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  • Question 1 - A 63-year-old man is taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
    Select the single ideal target...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man is taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
      Select the single ideal target INR from the options.

      Your Answer: 1.5

      Correct Answer: 2.5

      Explanation:

      Recommended INR Levels for Anticoagulation Therapy

      Anticoagulation therapy is used to prevent blood clots in individuals with certain medical conditions. The target level for the majority of indications is an INR (international normalized ratio) of 2.5. However, for individuals who are already receiving warfarin and have recurrent deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, a higher INR of 3.5 is recommended. Additionally, for patients with mechanical prosthetic heart valves, the recommended INR level ranges from 3.0 to 3.5 depending on the type of valve. It is important to closely monitor INR levels and adjust the dosage of anticoagulation therapy as needed to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are evaluating a 75-year-old patient who has just been diagnosed with heart...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 75-year-old patient who has just been diagnosed with heart failure after an echocardiogram revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%. He has been experiencing mild shortness of breath during physical activity and has no other known medical conditions. He is not currently taking any medications.

      What is the most suitable recommendation to provide?

      Your Answer: Yearly influenza vaccine and one off pneumococcal and meningococcal vaccines

      Correct Answer: Yearly influenza and one off pneumococcal vaccines

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that patients diagnosed with heart failure receive an annual influenza vaccine and a single pneumococcal vaccine.

      The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.

      The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      82.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man comes to see you to ask about travel to India...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to see you to ask about travel to India to visit his relatives. He has been discharged recently from the local district general hospital after suffering an inferior myocardial infarction. He had an exercise test prior to discharge and has made a good recovery. He looks well wants to return to his family home to Mumbai to recuperate.

      According to the UK Civil Aviation Authority, what is the minimum time after an uncomplicated MI that he would be OK to fly home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Travel Restrictions After Myocardial Infarction

      After experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI), also known as a heart attack, patients may wonder when it is safe to travel by air. The minimum time for flying after an uncomplicated MI is generally accepted to be seven days, although some authorities suggest waiting up to three weeks. It is important to note that this question specifically asks for the minimum time after an uncomplicated MI that would be safe for air travel.

      Consensus national guidance in the UK, including advice from the Civil Aviation Authority and British Airways, supports the seven-day minimum for uncomplicated MI. Patients who have had a complicated MI should wait four to six weeks before flying. Patients with severe angina may require oxygen during the flight and should pre-book a supply with the airline. Patients who have undergone coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) or suffered a stroke should not travel for ten days. Decompensated heart failure or uncontrolled hypertension are contraindications to flying.

      In summary, patients who have experienced an uncomplicated MI may fly after seven days without requiring an exercise test. It is important to follow national guidance and consult with a healthcare provider before making any travel plans after a heart attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a check-up. She is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a check-up. She is worried about her risk of developing cardiovascular disease after hearing about a family member's recent diagnosis.
      Which of the following factors would most significantly increase her risk of cardiovascular disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may have an increased risk of developing accelerated atherosclerosis, which is believed to be linked to the inflammatory process. The QRisk2 calculator, used to predict the 10-year risk of developing cardiovascular disease, includes rheumatoid arthritis as a risk factor. However, a blood pressure reading of 130/80 mmHg and a BMI of 24 kg/m2 are within the normal range and not a cause for concern. Additionally, the HbA1c level of 41 mmol/mol is normal and doesn’t indicate an increased risk of diabetes. While a family history of myocardial infarction is significant, it is only considered a risk factor if the relative was diagnosed before the age of 60, not at 65.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman has a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the third left intercostals...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the third left intercostals space. It radiates into the left arm and shoulder.
      Select from the list the single associated symptom that this woman is most likely to have.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angina

      Explanation:

      Understanding Symptoms of Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve becomes narrowed, leading to restricted blood flow from the heart. One of the most common symptoms of aortic stenosis is a murmur heard in the aortic area. This is often due to calcification of the valve. However, symptoms usually only appear when the stenosis becomes severe.

