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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents with back pain radiating down both legs. The pain worsens with walking and improves with rest and leaning forwards. The straight leg-raising test is negative and ankle jerks are present. Posterior tibial pulses are also present. What is the most probable cause of her pain?
Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Back Pain and Symptoms
Back pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own set of symptoms. One such condition is spinal stenosis, which typically affects older individuals and causes discomfort, pain, or numbness in the legs while walking. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, causes low back pain without radiation down the legs, while lumbar disc prolapse results in pain radiating down one leg to the calf and foot. A lumbar compression fracture due to osteoporosis causes midline back pain, which can be severe and disabling. Finally, intermittent claudication presents as fatigue, aching, cramping, or pain in the buttock, thigh, calf, or foot while walking, but is unlikely if posterior tibial pulses are present. If mobility or quality of life is significantly impaired, decompression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 75-year-old woman who visited her GP complaining of stiffness and pain in her shoulders and hips. After diagnosis with polymyalgia rheumatica, she was prescribed 15mg prednisolone daily. However, when she returned to her GP a month later, she reported no relief from her symptoms. What should be the next step in her treatment plan?
Your Answer: Start an NSAID
Correct Answer: Refer to a specialist
Explanation:According to CKS, if the patient’s symptoms do not improve with a 10 mg dose of prednisolone, the GP may consider increasing the dose to 20 mg. However, doubling the dose is not recommended.
While physiotherapy may provide some relief, it is important to determine the underlying diagnosis.
The GP should not initiate immunosuppressant therapy.
Although NSAIDs can help manage pain, they will not aid in reaching a definitive diagnosis.
Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 80 year old man undergoes decompressive surgery for degenerative cervical myelopathy. After three years, he complains of neck pain and hand paraesthesias. What is the recommended management strategy for his condition?
Your Answer: Urgent AP/lateral cervical spine radiographs as an MRI scan is contraindicated
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to spinal surgery or neurosurgery
Explanation:Patients with cervical myelopathy require ongoing follow-up after surgery as the pathology can recur at adjacent spinal levels that were not treated during the initial decompressive surgery. Recurrent symptoms should be treated with suspicion, and peripheral neuropathy should not be the primary diagnosis as delays in diagnosing and treating DCM can negatively impact outcomes. Urgent evaluation by specialist spinal services is necessary for all patients with recurrent symptoms, and axial spine imaging, such as an MRI scan, is the first line of investigation. AP and lateral radiographs are of limited use when myelopathy is suspected. Therefore, statements A and E are false, and statement C is also false.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You come across a 79-year-old woman who has a medical history of diabetes, osteoarthritis, and hypertension. She experienced pain while bearing weight after twisting her leg while getting out of a car. The pain has reduced with simple analgesia. She also mentions a lump under her knee. During the examination, you notice a non-tender 4 cm lump just below the popliteal fossa that becomes tense when the leg is extended. The patient has full power throughout. What could be the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ruptured head of gastrocnemius
Correct Answer: Baker's cyst
Explanation:The usual individual with a Baker’s cyst is someone who has arthritis or gout and has experienced a minor knee injury. When the knee is extended, Foucher’s sign indicates an increase in tension in the Baker’s cyst. It is important to consider the possibility of a DVT, which can imitate a Baker’s cyst. Furthermore, a DVT may coexist with a Baker’s cyst, and an ultrasound should be performed with a low threshold.
Knee Problems in Older Adults
As people age, they become more susceptible to knee problems. Osteoarthritis of the knee is a common condition in older adults, especially those who are overweight. It is characterized by severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling.
Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may occur due to twisting of the knee, often accompanied by a popping noise and rapid onset of knee effusion. A positive draw test is used to diagnose this condition. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as hitting the knee on the dashboard during a car accident.
Collateral ligament injuries are characterized by tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and are often accompanied by locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help older adults seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You visit Max, an 85-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease, hip osteoarthritis, and prostate cancer. He claims to be doing well, but his wife is worried because he has been unable to walk today. Upon examination while he is lying on his couch, you observe that he has decreased sensation on both sides and reduced strength (3/5 in both hips). There are no apparent injuries or traumas. He doesn't have any bowel or bladder issues. What is the proper course of action?
Your Answer: Arrange urgent outpatient MRI whole spine and review in 1 week
Correct Answer: Admit immediately
Explanation:The patient’s history is concerning for suspected metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) due to the bilateral loss of power and inability to walk. It is important to consider common cancers that typically spread to the bone, such as prostate, breast, lung, kidney, and thyroid cancers.
According to NICE guidance, urgent discussion with the local MSCC coordinator is necessary within 24 hours if a patient with a history of cancer experiences pain in the middle or upper spine, progressive lower spinal pain, severe and unrelenting lower spinal pain, spinal pain worsened by straining, localised spinal tenderness, or nocturnal spinal pain that prevents sleep. Immediate discussion with the local MSCC coordinator is necessary if a patient with known cancer experiences neurological symptoms such as radicular pain, limb weakness, difficulty walking, sensory loss, or bladder or bowel dysfunction, or neurological signs of spinal cord or cauda equina compression.
It is important to note that MSCC can be the initial presentation of cancer, so it should be considered as a differential diagnosis when seeing all patients, even if there is no previous history of cancer.
Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency
Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, which are more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer. The earliest and most common symptom is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level, while lesions below L1 cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.
Urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Proper management is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman presents with painful, red skin on the inside of her thigh. This has developed over the past 4-5 days and has not happened before. She is normally fit and well and no past medical history of note other than depression.
On examination she has erythematous, tender skin on the medial aspect of her right thigh consistent with the long saphenous vein. The vein is palpable and cord-like. There is no associated swelling of the right calf and no history of chest pain or dyspnoea.
Her heart rate is 84/min and her temperature is 37.0ºC. What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Refer for an ultrasound scan
Explanation:An ultrasound scan should be conducted on patients with superficial thrombophlebitis of the long saphenous vein to rule out the possibility of an underlying DVT.
Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of patients will have an underlying deep vein thrombosis at presentation and 3-4% will progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. The use of low-molecular weight heparin has been shown to reduce extension and transformation to DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT and can be considered for prophylactic doses of LMWH for up to 30 days. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the sapheno-femoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 67-year-old man visits the outpatient department for a review of his osteoporosis, where he is booked in for a DEXA scan. His T-score from his scan is recorded as -2.0, suggesting reduced bone mineral density. His consultant wishes to calculate his Z-score.
Which patient factors are required to calculate this?Your Answer: Age, gender, ethnicity
Explanation:When interpreting DEXA scan results, it is important to consider the patient’s age, gender, and ethnicity. The Z-score is adjusted for these factors and provides a comparison of the patient’s bone density with that of an average person of the same age, sex, and race. Meanwhile, the T-score compares the patient’s bone density with that of a healthy 30-year-old of the same sex. It is worth noting that ethnicity can impact bone mineral density, with some studies indicating that Black individuals tend to have higher BMD than White and Hispanic individuals.
Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis
When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You see a 14-year-old boy with his father. He is normally completely fit and well and extremely active. He is a keen soccer player and also enjoys running. He noticed a lump behind his left knee one week ago, it seemed to come on suddenly. He can't remember ever injuring his knee. It is not painful but his knee does feel 'tight'.
On examination, he has a round, soft fluctuant mass behind his left knee in the medial popliteal fossa. It is approximately the size of a baseball. The swelling feels tense in full knee extension and soften again or disappear when the knee is flexed. Flexion is slightly reduced.
What is the most likely diagnosis here?Your Answer: Popliteal artery aneurysm
Correct Answer: Baker's cyst
Explanation:If a child has a soft, painless swelling behind their knee that comes and goes, the most probable diagnosis is a Baker’s cyst. An anterior cruciate ligament tear usually occurs after a twisting injury, is painful, and doesn’t typically present with a lump in the popliteal fossa. A popliteal artery aneurysm would be pulsatile and uncommon in children. A rhabdomyosarcoma is unlikely to be painless and fluctuant, and the child may have other symptoms of systemic disease.
Baker’s cysts, also known as popliteal cysts, are not true cysts but rather a distension of the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa. They can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Baker’s cysts are not associated with any underlying pathology and are typically seen in children. On the other hand, secondary Baker’s cysts are caused by an underlying condition such as osteoarthritis and are typically seen in adults. These cysts present as swellings in the popliteal fossa behind the knee.
In some cases, Baker’s cysts may rupture, resulting in symptoms similar to those of a deep vein thrombosis, such as pain, redness, and swelling in the calf. However, most ruptures are asymptomatic. In children, Baker’s cysts usually resolve on their own and do not require any treatment. In adults, the underlying cause of the cyst should be treated where appropriate. Overall, Baker’s cysts are a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to you with his test results. He has experienced three instances of a swollen left big toe in the past year. As a delivery driver, each episode prevents him from working for at least 5 days. He typically takes paracetamol and ibuprofen, but was given colchicine during his last attack which greatly improved his symptoms. He is not currently taking any other medications. A colleague ordered a blood test 4 weeks after his most recent episode, which revealed a serum urate level of 450µmol/L. He is curious if there are any preventative measures he can take to avoid future attacks. What would be your recommended course of action?
Your Answer: Prescribe fenbuxostat daily now
Correct Answer: Start allopurinol now
Explanation:Gout Treatment Guidelines
Gout is a condition that requires proper management to prevent acute attacks and complications. When initiating prophylactic medication for gout, it is important to be aware of the criteria for starting allopurinol. This medication can be started after two or more attacks of gout within a year or after the first attack in people at higher risk. However, allopurinol should not be initiated during an acute attack and should be started 1-2 weeks after inflammation has settled. The dose should be titrated every few weeks until the serum uric acid level is below 300µmol/L.
When starting allopurinol, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory tablet or colchicine should be co-prescribed and advised if an acute attack is precipitated. It is important to note that colchicine is only used for acute attacks and should not be used lifelong or for prophylaxis. Fenbuxostat is second-line therapy if allopurinol is not tolerated or is contraindicated.
A rheumatology referral is not indicated at present and should only be instigated if the diagnosis is uncertain or the patient is having acute attacks despite maximum doses of prophylactic medication or if complications are present. For more information on gout treatment guidelines, please refer to the CKS website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the true statement regarding falls in the elderly from the given list?
Your Answer: Falls are more frequent in men than woman
Correct Answer: 50% of people over the age of 80 have had a fall in the previous 12 months
Explanation:Understanding the Causes and Risks of Falls in the Elderly
As people age, the risk of falling increases significantly. In fact, around 30% of those over 60 years old experience a fall each year, with this number rising to 50% for those over 80. While simple trips account for 50% of falls, 30% are idiopathic, meaning the cause is unknown. However, dizziness, cardiovascular issues, and drug use can also contribute to falls.
Neurological diseases like Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s, as well as previous cerebrovascular disease, are common causes of falls in those who have these conditions. Even patients in stroke rehabilitation wards have a high risk of falling, with up to 50% experiencing a fall. Unfortunately, falls often result in injury, with up to 70% causing harm and 10% resulting in fractures.
Interestingly, female sex is a risk factor for falls, and certain medications like hypnotics, antidepressants, blood pressure-lowering drugs, and anticonvulsants have been linked to a higher risk of falling. By understanding the causes and risks of falls in the elderly, we can take steps to prevent them and keep our loved ones safe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A 50-year-old man who usually never attends the surgery comes to see you feeling absolutely wretched.
He is usually a keen cyclist who spent his summer on a month-long cycling tour of France, but he now finds it difficult to get out of bed, due to fatigue.
He also complains of multiple joint pains and cannot exercise because he doesn't have the energy. Other history of note is that he suffers from a patch of erythematous rash on his shin which seems to be present for a few days and then fades.
On examination, he has a pulse of 50 and a BP of 120/70 mmHg. There is a generalised polyarthritis.
Investigations reveal:
Hb 135 g/L (130-170)
WCC 8.2 ×109/L (4-11)
PLT 200 ×109/L (150-400)
Na 140 mmol/L (135-145)
K 4.5 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Cr 100 µmol/L (60-110)
ECG shows 1st degree heart block.
Knee aspirate reveals inflammatory picture, white cells ++, no crystals.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate next management step?Your Answer: 24 hour Holter monitor for possible permanent pacemaker
Explanation:Lyme Disease and Erythema Migrans
Erythema migrans is the most common clinical presentation of Lyme borreliosis. This is a difficult question, but the clue is in the fact that he is a hill walker who is, usually, relatively fit. Something has clearly occurred during the summer, and it is likely he has received a tick bite and gone on to develop Lyme disease, with southern Sweden being one of the most common areas in Europe to become infected.
Nearly two thirds of patients do not remember the initial tick lesion, yet the rash he describes is fairly typical of recurrent erythema chronicum migrans which occurs in around 20% of Lyme disease sufferers. The treatment of choice for the condition is a course of oral doxycycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old African American male comes to his doctor complaining of muscle weakness and bone pain all over his body. Upon conducting tests, the following results are obtained:
Calcium 2.05 mmol/l
Phosphate 0.68 mmol/l
ALP 270 U/l
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:Osteomalacia may be indicated by bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (resulting in a waddling gait), as evidenced by low levels of calcium and phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphatase.
Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment
Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old car mechanic presents to your clinic the day after a brawl at a bar. He has a deep cut on his knuckle, reportedly from defending himself against his attacker's tooth. After cleaning the wound and administering a tetanus vaccine, what would be the most suitable antibiotic treatment for this individual?
Your Answer: Penicillin G IM
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav oral
Explanation:The Risks of Human Bites
There is limited research on the topic, but human bites are known to cause infections. Closed fist injuries, in particular, are highly susceptible to deep infections as the tendon can become infected at the point of injury. When the hand relaxes, it slips back into its sheath, making it impossible to clean thoroughly.
To treat such injuries, broad-spectrum antibiotics like co-amoxiclav are typically used. It is also important to consider the possibility of blood-borne viruses, and patients should be offered testing for hepatitis B, C, and HIV if necessary. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, doxycycline plus metronidazole is a common first-choice regimen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old comes in with back pain that radiates to the left leg. The patient reports decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the left calf and lateral foot. Which nerve roots are likely affected in this case?
Your Answer: L4-L5
Correct Answer: S1-S2
Explanation:Understanding L5 and S1 Radiculopathy
L5 radiculopathy is the most common type of radiculopathy that affects the lumbosacral spine. It is characterized by back pain that radiates down the lateral aspect of the leg and into the foot. On the other hand, S1 radiculopathy presents with pain that radiates down the posterior aspect of the leg and into the foot from the back.
When examining a patient with L5 radiculopathy, weakness may be observed in leg extension (gluteus maximus), foot eversion, plantar flexion, and toe flexion. Sensation is also reduced on the lateral foot and posterior aspect of the leg. Meanwhile, patients with S1 radiculopathy may exhibit weakness in foot plantar flexion and toe flexion. Sensation is generally reduced on the posterior aspect of the leg and the lateral foot.
Understanding the differences between L5 and S1 radiculopathy is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions. Proper diagnosis and management can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An overweight 62-year-old woman presents with a two-day history of an acutely painful, tender right knee associated with erythema and a temperature of 37.7°C. She is usually well and suffers only from hypertension, for which she takes bendroflumethiazide. She admits to drinking 20 units of alcohol per week. There is nothing else of significance in the medical history.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemarthrosis
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Painful and Swollen Knee
When a patient presents with a painful and swollen knee, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, gout is a likely possibility, especially given the patient’s weight, alcohol consumption, and use of a diuretic. Gout typically causes severe pain, tenderness, and redness in the affected joint, and can be accompanied by fever and leukocytosis. Aspiration of joint fluid can help distinguish gout from septic arthritis, which is another possible diagnosis. Haemarthrosis, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis are less likely causes, as they present differently and have different associated symptoms. Septic arthritis is also a possibility, but is typically associated with fever, impaired range of motion, and other symptoms. Overall, a thorough evaluation and consideration of all possible diagnoses is necessary to properly diagnose and treat a painful and swollen knee.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with metastatic squamous cell lung cancer visits the surgery with a complaint of sudden pain in his right arm, where a skeletal metastasis is known to exist. He is currently on slow-release morphine sulphate (MST) 90mg bd, along with regular naproxen and paracetamol, to manage his pain. What medication would be the best choice to alleviate his acute pain?
Your Answer: Oral morphine solution 10 mg
Correct Answer: Oral morphine solution 30 mg
Explanation:The patient is experiencing break-through pain and bisphosphonates are not appropriate for acute pain relief. The recommended break-through dose is 30 mg, which is 1/6th of their total daily morphine dose of 180mg.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female presents with a four month history of having problems sleeping at night.
She has been woken on numerous occasions by her legs which are irritable and feel that they are being tugged. She needs to keep moving them. This urge lasts variable periods and she finds little relief from rubbing the legs. No abnormalities are noted on examination of her legs.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Ropinirole
Explanation:Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS) is a condition characterized by an uncomfortable sensation in the legs and a strong urge to move them. The exact cause of RLS is unknown, and there are no specific tests for diagnosis. However, the International Restless Legs Syndrome Study Group has established four basic criteria for diagnosing RLS, including a desire to move the limbs, symptoms that worsen during rest and improve with activity, motor restlessness, and nocturnal worsening of symptoms.
Treatment for RLS depends on the severity of the condition. Ropinirole is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient, as it is the only agent among the options listed that is licensed for treating RLS. Pramipexole and rotigotine are also licensed for moderate to severe cases of RLS. If you are experiencing symptoms of RLS, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for your individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with a football-related injury. He complains of acute pain in his right calf that began with a popping sound during running. You suspect an Achilles tendon rupture and proceed to perform Simmonds' Triad examination.
What is involved in Simmonds' Triad examination?Your Answer: Calf squeeze test, gait, observation of the angle of declination
Correct Answer: Calf squeeze test, observation of the angle of declination, palpation of the tendon
Explanation:To assess for an Achilles tendon rupture, Simmonds’ triad can be used. This involves three components: palpating the Achilles tendon to check for a gap, examining the angle of declination at rest to see if the affected foot is more dorsiflexed than the other, and performing the calf squeeze test. A positive result for the calf squeeze test is when squeezing the calf doesn’t cause the foot to plantarflex as expected. It’s important to note that struggling to stand on tiptoes or having an abnormal gait are not part of Simmonds’ triad.
