pacing may be considered. IV saline would not be beneficial in this case, as the patient’s hypotension is caused by bradycardia rather than hypovolemia.

      Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms

      The 2021 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight that the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms depends on two factors. Firstly, identifying adverse signs that indicate haemodynamic compromise, such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. Secondly, identifying the potential risk of asystole, which can occur in patients with complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, or ventricular pause > 3 seconds.

      If adverse signs are present, Atropine (500mcg IV) is the first line treatment. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, or isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.

      Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing in patients with risk factors for asystole. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 28 - An elderly woman, aged 72, is admitted to the hospital with chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman, aged 72, is admitted to the hospital with chest pain and diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (CKD2). Her current medications include metformin 1 g twice daily, ramipril 2.5 mg daily, and aspirin 75 mg daily. What therapeutic intervention is necessary to prepare for the upcoming contrast angiogram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe adequate hydration to euvolaemia with 0.9% NaCl

      Explanation:

      Intravenous contrast media can lead to contrast induced nephropathy (CIN) in susceptible individuals, particularly those with chronic kidney disease. The best prophylactic intervention is optimal hydration with 0.9% NaCl or 1.26% sodium bicarbonate. N-acetylcysteine is no longer recommended as a potential intervention. Metformin and ramipril can be continued during a contrast-associated intervention as long as renal function is monitored closely. Discontinuation of metformin is not necessary as studies have not proven a significant causal link between impaired renal function and potential lactic acidosis.

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  • Question 29 - A 58-year-old male with a past of chronic alcohol abuse comes in with...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male with a past of chronic alcohol abuse comes in with a two-day history of worsening confusion. During the examination, he appears drowsy, has a temperature of 39°C, a pulse of 110 beats per minute, and a small amount of ascites. The CNS examination reveals a left-sided hemiparesis with an upward left plantar response. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral abscess

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for a Man with Chronic Alcohol Abuse

      This man, who has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, is exhibiting symptoms of a fever and left-sided hemiparesis. The most probable diagnosis for this individual would be cerebral abscess. It is unlikely that a subdural hematoma or a simple cerebrovascular accident (CVA) would explain the fever, nor would they be associated with hemiparesis. Delirium tremens or encephalopathy would not be linked to the hemiparesis either. Therefore, cerebral abscess is the most likely diagnosis for this man with chronic alcohol abuse who is experiencing a fever and left-sided hemiparesis.

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  • Question 30 - A 22-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and nausea....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and nausea. She has a distinct 'pear drops' odor on her breath. The medical team admits her and initiates aggressive IV fluid replacement and insulin therapy as per national protocol. Despite being clinically stable after 24 hours, she is unable to eat or drink.
      Her vital signs are as follows:
      - Heart rate: 110 bpm
      - Respiratory rate: 15/min
      - Blood pressure: 122/90 mmHg
      An arterial blood gas test reveals a pH of 7.28, and her blood results show:
      - Plasma glucose: 15.6 mmol/L
      - Sodium: 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium: 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 13 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Ketones: 4.5 mmol/L (<3)
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endocrinology review

      Explanation:

      If a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis still has significant ketonaemia and acidosis after 24 hours, it is recommended to seek a review from a senior endocrinologist. This is important to consider other potential diagnoses and advise on further treatment. Treatment should aim to reduce blood ketones by approximately 1 mmol/hr and glucose by around 3mmol/hr. By 24 hours, the patient should be eating and drinking normally and can be switched to subcutaneous insulin.

      Admission to ICU is not necessary at this point as the patient is relatively stable. The priority is to continue treatment and determine why the current treatment is not working, which can be best achieved with a senior review.

      Continuing the current fluid replacement would be inappropriate as patients with DKA should see resolution of their condition after 24 hours of normal treatment. If the patient remains in DKA after this point, a senior review is needed.

      Increasing insulin rate, as well as increasing the rate of IV fluids, should not be done without consulting a senior endocrinologist as it may lead to hypoglycaemia or dilutional hyponatraemia, respectively, which could worsen the patient’s condition.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.

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