      Patients with aortic stenosis may experience dyspnea on exertion, which is difficulty breathing during physical activity. More concerning symptoms include angina, syncope, or symptoms of heart failure. Angina is caused by left ventricular hypertrophy, while syncope is thought to be due to a failure to increase cardiac output during times of peripheral vasodilation and subsequent hypotension. It’s important to note that drugs that cause peripheral vasodilation, such as nitrates or ACE inhibitors, can increase the risk of syncope.

      Dysphagia is a rare complication of left atrial hypertrophy due to mitral valve disease. Palpitations and transient ischemic attacks are not symptoms that are typically associated with aortic stenosis. The most common source of emboli with transient ischemic attacks is the carotids. Vertigo is not caused by aortic stenosis.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms of aortic stenosis is crucial for early detection and treatment. If you experience any concerning symptoms, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old female patient complains of intermittent episodes of white fingers that turn...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female patient complains of intermittent episodes of white fingers that turn blue and then red, accompanied by pain. The symptoms are more severe during winter but persist throughout the year, and wearing gloves doesn't alleviate them. Physical examination of her hands, skin, and other joints reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following treatments might be helpful?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 46-year-old Caucasian man has consistently high blood pressure readings above 155/95 mmHg....

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old Caucasian man has consistently high blood pressure readings above 155/95 mmHg. Despite being asymptomatic, he doesn't regularly monitor his blood pressure at home. His cardiovascular exam and fundoscopy are unremarkable, and his 12-lead ECG doesn't indicate left ventricular hypertrophy. He is currently taking a combination of amlodipine, ramipril, indapamide, and spironolactone. What is the most appropriate next step in his treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add hydralazine

      Explanation:

      Seeking Expert Advice for Resistant Blood Pressure

      As per NICE guidelines, if a patient is already taking four antihypertensive medications and their blood pressure remains resistant, it is recommended to seek expert advice. This is because if the blood pressure remains uncontrolled even after taking the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, it may indicate a need for further evaluation and management. Seeking expert advice can help in identifying any underlying causes of resistant hypertension and developing an effective treatment plan. Therefore, it is important to consult with a specialist if the blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite taking four antihypertensive medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population aged 60 and above. Over a five year period, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The results showed that there were 150 myocardial infarcts (MI) in the placebo group and 100 in the group treated with the new statin. What is the number needed to treat to prevent one MI in this population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

      When evaluating the efficacy of a treatment, it’s important to look beyond statistical significance and consider the practical impact on patients. The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is a statistical figure that provides valuable information about the effectiveness of a treatment. For example, if 1000 patients are treated with a new statin for five years and 50 MIs are prevented, the NNT to prevent one MI is 20 (1000/50). This means that by treating just 20 patients, one MI can be prevented over a five-year period.

      The NNT can also be used to calculate cost economic data by factoring in the cost of the drug against the costs of treating and rehabilitating a patient with an MI. By understanding the NNT, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about the most effective and cost-efficient treatments for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He has a history of angina and takes isosorbide mononitrate. What is the most suitable initial treatment option in this scenario? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alprostadil

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Erectile Dysfunction: Alprostadil, Tadalafil, Penile Prosthesis, and Psychosexual Counselling

      Erectile dysfunction affects a significant percentage of men, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition shares the same risk factors as cardiovascular disease. The usual first-line treatment with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, as concurrent use can lead to severe hypotension or even death. Therefore, alternative treatment options are available.

      Alprostadil is an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction, either topically or in the form of an intracavernosal injection. It is the most appropriate treatment to offer where PDE5 inhibitors are ineffective or for people who find PDE5 inhibitors ineffective.

      Tadalafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, is a first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction. It lasts longer than sildenafil, which can help improve spontaneity. However, it is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, and a second-line treatment, such as alprostadil, should be used.

      A penile prosthesis is a rare third-line option if both PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil are either ineffective or inappropriate. It involves the insertion of a fluid-filled reservoir under the abdominal wall, with a pump and a release valve in the scrotum, that are used to inflate two implanted cylinders in the penis.