Understanding Achilles Tendon Disorders
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of posterior heel pain, which can present as tendinopathy, partial tear, or complete rupture of the Achilles tendon. Certain risk factors, such as quinolone use and hypercholesterolaemia, can predispose individuals to these disorders.
Achilles tendinopathy typically presents with gradual onset of posterior heel pain that worsens following activity, along with morning pain and stiffness. Management usually involves supportive measures, such as simple analgesia, reduction in precipitating activities, and calf muscle eccentric exercises.
On the other hand, Achilles tendon rupture should be suspected if the person experiences an audible ‘pop’ in the ankle, sudden onset significant pain in the calf or ankle, or the inability to walk or continue the sport. Simmond’s triad can be used to help exclude Achilles tendon rupture, and ultrasound is the initial imaging modality of choice for suspected cases. An acute referral to an orthopaedic specialist is necessary following a suspected rupture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to neurology clinic with complaints of arm pain, stiffness, and balance issues. After undergoing tests, he is diagnosed with degenerative cervical myelopathy. However, he misses his next appointment due to hospitalization for acute coronary syndrome. Two months later, he visits his GP and reports ongoing neurological symptoms. What is the most crucial next step in his treatment?
Your Answer: Reassure the patient of his diagnosis
Correct Answer: Refer to spinal surgery or neurosurgery
Explanation:Patients with cervical myelopathy should be managed by specialist spinal services, such as neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery. The main treatment for this condition is decompressive surgery, which is necessary to prevent further deterioration in cases of progressive or severe disease. Close observation may be an option for mild and stable disease, but surgery is required to stop disease progression.
It is important to note that pre-operative physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services, as manipulation can cause more spinal cord damage. The timing of surgery is crucial, as any existing spinal cord damage can be permanent. Treatment within 6 months offers the best chance of making a full recovery. Unfortunately, many patients wait more than 2 years for a diagnosis, highlighting the need for improved awareness and timely referral.
While neuropathic analgesia can provide symptomatic relief, it will not prevent further cord damage. Physiotherapy should not replace surgical opinion and should only be initiated by specialist services to avoid causing more spinal cord damage.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet which feel as though he is walking on pebbles. He has been generally very well and the only thing that he can recall was that he returned from holiday in Corfu about 3 weeks ago and had a diarrhoeal illness whilst there.
He takes no medication but admits to taking ecstasy infrequently.
On examination he has some painful limitation of movement at the sacroiliac joints and has painful soreness over the soles of the feet on deep palpation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Sacroiliitis and Plantar Fasciitis
Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which connects the spine to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain in the heel and arch of the foot.
After experiencing a diarrhoeal illness, the most likely diagnosis for these conditions is reactive arthritis. This is a type of arthritis that occurs as a reaction to an infection in another part of the body, such as the gut. It can cause joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, as well as other symptoms like fever and fatigue.
It is important to note that reactive arthritis is less likely to be associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in this case, as the individual only experienced one acute episode of diarrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 45-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of lower back pain and stiffness that has been gradually developing over the past month. He reports using a hot water bottle for some relief, but the pain persists. He denies any loss of bladder or bowel control and his neurological exam is unremarkable.
What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:NSAIDS should be the first choice for treating lower back pain. Codeine, which is part of the opioid pain ladder, should not be used for managing nonspecific lower back pain as it can lead to dependence and dose escalation. Additionally, administering codeine via IM is only recommended for patients who cannot tolerate oral medication, which is not applicable in this case. Therefore, oral codeine should not be considered as a primary treatment option for nonspecific lower back pain.
Management of Lower Back Pain: NICE Guidelines
Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of lower back pain. These guidelines apply to patients with nonspecific lower back pain, which means it is not caused by malignancy, infection, trauma, or other specific conditions.
According to the updated guidelines, NSAIDs are now recommended as the first-line treatment for back pain. Paracetamol monotherapy is relatively ineffective for back pain, so NSAIDs are a better option. Proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs.
Lumbar spine x-ray should not be offered as an investigation for nonspecific back pain. MRI should only be offered to patients with nonspecific back pain if the result is likely to change management, or if malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina, or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected. MRI is the most useful imaging modality as it can see neurological and soft tissue structures.
Patients with low back pain should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. A group exercise program within the NHS is recommended for people with back pain. Manual therapy, such as spinal manipulation, mobilization, or soft tissue techniques like massage, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid can also be used for acute and severe sciatica.
In summary, the updated NICE guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for nonspecific back pain. Patients should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. MRI is the most useful imaging modality for investigating nonspecific back pain. Other treatments, such as manual therapy, radiofrequency denervation, and epidural injections, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 70-year old male presented to the emergency department with a 4 month history of bilateral paraesthesias and twitching in his thumb, first finger, and lateral forearm. He reported no history of trauma. An MRI scan of his spine showed cervical canal stenosis with mild cord compression. He was discharged and instructed to follow up with his primary care physician. What is the most suitable initial step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Refer to physiology services and review in 6 weeks
Correct Answer: Refer to spinal surgery services
Explanation:Patients initially diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome who later underwent surgery for degenerative cervical myelopathy should be managed by specialist spinal services, such as neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery. Decompressive surgery is the primary treatment option and has been shown to halt disease progression. While physiotherapy and analgesia may be used alongside surgical intervention, they do not replace the need for surgical opinion. Nerve root injections are not effective in managing this condition. A study by Behrbalk et al. (2013) highlights the importance of timely diagnosis by primary care physicians.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has had pain in her neck for two weeks. There is some restriction of movement in all directions and movements are painful. There is no previous history of neck pain or of recent trauma.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Cervical spine X-ray
Correct Answer: Wait-and-see and analgesia
Explanation:Management of Cervical Spondylosis: A Wait-and-See Approach with Analgesia
Cervical spondylosis is a common condition among middle-aged patients, characterized by osteophyte formation and disc space narrowing. While there is little robust evidence to support many of the commonly used treatments, most general practitioners will employ a wait-and-see strategy, expecting a favourable outcome. This approach can be supported by simple analgesia with paracetamol and ibuprofen. Prolonged absence from work should be discouraged.
A cervical collar is not recommended as it restricts mobility and may prolong symptoms. Similarly, an X-ray is likely to be unhelpful in most cases. However, doctors should be alert for features suggesting serious spinal pathology and refer patients to a pain clinic if symptoms are prolonged.
Physiotherapy may be appropriate for stretching and strengthening exercises and manual therapy, but referral should be based on the duration of symptoms. While acute neck pain has a good prognosis for the majority of patients, a relatively high proportion of patients still report neck pain after one year of follow-up. Therefore, a wait-and-see approach with analgesia is a reasonable first-line management strategy for cervical spondylosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man falls and sprains his thumb while skiing. His thumb was outstretched at the time of the fall. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress.
What is the most probable injury observed in this case?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis of the metacarpo-phalyngeal joint
Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear
Explanation:The ulnar collateral ligament tear, also known as Gamekeeper’s thumb or skier’s thumb, is a common injury among skiers who fall against the ski-pole, strap, or ground while the thumb is abducted. This ligament connects the middle of the metacarpal head to the palmar aspect of the proximal phalanx and supports the thumb when pinching or gripping. The tear can be partial or complete, and there may be an associated avulsion fracture of the volar base of the proximal phalanx. Symptoms include hyperextension and lateral deviation of the thumb, swelling, bruising over the joint, and pain felt over the ulnar side of the metacarpo-phalangeal joint. Treatment involves immobilization in a thumb spica splint for 4-6 weeks if the joint is stable, otherwise referral for possible surgical repair is indicated. De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, osteoarthritis of the metacarpo-phalyngeal joint, radial collateral ligament tear, and scaphoid fracture are different conditions and not related to ulnar collateral ligament tear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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After a fall at home, a 75-year-old Caucasian male presents to his GP. After a FRAX assessment, he is referred for a DEXA scan. The results of the scan are as follows:
T score -2.25 > -1.0 = normal
-1.0 to -2.5 = osteopaenia
< -2.5 = osteoporosis
Z score 0 < -2.0 = below the expected range for age
> -2.0 = within the expected range for age
For which of the following factors is the Z score adjusted?Your Answer: Age, fracture history, gender
Correct Answer: Age, gender, ethnic factors
Explanation:When analyzing DEXA scans, the Z score is modified to account for age, gender, and ethnicity, allowing for a comparison of an individual’s bone density to that of an average person with similar characteristics. Notably, the Z score remains unaffected by a person’s history of fractures or treatment with glucocorticoids.
Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis
When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 42-year-old woman who has a long history of fibromyalgia and chronic pain. She comes to see you to discuss medicinal cannabis. She has been reading online about the use of bedrocan in chronic pain and is keen to know if you are able to prescribe it for her.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Inform the police that the police is seeking illegal cannabis
Correct Answer: Advise that this medication may only be prescribed by a specialist, and offer a referral
Explanation:According to current guidelines, doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register are the only ones allowed to prescribe unlicensed cannabis-based products. They should only prescribe these products for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines. Bedrocan is an unlicensed cannabis-based product that can be prescribed by specialists in line with current evidence and guidance. Therefore, it is recommended to refer the patient to a specialist for consideration, rather than prescribing it yourself. Nabilone, a synthetic cannabinoid, is licensed for nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy and is not suitable for this scenario. It is not safe to advise the patient to purchase an unlicensed medication online, and there is no reason to involve the police.
Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products
Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.
Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.
Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.
It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.
Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted?
Your Answer: Bursitis
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic Arthritis and Other Joint Pathologies
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. It is often accompanied by psoriasis around the adjacent nail, and other joint involvement is typically more asymmetric than in rheumatoid arthritis. On the other hand, reactive arthritis presents with uveitis, urethritis, and arthritis that doesn’t involve the DIP. Gout, another joint pathology, doesn’t typically affect the DIP either. While rheumatoid arthritis can occasionally affect the DIP, it is classically a metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) arthritis. Lastly, it is important to note that bursitis is a pathology of the bursa, not the joint itself.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman comes to your clinic concerned about her bone health. She underwent a private DEXA scan after her sister was diagnosed with osteoporosis and the results showed a T-score of -1.9 for the femoral neck. Upon physical examination, there are no notable findings. What would be the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Prescribe a calcium and vitamin D supplement and repeat the DEXA in 12 months
Correct Answer: Do a FRAX assessment
Explanation:To accurately evaluate the fracture risk of this woman, the FRAX assessment is necessary, which includes the crucial element of measuring bone mineral density.
Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.
NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.
Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.
NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of joint pains and muscle aches that have been developing over the past few months. She also reports experiencing extreme fatigue and hair loss during the same period. She has been taking omeprazole for dyspepsia recently. A blood test shows positive results for anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid antibodies (anti-dsDNA).
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Connective Tissue Disorders: Differential Diagnosis Based on Antibody Subtypes
Connective tissue disorders can present with similar symptoms such as joint and muscle pains and fatigue. However, the specific antibody subtype can help differentiate between different conditions.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is highly associated with anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid antibodies (anti-dsDNA), which has a sensitivity of 70% and is variable based on disease activity. On the other hand, drug-induced lupus erythematosus is associated with omeprazole but rarely presents with positive anti-dsDNA antibodies.
Rheumatoid arthritis is more likely to present with positive rheumatoid factor and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies, while scleroderma is associated with anti-centromere antibodies and anti-Scl-70.
Sjögren syndrome, which commonly presents with dry eyes, mouth, and skin, can also cause fatigue and joint pains. However, it is more likely to be associated with positive anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies rather than anti-dsDNA antibodies.
Therefore, understanding the specific antibody subtype can aid in the differential diagnosis of connective tissue disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 30
Correct
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You see a 50-year-old gentleman with an acutely red, painful and swollen first MTP joint. He has had gout attacks in the past for which he is on allopurinol 100 mg daily. He has no other past medical history and is on no other medication.
On examination, he is apyrexial and appears systemically well.
What is the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Naproxen
Explanation:Treatment for Acute Gout Attack
NSAIDs or colchicine are the primary treatments for an acute gout attack. If the patient is already taking allopurinol, it should be continued. Serum uric acid levels should only be checked four weeks after an acute attack as levels can be normal during an attack. If NSAIDs or colchicine are contraindicated, prednisolone should be considered.
After treating the acute attack, a serum uric acid test should be done four weeks later. Based on the results, the allopurinol dosage can be adjusted to maintain serum uric acid levels below 300 µmol/L. It is important to follow the treatment plan to prevent future gout attacks and reduce the risk of complications. Proper management of gout can improve the patient’s quality of life and prevent long-term joint damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 31
Correct
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A 65-year-old African American man seeks advice regarding vitamin D deficiency. He is in good health and denies any muscle or bone pain or weakness. His medical history includes hypertension and arthritis. He doesn't wear a hat or cover his head for personal reasons. What advice should be given?
Your Answer: She should take vitamin D 10mcg od
Explanation:Testing for vitamin D deficiency is unnecessary for individuals with higher risk factors such as age over 65 years and pigmented skin, as they should receive treatment regardless.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and hip pain. His blood tests are shown in the table below. Other liver function tests are normal. He also complains of difficulty in hearing.
Investigation Result Normal value
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 1000 IU/l 30–150 IU/l
Adjusted calcium 2.25 mmol/l 2.12–2.65 mmol/l
Phosphate 1.2 mmol/l 0.8–1.45 mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of Bone: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Paget’s disease of bone is a disorder of bone remodeling that typically affects individuals over the age of 40. It is often asymptomatic and is discovered through incidental findings of elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels or characteristic abnormalities on X-rays. However, classic symptoms include bone pain, deformity, deafness, and pathological fractures. Diagnosis is established by finding a raised serum alkaline phosphatase level, but normal liver function tests. Differential diagnoses include multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnoses of Paget’s disease of bone is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 45-year-old man who presents with erectile dysfunction (ED) that has been gradually worsening over the past 2 years, leading to relationship issues with his partner. He has no significant medical history and is generally healthy.
Upon examination, his cardiovascular system appears normal, and his blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. His BMI is within the normal range, and his genitalia examination is unremarkable.
You decide to order some blood tests, including HbA1c and lipid levels. What other blood test(s) should be included in this initial screening?Your Answer: Thyroid function tests (TFTs)
Correct Answer: Testosterone level
Explanation:According to experts, it is important to screen men with erectile dysfunction for underlying conditions such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and hypogonadism. This can help identify opportunities for intervention and lifestyle modifications to improve both erectile dysfunction and cardiovascular health. A glucose and lipid profile should be conducted for all men with new onset erectile dysfunction due to the strong association with CVD and diabetes. Additionally, a testosterone level should be checked for all men with erectile dysfunction to screen for hypogonadism. The British Society for Sexual Medicine recommends testosterone screening as testosterone deficiency can negatively impact phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor efficacy and is reversible. Men with consistently low total serum testosterone levels may benefit from a trial of testosterone replacement therapy for up to 6 months. If free testosterone is low or borderline, repeat testing and measurement of FSH, LH, and prolactin levels should be considered. A PSA is recommended for men with an abnormal digital rectal examination or those over 50 years old who are at greater risk of prostate cancer or considering testosterone replacement. Cortisol and thyroid function tests are not recommended unless there are symptoms of thyroid, Cushing’s, or Addison’s disease.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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The mother of a 10-year-old boy with Down's syndrome wanted advice about what sporting activities were safe for her child as she heard his neck is not as stable as other children's.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate piece of advice to be given?Your Answer: He can only play sports if he wears a neck brace
Correct Answer: He can play most sports, but specialised sports such as gymnastics require screening
Explanation:Cervical Spine Injury in Sports
Playing sports doesn’t increase the risk of cervical spine injury any more than the general population. In fact, specialised sports like gymnastics have protocols to screen for craniovertebral instability. There is no evidence to support the use of a neck brace for sports-related cervical spine injuries.
However, individuals with Down’s syndrome may be at a higher risk of craniovertebral instability or myelopathy. Warning signs include neck pain, abnormal head posture, reduced neck movements, deterioration of gait, increased frequency of falls, increasing fatigability on walking, or deterioration of manipulative skills. If someone with Down’s syndrome presents with these symptoms, they should immediately stop participating in sports and seek urgent assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis and is prescribed a calcium and vitamin D supplement. He expresses concern about potential side effects. What adverse effect has been associated with the use of calcium supplementation?
Your Answer: Increased risk of Paget's disease
Correct Answer: Increased risk of myocardial infarction
Explanation:An association has been found between calcium supplementation and a higher likelihood of experiencing a heart attack.
Calcium and Vitamin D Supplementation for Osteoporosis: Potential Risks and Recommendations
Osteoporosis is a common condition that affects postmenopausal women, and calcium and vitamin D supplementation are often prescribed to prevent fractures. However, the 2008 NICE guidelines recommend that clinicians ensure patients have adequate calcium intake and vitamin D levels before prescribing supplements. While it may seem logical to prescribe a combined calcium and vitamin D supplement, recent studies have raised concerns about the potential risks of calcium supplements.
A meta-analysis published in the BMJ in 2010 suggested that calcium supplements may increase the risk of ischaemic heart disease. Although this study was criticized for not considering vitamin D co-prescription, subsequent analyses of this study and two others have confirmed the association. A study published in Heart in 2012 found that patients taking calcium supplements had a significantly increased risk of myocardial infarction compared to those with high calcium intake through dietary means.
Despite these findings, major guideline bodies have not yet provided clear recommendations on how to proceed. For now, it is recommended to encourage patients to aim for a dietary calcium intake of around 1,000mg/day and prescribe a standalone vitamin D supplement (usually 10mcg/day). This approach may help prevent fractures while minimizing potential risks associated with calcium supplementation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 36
Correct
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You are asked to go and review Sarah, an 82-year-old nursing home resident with pains in her legs.
Sarah has a 40-pack-year smoking history and has recently been diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment.
For the last 48 hours, the staff at the nursing home have noticed Sarah is very uncomfortable when getting out of her bed. The nursing staff mention that she has now started to require assistance to transfer into her chair from the bed as she reports the pain makes her legs 'give way'.