      Psychosexual counselling is recommended for treatment of psychogenic erectile dysfunction or in those men with severe psychological distress. It is not recommended for routine treatment, but studies have shown that psychotherapy is just as effective as vacuum devices and penile prosthesis.

      In summary, treatment options for erectile dysfunction include alprostadil, tadalafil, penile prosthesis, and psychosexual counselling, depending on the individual’s needs and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 73-year-old man who underwent bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement three years ago is...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man who underwent bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement three years ago is being evaluated. What type of antithrombotic treatment is he expected to be receiving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      For patients with prosthetic heart valves, antithrombotic therapy varies depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically require aspirin, while mechanical valves require a combination of warfarin and aspirin.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.

      It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old man presents with a fasting lipid profile that shows a triglyceride...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a fasting lipid profile that shows a triglyceride level of 22 mmol/L. He denies excessive alcohol consumption and all other blood tests, including HbA1c, renal function, liver function, and thyroid function, are within normal limits. There is no clear explanation for the elevated triglyceride level, and there are no prior lipid profiles available for comparison. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. He reports no symptoms or feelings of illness.
      What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer routinely for specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypertriglyceridaemia

      Hypertriglyceridaemia is a condition that increases the risk of pancreatitis, making prompt management crucial. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided specific guidance on how to manage this condition.

      If the triglyceride level is above 20 mmol/L and not due to alcohol excess or poor glycaemic control, urgent referral to a lipid clinic is necessary. For levels between 10 mmol/L and 20 mmol/L, a fasting sample should be repeated no sooner than 5 days and no longer than 2 weeks later. If the level remains above 10 mmol/L, secondary causes of hypertriglyceridaemia should be considered, and specialist advice should be sought.

      For those with a triglyceride level between 4.5 and 9.9 mmol/L, clinicians should consider that cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk may be underestimated using risk assessment tools such as QRISK. They should optimize the management of other CVD risk factors, and specialist advice should be sought if the non-HDL cholesterol level is above 7.5 mmol/L.

      In summary, the management of hypertriglyceridaemia requires careful consideration of the triglyceride level and other risk factors. Early referral to a lipid clinic and specialist advice can help prevent complications such as pancreatitis and reduce the risk of CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 12 - How long should a patient refrain from driving after undergoing an elective cardiac...

    Incorrect

    • How long should a patient refrain from driving after undergoing an elective cardiac angioplasty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 week

      Explanation:

      DVLA guidance after angioplasty – refrain from driving for a period of 7 days.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old caucasian man presents to his GP with the results of 7...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old caucasian man presents to his GP with the results of 7 days of home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) he was advised to complete following a random clinic blood pressure of 144/92 mmHg. His HBPM is 138/88 mmHg. Baseline investigations show no evidence of end-organ damage. He is a current smoker. His QRISK3 score is calculated to be 11.2%. He has no known medication allergies. Lifestyle and smoking cessation advice is provided. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin and ramipril

      Explanation:

      The current prescription of Atorvastatin alone is not sufficient for this patient. In addition to lipid-lowering therapy, he should also be offered an antihypertensive agent. However, it is important to note that due to his age and ethnicity, he should first be offered an ACE and/or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist. If he doesn’t have type 2 diabetes and is aged 55 years or over, or if he is of black African or African-Caribbean family origin and doesn’t have type 2 diabetes (of any age), calcium-channel blockers may be considered as the first-line antihypertensive agent. It is not appropriate to suggest that no treatment is required.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood pressure readings of 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Essential hypertension

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension

      Ninety five percent of patients diagnosed with hypertension have essential or primary hypertension, while the remaining five percent have secondary hypertension. Essential hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, resulting in high blood pressure. On the other hand, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.

      It is important to understand the type of hypertension a patient has in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension requires addressing the underlying cause. Regular blood pressure monitoring and consultation with a healthcare professional can help manage hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old man requests a check-up after the unexpected passing of his 45-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man requests a check-up after the unexpected passing of his 45-year-old brother. He denies experiencing any specific symptoms. His blood pressure is 132/88 and heart rate 90 and regular. His cardiovascular system examination is unremarkable. An ECG reveals left bundle branch block and a chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly.
      What is the most probable reason for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cardiomyopathy: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Cardiomyopathy is a chronic disease that affects the heart muscle, causing it to become enlarged, thickened, or stiffened. This condition can range from being asymptomatic to causing heart failure, arrhythmia, thromboembolism, and sudden death. In this article, we will discuss the causes, symptoms, and diagnosis of cardiomyopathy.

      Causes of Cardiomyopathy
      Cardiomyopathy can be caused by a variety of factors, including coronary heart disease, hypertension, valvular disease, and congenital heart disease. It can also be caused by secondary factors such as ischaemia, alcohol abuse, toxins, infections, thyroid disorders, and valvular disease. In some cases, cardiomyopathy may be familial or genetic.

      Symptoms of Cardiomyopathy
      Most cases of cardiomyopathy present as congestive heart failure with symptoms such as dyspnoea, weakness, fatigue, oedema, raised JVP, pulmonary congestion, cardiomegaly, and a loud 3rd and/or 4th heart sound. However, some cases may remain asymptomatic for a long time.

      Diagnosis of Cardiomyopathy
      Diagnosis of cardiomyopathy usually involves an electrocardiogram (ECG) which may show sinus tachycardia, intraventricular conduction delay, left bundle branch block, or nonspecific changes in ST and T waves. Other diagnostic tests may include echocardiography, cardiac MRI, and cardiac catheterization.

      Conclusion
      Cardiomyopathy is a serious condition that can lead to heart failure, arrhythmia, thromboembolism, and sudden death. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and diagnosis of this condition in order to manage it effectively. If you suspect that you or a loved one may have cardiomyopathy, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing episodes of dizziness. During the examination, the GP observes an absent pulse in the patient's left radial artery. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea: 2.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Takayasu's arteritis

      Explanation:

      Takayasu’s arteritis is a type of vasculitis that affects the large blood vessels, often leading to blockages in the aorta. This condition is more commonly seen in young women and Asian individuals. Symptoms may include malaise, headaches, unequal blood pressure in the arms, carotid bruits, absent or weak peripheral pulses, and claudication in the limbs during physical activity. Aortic regurgitation may also occur in around 20% of cases. Renal artery stenosis is a common association with this condition. To diagnose Takayasu’s arteritis, vascular imaging of the arterial tree is necessary, which can be done through magnetic resonance angiography or CT angiography. Treatment typically involves the use of steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - Samantha is a 55-year-old female with hypertension which has been relatively well controlled...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 55-year-old female with hypertension which has been relatively well controlled with lisinopril for 5 years. Her past medical history includes hypercholesterolaemia and osteoporosis.

      During a routine check with the nurse, Samantha's blood pressure was 160/100 mmHg. As a result, she has scheduled an appointment to see you and has brought her home blood pressure readings recorded over 7 days.

      The readings show an average blood pressure of 152/96 mmHg. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue ramipril and commence amlodipine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with hypertension is already taking an ACE inhibitor and has a history of gout, it would be more appropriate to prescribe a calcium channel blocker as the next step instead of a thiazide. This is because thiazide-type diuretics should be used with caution in individuals with gout as it may worsen the condition. Therefore, a calcium channel blocker should be considered as a second-line Antihypertensive medication.

      It would be incorrect to make no changes to the patient’s medication, especially if their blood pressure readings are consistently high. In this case, a second-line Antihypertensive medication is necessary.

      Stopping the patient’s current medication, ramipril, is also not recommended as it is providing some Antihypertensive effects. Instead, a second medication should be added to further manage the patient’s hypertension.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy from the given list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Four Types of Cardiomyopathy

      Cardiomyopathy is a group of heart muscle disorders that affect the structure and function of the heart. There are four major types of cardiomyopathy: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive, and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. Each type is characterized by specific features such as ventricular dilation, hypertrophy, restrictive filling, and fibro-fatty changes in the right ventricular myocardium.