Sarah describes severe pains in her legs, mainly located at the back of her thighs but sometimes moving down into her lower legs and feet. She describes the pain as ‘electric shocks’.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cauda equina syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for a patient presenting with bilateral sciatica is cauda equina syndrome. This condition may be caused by malignant spread, which is more likely in patients with a history of smoking and advanced age, increasing the risk of prostate cancer. Bilateral claudication, Guillain-Barré syndrome, osteoarthritis, and peripheral neuropathy are less likely diagnoses as they do not present acutely with bilateral sciatica symptoms.
Understanding Cauda Equina Syndrome
Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. This can lead to permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness, as well as urinary and bowel incontinence. It is important to consider CES in any patient who presents with new or worsening lower back pain.
The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically occurring at L4/5 or L5/S1. Other causes include tumors, infections, trauma, and hematomas. CES may present in a variety of ways, including low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation or pins-and-needles in the perianal area, and decreased anal tone. Urinary dysfunction, such as incontinence, reduced awareness of bladder filling, and loss of urge to void, is also a possible symptom.
It is crucial to recognize that there is no one symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude CES. However, checking anal tone in patients with new-onset back pain is good practice, even though studies show that it has poor sensitivity and specificity for CES. In case of suspected CES, an urgent MRI is necessary. The management of CES involves surgical decompression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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You come across a 35-year-old woman who injured her ankle while ice-skating. Despite the injury, she managed to stand up and walk off the ice with a limp. Upon examination, you notice swelling around her lateral malleolus and tenderness specifically on the anterior aspect of the distal fibula. There is no tenderness anywhere else, and she has an antalgic gait. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Simple fracture
Correct Answer: Anterior talofibular ligament sprain
Explanation:To determine if an ankle x-ray is necessary for patients with foot or ankle pain, the Ottawa ankle rules are used. If the rules do not indicate the need for an x-ray, the likelihood of a fracture is low. The rules state that an x-ray is only necessary if the patient is unable to bear weight immediately after the injury and during assessment, or if there is tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or fibula, or the distal tip of either malleoli.
In this particular case, the patient is experiencing tenderness on the anterior aspect of the fibula, which is a common symptom of a sprain in the anterior talofibular ligament that inserts in the anterior part of the fibula.
Ottawa Rules for Ankle Injuries
The Ottawa Rules provide a reliable guideline for determining whether an ankle x-ray is necessary following an injury. These rules have a sensitivity approaching 100%, meaning they are highly accurate in identifying cases where an x-ray is needed. According to the Ottawa Rules for ankle injuries, an x-ray is only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and one of the following findings: bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone, bony tenderness at the medial malleolar zone, or inability to walk four weight-bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department.
By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can avoid unnecessary x-rays and reduce radiation exposure for patients. Additionally, the Ottawa Rules are available for foot and knee injuries, providing a comprehensive approach to determining the need for imaging in these areas. Overall, the Ottawa Rules are a valuable tool for healthcare providers in making informed decisions about imaging for ankle injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 38
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy is brought in by his mother. He has been complaining of knee pain and she is concerned because he has started to limp over the past month. There is no history of trauma.
Other than the limp, he is otherwise fit and well. His mother says that he doesn't indulge in any sporting activity whatsoever and feels that this is a contributing factor towards his obesity.
On examination, he can weight bear but needs your assistance to get up onto the couch. His weight is on the 90th centile, but he is apyrexial. Examination of the knee is normal but you think that the affected leg is shortened with reduced internal rotation.
What is the most appropriate first line investigation?Your Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Slipped Epiphysis: Diagnosis and Treatment
Slipped epiphysis is a condition commonly found in overweight boys aged 10-15, with an association with obesity and hypothyroidism. Patients often present with pain, which may be referred to the knee, and a thorough examination of the hips is necessary. Key findings supporting the diagnosis include risk factors, leg shortening, and reduced internal rotation.
The condition can be classified based on chronicity and stability. Acute, chronic, and acute on chronic are the classifications based on chronicity, while unstable and stable are the classifications based on stability. X-ray is the first line investigation for chronic and stable slipped epiphysis, and other tests such as U&Es, serum TFTs, and serum growth hormone may also be considered.
Bilateral antero-posterior x-rays are performed, and Klein’s line is drawn along the superior aspect of the femoral neck to intersect the femoral head in a healthy hip. With slipped epiphysis, Klein’s line doesn’t intersect the femoral head. A frog leg lateral x-ray is a more sensitive view, where the physis may also be blurred or widened, known as Bloomberg’s sign.
Treatment for unstable slipped epiphysis involves urgent surgical repair due to the risk of avascular necrosis. In contrast, treatment for stable slipped epiphysis usually involves in situ screw fixation. Orthopaedic surgeons may also consider prophylactic fixation of the contralateral hip in both cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 39
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old man who was diagnosed with gout a year ago.
He has recently had olecranon bursitis which he was told was associated with gout.
What other condition may be associated with gout?Your Answer: Sjögren's syndrome
Correct Answer: Renal colic
Explanation:Complications of Hyperuricaemia
Hyperuricaemia, or high levels of uric acid in the blood, can lead to various complications. One of these is renal disease, which can manifest as acute or chronic urate nephropathy. Another complication is the formation of urinary stones, which is seen in 10-25% of people with gout. The incidence of urinary stones is strongly correlated with plasma urate level, with a 50% increase in those with levels higher than 780 µmol/L. It is important to manage hyperuricaemia to prevent these complications from occurring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of groin pain. He reports feeling a snapping sensation in his hip accompanied by deep groin and hip pain. The patient participated in a football game the previous weekend. He has no prior history of such symptoms and is not on any regular medication. Upon further inquiry, he admits to consuming alcohol regularly, with an average of 70 units per week.
During the examination, the man's large body habitus is noticeable. He can bear weight and move around the room with ease. However, his range of motion is restricted by pain, particularly during external rotation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Correct Answer: Acetabular labral tear
Explanation:Acetabular labral tear is a condition that can occur due to trauma or degenerative changes. Younger adults are more likely to experience this condition as a result of trauma, while older adults may develop it due to degenerative changes. The main symptoms of this condition include hip and groin pain, a snapping sensation around the hip, and occasional locking sensations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
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You observe a 9-year-old boy with a swelling behind his right knee. He noticed the swelling 3 days ago, it is not painful and isn't growing. The swelling is not associated with a prior injury. He is otherwise healthy.
Upon examination, you discover a round, smooth, and fluctuant swelling in the popliteal fossa of his right knee. It is not tender.
You diagnose a Baker's cyst and provide the patient and his mother with some information.
Which of the following statements about Baker's cysts is accurate?Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is not a cause of a secondary Baker's cyst in children
Correct Answer: Primary Baker's cysts are found mainly in children
Explanation:Baker’s cysts can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary cysts are not associated with any knee joint disease and are typically found in children. They are considered idiopathic and do not have any communication between the bursa and the knee joint. On the other hand, secondary cysts are linked to underlying knee joint conditions, such as osteoarthritis, and often have a communication between the bursa and the rest of the knee joint. Secondary cysts are more common in adults, while juvenile idiopathic arthritis is a cause of secondary cysts in children.
Baker’s cysts, also known as popliteal cysts, are not true cysts but rather a distension of the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa. They can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Baker’s cysts are not associated with any underlying pathology and are typically seen in children. On the other hand, secondary Baker’s cysts are caused by an underlying condition such as osteoarthritis and are typically seen in adults. These cysts present as swellings in the popliteal fossa behind the knee.
In some cases, Baker’s cysts may rupture, resulting in symptoms similar to those of a deep vein thrombosis, such as pain, redness, and swelling in the calf. However, most ruptures are asymptomatic. In children, Baker’s cysts usually resolve on their own and do not require any treatment. In adults, the underlying cause of the cyst should be treated where appropriate. Overall, Baker’s cysts are a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man contacts for guidance after undergoing an elective hip replacement. He has been advised to take 'blood-thinning' injections but is uncertain about the duration of the treatment. As per NICE recommendations, what is the duration for administering low-molecular weight heparin after an elective hip replacement?
Your Answer: 7 days
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:LMWH should be administered for a duration of 4 weeks following hip replacement.
Joint Replacement for Osteoarthritis
Joint replacement, also known as arthroplasty, is the most effective treatment for osteoarthritis patients who experience significant pain. Around 25% of patients are now younger than 60 years old, and despite the common belief that obesity is a barrier to joint replacement, there is only a slight increase in short-term complications. There is no difference in long-term joint replacement survival.
For hips, the most common type of operation is a cemented hip replacement, where a metal femoral component is cemented into the femoral shaft, accompanied by a cemented acetabular polyethylene cup. However, uncemented hip replacements are becoming increasingly popular, particularly in younger and more active patients, despite being more expensive than conventional cemented hip replacements. Hip resurfacing is also sometimes used, where a metal cap is attached over the femoral head, often in younger patients, and has the advantage of preserving the femoral neck, which may be useful if conventional arthroplasty is needed later in life.
postoperative recovery involves both physiotherapy and a course of home-exercises, and walking sticks or crutches are usually used for up to 6 weeks after hip or knee replacement surgery. Patients who have had a hip replacement operation should receive basic advice to minimize the risk of dislocation, such as avoiding flexing the hip more than 90 degrees, avoiding low chairs, not crossing their legs, and sleeping on their back for the first 6 weeks.
Complications of joint replacement surgery include wound and joint infection, thromboembolism, and dislocation. NICE recommends that patients receive low-molecular weight heparin for 4 weeks following a hip replacement to prevent thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of widespread pain, stiffness, and subjective weakness in her shoulders bilaterally. She reports taking longer to get dressed in the morning, sometimes up to 45 minutes due to her symptoms. There is no complaint of scalp tenderness or jaw claudication.
During examination, there is no objective weakness identified in her upper and lower limbs. No erythema or swelling is visible in her shoulders. Passive motion of her shoulders bilaterally improves her pain.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Bilateral rotator cuff tendinopathy
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Upon examination, there is no actual weakness observed in the limb girdles of a patient with polymyalgia rheumatica. Any perceived weakness is likely due to myalgia, which is pain-induced inhibition of muscles.
The most probable diagnosis for a patient with gradual onset and symmetrical symptoms, such as this woman, is polymyalgia rheumatica. Although the patient reports subjective weakness, it is most likely due to pain rather than actual objective weakness, which is typical of this condition. If there were any visible deformities or true weakness, it would suggest a different diagnosis.
Rotator cuff tendinopathy would not typically present with symmetrical features or significant morning stiffness.
Cervical myelopathy would likely reveal objective weakness during examination, along with other potential symptoms such as clumsiness and numbness/paraesthesia.
Fibromyalgia is an unlikely diagnosis for a patient in this age group and would not typically present with morning stiffness.
Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with complaints of a dull ache and numbness in her right hand. She reports that her symptoms are more severe at night and she has to hang her arm out of bed and shake it to get relief. On examination, forced flexion of the wrist and pressure over the proximal wrist crease with thumbs reproduces the paraesthesia in her thumb, index finger, and middle finger. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline 10 mg nocte
Correct Answer: Local corticosteroid injection
Explanation:Treatment Options for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that affects many people, and it can be quite debilitating. However, there are several treatment options available to help manage the symptoms. It is important to note that anti-inflammatories may exacerbate symptoms, and there is no significant evidence behind using a diuretic or amitriptyline as a treatment option. Instead, treatment options include avoiding precipitating causes, simple advice about minimizing activities that trigger symptoms, nocturnal wrist splintage, and corticosteroid injection. Referral for nerve conduction studies is appropriate in some cases where there is diagnostic doubt, but if there is a clear clinical diagnosis, further investigation is not needed, and treatment can be initiated. Corticosteroid injection is a first-line treatment option and can be performed based on a clinical diagnosis in primary care by an adequately trained and competent clinician. Surgery, which would not be an appropriate initial management, would clearly need referral to secondary care. By understanding these treatment options, individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome can work with their healthcare provider to find the best approach for managing their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old teacher presents with joint pains. Over the past few months, she has been experiencing intermittent pain, stiffness, and swelling in the joints of her hands and feet. The stiffness tends to improve during the day, but the pain tends to worsen. She has also noticed stiffness in her back but cannot recall any injury that may have caused it. During an acute attack, blood tests were taken and the results are as follows:
Rheumatoid factor: Negative
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody: Positive
Uric acid: 0.3 mmol/l (0.18 - 0.48)
ESR: 41 mm/hr
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly linked to the presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies, which are highly specific to this condition.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that requires initial investigations to determine the presence of antibodies. One such antibody is rheumatoid factor (RF), which is usually an IgM antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. The Rose-Waaler test or latex agglutination test can detect RF, with the former being more specific. RF is positive in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody is another antibody that may be detectable up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis. It has a sensitivity similar to RF but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends testing for anti-CCP antibodies in patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative. Additionally, x-rays of the hands and feet are recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 46
Correct
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A 64-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of hip pain. He reports that the pain began a week ago while he was picking up a toy belonging to his grandchild. How can it be determined if the hip pain is actually referred from his lumbar spine?
Your Answer: A positive femoral nerve stretch test
Explanation:A potential indication of referred lumbar spine pain causing hip pain is a positive result on the femoral nerve stretch test. This is because compression of the femoral nerve may be the root cause of the pain, and stretching the nerve can reproduce the symptoms.
Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can cause pain in the morning, systemic symptoms, and elevated inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is often seen in women aged 50-70 and is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and results in a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis can have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and causes pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, causing groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, with elevated ESR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man returns for follow-up. You had previously provided him with a Statement of Fitness for Work, indicating that he may be eligible for 'modified duties' and 'adjusted hours' due to a recent ankle fracture. However, his employer has informed him that they are unable to accommodate these changes and instructed him to return to you. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Phone the employer and inform him about the Disability Discrimination Act
Correct Answer: Do not issue any further sick notes and inform him that the original should now be treated as a 'not fit for work' note
Explanation:The DWP advises that if a patient is unable to return to work, the advice provided by their healthcare provider should aim to assist both the patient and their employer in finding ways to facilitate a return to work. However, if it is determined that a return to work is not possible, the patient will be treated as if their healthcare provider had advised that they were not fit for work. In this case, the patient will not need to obtain a new Statement from their healthcare provider, as the previously issued Statement will be considered equivalent to a statement of unfitness for work.
Understanding the Statement of Fitness for Work
The Statement of Fitness for Work, previously known as sick notes, was introduced in 2010 to reflect the fact that most patients do not need to be fully recovered before returning to work. This statement allows doctors to advise that a patient may be fit for work taking account of the following advice. It replaces the Med3 and Med5 forms and has resulted in the withdrawal of the Med4, Med6, and RM 7 forms due to the replacement of Incapacity Benefit with the Employment and Support Allowance.
Telephone consultations are now an acceptable form of assessment, and there is no longer a box to indicate that a patient is fit for work. Instead, doctors can state if they need to reassess the patient’s fitness for work at the end of the statement period. The statement provides increased space for comments on the functional effects of the condition, including tick boxes for simple things that may help a patient return to work.
The statement can be issued on the day of assessment or at a later date if it would have been reasonable to issue it on the day of assessment. It can also be issued after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered healthcare professional.
There are four tick boxes on the form that represent common approaches to aid a return to work, including a phased return to work, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. Patients may self-certify for the first seven calendar days using the SC1 or SC2 form, depending on their eligibility to claim statutory sick pay.
It is important to note that the advice on the statement is not binding on employers, and doctors can still advise patients that they are not fit for work. However, the Statement of Fitness for Work provides a more flexible approach to returning to work and recognizes that many patients can return to work with some adjustments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man who recently began taking simvastatin is experiencing muscle pain and fatigue. He is an avid runner and takes aspirin as his only other medication. His creatine kinase level is 305 iu/l (normal range 0-160 iu/l), but his renal function is normal. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Stop his statin and tell him to avoid all of these drugs in future
Correct Answer: Reduce to a lower dose of statin
Explanation:Managing Myalgia in Statin Therapy: CK and TSH Testing and Treatment Options
Myalgia, or muscle pain, is a common side effect of statin therapy, particularly in patients who exercise. If a patient presents with suspected statin myopathy, healthcare providers should measure their creatine kinase (CK) and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and provide appropriate advice based on the results.
If the CK level is greater than five times the upper limit of normal, other potential causes (such as drug interactions) should be ruled out, and the statin should be discontinued. If the CK level is less than five times the upper limit of normal, the myalgia is typically not significant and may be related to exercise.
However, if the patient is symptomatic despite a non-significant elevation in CK levels, alternative statins or a lower dose should be considered. If these options are not effective, ezetimibe may be prescribed.
In summary, managing myalgia in statin therapy involves careful monitoring of CK and TSH levels and adjusting treatment accordingly to minimize discomfort and ensure patient safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient, who is being treated for TB and is sputum smear negative, complains of severe pain in her big toe.
On examination the toe is swollen and red and you suspect she has gout.
Which one of the following drugs is most likely to have caused her symptoms?Your Answer: Rifampicin
Correct Answer: Pyrazinamide
Explanation:Understanding Pyrazinamide Side Effects during TB Treatment
Treatment for tuberculosis (TB) is typically initiated in specialist clinics, but patients may present in primary care if they experience adverse reactions, interactions, or side effects. As a healthcare provider, it is important to have an understanding of common side effects and potential problems during treatment. Pyrazinamide, a medication commonly used in TB treatment, can cause hyperuricaemia and attacks of gout. Additionally, patients may experience hepatitis and rashes as side effects of pyrazinamide. Being aware of these potential side effects can help healthcare providers monitor and manage patients’ treatment effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old gentleman presents with recurrent painful and erythematous left first metatarsal joint. After diagnosis of gout and treatment with an anti-inflammatory, you check his blood tests during the acute attack and find his uric acid level to be 260 µmol/L (180-380). He has experienced four episodes of gout in the past 18 months and seeks advice on how to prevent future attacks. What recommendations should you provide?
Your Answer: A low dose anti-inflammatory should be continued regularly to prevent recurrence
Correct Answer: As his uric acid level is normal he doesn't need prophylactic treatment with uric acid lowering drug therapy (such as allopurinol)
Explanation:Management of Acute Gout and Prophylactic Treatment
During an acute attack of gout, serum urate levels may appear lower than usual and should not be used to guide management or rule out the diagnosis of gout. It is recommended to check serum urate levels four to six weeks after an attack to obtain an accurate reflection of levels. Patients with recurrent attacks of acute gout are excellent candidates for prophylactic treatment. Allopurinol is the usual first-line drug, and the dose should be titrated to maintain a serum urate level of less than 300 µmol/L. While initiating and titrating allopurinol, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or colchicine should be co-prescribed to cover against precipitating an acute flare. However, a low dose anti-inflammatory is not a recommended long-term prophylactic approach. Genetic testing is not a usual part of the workup, although some genetic conditions are associated with hyperuricaemia, such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 51
Correct
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The wife of a middle-aged patient has called the clinic for guidance. Her husband has fallen down the stairs and suffered a head injury. You gather information about the fall and the patient's present state.
She owns a car, and their neighbor has offered to take him to the hospital if necessary.
As per NICE guidance CG176, which of the following details in the history would prompt you to recommend transfer to the hospital emergency department via the emergency ambulance service (i.e., 999 response):Your Answer: The patient has difficulties with understanding
Explanation:NICE Guidance on prehospital Management of Head Injury
NICE has issued guidance on the management of head injury, including prehospital management for health professionals who may be giving advice about attending the emergency department and whether to travel by 999 ambulance. Patients should be transferred to the emergency department by emergency ambulance service if they have any of the following: unconsciousness or lack of full consciousness, any focal neurological deficit since the injury, any suspicion of a skull fracture or penetrating head injury, any seizure since the injury, a high-energy head injury, or the injured person or their carer is incapable of transporting the injured person safely to the hospital emergency department without the use of ambulance services. A focal neurological deficit is defined as a problem restricted to a particular part of the body or activity. It is important to identify patients who should attend the hospital emergency department, those who should be advised to transfer by the emergency ambulance service, and those who may simply need transfer by the ambulance service. Health professionals should be familiar with the definition of certain terms, such as focal neurological deficit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Bone metastases from carcinomas typically occur in which bone site most frequently?
Your Answer: Pelvis
Correct Answer: Spine
Explanation:Understanding Bone Metastases: Common Sites and Impacts
Bone metastases are a significant source of morbidity for cancer patients, causing severe pain, mobility issues, fractures, spinal cord compression, bone marrow problems, and hypercalcemia. The most common sites for bone metastases are the spine, pelvis, ribs, skull, and proximal long bones, with breast, prostate, and lung cancer responsible for over 80% of cases. Once cancer cells invade bone, they stimulate osteoblastic or osteolytic activity, leading to a cycle of bone destruction and tumor growth.
Spinal metastases are particularly problematic, causing pain, instability, and neurological damage. Breast and prostate cancer are the most common sources of skeletal metastases, with median survival rates ranging from 20 months for breast cancer to 53 months for prostate cancer with bone-only disease. Pathologic fractures are common, with the femur being the most frequent site. Pelvic metastases are common in prostate cancer, while rib fractures and vertebral collapses can lead to lung disease. Skull metastases are usually a late event, causing cosmetic issues or neurological damage.
Understanding the common sites and impacts of bone metastases is crucial for effective treatment and management of cancer patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 53
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 65-year-old woman who presented a few months ago with pain in her left hip. She was evaluated by a colleague who suspected that her symptoms were likely due to osteoarthritis and since then she has had some plain films of her hip which confirm significant changes of osteoarthritis.
She has been attempting to remain active and has increased her daily exercise to try and help with her symptoms and also lose weight. To manage any pain she experiences, she has been using heat and cold packs which provide some relief when her pain is bothersome.
What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological intervention in this case?Your Answer: Oral COX-2 inhibitor (for example, etoricoxib)
Correct Answer: Oral paracetamol
Explanation:Managing Osteoarthritis Symptoms: Core Strategies and Pharmacological Treatments
In managing osteoarthritis symptoms, core strategies such as weight loss, appropriate exercise, and suitable footwear can be effective. Local application of heat and cold packs or TENS may also be helpful for some patients. Pharmacological treatments can be considered alongside these core strategies and used as adjuncts to manage symptoms.
Oral paracetamol is a recommended first-line drug as it provides a good balance of efficacy, cost-effectiveness, and tolerability. It can be used as needed or regularly and is available over-the-counter, making it easier for patients to manage their symptoms independently. Topical capsaicin can also be used in some patients with knee and hand osteoarthritis, but its use must be complied with and may cause a burning sensation at the start of treatment.
If paracetamol is ineffective in managing symptoms, other options such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or opioids may be considered further up the treatment ladder. It is important to note that oral paracetamol is most effective when taken regularly, and the dose may need to be reduced in older patients. Patients should be counseled on the need for regular use and that it may take up to two weeks to feel the analgesic benefit of capsaicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 54
Incorrect
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You assess a 48-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. She was initiated on methotrexate three months ago and prednisolone was added to achieve quick symptom control. Currently, she is taking methotrexate 15mg once a week and prednisolone 10 mg once daily. However, she is encountering several adverse effects. What is the most probable side effect caused by prednisolone?
Your Answer: 'Tired all the time'
Correct Answer: 'My shoulder and leg muscles feel weak'
Explanation:Proximal myopathy is a frequent occurrence in individuals who use steroids for an extended period. It is possible that some of the other adverse effects are a result of either the ongoing rheumatoid disease or the use of methotrexate.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of osteoarthritis and high blood pressure presents to the GP for a follow-up on recent test results. He follows a vegetarian diet and enjoys gardening. On examination, he has joint deformities in his fingers but is otherwise unremarkable. His DEXA scan T-score was -2.5. The table below shows his blood test results.
Calcium 2.0 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 1.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 14 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
Amylase 250 U/L (70 - 300)
Uric acid 0.22 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
Creatine kinase 150 U/L (35 - 250)
What is the initial treatment that should be started?Your Answer: Alendronate
Correct Answer: Calcium replacement
Explanation:Before administering bisphosphonates, it is important to correct hypocalcemia/vitamin D deficiency. Therefore, calcium replacement is the correct choice for this patient. If dietary intake is inadequate, calcium should be prescribed when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. As this patient is vegan and hypocalcemic, it is likely that her dietary intake is insufficient, making calcium replacement necessary.
While alendronate is a suitable first-line bisphosphonate, it cannot be initiated until the patient’s hypocalcemia is corrected.
Dietary and lifestyle advice alone is not appropriate for this patient, as she requires correction of her hypocalcemia and osteopenia. However, such advice may be given in conjunction with pharmacological measures.
Pamidronate is an intravenous bisphosphonate that may be used by a specialist if first-line bisphosphonates are not tolerated or contraindicated.
Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.
The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents for an urgent consultation with a gout flare-up in his left big toe. Upon examination, you confirm the diagnosis. The patient has a medical history of asthma and cannot tolerate NSAIDs. In his previous flare-up, you prescribed Colchicine, which resulted in severe diarrhea. He expresses reluctance to take it again and inquires about alternative treatments. What recommendations do you have?
Your Answer: Ice packs and elevation plus paracetamol
Correct Answer: Recommend 15mg daily of Prednisolone
Explanation:If a patient with gout cannot take NSAIDs or colchicine due to contraindications or intolerance, the next option is to consider using steroids. However, in cases where colchicine is not well-tolerated due to side effects such as diarrhea, it may be worth trying again at a lower dose. If the patient refuses to take colchicine, a steroid injection into the affected joint may be a viable option. However, it is important to note that routine referrals for this procedure may take too long, and not all facilities may offer it. While ice packs and basic pain relief may provide some relief, they are not recommended as primary treatments. Additionally, if a patient cannot tolerate oral NSAIDs, topical NSAIDs should also be avoided.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man complains of increasing stiffness and pain in his right knee and seeks medical attention. He denies any history of trauma, locking, or giving way. Upon examination, an x-ray reveals the following findings:
Plain film: right knee
Moderate degenerative changes indicative of osteoarthritis. Intra-articular calcification, possibly a loose body.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Check serum calcium
Correct Answer: Continue to manage as per osteoarthritis guidelines
Explanation:According to the recent guidelines by NICE, there is no requirement to refer a patient with x-ray evidence of a loose body if they are asymptomatic and not experiencing locking.
The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management
Glucosamine is a natural component found in cartilage and synovial fluid. Several double-blind randomized controlled trials have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee osteoarthritis, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness. Despite this, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for osteoarthritis management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 58
Incorrect
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What is the minimum steroid dosage that a patient should be on before being considered for osteoporosis prevention?
Your Answer: Equivalent of prednisolone 7.5 mg or more each day for 6 weeks
Correct Answer: Equivalent of prednisolone 7.5 mg or more each day for 3 months
Explanation:Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has suffered a Colles' fracture and a fractured neck of her left femur during the past 18 months. Results of thyroid function testing, serum protein electrophoresis and serum parathyroid hormone estimation are all normal. Bone densitometry of the lumbar spine and femoral neck on the non-replaced side reveals a bone density within the osteoporotic range.
What is the most crucial step in managing her osteoporosis?Your Answer: Initiate calcium and vitamin D therapy
Correct Answer: Initiate bisphosphonate therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Idiopathic Osteoporosis
Idiopathic osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density and an increased risk of fractures, without an identifiable underlying cause. In patients with this condition, bisphosphonate therapy is the best choice for treatment. This therapy inhibits osteoclast activity and has been shown to improve bone density and reduce fracture risk. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may also be given in addition to bisphosphonates, but only if the patient has inadequate calcium intake and vitamin D deficiency/lack of sun exposure. Hormone replacement therapy may be appropriate for female patients in their sixties, but an individual discussion of the risks and benefits is needed. Observing and repeating the densitometry in 12 months is not recommended as treatment should be commenced once osteoporosis is confirmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman has a deep aching pain in the right outer thigh and hip area that has been present for a month and is getting worse. It is worse on exercise and when she lies on it. She is locally tender over the greater trochanter of the femur.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Sciatica
Correct Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome
Explanation:Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, was previously thought to be caused by an inflamed bursa over the greater trochanter. However, it is now understood to be due to minor tears or damage to nearby muscles, tendons, or fascia, with an inflamed bursa being a less common cause. Common causes include injury, repetitive movements, or prolonged excessive pressure. Diagnosis is typically made through history and examination, with a positive Trendelenburg test indicating a dip in the pelvis when lifting the unaffected leg. Treatment options include analgesics, physiotherapy to strengthen muscles, and corticosteroid injection. Other potential causes of hip pain include entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, fracture of the neck of the femur, osteoarthritis of the hip, and sciatica, each with their own distinct symptoms and diagnostic tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 61
Incorrect
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What is the tendon involved in de Quervain's tenosynovitis/tenovaginitis?
Your Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis
Correct Answer: Adductor pollicis
Explanation:De Quervain’s Disease: How to Examine and Test for it
De Quervain’s disease is a condition where the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed and thickened. To examine a patient with this condition, one can perform a Finkelstein’s test. This test involves the patient making a fist with their thumb tucked inside their fingers, and then bending their wrist towards their little finger. If the patient experiences pain on the thumb side of their wrist, it is likely that they have De Quervain’s tenosynovitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 62
Correct
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A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness in his big toe. He appears to be in good health and there are no signs of infection or fever. He reports a history of gout and suspects that it has returned. He is currently on a regular dose of allopurinol. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Continue allopurinol and commence colchicine
Explanation:Patients with an acute flare of gout who are already on allopurinol treatment should not discontinue it during the attack, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. Colchicine is a suitable option for acute gout treatment, and oral steroids can be used if colchicine or NSAIDs are not tolerated. Hospital review on the same day is not necessary unless there are red flag features or evidence of a septic joint. Aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 63
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old lady today who presents with lower leg pain. While jogging she felt a sudden, sharp pain in the back of her left lower leg. The patient is unable to stand on her tiptoes using just her left leg. The Simmonds' test is positive on the affected side. She is normally fit and well but was treated for pyelonephritis two weeks ago.
What medication is likely to have led to this presentation?Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Achilles Tendon Rupture and Fluoroquinolones
This is a typical history of an Achilles tendon rupture – sudden and severe pain at the back of the leg. Patients often hear an audible snap and feel as if something hit them at the back of the leg. To confirm the diagnosis, doctors use the Simmonds’ test, which involves squeezing the calf while the patient is kneeling on a bench.
Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, have been found to cause tendinopathies, although this is rare. Patients taking these medications should be advised to stop treatment at the first signs of tendon discomfort and seek medical attention. It is important to be aware of this potential side effect when prescribing fluoroquinolones to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with atrial fibrillation, hypertension, reduced renal function and hypercholesterolaemia. She suddenly experiences a hot, swollen, painful right great toe. Which medication is the most probable cause of this?
Your Answer: Allopurinol
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Medications and Gout: Understanding the Relationship
Gout is a painful condition caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. While there are various factors that can contribute to the development of gout, medications can also play a role.
Loop and thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, can increase uric acid levels and trigger gout attacks. Other medications that can raise uric acid levels include nicotinic acid, low-dose aspirin, and ciclosporin. On the other hand, xanthine oxidase inhibitors like allopurinol and uricosuric agents like probenecid can help lower uric acid levels and prevent gout attacks.
Enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor used to treat hypertension, is not known to interfere with urate metabolism and is therefore unlikely to cause gout attacks. However, it can cause electrolyte imbalances and a decline in renal function, so monitoring is necessary.
Warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist used for conditions like atrial fibrillation, is also not known to cause gout attacks.
Understanding the relationship between medications and gout can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment options and prevent unnecessary pain and discomfort for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a four week history of shoulder pain. There has been no obvious precipitating injury and no previous experience. The pain is worse on movement and there is a grating sensation if she moves the arm too quickly. She also gets pain at night, particularly when she lies on the affected shoulder.
On examination there is no obvious erythema or swelling. Passive abduction is painful between 60 and 120 degrees. She is unable to abduct the arm herself past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are preserved. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis
Explanation:The individual is exhibiting a typical symptom known as the painful arc, which is indicative of shoulder impingement. This condition is often caused by supraspinatus tendonitis.
Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles
The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.
The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.
Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with complaints of lethargy and aching shoulders and upper arms. Suspecting polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), what other symptom or sign is frequently associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Tachycardia
Correct Answer: Back pain
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica: Symptoms and Presentation
Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) is a condition that affects individuals over the age of 50. The core features of PMR include bilateral shoulder or pelvic ache, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate/C reactive protein (ESR/CRP), morning stiffness, and up to 40% of patients may present with weight loss. In addition to these symptoms, patients may also experience systemic symptoms such as lethargy, loss of appetite, or a low-grade fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of widespread muscular pain that has persisted for several months and was previously diagnosed as osteoarthritis by another GP. She also experiences fatigue, sleep disturbance, and constipation. Despite undergoing routine tests, thyroid function tests, and rheumatological investigations, all results have been normal. Her joint examination is also normal. What is the most appropriate treatment to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Slow release morphine sulphate
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia: Choosing the Right Medication
Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain, fatigue, and sleep disturbances. While there is no cure for fibromyalgia, there are several treatment options available to manage its symptoms.
One medication commonly prescribed for fibromyalgia is amitriptyline, an antidepressant that can improve pain, mood, and sleep quality. Aerobic exercise and cognitive behavior therapy can also be effective in improving overall wellbeing.
However, medications such as methotrexate and prednisolone are not recommended for fibromyalgia as they are used for inflammatory conditions and lack evidence of benefit for this condition. Strong opioids like slow-release morphine sulfate are also not recommended due to their potential for addiction and tolerance. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like naproxen may provide short-term relief for acute pain, but are not typically used for chronic pain management in fibromyalgia.
It is important for patients with fibromyalgia to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman is experiencing pain and tingling in her left hand every morning upon waking. The tingling sensation is affecting her thumb, index and middle fingers, as well as half of her ring finger. She finds some relief by hanging her arm out of bed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ulnar neuropathy
Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve is compressed and deprived of blood supply as it passes through the carpal tunnel in the wrist. While it may be caused by secondary factors such as pregnancy, wrist arthritis, or myxoedema, the root cause is often unknown. Conservative management is typically the first line of treatment, which may involve wearing a wrist splint at night to keep the wrist in a neutral position. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and diuretics are not effective in treating carpal tunnel syndrome. Local corticosteroid injections may provide relief, but their long-term effectiveness is uncertain. In some cases, carpal tunnel release surgery may be necessary, which can be performed through an open or endoscopic method. It is important to differentiate carpal tunnel syndrome from other conditions such as cervical root lesion, pronator syndrome, tenosynovitis, and ulnar neuropathy, which have distinct symptoms and causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 69
Correct
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What conditions or treatments are linked to a higher risk of osteoporosis and fractures?
Your Answer: Undiagnosed coeliac disease
Explanation:Osteoporosis and Fracture Risk Factors
Undiagnosed or untreated coeliac disease can lead to malabsorption and increase the risk of osteoporosis and fractures. On the other hand, skimmed milk contains more calcium per pint than full fat milk, and bendroflumethiazide can improve calcium retention and bone mineral density. It is important to note that irritable bowel syndrome doesn’t cause malabsorption or increased fracture risk, unlike coeliac disease or inflammatory bowel diseases. Lastly, hyperthyroidism can increase the risk of osteoporosis, but hypothyroidism doesn’t unless it is over-replaced. By understanding these risk factors, individuals can take steps to prevent osteoporosis and fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of fatigue and muscle weakness. He reports difficulty swallowing and has lost 2kg. He struggles with standing up from a seated position and ascending stairs. Upon examination, you note mildly tender and weak proximal muscles with intact reflexes. Laboratory results reveal a significantly elevated creatine kinase level.
What is the definitive diagnostic test for confirming this condition?Your Answer: Chest X-ray
Correct Answer: Muscle biopsy
Explanation:To confirm a diagnosis of polymyositis, medical professionals typically rely on EMG and muscle biopsy. The condition is characterized by a gradual and painless weakening of the proximal muscles, and patients typically exhibit a significant increase in creatine kinase levels. A muscle biopsy is considered the most reliable diagnostic test for polymyositis.