      While dilated and hypertrophic cardiomyopathies are the most common types, a familial cause has been identified in a significant percentage of patients with these conditions. On the other hand, restrictive cardiomyopathy is usually not familial.

      To diagnose cardiomyopathy, a full cardiological assessment is necessary. Transthoracic Doppler echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, distinguish between restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis, and assess the severity of ventricular dysfunction in dilated cardiomyopathies. Coronary angiography can help exclude coronary artery disease as the cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.

      A normal ECG is uncommon in any form of cardiomyopathy, and cardiomegaly on a chest X-ray may be present in all types. Brain natriuretic peptide is a marker of ventricular dysfunction but cannot differentiate between cardiomyopathies.

      In summary, understanding the different types of cardiomyopathy and their diagnostic tools is crucial in managing and treating this group of heart muscle disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

    Currently,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

      Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.

      What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old lady presents with a brief history of sudden onset severe left...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady presents with a brief history of sudden onset severe left lower limb pain lasting for three hours. The pain started while she was at rest and there was no history of injury or any previous leg or calf pain.
      Upon examination, her pulse rate is irregular and measures 92 bpm. The left lower limb is cold and immobile with decreased sensation. No pulses can be felt from the level of the femoral pulse downwards in the left leg, but all pulses are palpable on the right. There are no abdominal masses or bruits, and chest auscultation is normal.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sciatica

      Explanation:

      Acute Limb Ischaemia: Causes and Symptoms

      Acute limb ischaemia is a condition characterized by a painful, paralysed, and pulseless limb that feels perishingly cold with paraesthesia. This condition is usually caused by either an embolus or thrombotic occlusion, which can occur on the background of intermittent claudication (chronic limb ischaemia). In most cases, the likely cause of acute limb ischaemia is an embolism secondary to atrial fibrillation. Other sources of emboli include defective heart valves, cardiac mural thrombi, and thrombus from within an aortic aneurysm.

      If a patient presents with a painful, paralysed, and pulseless limb, an echocardiogram, abdominal ultrasound, and duplex of proximal limb vessels are indicated. These tests can help identify the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to note that acute limb ischaemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. Delayed treatment can lead to irreversible tissue damage and even limb loss.

      In summary, acute limb ischaemia is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with this condition should seek medical attention immediately to prevent irreversible tissue damage and limb loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - You are assessing a 70-year old man with a history of heart failure....

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 70-year old man with a history of heart failure. He is still exhibiting signs of fluid overload, prompting you to raise his furosemide dosage from 20 mg to 40 mg. What additional monitoring should be recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal function, serum electrolytes and blood pressure within 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Recommendations for Loop Diuretics

      To ensure the safe and effective use of loop diuretics, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends monitoring renal function, serum electrolytes, and blood pressure within 1-2 weeks after each dose increase. It is also important to check these parameters before starting treatment and after treatment initiation.

      For patients with known chronic kidney disease (CKD), those aged 60 years or older, or those taking an ACE-I, ARB, or aldosterone antagonist, earlier monitoring (5-7 days) may be necessary. By closely monitoring these parameters, healthcare professionals can identify any potential adverse effects and adjust treatment accordingly to optimize patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      The Role of Digoxin in Congestive Heart Failure Treatment

      Digoxin, a medication commonly used in the past for congestive heart failure, has lost its popularity due to the lack of demonstrated mortality benefit in patients with this condition. However, it has shown a reduction in hospitalizations for congestive heart failure. Therefore, it is recommended to maximize the use of other therapies such as ACE inhibitors, β blockers, and spironolactone before considering digoxin. If the ACE inhibitor cannot be tolerated, an angiotensin II receptor antagonist like candesartan can be used as an alternative. Digoxin should only be considered as a third-line treatment for severe heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction after first- and second-line treatments have been exhausted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - A 78-year-old man comes to you to discuss blood pressure management.