Polymyositis is an inflammatory condition that causes weakness in the muscles, particularly in the proximal areas. It is believed to be caused by T-cell mediated cytotoxic processes that target muscle fibers. This condition can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders and is often linked to malignancy. Dermatomyositis is a variant of this disease that is characterized by prominent skin manifestations, such as a purple rash on the cheeks and eyelids. It typically affects middle-aged individuals, with a female to male ratio of 3:1.
The symptoms of polymyositis include proximal muscle weakness, which may be accompanied by tenderness. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, and dysphagia or dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, may also occur in around 20% of patients, which is a poor prognostic indicator.
To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including measuring elevated creatine kinase levels and other muscle enzymes, such as lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase, AST, and ALT. An EMG and muscle biopsy may also be performed. Additionally, anti-synthetase antibodies and anti-Jo-1 antibodies may be present in patients with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.
The management of polymyositis typically involves high-dose corticosteroids, which are tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents for her medication review. She was prescribed alendronate three years ago after being diagnosed with osteoporosis following a wrist fracture. The patient inquires about the duration of bone protection therapy.
When is the optimal time to evaluate her risk and determine if ongoing treatment is necessary?Your Answer: Lifelong treatment is needed
Correct Answer: At 5 years
Explanation:Monitoring Osteoporosis Treatment: What Patients Need to Know
After starting bone protection treatment, patients often wonder how they can tell if the treatment is working and if they need to repeat the DEXA scan. Unfortunately, there is little clear guidance from major guidelines on these issues. However, the general consensus is that patients do not need to assess their bone mineral density once bone protection has been started. This is because there is limited evidence of any link between improvement in bone mineral density and reduction in fracture risk.
As for the length of treatment, the National Osteoporosis Guideline Group (NOGG) recommends a treatment review after 5 years of treatment for alendronate, risedronate, or ibandronate, and after 3 years for zoledronic acid. This review will likely involve a recalculation of the patient’s fracture risk and a DEXA scan. It is important for patients to follow their healthcare provider’s recommendations and attend regular check-ups to ensure the best possible outcomes for their osteoporosis treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with a 3-year history of widespread body pain. The pain started after a fall and was initially localized to her lower back. Over time, the pain has spread and she now reports feeling constant pain all over her body. She denies any joint swelling or other systemic symptoms. She has difficulty sleeping and experiences fatigue. She has a history of irritable bowel syndrome but is otherwise healthy. On examination, she appears well and there are no significant musculoskeletal findings, but she is tender at multiple points bilaterally on her body.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic fatigue syndrome
Correct Answer: Fibromyalgia
Explanation:Understanding Fibromyalgia: Symptoms and Tender Points
Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that primarily affects women, causing widespread pain and tenderness throughout the body. Along with pain, individuals with fibromyalgia may experience morning stiffness, fatigue, sleep disturbances, cognitive difficulties, and other unexplained symptoms. To diagnose fibromyalgia, doctors may use the standard 18 tender points, which are pairs of points on either side of the body that are particularly sensitive to pressure. However, many patients may experience pain in other areas as well. Routine blood testing can help rule out other potential causes of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old gentleman presents with worsening knee problems. He was diagnosed with osteoarthritis in both knees a few years ago and had x-rays showing significant tricompartmental osteoarthritis. He manages his symptoms with paracetamol and a topical NSAID, but has been experiencing increasing pain in his right knee. He asks if he can be referred for arthroscopic lavage and debridement, as his friend had this procedure done. What features would warrant consideration for referral?
Your Answer: A history of the joint 'giving way'
Correct Answer: X Ray evidence of loose bodies
Explanation:Arthroscopic Lavage and Debridement for Osteoarthritis
Patients with osteoarthritis may present with various signs and symptoms, but only a small percentage may benefit from arthroscopic lavage and debridement. This procedure is recommended for patients who have a clear history of mechanical locking of the knee, which is caused by meniscal lesions or loose bodies in the knee. Referral for arthroscopic intervention should only be offered to patients with this specific symptom.
It is important to note that other symptoms of osteoarthritis, such as gelling or giving way, or x-ray evidence of loose bodies, do not warrant referral for arthroscopic lavage and debridement. According to NICE guidelines, this procedure should not be offered for the treatment of any other symptoms of osteoarthritis.
In summary, arthroscopic lavage and debridement is only recommended for patients with a clear history of mechanical locking of the knee. Other symptoms of osteoarthritis do not warrant referral for this procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 74
Incorrect
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You see a 40-year-old man who has presented with a three week history of right shoulder pain.
He has recently been doing some home renovations and wonders if this has caused the problem as he has been quite busy with manual labor. He localizes the pain to the tip of the shoulder and says it radiates to the outer aspect of his upper arm. He reports that the pain is worse when he has to lift his arm above shoulder level and has noticed pain with brushing his teeth and putting on his shirt.
On examination the joint is cool and stable. He is systemically well. You are able to demonstrate a painful arc. There is normal power with no neurovascular deficit in the arm.
Which of the following is the most appropriate imaging to perform at this stage?Your Answer: Bone scan
Correct Answer: No imaging
Explanation:Imaging Modalities for Shoulder Injuries
When a patient presents with rotator cuff tendinitis, a clinical diagnosis is the most appropriate approach. Imaging is not necessary at this point unless there are atypical symptoms or the initial management strategies are ineffective. However, if further imaging is needed, there are several modalities available for assessing shoulder injuries.
Ultrasound (US) is the preferred investigation for assessing the rotator cuff and surrounding soft tissues. It can also guide injections and is reserved for cases that do not respond to first-line treatment and clinically guided injection. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is an alternative to US and is useful for assessing complex injuries and bony abnormalities after major trauma. It can also exclude rare conditions that are obscured by acromial arch and bone abnormalities when other investigations and treatments fail to establish a diagnosis.
X-ray is used as a preoperative assessment and is indicated for persistent shoulder pain that is unresponsive to conservative management. It can exclude calcific tendinitis and diagnose conditions unrelated to the rotator cuff. However, it is important to evaluate the benefits of imaging to limit unnecessary requests that waste resources and may expose the patient to unnecessary radiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a suddenly swollen and painful right knee, along with red, gritty eyes and difficulty urinating. He has recently returned from a trip to Southeast Asia, where he experienced several days of vomiting and diarrhea. During joint aspiration, giant macrophages are found, but no organisms are visible on gram staining. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose only ONE answer.
Your Answer: Septic arthritis
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Arthritis, Conjunctivitis, and nonspecific Urethritis
The patient presents with a classic triad of reactive arthritis, including arthritis, conjunctivitis, and nonspecific urethritis. This condition is often associated with human leukocyte antigen B27 and typically occurs after bacterial dysentery caused by Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, or Yersinia spp. or sexually acquired infection with Chlamydia spp. Joint aspiration may reveal the presence of giant macrophages.
Other potential diagnoses include Behçet’s disease, which typically presents with recurrent oral and genital ulcers and uveitis, but is less likely in this case as there is no ulceration described. Sjögren syndrome, which produces dry eyes, dry mouth, and parotid enlargement, is also less likely as these symptoms are not present. Gonococcal arthritis, which can occur in sexually active patients, may present with a swollen knee, but the ocular and urinary tract symptoms are more consistent with reactive arthritis. Septic arthritis, which presents as a red, hot, swollen joint, is also a possibility, but joint aspiration would likely reveal the presence of Staphylococcus aureus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with a lump above his right knee that seems to relate to the lower right anterior thigh.
On examination, you can feel a soft tissue swelling that relates to the anterior right thigh. It is felt deep to the surface and is 3-4 cm in diameter. It is non-painful and feels fixed and immobile.
The patient is unable to identify any specific precipitant and has never had any similar 'lumps' of this nature in the past.
Which of the following factors should most strongly prompt urgent referral of this patient for a suspected sarcoma?Your Answer: The non-painful nature of the swelling
Correct Answer: That the swelling is fixed and immobile
Explanation:Identifying Suspicious Lumps: Indicators of Soft Tissue Sarcoma
The nature of a palpable lump is crucial in determining whether a patient requires urgent referral for suspicion of soft tissue sarcoma. If the lump is greater than 5 cm in diameter, deep to fascia, fixed or immobile, painful, increasing in size, or a recurrence after previous excision, an urgent referral is necessary. In this case, the lump is deeply felt and fixed, indicating a potential diagnosis of soft tissue sarcoma. These features are the most concerning and should be carefully evaluated to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment. Proper identification of suspicious lumps is essential in the early detection and management of soft tissue sarcoma.
Spacing:
The palpable nature of the swelling is extremely important in patients presenting with a palpable lump. An urgent referral for suspicion of soft tissue sarcoma should be made if the lump has any of the following features:
– greater than about 5 cm in diameter
– deep to fascia, fixed or immobile
– painful
– increasing in size, or
– a recurrence after previous excision.In this case, we have a deeply felt lump that is fixed and immobile. It is these features that would be the most concerning with regard to a potential diagnosis of soft tissue sarcoma.
Proper identification of suspicious lumps is essential in the early detection and management of soft tissue sarcoma. These features are the most concerning and should be carefully evaluated to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Mrs Patel is a 75-year-old woman who presents with a burning pain in her buttock when walking. The pain radiates down her leg. She doesn't complain of any back pain. She finds that sitting helps ease the pain. In addition, she did find that leaning forwards on the shopping trolley at the supermarket made it easier to walk. On examination of her lower legs, there was no focal neurology and foot pulses were palpable.
What investigation is most likely to be useful in diagnosing this condition?Your Answer: Arterial duplex scan
Correct Answer: MRI lumbar spine
Explanation:When spinal stenosis is suspected in a patient, the preferred imaging method is an MRI. It is important to differentiate between spinal stenosis and peripheral vascular disease, such as intermittent claudication. The absence of normal foot pulses suggests that peripheral vascular disease is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. The fact that the patient experiences relief when leaning forward is a characteristic symptom of spinal stenosis. Nerve conduction studies are not used to diagnose spinal stenosis, but rather peripheral neuropathy. To diagnose peripheral vascular disease, possible investigations include an arterial duplex scan, ankle brachial pressure index, and angiogram.
Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis
Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.
Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.
After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.
Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 78
Incorrect
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Of all the malignant tumours, which one has the greatest tendency to spread to the bone?
Your Answer: Kidney
Correct Answer: Prostate
Explanation:Common Sites of Bone Metastasis in Different Cancers
Bone metastasis is a common occurrence in advanced stages of cancer, with the third most frequent site being the bone, following the liver and lungs. Breast and prostate cancers are the leading causes of skeletal metastases. In patients with advanced metastatic disease, the relative incidence of bone metastasis is 65-75% for both breast and prostate cancer.
However, the prevalence of a cancer determines the frequency of metastases from that particular cancer. The overall frequencies of carcinoma-related bone metastases for both sexes involve breast, prostate, lung, colon, stomach, bladder, uterus, rectum, thyroid, and kidney, in descending order of frequency.
It is important to note that the relative incidence of bone metastasis in advanced metastatic bladder cancer is 40%, while it is 20-25% for advanced metastatic kidney cancer. The relative incidence of bone metastasis in advanced metastatic lung cancer is also 40%, while it is 60% for advanced metastatic thyroid cancer. Understanding the common sites of bone metastasis in different cancers can aid in early detection and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a fever, headache and body aches. On questioning, he complains of a recent onset of jaw pain while chewing food. Physical examination reveals normal temporal arteries. Fundal examination shows a pale, swollen optic disc on the right side. Blood tests reveal mild normocytic anaemia and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 120 mm per hour (normal 0–22 mm per hour).
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?
Your Answer: Repeat bloods and schedule a review in two weeks
Correct Answer: Start treatment immediately, urgent referral to rheumatology
Explanation:The Importance of Prompt Diagnosis and Treatment for Giant Cell Arteritis
Giant cell arteritis (GCA) is a serious condition that can lead to irreversible visual loss if left untreated. Symptoms include headache, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. While abnormalities in the temporal artery are only found in about 30% of patients on examination, a normal examination doesn’t exclude the condition.
Immediate treatment with high-dose steroids is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) on suspicion of GCA, and an urgent referral to a specialist, usually a rheumatologist, should be made within 72 hours. Delay in treatment can have serious consequences, so it is important to start treatment promptly.
While a temporal artery biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis, treatment should not be postponed until this can be arranged. Ultrasound can also be used as a diagnostic tool, which is less invasive. Long-term oral steroids carry risks and side effects, so it is important to confirm the diagnosis with a specialist to ensure that treatment is indicated.
Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in cases of suspected GCA to prevent irreversible visual loss and other serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and a right-sided headache for the past 4 months. He also experiences jaw pain while eating. Upon fundoscopy, a swollen optic disc with flame-shaped haemorrhages is observed. Eye movements are painless. His ESR is found to be 100. What is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer: Sjögren syndrome
Correct Answer: Giant-cell arteritis
Explanation:Common Causes of Ocular Vasculitis: A Brief Overview
Ocular vasculitis is a group of disorders that affect the blood vessels in the eye. Here are some common causes of ocular vasculitis and their clinical features:
Giant-cell arteritis: This large-vessel vasculitis mainly affects the temporal and ophthalmic arteries. It typically presents with headache, scalp tenderness, jaw pain, and visual disturbance. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is usually elevated, and skip lesions are common.
Central retinal vein occlusion: This condition may occur in chronic simple glaucoma, arteriosclerosis, hypertension, and polycythaemia. The fundus appears like a ‘stormy sunset’ with red haemorrhagic areas and engorged veins.
Diabetic retinopathy: This is the most common cause of blindness in adults between 30 and 65 years of age in developed countries. It is characterised by microaneurysms, retinal haemorrhages, exudates, cotton-wool spots, neovascularisation, and venous changes.
Polyarteritis nodosa: This necrotising vasculitis affects multiple systems and has variable manifestations, although it most commonly affects the skin, joints, peripheral nerves, the gut, and the kidney. Ocular involvement is rare.
Sjögren syndrome: This autoimmune disorder is characterised by dry mouth and dry eyes with variable lacrimal or salivary gland enlargement due to lymphocytic infiltration.
Understanding the clinical features of these common causes of ocular vasculitis can aid in early diagnosis and prompt treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman has a T-score of -2.5 from her dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan at the hip. It was performed because she was worried about osteoporosis, as her mother had died following a fractured neck of femur.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Repeat the DEXA scan in 12 months
Correct Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis can be diagnosed through a DEXA scan, and if the bone mineral density is 2.5 standard deviations or more below the young adult reference mean, a bisphosphonate such as alendronate or risedronate is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may also be given alongside bisphosphonates. Repeat DEXA scans are not necessary unless the T-score is greater than -2.5. Raloxifene is not typically recommended for primary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures due to the risk of venous thromboembolism. If bisphosphonates are not tolerated or contraindicated, specialist referral may be necessary for alternative treatments such as zoledronic acid, strontium ranelate, denosumab, teriparatide, and sometimes raloxifene.
Understanding Treatment Options for Osteoporosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old construction worker complains of wrist pain for the past two weeks. He has no significant medical history and recently moved from Nigeria. During examination, he experiences tenderness at the base of his right thumb and radial styloid process. The pain is recreated when the wrist is deviated ulnarly. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteoarthritis of the carpometacarpal joint
Correct Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Explanation:De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is characterized by pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, specifically over the radial styloid process.
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which pain is elicited by ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction of the thumb, is also indicative of the condition.
Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical intervention may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can experience relief from the pain and discomfort associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 85-year-old man with chronic myeloid leukaemia presents with gout following treatment. His general practitioner prescribes allopurinol to treat the condition. How does allopurinol prevent the buildup of uric acid?
Your Answer: By competing for its transporter to the kidney
Correct Answer: By inhibiting purine breakdown and synthesis
Explanation:Allopurinol and its Mechanism of Action
Allopurinol is a purine analogue that inhibits xanthine oxidase, an enzyme responsible for the oxidation of hypoxanthine and xanthine. By blocking this process, the production of uric acid is reduced. Additionally, the accumulation of hypoxanthine and xanthine leads to the inhibition of amidophosphoribosyl transferase, which is the rate-limiting enzyme of purine biosynthesis. As a result, both purine breakdown and synthesis are decreased. It is important to note that allopurinol should not be used in combination with Rasburicase as the two medications counteract each other.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female has a history of aggressive, erosive rheumatoid arthritis over three years.
It remains poorly controlled despite good compliance with therapy (NSAIDs and methotrexate). She is now complaining of severe fatigue.
FBC shows:
Haemoglobin 72 g/L (120-160)
White cell count 1.4 ×109/L (4-11)
Platelet count 44 ×109/L (150-400)
What is the most likely cause of her pancytopenia?Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Pancytopenia in a Patient with Erosive Rheumatoid Arthritis
This patient is presenting with pancytopenia, which can be attributed to her history of erosive rheumatoid arthritis over the past three years. It is likely that she has been on immunosuppressive therapy, which can lead to this type of hematological condition.
There are several medications used in immunosuppressive therapy that can cause pancytopenia, including methotrexate, sulfasalazine, penicillamine, and gold. It is important to monitor patients on these medications for any signs of hematological abnormalities and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 85
Correct
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A 54 year old man is admitted as an inpatient for treatment of a duodenal ulcer. Upon waking this morning, he experiences severe inflammation in his first metatarsophalangeal joint. The joint is swollen and tender, and a sample of the fluid is sent for microscopy. The patient has a history of hypertension. What is the most appropriate initial medication to prescribe?
Your Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:Due to the presence of a duodenal ulcer, diclofenac and indomethacin are not recommended for the patient. Instead, colchicine is a viable option. While allopurinol is effective in preventing future attacks, it should not be administered during the acute phase.
It is important to investigate the patient for conditions such as hypertension and ischaemic heart disease, which may be linked to gout.
Encouraging weight loss and advising the patient to avoid alcohol can be beneficial in managing gout.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man comes to the emergency department after falling in his bathroom. He has suffered a femoral neck fracture and is now confined to his bed. Upon further inquiry, you discover that he was standing when the fall happened and has never had a fracture before. He has a medical history of Crohn's disease and osteoarthritis, and is currently taking methotrexate and ibuprofen.
What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Stop prednisolone and review in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Start alendronic acid
Explanation:A DEXA scan is not necessary to diagnose osteoporosis and start bisphosphonate treatment in women aged 75 or above who have suffered a fragility fracture. Therefore, the correct answer is to start alendronic acid. Using a FRAX assessment tool may underestimate the risk of another fracture in this age group, making it more beneficial to start treatment. Bisphosphonates target osteoclasts, which prevents bone turnover.
Arranging a DEXA scan without doing a FRAX assessment due to the patient’s age is incorrect. FRAX assessment tools should be used with caution in patients aged 75 or above who have suffered a fragility fracture, and it is more advisable to start bisphosphonate treatment.
Prescribing bisphosphonates only if the T-score is below -2.5 after a DEXA scan is also incorrect. Assuming osteoporosis is acceptable in patients aged 75 or above who have suffered a fragility fracture.
Stopping prednisolone and reviewing in 2 weeks is not the correct answer. The dosage and duration of prednisolone treatment are not specified in this vignette. If a patient is taking ≥7.5 mg of prednisolone daily for ≥3 months, they would need to start bisphosphonates to protect their bone mineral density. Prednisolone treatment would not be stopped in either case.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 87
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with worsening pain in his right hip, without any apparent cause or injury. The pain has not responded to regular pain medication and is particularly severe at night. Upon clinical examination, no clear cause is found. An urgent plain x-ray is ordered, which reveals a probable metastatic bony lesion in the right pelvis. Which group of solid tumor cancers is most likely to spread to the bone?
Your Answer: Brain, breast, prostate, soft tissue sarcoma, and testicular
Correct Answer: Breast, thyroid, kidney, prostate and lung
Explanation:Identifying the Primary Tumor in Patients with Bony Metastasis
Patients who present with bony metastasis require careful examination and history taking to identify the site of the primary tumor. The most likely culprits should be considered, as haematological cancers such as myeloma and lymphoma can also cause bony metastases. It is important to note that identifying the primary tumor is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in their assessment and consider all possible causes of bony metastasis. Proper identification of the primary tumor can lead to better outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 88
Incorrect
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Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has come to her GP complaining of sudden lower back pain. Her medical history doesn't indicate any alarming symptoms and her neurological examination appears normal.
What initial pain relief medication should the GP suggest?Your Answer: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, the initial treatment for lower back pain should involve NSAIDS like ibuprofen or naproxen. Codeine with or without paracetamol can be used as a second option. In case of muscle spasm, benzodiazepines may be considered. However, topical NSAIDS are not recommended for this condition.
Management of Lower Back Pain: NICE Guidelines
Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of lower back pain. These guidelines apply to patients with nonspecific lower back pain, which means it is not caused by malignancy, infection, trauma, or other specific conditions.
According to the updated guidelines, NSAIDs are now recommended as the first-line treatment for back pain. Paracetamol monotherapy is relatively ineffective for back pain, so NSAIDs are a better option. Proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs.
Lumbar spine x-ray should not be offered as an investigation for nonspecific back pain. MRI should only be offered to patients with nonspecific back pain if the result is likely to change management, or if malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina, or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected. MRI is the most useful imaging modality as it can see neurological and soft tissue structures.
Patients with low back pain should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. A group exercise program within the NHS is recommended for people with back pain. Manual therapy, such as spinal manipulation, mobilization, or soft tissue techniques like massage, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid can also be used for acute and severe sciatica.
In summary, the updated NICE guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for nonspecific back pain. Patients should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. MRI is the most useful imaging modality for investigating nonspecific back pain. Other treatments, such as manual therapy, radiofrequency denervation, and epidural injections, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with complaints that on waking that morning, the right side of his neck was very painful. On examination, his neck is deviated to the right side where there is palpable muscle spasm and local tenderness. He is otherwise well and there is no history of trauma or drug-taking.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cervical spondylosis
Correct Answer: Acute torticollis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Neck Pain: An Overview
Neck pain is a common complaint that can be caused by various conditions. Here are some possible causes of neck pain and their characteristics:
Acute Torticollis
Acute torticollis is a condition that results from local musculoskeletal irritation, causing pain and spasm in neck muscles. It usually resolves within 24-48 hours, but recurrence is common.Acute Cervical Disc Prolapse
Acute cervical disc prolapse occurs when the inner gelatinous substance breaks through the annulus of the disc, causing compression of the spinal cord or surrounding nerve. Patients may experience neck pain with associated numbness or paraesthesiae.Cervical Spondylosis
Cervical spondylosis is a degenerative disease that affects the neck and becomes more common with advancing age. It usually presents with neck pain or stiffness, muscle spasms, and grinding or clicking noises with neck movements.Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune condition that causes repeated episodes of inflammation of the nervous tissue, resulting in the loss of the insulating myelin sheath. It presents with neurological symptoms and not neck pain.Retropharyngeal Abscess
Retropharyngeal abscess is an abscess that forms in the space between the prevertebral fascia and the constrictor muscles. Patients with this condition may be unwell and often present with fever and dysphagia and may have secondary torticollis.In conclusion, neck pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to seek medical attention if the pain persists or is accompanied by other symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient presents with Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the most indicative factor of an underlying connective tissue disorder?
Your Answer: Onset at 18 years old
Correct Answer: Recurrent miscarriages
Explanation:Bilateral symptoms in young women may indicate primary Raynaud’s disease. Recurrent miscarriages may be a sign of systemic lupus erythematous or anti-phospholipid syndrome. Chilblains, which are painful and itchy purple swellings on the fingers and toes after exposure to cold, are sometimes linked to underlying connective tissue disease, although this is uncommon.
Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.
If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with a painful left shoulder and limited range of motion. The clinician suspects adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder).
Which statement is best supported by evidence?Your Answer: Physiotherapy alone provides the best benefit in both short and long term
Correct Answer: Spontaneous resolution occurs within 18 months to 3 years
Explanation:Understanding Frozen Shoulder: Treatment Options and Efficacy
Frozen shoulder is a common condition that causes pain and stiffness in the shoulder joint. While it is self-limiting and can resolve within 18 months to 3 years, it can still cause significant morbidity. The most effective treatments for frozen shoulder are still largely unclear, but several interventions are commonly used in general practice.
Contrary to popular belief, intra-articular corticosteroid injection may only provide small and short-term benefits for frozen shoulder. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are used for pain relief, but only after non-NSAIDs have been tried. Physiotherapy has been shown to have some benefit in the short-to-medium term, but its long-term efficacy is still uncertain.
Current evidence doesn’t adequately identify the clinical situations for which a corticosteroid injection (with or without physiotherapy) is most likely to be effective. Therefore, a combination of different treatments may be necessary to manage frozen shoulder effectively. Understanding the available treatment options and their efficacy can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing frozen shoulder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl has bowed legs, thick wrists and dental caries. Her weight (12 kg) and height (85 cm) are now below the 3rd centile for her age. She has failure to thrive. She is still predominantly breastfed. No problems were reported during the antenatal period, at delivery or at the postnatal stage.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Blount’s disease
Correct Answer: Rickets
Explanation:Pediatric Orthopedic Conditions: Rickets, Blount’s Disease, Child Abuse, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, and Physiological Genu Varum
Rickets, a condition characterized by bony abnormalities such as bowed legs and knock-knees, was once prevalent in the Western world but has since been largely eradicated through vitamin D fortification. However, it still affects some children, particularly those who are black or breastfed. Blood testing can reveal low levels of vitamin D and hypocalcaemia, while X-rays may show cupping, splaying, and fraying of the metaphysis. Blount’s disease, which causes bowed legs due to tibial growth plate disorders, can be difficult to distinguish from physiological genu varum in children under two years old. Child abuse allegations may arise when infants with rickets suffer bone fractures. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis, an autoimmune inflammatory joint disease, is the most common form of arthritis in children and adolescents. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these pediatric orthopedic conditions and to properly diagnose and treat them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 93
Incorrect
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You assess a man in his early 50s who complains of shoulder pain and restricted movement in his right shoulder. What clinical manifestation is most indicative of frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis)?
Your Answer: Active and passive movement limited + internal rotation most affected
Correct Answer: Active and passive movement limited + external rotation most affected
Explanation:Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is a common cause of shoulder pain that is more prevalent in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not fully understood. It is associated with diabetes mellitus, with up to 20% of diabetics experiencing an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over a few days and affect external rotation more than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. Bilateral frozen shoulder occurs in up to 20% of patients, and the episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
The diagnosis of frozen shoulder is usually made based on clinical presentation, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. There is no single intervention that has been proven to improve long-term outcomes. Treatment options include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids. It is important to note that the management of frozen shoulder should be tailored to the individual patient, and a multidisciplinary approach may be necessary for optimal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 94
Incorrect
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How should the medication 'methotrexate 15 mg weekly' be entered on the repeat medication screen for a patient who was previously taking a lower dose and has completed all necessary monitoring as per shared care protocol, based on a letter received from the rheumatology department of the local hospital?
Your Answer: Methotrexate tablets 10 mg (one per week) and methotrexate tablets 2.5 mg (two per week)
Correct Answer: Methotrexate tablets 2.5 mg (six per week)
Explanation:Methotrexate Dosage Policy
Methotrexate is only available in 10 mg and 2.5 mg strengths, with no 5 mg formulation. However, there have been cases where two different strengths were co-prescribed, leading to potential medication errors. One patient received 10 mg tablets instead of the required 2.5 mg tablets, prompting a complaint and highlighting the need for caution. To prevent such incidents, it is recommended that only one strength of methotrexate is prescribed.
Most Local Health Boards (LHBs) and Primary Care Trusts (PCTs) advise that dosages in primary care should be multiples of the 2.5 mg formulation. This policy aims to reduce the risk of errors and ensure consistent dosing. Patients should also be advised to double-check their prescription and request slips to avoid confusion. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure safe and effective use of methotrexate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of low back pain that has been gradually worsening for the past 14 days. He reports that the pain is worse in the evening after a long day at work and improves with rest, but it wakes him up at night. He denies any history of trauma and has been taking paracetamol to manage the pain. What is the most likely feature in his history to indicate severe underlying pathology such as spinal fracture or cancer?
Your Answer: Lower back pain
Correct Answer: Pain that disturbs sleep
Explanation:Identifying Red Flags for Spinal Malignancy: Understanding the Clinical Picture
When evaluating a patient with back pain, it is important to consider red flags that may indicate an underlying pathology, such as spinal malignancy. However, it is crucial to understand that suspicion should not be based on a single red flag, but on the overall clinical picture, including the patient’s medical history and risk factors.
One red flag is aching night-time pain that disturbs sleep, which may suggest spinal malignancy. Another is sudden severe central spinal pain that is relieved by lying down, which may indicate spinal fracture. However, nonspecific lower back pain that varies with posture and is exacerbated by movement is more likely to be a diagnosis for most patients.
Age is also a factor, as new onset of back pain in those over 50 years old is a risk factor for cancer. However, for patients under 50 years old, this is not the most likely indicator of an underlying pathology. Additionally, thoracic pain is more concerning for spinal malignancy and aortic aneurysm, while lower back pain is less specific.
In summary, identifying red flags for spinal malignancy requires a comprehensive evaluation of the patient’s clinical picture, including their medical history and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 96
Incorrect
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You observe a 14-year-old girl with a painless, soft, and fluctuant swelling at the back of her left knee. The swelling appeared spontaneously and is not causing any discomfort.
What is a true statement about Baker's cysts?Your Answer: Primary Baker's cysts rarely resolve without treatment
Correct Answer: A child with a suspected Baker's cyst requires an USS to confirm the diagnosis
Explanation:To confirm the diagnosis of a suspected Baker’s cyst in a child, an USS is necessary as per the NICE guidelines. Knee x-ray is not usually required as primary cysts are the most common in children and not caused by underlying disease. However, an x-ray may be necessary in adults to detect underlying knee pathology. Secondary cysts in children are rare and may be caused by juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Primary Baker’s cysts in children typically resolve on their own without any treatment.
Baker’s cysts, also known as popliteal cysts, are not true cysts but rather a distension of the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa. They can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Baker’s cysts are not associated with any underlying pathology and are typically seen in children. On the other hand, secondary Baker’s cysts are caused by an underlying condition such as osteoarthritis and are typically seen in adults. These cysts present as swellings in the popliteal fossa behind the knee.
In some cases, Baker’s cysts may rupture, resulting in symptoms similar to those of a deep vein thrombosis, such as pain, redness, and swelling in the calf. However, most ruptures are asymptomatic. In children, Baker’s cysts usually resolve on their own and do not require any treatment. In adults, the underlying cause of the cyst should be treated where appropriate. Overall, Baker’s cysts are a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man presents with complaints of symmetrical polyarthritis, which first appeared in his toes. He reports stiffness in his back, particularly in the morning. He states that these symptoms have been intermittent for several months and that he was previously treated with naproxen for the toe pain. He is not taking any regular medications except for moisturizers for his psoriasis. On examination, he has nail pitting but no rash.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the following options?Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentation
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that is often preceded by a rash and/or nail changes. However, in some cases, the arthritis can present without any obvious rash. The arthritis typically affects the wrists, hands, feet, and ankles in a symmetrical pattern. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis involves the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints rather than the metacarpophalangeal joints. Enthesopathy, or inflammation at tendon or ligament insertions into bone, is also common in psoriatic arthritis, particularly at the attachment of the Achilles tendon and the plantar fascia to the calcaneus.
Patients who are HLA-B27 positive may also experience conjunctivitis, uveitis, and sacroiliitis. The presentation of psoriatic arthritis may be asymmetrical and oligoarticular, and dactylitis, or inflammation of a digit causing sausage digits, occurs in up to 35% of patients. Diagnosis is suggested by asymmetrical joint involvement, dactylitis, the absence of rheumatoid factor, and DIP involvement in the absence of osteoarthritis.
Psoriatic arthritis can also occur in juvenile patients and may be confused with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Severe derangement of the joints, particularly the DIP joints, can occur in some cases, which is known as arthritis mutilans. It is important to distinguish psoriatic arthritis from other types of arthritis in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 98
Correct
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You review the results of a DEXA scan for a 70-year-old man who was referred due to a family history of femoral fracture. His past medical history includes hypertension, for which he takes lisinopril. He is a non-smoker, drinks 5 units of alcohol per week and eats a healthy balanced diet. His T-score is -2.5. Blood results are shown below.
Hb 140g/L 120-160g/L
WCC 7.0x109/l 4.0-11x109/l
Na+ 137mmol/L 135-145mmol/L)
K+ 4.2mmol/L 3.5-5.3mmol/L
Ca2+ 2.3mmol/L 2.2-2.6mmol/L (adjusted)
Vitamin D 60nmol/L >50nmol/L
What is the most appropriate action?Your Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:The most appropriate prescription for this patient with osteoporosis is alendronate, a bisphosphonate therapy. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation is not necessary as both levels are replete and the patient has a balanced diet. Calcium should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. Hormone replacement therapy is not recommended for older postmenopausal women with osteoporosis, as the risk vs benefit ratio is unfavourable.
Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.
The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 99
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman with polymyalgia rheumatica was started on prednisolone 15 mg daily and had a great therapeutic response. The steroid dose has now been reduced to 10 mg daily, and the plan is to continue tapering the prednisolone dose by 1 mg per month, aiming to discontinue prednisolone in one year's time. Routine bloods are normal except for mild anaemia and a significant elevation in erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
What is the best approach to osteoporosis prophylaxis for her?Your Answer: Alendronic acid and calcium carbonate and vitamin D
Explanation:Bone Protective Therapy for Patients on Long-Term Corticosteroids
Patients on long-term corticosteroids are at an increased risk of osteoporotic fractures, even at low doses of 5 mg daily. The loss of bone mineral density is most significant in the first few months of therapy, but fracture risk decreases rapidly after stopping. Patients over 65 years of age or with a prior fragility fracture are considered high risk and should begin bone protective therapy at the start of corticosteroid treatment.
Bisphosphonate monotherapy is not sufficient for long-term steroid patients, and combination therapy with calcium and vitamin D is necessary. Alendronic acid is a commonly prescribed bisphosphonate for bone protection. Calcium carbonate is also important in preventing osteoporotic fractures when combined with alendronic acid and vitamin D.
A dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is not necessary before starting bone protection treatment for long-term corticosteroid patients. However, a DEXA scan is recommended for patients over 50 years of age with a history of fragility fracture or those under 40 years of age with a major risk factor for fragility fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of shoulder aches that have been bothering her for several months. She finds it challenging to get up in the morning, but the pain seems to improve as the day progresses. She has also lost some weight recently, but she is otherwise healthy. She is not taking any regular medications and has no visual symptoms. On examination, there is no wasting or rash.
What is the most suitable initial management for this patient?Your Answer: Refer to rheumatology outpatients
Correct Answer: Send blood for erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), then review
Explanation:Management of Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a chronic inflammatory condition that affects elderly individuals. It presents with proximal myalgia of the hip and shoulder girdles and morning stiffness. Here are some management options for PMR:
1. Send blood for erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), then review: Inflammatory markers are characteristically raised in PMR. If the ESR is raised, it would be diagnostic of the condition and guide future management options.
2. Arrange a course of physiotherapy: Physiotherapy may be useful for this patient once the cause of her symptoms has been established and inflammatory causes of shoulder pain have been excluded.
3. Inject both shoulders with medroxyprogesterone acetate and review if no better: Medroxyprogesterone acetate is a steroid used to treat localised inflammation in joints, but would not treat the systemic disease. A blood test for ESR should be carried out to confirm this diagnosis before oral steroids are commenced for this patient.
4. Refer to rheumatology outpatients: This condition can be initially managed in general practice, with referral to rheumatology indicated if she doesn’t respond to steroid therapy.