    He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to you to discuss blood pressure management.

      He has been seen by the nurse three times in the past six months, and each time his BP has been above 160/95 mmHg. He has no significant medical history except for a hernia repair eight years ago. He complains of mild dyspnea on exertion and mild ankle swelling at the end of the day.

      During today's examination, his BP is 155/92 mmHg, his pulse is 70 and regular, and his BMI is 27 kg/m2.

      Investigations reveal:
      - Hb 123 g/L (135 - 180)
      - WCC 5.1 ×109/L (4 - 10)
      - PLT 190 ×109/L (150 - 400)
      - Na 141 mmol/L (134 - 143)
      - K 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Cr 145 µmol/L (60 - 120)

      What is the best course of action for managing this man's blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If BP target is not reached on two or more agents than addition of more drugs is of no value

      Explanation:

      Treating Hypertension in Elderly Patients

      Patients of all ages should be treated to target when it comes to hypertension. The NICE guidelines on Hypertension (NG136) recommend a clinic blood pressure (BP) of less than 150/90 mmHg for patients over the age of 80. For patients over 55, calcium channel antagonists are the most appropriate first-line therapies, unless there is evidence of oedema, heart failure, or the patient is at risk of heart failure. In such cases, a thiazide-like diuretic such as chlorthalidone or indapamide should be used instead of conventional thiazides like bendroflumethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide. If a CCB is not tolerated, a thiazide-like diuretic should be offered to treat hypertension. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic that is associated with less hyponatraemia compared to bendroflumethiazide, making it an appropriate choice for first-line therapy in elderly patients. Even if the target BP is not reached on two or more agents, it is important to continue therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - Sophie is a 82-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She visits...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 82-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She visits her GP after experiencing a 10-minute episode where she couldn't move her left arm. Her arm function has since returned to normal and her neurological examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most accurate diagnosis for Sophie based on the given information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurological dysfunction caused by a transient episode of brain ischaemia

      Explanation:

      The definition of a TIA has been updated to focus on the affected tissue rather than the duration of symptoms. It is now defined as a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction resulting from restricted blood flow to the brain, spinal cord, or retina, without causing acute tissue damage. An ischaemic stroke, on the other hand, is characterized by neurological dysfunction caused by cerebral infarction, while multiple sclerosis is defined by neurological dysfunction caused by demyelination. Finally, a functional neurological disorder is characterized by transient symptoms of psychological origin.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol measurement with regards lipid modification therapy for cardiovascular disease prevention.
      Which of the following lipoproteins contribute to 'non-HDL cholesterol'?

      You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol measurement with regards lipid modification therapy for cardiovascular disease prevention.

      Which of the following lipoproteins contribute to 'non-HDL cholesterol'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LDL, IDL and VLDL cholesterol

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Non-HDL Cholesterol in Statin Treatment

      NICE guidelines recommend that high-intensity statin treatment for both primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease should aim for a greater than 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol. Non-HDL cholesterol includes LDL, IDL, and VLDL cholesterol. In the past, LDL reduction has been used as a marker of statin effect. However, non-HDL reduction is more useful as it takes into account the atherogenic properties of IDL and VLDL cholesterol, which may be raised even in the presence of normal LDL levels.

      Using non-HDL cholesterol also has other benefits. Hypertriglyceridaemia can interfere with lab-based LDL calculations, but it doesn’t impact non-HDL calculation, which is measured by a different method. Additionally, a fasting sample is not required to measure non-HDL cholesterol, making sampling and monitoring easier. Overall, non-HDL cholesterol is an important marker to consider in statin treatment for cardiovascular disease prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 26 - During his annual health review, a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolaemia,...