5. Treat with oral prednisolone 60 mg od for one week, then review: Corticosteroids (ie prednisolone) are the treatment of choice for PMR. The suggested regimen is prompt relief of symptoms should occur within 24–72 hours. Gastro protection with a proton pump inhibitor and prophylactic bisphosphonates should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 101
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding trigger finger is true?
Your Answer: Men are more commonly affected
Correct Answer: Steroid injection is an appropriate first-line treatment
Explanation:Understanding Trigger Finger
Trigger finger is a condition that affects the flexion of the digits, particularly in the thumb, middle, or ring finger. It is believed to be caused by a size discrepancy between the tendon and pulleys, resulting in the tendon becoming stuck and unable to move smoothly through the pulley. This condition is more common in women than men and is associated with rheumatoid arthritis and diabetes mellitus.
The initial symptoms of trigger finger include stiffness and snapping when extending a flexed digit, often accompanied by a nodule at the base of the affected finger. While there is limited evidence to support a link with repetitive use, the majority of cases are idiopathic.
Management of trigger finger typically involves a steroid injection, which is successful in most patients. A finger splint may be applied after the injection to support the affected finger. Surgery is only recommended for patients who have not responded to steroid injections.
In summary, trigger finger is a common condition that affects the flexion of the digits. While the exact cause is not fully understood, it is believed to be related to a size discrepancy between the tendon and pulleys. With proper management, including steroid injections and finger splints, most patients can find relief from the symptoms of trigger finger.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 102
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents for medical review. She has a medical history of hypertension, angina, and osteoarthritis. Her current medications include aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 5 mg OD, bisoprolol 10 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg OD, paracetamol 1g QDS, and topical ketoprofen gel PRN. She reports that despite using paracetamol and topical NSAID, she still experiences pain in her hands and knees due to osteoarthritis. What would be the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management?
Your Answer: Prescribe a topical lidocaine patch
Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral paracetamol and codeine combination (for example, co-codamol)
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Osteoarthritis
Here we have a patient with knee and hand osteoarthritis who is currently taking oral paracetamol and a topical anti-inflammatory but still experiences symptoms. The next step in treatment options would be an oral NSAID, COX-2 inhibitor, or opioid analgesic. However, since the patient has a cardiac history and is already taking aspirin, an opioid analgesic would be the safest option. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of NSAID use, particularly their potential gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity.
To add an opioid analgesic, oral codeine can be prescribed and combined with paracetamol in a co-codamol. It is recommended to initiate patients on separate products, starting at a low dose and titrating as needed. This allows for determining what works best for the patient and avoiding unnecessary medication with increased side-effect risk. Dose reduction of paracetamol is also gaining momentum in patients aged 70 or over, which should be considered when using co-products.
In summary, the pharmacological management of osteoarthritis should be carefully considered, taking into account the patient’s medical history and potential risks and benefits of different treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 103
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents to you with a foot ulcer. He mentions that he is not fond of doctors and upon reviewing his medical history, it appears that he rarely visits the clinic. The ulcer has been present for a few months and has been gradually worsening. His wife convinced him to come to you for a check-up. He suspects that the ulcer may have developed after stepping on something at home.
Upon examination, you observe a deep, punched-out, painless ulcer on the plantar aspect of his right foot over the metatarsal heads. His foot feels warm and his dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are palpable. The skin of his feet is somewhat dry.
What is your diagnosis?Your Answer: Rodent ulcer
Correct Answer: Neuropathic ulcer
Explanation:Understanding Neuropathic Ulcers
Neuropathic ulcers are a type of ulcer that typically occur on the underside of the foot at a bony prominence such as the metatarsal heads. They are often painless and can be described as a punched-out ulcer that occurs on a pressure area. A history of trauma is often elicited, and the foot is usually well perfused with peripheral pulses that are palpable.
The most common cause of neuropathic ulceration is diabetes, and it is important to check for fasting glucose levels. Clinicians should also formally test for sensory deficit in the foot using a 10 g monofilament and tuning fork.
Arterial ulcers, on the other hand, are due to poor arterial blood supply and are not typically described as painless with warm feet and palpable pulses. Venous ulceration is largely due to chronic venous insufficiency that causes venous hypertension and most commonly occurs around the medial malleolus. The typical ulcer edge is irregular and sloping.
It is important to differentiate neuropathic ulcers from other types of ulcers, such as Marjolin’s ulcer, which is a squamous cell carcinoma that occurs in a chronic ulcer or scar, and rodent ulcer or basal cell carcinoma (BCC), which typically occurs in sun-exposed sites such as the face. Nodulocystic BCCs show ulceration and are pearlescent with rolled edges and overlying telangiectasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 104
Incorrect
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Tom is a 45-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis who works as a sales representative for a company, he earns 500 pounds a week. He has been off sick from work due to a flare in his arthritis and asks you for advice on Statutory Sick Pay. Which of the following regarding 'Statutory Sick Pay' (SSP) is true?
Your Answer: The claimant must have a GP letter to support their application
Correct Answer: The claimant must be off sick for 4 days in a row to be eligible for SSP
Explanation:To be eligible for SSP, the claimant must have been off sick for a minimum of 4 consecutive days.
Understanding the UK Benefits System
The UK benefits system can be complex and overwhelming, but it is important to have a basic understanding of the available benefits. One major change to the system is the introduction of Universal Credit, which replaces several benefits including Child Tax Credit, Housing Benefit, and Income Support. All claims for Universal Credit must be made online and it is paid monthly or twice a month for some individuals in Scotland.
Other benefits include Income Support for those on a low income and working less than 16 hours per week, and Job Seekers Allowance for those capable of working and actively seeking employment. Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is a tax-free benefit for adults aged 16-64 who need help with personal care or have walking difficulties due to physical or mental disabilities. Statutory Sick Pay is available for employees unable to work due to illness for up to 28 weeks.
Retirement pension can be claimed from 60 years for women and 65 years for men, and is taxable even if the claimant is still working. Bereavement Support Payment has replaced Bereavement payment and Bereavement allowance, and is a lump sum followed by 18 monthly payments. It is dependent on national insurance contributions and must be claimed within 3 months of the partner’s death to receive the full amount.
It is important to note that the State Pension age is gradually increasing for both men and women, with proposals to increase it to 68 in the future. Whilst GPs are not expected to be experts on claimable benefits, having a rough understanding can be helpful in supporting patients who may be struggling financially.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 105
Correct
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A 38-year-old man visits his doctor to renew his sick note. He has been unable to work for the past 3 months due to feeling generally unwell and experiencing pain, swelling, and stiffness in both of his hands. Upon examination, there is an ulnar deviation of both hands and swelling and tenderness of all the proximal interphalangeal joints and metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints of both hands. He is unable to make a fist and has a positive MCP squeeze test. What skin feature is most likely to be present during the examination of this condition? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: Painless nodule on his elbow
Explanation:Differentiating Rheumatoid Arthritis from Other Joint Conditions: A Case Study
A patient presents with various joint symptoms, and it is important to differentiate between different conditions to provide appropriate treatment. The presence of painless nodules on the elbow and distal interphalangeal joints of the hands are typical of rheumatoid arthritis, an inflammatory condition that can cause irreversible joint damage if not diagnosed and treated promptly. On the other hand, Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes, bony swellings at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints respectively, are caused by osteoarthritis, a degenerative joint disease.
An annular erythematous rash on the trunk is associated with rheumatic fever, which can develop after a streptococcal infection. This condition can cause migratory polyarthritis affecting the wrists, elbows, knees, and ankles. In contrast, an enlarging erythematous bull’s eye lesion on the leg is typical of Lyme disease, which can cause arthritis but usually affects the large joints.
In summary, careful consideration of the specific symptoms and signs can help differentiate between different joint conditions and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with a complaint of right elbow pain. The pain has been persistent for the last four weeks and is most severe approximately 4-5cm distal to the lateral aspect of the elbow joint. The pain is exacerbated by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Correct Answer: Radial tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Common Causes of Elbow Pain
Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.
Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.
Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.
Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Her full blood count and liver function tests are being monitored. What other aspects of her treatment should be monitored?
Your Answer: QT interval on ECG
Correct Answer: Blood pressure
Explanation:Hypertension can be a possible side effect of taking leflunomide.
Leflunomide: A DMARD for Rheumatoid Arthritis
Leflunomide is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage rheumatoid arthritis. It is important to note that this medication has a very long half-life, which means that its teratogenic potential should be taken into consideration. As such, it is contraindicated in pregnant women, and effective contraception is essential during treatment and for at least two years after treatment in women, and at least three months after treatment in men. Caution should also be exercised in patients with pre-existing lung and liver disease.
Like any medication, leflunomide can cause adverse effects. Some of the most common side effects include gastrointestinal issues such as diarrhea, hypertension, weight loss or anorexia, peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and pneumonitis. To monitor for any potential complications, patients taking leflunomide should have their full blood count (FBC), liver function tests (LFT), and blood pressure checked regularly.
If a patient needs to stop taking leflunomide, it is important to note that the medication has a very long wash-out period of up to a year. To help speed up the process, co-administration of cholestyramine may be necessary. Overall, leflunomide can be an effective treatment option for rheumatoid arthritis, but it is important to carefully consider its potential risks and benefits before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 108
Incorrect
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You assess a 55-year-old woman who is concerned about her risk of fragility fractures due to osteoporosis. She is in good health, a non-smoker, and drinks only 1-2 units of alcohol per week. According to NICE guidelines, at what age should women begin to be evaluated for their risk of fragility fractures?
Your Answer: After the age of 55 years
Correct Answer: After the age of 65 years
Explanation:Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.
NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.
Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.
NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old male is admitted to the paediatric ward with malnutrition secondary to anorexia nervosa. The paediatrician ordered various tests, including a DEXA scan that revealed a Z score of -1.6.
What is the reference point used to calculate the Z score, comparing the patient's bone density?Your Answer: Bone mass of the elderly population
Correct Answer: Bone mass of the young healthy female population
Explanation:The Z score in DEXA scans is adjusted based on the patient’s age, gender, and ethnicity. This score represents the number of standard deviations between the patient’s bone density and that of a population with similar demographic characteristics. A Z score below -2.0 indicates that the patient’s bone mass is lower than expected for their demographic. Z scores are typically used for children, men under 50, and premenopausal women. DEXA scans are a non-invasive and accurate imaging technique that uses X-rays to measure bone density and strength. They are helpful in diagnosing conditions such as osteopenia or osteoporosis, which can be associated with various factors such as anorexia nervosa, bulimia, long-term steroid use, and cancer.
Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis
When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 110
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of hand and wrist pain, morning stiffness, and swelling in her hands. Upon examination, you observe swelling in several small joints of her hands. Her blood test reveals elevated anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) levels but normal rheumatoid factor (RF) levels. You decide to refer her to a rheumatologist.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Request x-rays of her hands and feet
Explanation:The patient is suspected to have rheumatoid arthritis and therefore, NICE recommends performing x-rays of the hands and feet. Urgent referral to rheumatology within 3 days is necessary as the small joints of the patient’s hands are affected. Immunology is not the appropriate referral destination for this case. Methotrexate therapy, if required, will not be initiated in primary care. The patient may be advised to try paracetamol or a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug while investigations are carried out. Steroids should not be prescribed in primary care as they can mask clinical features and delay the diagnosis. Physiotherapy is an important aspect of management after confirmation of diagnosis and initial medical management in secondary care. However, it is not the next most appropriate management for this patient at this stage.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that requires initial investigations to determine the presence of antibodies. One such antibody is rheumatoid factor (RF), which is usually an IgM antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. The Rose-Waaler test or latex agglutination test can detect RF, with the former being more specific. RF is positive in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody is another antibody that may be detectable up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis. It has a sensitivity similar to RF but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends testing for anti-CCP antibodies in patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative. Additionally, x-rays of the hands and feet are recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to you with dizziness, fatigue and shortness of breath. She has a history of asthma for which she takes salmeterol/fluticasone inhaler and salbutamol PRN. Most recently she was started on allopurinol tablets for gout. You also increased her hypertension medication at her last appointment.
On examination her BP is 140/80 mmHg, she is tachycardic with a heart rate of around 110.
Investigations show:
Hb 110 g/L (120 - 160)
WCC 6.2 ×109/L (4 - 11)
PLT 200 ×109/L (150 - 400)
Na 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K 3.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Cr 140 µmol/L (60 - 110)
ECG shows sinus tachycardia, no acute changes.
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her symptoms?Your Answer: Indomethacin
Correct Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:Theophylline Toxicity and Drug Interactions
The scenario presented here is typical of theophylline toxicity, with symptoms such as headaches, nausea and vomiting, palpitations, and hypokalaemia. However, the cause of this toxicity is due to an increase in theophylline levels caused by allopurinol. Other drugs that can increase theophylline levels include carbimazole, cimetidine, erythromycin, and many others. It is important to note that calcium channel blockers may also increase theophylline levels, but not as much as allopurinol. Therefore, it is crucial to reduce theophylline dose when starting allopurinol. Questions about drug safety and significant interactions are common in the AKT exam, so it is essential to stay updated on important drug safety notifications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with osteoarthritis is evaluated. He has been taking regular paracetamol and a topical NSAID for symptom control, but due to insufficient pain relief, an oral NSAID was recently added. He has been taking ibuprofen 400 mg as needed up to three times a day, but upon further discussion, he is using it at least once daily. He has no significant gastrointestinal medical history, particularly no prior issues with gastroesophageal reflux or peptic ulceration. What is the most appropriate management strategy for gastroprotection?
Your Answer: Co-prescribe an H2-receptor antagonist (e.g. ranitidine)
Correct Answer: Co-prescribe an alginate preparation to use on a PRN basis (e.g. Gaviscon)
Explanation:Co-prescription of Proton Pump Inhibitors with NSAIDs
When prescribing oral NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors for the treatment of osteoarthritis, it is important to co-prescribe a proton pump inhibitor with the lowest acquisition cost. This is recommended by NICE guidance to prevent gastrointestinal, liver, or cardio-renal side effects.
To minimize the risk of these side effects, anti-inflammatories should be used at the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible time period. Even if a patient has no history of gastrointestinal problems, a proton pump inhibitor should still be co-prescribed.
It is also important to consider other medications that may increase the risk of gastrointestinal problems when used in combination with NSAIDs, such as steroids, aspirin, and certain antidepressants. By taking these precautions, healthcare professionals can help ensure the safe and effective use of NSAIDs in the treatment of osteoarthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old builder presents with a two week history of deteriorating pain in both feet that feels as though he is walking on gravel, and a sore lower back.
He returned from a holiday in Spain two months ago and had been aware of a transient urethral discharge for which he has received no treatment.Your Answer: Musculoskeletal pain
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Reactive Arthritis
Reactive arthritis, previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, is a condition characterized by a triad of symptoms. These include sero-negative arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. The painful feet reflect a plantar fasciitis, while sacroiliitis is often present.
Reactive arthritis is known to occur after gastrointestinal infections with Shigella or Salmonella. It can also occur following a nonspecific urethritis. On the other hand, gonococcal arthritis tends to occur in patients who are systemically unwell and have features of septic arthritis.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and causes of reactive arthritis is crucial in its diagnosis and management. Proper identification and treatment of the underlying infection can help alleviate the symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 114
Correct
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An 83 year old man presents to your clinic complaining of a painful and swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint on his right foot for the past four days. He has a medical history of hypertension, osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and hiatus hernia. Laboratory results reveal:
- Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 4.6 mmol/l
- Urea: 12 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 140 µmol/l
- Uric acid: 300 µmol/l (normal range: 200-420µmol/l)
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:The individual is experiencing a sudden and severe attack of gout. Despite this, their uric acid levels may appear normal as the acid is confined to the joint space. Allopurinol is effective in preventing gout but should not be administered during an acute flare-up. NSAIDs are not recommended due to the individual’s ischemic heart disease, renal dysfunction, and hiatus hernia.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a lengthy smoking history has experienced a left humerus fracture following a minor twisting injury. The presence of a lytic lesion related to the fracture is causing concern. What is the most probable primary tumor responsible for this metastasis? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma
Explanation:Identifying the Likely Cause of Bone Metastases: Bronchial Carcinoma
When a patient presents with bone metastases, it is important to identify the primary site of the cancer in order to determine the best course of treatment. The most common cancers that cause bone metastases include bronchial carcinoma, breast carcinoma, and prostatic carcinoma. In this case, the patient’s history as a heavy smoker makes bronchial carcinoma the most likely cause.
The frequency of bone metastases depends on the prevalence of the cancer in a particular community, so it is important to consider the prevalence of each type of cancer when making a diagnosis. X-ray examination can reveal osteolytic areas and local bony destruction, further supporting the diagnosis of bone metastases from bronchial carcinoma.
While other cancers such as colorectal carcinoma, gastric carcinoma, renal carcinoma, and thyroid carcinoma can also metastasize to bone, they are less common than lung cancer and therefore less likely to be the cause in this case. By identifying the likely primary site of the cancer, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 116
Incorrect
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Which of the following tumors is most likely to spread to the bone in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Breast
Correct Answer: Prostate
Explanation:Metastasis to the bone is most frequently observed in cases of primary tumours of the prostate.
Bone Metastases: Common Tumours and Sites
Bone metastases occur when cancer cells from a primary tumour spread to the bones. The most common tumours that cause bone metastases are prostate, breast, and lung cancer, with prostate cancer being the most frequent. The most common sites for bone metastases are the spine, pelvis, ribs, skull, and long bones.
Aside from bone pain, other features of bone metastases may include pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, and raised levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Pathological fractures occur when the bone weakens due to the cancer cells, causing it to break. Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is too much calcium in the blood, which can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and confusion. ALP is an enzyme that is produced by bone cells, and its levels can be elevated in the presence of bone metastases.
A common diagnostic tool for bone metastases is an isotope bone scan, which uses technetium-99m labelled diphosphonates that accumulate in the bones. The scan can show multiple irregular foci of high-grade activity in the bones, indicating the presence of metastatic cancer. In the image provided, the bone scan shows multiple osteoblastic metastases in a patient with metastatic prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient with a connective tissue disorder is seen by a rheumatologist and started on hydroxychloroquine.