    Incorrect

    • During his annual health review, a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolaemia, and hypertension is taking metformin, gliclazide, atorvastatin, and ramipril. His recent test results show a Na+ level of 139 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ level of 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), creatinine level of 90 µmol/L (55 - 120), estimated GFR of 80 mL/min/1.73m² (>90), HbA1c level of 59 mmol/mol (<42), and urine albumin: creatinine ratio of <3 mg/mmol (<3). What is the recommended target clinic blood pressure (in mmHg)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      For patients with type 2 diabetes who do not have chronic kidney disease, the recommended blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without diabetes. This means a clinic reading of less than 140/90 mmHg and an ambulatory or home blood pressure reading of less than 135/85 mmHg if the patient is under 80 years old. It’s important to note that even if the patient’s estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is below 90, this doesn’t necessarily mean they have CKD unless there is also evidence of microalbuminuria.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - Which one of the following statements regarding QFracture is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding QFracture is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is based on UK primary care data

      Explanation:

      The data used for QFracture is derived from primary care in the UK.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old patient visits his General Practitioner with worries about the appearance of his chest wall. He is generally healthy but mentions that his father passed away 10 years ago due to heart problems. Upon examination, he is 195 cm tall (>99th centile) and slender, with pectus excavatum and arachnodactyly. The doctor suspects that he may have Marfan syndrome. What is the most prevalent cardiovascular abnormality observed in adults with Marfan syndrome? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic root dilatation

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities in Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder that affects various systems in the body. The most common cardiac complication is aortic root dilatation, which occurs in 70% of patients. Mitral valve prolapse is the second most common abnormality, affecting around 60% of patients. Beta-blockers can help reduce the rate of aortic dilatation and the risk of rupture. Aortic dissection, although not the most common abnormality, is a major diagnostic criterion of Marfan syndrome and can result from weakening of the aortic media due to root dilatation. Aortic regurgitation is less common than mitral regurgitation but can occur due to progressive aortic root dilatation and connective tissue abnormalities. Mitral annular calcification is more frequent in Marfan syndrome than in the general population but is not included in the diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor...

    Incorrect

    • A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor feeding. The baby was born at 37 weeks gestation without any complications. No central cyanosis is observed, but the baby has a slightly elevated heart rate, rapid breathing, and high blood pressure in the upper extremities. Oxygen saturation levels are at 99% on air. Upon chest auscultation, a systolic murmur is heard loudest at the left sternal edge. Additionally, the baby has weak bilateral femoral pulses. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the Aorta: A Narrowing of the Descending Aorta

      Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition that affects the descending aorta, causing it to narrow. This condition is more common in males, despite its association with Turner’s syndrome. In infancy, coarctation of the aorta can lead to heart failure, while in adults, it can cause hypertension. Other features of this condition include radio-femoral delay, a mid systolic murmur that is maximal over the back, and an apical click from the aortic valve. Notching of the inferior border of the ribs, which is caused by collateral vessels, is not seen in young children. Coarctation of the aorta is often associated with other conditions, such as bicuspid aortic valve, berry aneurysms, and neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A 63-year-old man presents with a three-month history of palpitation. He reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with a three-month history of palpitation. He reports feeling his heart skip a beat regularly but denies any other symptoms such as dizziness, shortness of breath, chest pain, or fainting.

      Upon examination, his chest is clear and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Heart sounds are normal and there is no peripheral edema. His blood pressure is 126/64 mmHg and his ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no P waves and a heart rate of 82/min.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Assessment using ORBIT bleeding risk tool and CHA2DS2-VASc tool

      Explanation:

      To determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation, it is necessary to conduct an assessment using both the CHA2DS2-VASc tool and the ORBIT bleeding risk tool. This applies to all patients with atrial fibrillation, according to current NICE CKS guidance. Therefore, the option to commence on apixaban and bisoprolol is not correct.

      The patient’s symptoms and ECG findings indicate atrial fibrillation, but there is no indication for a 24-hour ECG. Therefore, referral for a 24-hour ECG and commencing on apixaban and bisoprolol is not necessary.

      As there are no signs or symptoms of heart failure and no evidence of valvular heart disease on examination, referral for an echocardiogram and commencing on apixaban and bisoprolol is not the appropriate option.

      The patient is currently haemodynamically stable.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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