Which of the following is recommended in relation to monitoring this medication?Your Answer: Lipid blood test monitoring
Correct Answer: Formal ophthalmic examination
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine and Ophthalmic Screening Guidelines
The Royal College of Ophthalmologists and the British National Formulary have established guidelines for hydroxychloroquine retinopathy. Patients who are planned for long-term hydroxychloroquine treatment should undergo a baseline ophthalmic examination within 6-12 months of starting treatment. Annual screening is recommended for patients who have taken hydroxychloroquine for more than 5 years. However, annual screening can be initiated before 5 years if additional risk factors are present, such as concomitant tamoxifen use, impaired renal function, or high-dose hydroxychloroquine therapy (dose greater than 5mg/kg/day). There is no need for an annual ECG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 118
Incorrect
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You are investigating a 26-year-old woman with pyrexia of unknown origin, and a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) needs to be excluded.
Which of the following most excludes the condition?Your Answer: Negative ANA and negative anti-Ro antibodies
Correct Answer: Negative ANA and negative anti-dsDNA antibodies
Explanation:Understanding Autoantibody Screening: ANA and Anti-dsDNA Antibodies
Autoantibodies are antibodies that mistakenly attack the body’s own tissues. Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are a type of autoantibody that bind to the contents of the cell nucleus. ANA screening is a useful tool in diagnosing autoimmune disorders. However, a positive ANA test alone is not enough to diagnose a specific autoimmune disorder.
A positive ANA test with titres of 1:160 or higher is strongly associated with autoimmune disorders, but it can also be found in 5% of healthy individuals, particularly older people. In addition to ANA, other autoantibodies are tested, including antibodies to double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) and other extractable nuclear antigens such as anti-Ro, anti-La, and anti-Sm antibodies.
Anti-dsDNA antibodies are highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and are present in more than 50% of cases. However, nearly 50% of people with SLE will test negative for dsDNA. Anti-Ro antibodies occur in 30-50% of SLE patients and in 70-90% of patients with Sjögren syndrome. Anti-Sm antibodies occur in 20-30% of SLE patients and are quite specific for SLE. Anti-La antibodies are found in 10-15% of SLE patients but in 60-90% of patients with Sjögren syndrome.
In summary, autoantibody screening is a useful tool in diagnosing autoimmune disorders, but a positive ANA test alone is not enough to diagnose a specific autoimmune disorder. Testing for other autoantibodies, such as anti-dsDNA, anti-Ro, anti-La, and anti-Sm antibodies, can help in making a more accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 119
Correct
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What structure is at highest risk of injury in a fracture of the neck of the humerus?
Your Answer: The nerve supply to deltoid
Explanation:Deltoid Muscle and Nerve Supply
The deltoid muscle, located in the shoulder, is innervated by the circumflex humeral (axillary) nerve. While it is not a common occurrence, injury to this nerve can result in complications with the deltoid muscle. In fact, it is the most likely complication of this type of injury. It is important to be aware of this potential complication in order to properly diagnose and treat any issues that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents after a fall with an acutely swollen knee and difficulty bending the joint. The knee became swollen within two hours of the injury. He can still stand on the leg, although it is painful. He takes no regular medication and is otherwise fit and well, although a little overweight.
What diagnosis can best be made, based on this patient's history?Your Answer: Traumatic synovitis
Correct Answer: A haemarthrosis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of joint effusion
Joint effusion, the accumulation of fluid within a joint, can have various causes. A rapid onset of pain and swelling after trauma suggests a haemarthrosis, which may be associated with clotting disorders or anticoagulant use. Dislocation of the patella typically causes severe pain, a popping sensation, and difficulty bearing weight. Ligamentous injuries, such as anterior cruciate ligament tears, often occur during sports and may be accompanied by haemarthrosis. Osteoarthritis usually causes a gradual development of effusion. Traumatic synovitis, which involves inflammation of the synovial membrane, may also cause a gradual accumulation of fluid, especially if there is a meniscal tear. A careful history, physical examination, and imaging studies can help differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman with knee osteoarthritis comes in for a check-up. He has been taking paracetamol regularly to alleviate his symptoms, but he reports that it is not entirely effective. He experiences stiffness and significant discomfort in both knees after walking for extended periods. He inquires if there is another medication that can assist him in managing the pain flares. What is the most suitable next pharmacological approach in his treatment?
Your Answer: Switch to a combination oral paracetamol and codeine combination (for example, co-codamol)
Correct Answer: Add in a topical NSAID
Explanation:Topical NSAIDs for Osteoarthritis Treatment
If you need further treatment for osteoarthritis after taking paracetamol, adding a topical NSAID is a good option, especially for knee or hand osteoarthritis. Topical NSAIDs have been proven effective in managing these conditions. Although they are relatively expensive, they can prevent or delay the need for oral NSAIDs, which can cause adverse effects such as gastrointestinal, cardiac, and renal problems. Therefore, in the long run, they are cost-effective.
Topical treatments also encourage self-management and help modify health behavior positively. Patients often use a topical NSAID on top of their oral paracetamol to deal with osteoarthritis flare-ups. The NICE guidelines on Osteoarthritis (CG177) recommend topical NSAIDs and/or paracetamol as a safe initial pharmacological option for knee and hand osteoarthritis. They should be considered ahead of oral NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, or opioids.
However, topical rubefacients are not recommended for osteoarthritis treatment. It is essential to counsel patients on the correct way to use topical NSAIDs, including the amount to be applied. Systemic effects may still arise, particularly in the elderly, where skin integrity may be compromised, and absorption is less predictable. Patients should also be cautioned about the concomitant use of topical and oral NSAIDs, as it can lead to inadvertent overdose and increased potential for side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female comes to the clinic with her mother. She reports left knee pain for the past 4 weeks without any history of injury. She feels more tired than usual but is not otherwise unwell. Upon examination, her BMI is normal, and her vital signs are unremarkable. The left knee appears normal, and there is a full range of motion. All other joints are also normal. What is the best next step in management?
Your Answer: Watch and wait, review in 2 weeks if no better
Correct Answer: Direct access X ray (within 48 hours)
Explanation:Types of Bone Tumours
Benign and malignant bone tumours are two types of bone tumours. Benign bone tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a benign overgrowth of bone that usually occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, the most common benign bone tumour, is a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma that occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones.
Malignant bone tumours are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and is associated with t(11;22) translocation. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of gradual onset back pain for the past 10 months. The pain worsens with activity and causes bilateral pain and weakness in his calves when walking. Leaning forward or sitting relieves the back pain.
Upon examination, no neurological findings are observed. The patient has no significant medical history, smokes socially, and drinks a glass of wine with dinner every night. He works as a builder and is worried that his back pain will affect his ability to work.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Epidural abscess
Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis
Explanation:Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis
Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.
Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.
After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.
Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 124
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease complains of myalgia. He has been taking aspirin, simvastatin, and atenolol for a long time. A creatine kinase test is performed due to his statin use, and the results show:
Creatine kinase 1,420 u/l (< 190 u/l)
The patient's symptoms appeared after starting a new medication. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the elevated creatine kinase level?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The interaction between statins and erythromycin/clarithromycin is significant and frequent, and in this case, the patient has experienced statin-induced myopathy due to clarithromycin.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is brought to the GP by her worried daughter. The patient has a history of mental health problems and rarely leaves her house, but is still able to perform daily activities independently.
The daughter is concerned as her mother has been complaining of increased bone and joint pain, particularly in her spine and legs, along with a general feeling of weakness over the past few months. Upon examination, the patient exhibits tenderness in her long bones, weakness in her proximal muscles, and difficulty walking with a waddling gait.
What is the most probable diagnosis based on the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Osteopenia
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy suggest a diagnosis of osteomalacia. This condition is often caused by a lack of sunlight and subsequent vitamin D deficiency, leading to decreased bone mineralization and softening of the bones. Unlike other bone pathologies, osteomalacia can cause joint and bone pain as well as muscle weakness, particularly in the form of proximal myopathy and a waddling gait.
Osteopenia is characterized by low bone density and typically precedes osteoporosis. While patients with osteopenia are at risk of bone fractures, the condition itself doesn’t usually cause symptoms such as pain or weakness.
Osteoporosis is a more severe form of reduced bone mass and also increases the risk of bone fractures. However, like osteopenia, it doesn’t typically cause joint pain, weakness, or a waddling gait.
Paget’s disease is caused by abnormal bone remodeling, resulting in excessive bone breakdown and disorganized new bone formation. While bone pain can occur, most patients are asymptomatic. The most common features of Paget’s disease include skull frontal bossing, headaches, and hearing loss due to narrowing of the auditory foramen. Joint pain, weakness, and a waddling gait are not typically associated with Paget’s disease.
Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment
Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 126
Incorrect
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Among the following options, which one has the most substantial evidence supporting the benefits of acupuncture?
Your Answer: Asthma
Correct Answer: Tension headache
Explanation:Exploring the Benefits of Acupuncture: Cochrane Reviews
Cochrane reviews have extensively examined the potential benefits of acupuncture in various medical conditions. However, most of these reviews have concluded that there is insufficient evidence to support the use of acupuncture and that further high-quality research is necessary. This applies to conditions such as asthma, depression, irritable bowel syndrome, and smoking cessation.
Nonetheless, Cochrane reviews suggest that acupuncture may be a valuable non-pharmacological tool for patients with frequent episodic or chronic tension-type headaches. Studies also indicate that acupuncture may be as effective as, or even more effective than, prophylactic drug treatment for migraines, with fewer adverse effects.
Other areas where acupuncture has shown positive results include chronic neck pain, chronic low back pain, in vitro fertilisation, nausea and vomiting during chemotherapy, and postoperative nausea. Despite the need for further research, these findings suggest that acupuncture may have potential benefits in certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 127
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman trips and falls, landing on her outstretched hand and resulting in a distal radius fracture (Colles' fracture). She has a history of depression and osteoarthritis but no other significant medical conditions. What is the best course of action to address her risk of future fractures?
Your Answer: No further action is required
Correct Answer: Start alendronate 70mg once weekly
Explanation:Patients aged 75 years or older who have experienced a fragility fracture should be initiated on oral alendronate 70mg once weekly without the need for a DEXA scan, as they are presumed to have osteoporosis.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.
For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.
For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 128
Incorrect
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Which of the non-pharmacological non-invasive therapies is the only one approved in current guidelines for the management of persistent nonspecific knee pain?
Your Answer: Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
Correct Answer: Manual therapy
Explanation:Effective Manual Therapy for Low Back Pain
Manual therapy is a highly effective treatment option for low back pain. It involves spinal manipulation, spinal mobilisation, and massage. Spinal manipulation is a low-amplitude, high-velocity movement that takes a joint beyond the range of passive movement. Mobilisation, on the other hand, is joint movement within the normal range of movement. Both techniques have the approval of the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence.
Manual therapy can be provided by chiropractors or osteopaths, as well as doctors and physiotherapists who have had special training in spinal manipulation. It is a safe and non-invasive treatment option that can provide significant relief from low back pain.
However, it is important to note that belts or corsets for managing low back pain do not have approval. Similarly, therapeutic ultrasound is not recommended, and traction should not be offered. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) is also not recommended for managing low back pain with or without sciatica.
In conclusion, manual therapy is an effective and safe treatment option for low back pain. It is important to consult with a qualified healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for your specific condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 129
Incorrect
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You have been caring for a 50-year-old man with chronic lower back pain for a while now. As you review his medications, you notice that he has been taking regular paracetamol, PRN NSAIDs, and oral morphine. He is currently taking a total of 120mg of morphine within 24 hours, but he is uncertain if it has ever been effective and requests an increase in dosage. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing his pain?
Your Answer: Switch to a transdermal patch
Correct Answer: Switch to a different opioid
Explanation:Maximum Oral Morphine Use and Tapering Off
The Faculty of Pain Management has established a maximum threshold for oral morphine use to prevent harm without additional benefits. The maximum dose should not exceed 120mg/day of oral morphine equivalent. In cases where patients report no benefit from the medication, it is sensible to taper them off completely. This approach is unlikely to lead to increased pain and can free the patient from opioid-related side effects. Switching to a different opioid or route of administration is also unlikely to be beneficial if the patient has reported no benefit from the current dose. Immediate-release preparations can provide flexibility in dosing, and patients can be encouraged to avoid taking opioids whenever possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of polymyalgia rheumatica has been taking prednisolone 10 mg for the past 6 months. A DEXA scan shows the following results:
L2 T-score -1.6 SD
Femoral neck T-score -1.7 SD
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D + calcium supplementation + oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Supplementation of vitamin D and calcium along with oral bisphosphonate.
Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 131
Incorrect
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You conduct a home visit for an 82-year-old woman who has experienced a few falls in recent months. During your risk assessment for future falls, you observe that she has limited mobility. Despite using her walking stick, she struggles to complete the TUG (Timed Up and Go test) and requires 8 steps to turn around 180 degrees. What other factor is the strongest predictor of future falls in the community?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence
Explanation:Falls in the Elderly: Causes, Risk Factors, and Prevention
As people age, they become more prone to falls, which can result in injuries and affect their confidence and independence. In fact, around one-third of elderly individuals living in the community experience falls every year. Gait abnormalities are one of the primary causes of falls, which can be due to medical problems affecting the neurological and musculoskeletal systems, as well as the processing of senses such as sight, sound, and sensation. Other risk factors for falling include lower limb muscle weakness, vision problems, balance/gait disturbances, polypharmacy, incontinence, fear of falling, depression, postural hypotension, arthritis in lower limbs, psychoactive drugs, and cognitive impairment.
To prevent falls, it is crucial to limit these risk factors where possible and conduct a falls risk assessment for all patients, especially those in hospitals or homes. The assessment should include a thorough history of the patient’s falls, systems review, past medical history, and social history. Medication reviews are also essential to reduce the chances of falling again, particularly for patients on more than four drugs. Medications that cause postural hypotension and those associated with falls due to other mechanisms should be stopped or swapped.
When examining a patient who has fallen, a full A to E approach and assessment of all systems are necessary to rule out the cause. Investigations to consider include bedside tests, bloods, and imaging. NICE CKS recommendations suggest identifying all individuals who have fallen in the last 12 months and assessing their risk factors. For those at risk, completing the ‘Turn 180° test’ or the ‘Timed up and Go test’ and offering a multidisciplinary assessment by a qualified clinician are recommended. Individuals who fall but do not meet these criteria should be reviewed annually and given written information on falls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old gentleman comes to see you for the result of his x ray. He was seen by a colleague two weeks ago with knee pain and was referred for plain films of his right knee.
The x ray report states: 'loss of joint space, osteophyte formation, subchondral sclerosis and subchondral cyst formation'.
What is the underlying cause of his knee pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Radiological Features of Joint Diseases
Osteoarthritis is a joint disease that can be identified through four core features on plain x-ray examination. These features include loss of joint space, osteophyte formation, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cyst formation. All of these features are present on the x-ray, making osteoarthritis the correct diagnosis.
Chondrocalcinosis, on the other hand, is characterized by calcium deposition in structures such as the cartilage. In gout, x-rays may only show soft tissue swelling, but chronic inflammation can lead to punched out lesions in juxta-articular bone. Late-stage gout is characterized by tophi formation and joint space narrowing.
In rheumatoid arthritis, plain films can show soft tissue swelling, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and loss of joint space. As the disease progresses, the destructive nature of the disease can lead to bony erosions, subluxation, and massive deformity. Septic arthritis, an infective process, can be identified through early plain film radiographic findings of soft tissue swelling around the joint and a widened joint space from joint effusion. With the progression of the disease, joint space narrowing can occur as articular cartilage is destroyed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents with pain at the elbow which she has been aware of for the last two weeks.
Which of the following would be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance
Explanation:Understanding Tennis Elbow
Tennis elbow, also known as lateral epicondylitis, is a condition caused by overuse or strain of the extensor muscles in the forearm. It is most commonly seen in individuals in their fourth decade of life. Symptoms include pain in the lateral epicondyle region during resisted extension of the fingers and wrist.
Management of tennis elbow involves reducing strenuous activity for at least six weeks, with or without the use of a wrist splint. Local injection with corticosteroid and anaesthetic agents may also be an option. Surgical treatment is only considered for those with persistent symptoms that do not respond to other forms of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 134
Incorrect
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You refer a 26-year-old female to rheumatology with occasional pain and swelling of the metacarpal phalangeal joints over the last 4 months. An x-ray reveals soft-tissue swelling and loss of joint space. Rheumatoid factor is positive, and the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is confirmed. What is the probable initial treatment that she will receive to slow down the progression of the disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate + short-course of prednisolone
Explanation:The rheumatoid arthritis guidelines were updated by NICE in 2018, with a new recommendation for the initial treatment approach. Instead of dual DMARD therapy, they now suggest DMARD monotherapy with a brief course of bridging prednisolone.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.
In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).
Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.
TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.
Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with sudden back pain that radiates down to her left ankle. During the examination, there is a loss of sensation over the lateral side of her left foot and calf, and the Achilles reflex is diminished. The straight leg raising test is positive. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2. Her full blood count, liver function tests, and renal function tests are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lumbar disc prolapse
Explanation:Understanding Lumbar Disc Prolapse and Differential Diagnosis
Lumbar disc prolapse occurs when a herniated disc in the lumbosacral spine compresses a lumbar nerve root, resulting in sciatica symptoms such as unilateral leg pain, numbness, weakness, and loss of tendon reflexes. The most common level affected is L5/S1, and pain is usually relieved by lying down. Differential diagnosis includes osteoarthritis, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and spinal stenosis. Osteoarthritis may cause localized back pain without radiation or sensory loss, while osteomalacia presents with raised alkaline phosphatase and parathyroid hormone levels and low 25-hydroxycholecalciferol levels. Osteoporosis is unlikely in a young patient and doesn’t typically cause pain. Spinal stenosis is a disease of the elderly, presenting with pseudo claudication and a negative straight leg raising test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful, swollen, and red middle toe on his left foot. He describes it as resembling a 'sausage' and reports that the symptoms have been present for approximately one week. The patient denies any history of trauma. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile with a pulse rate of 72/min. The affected toe is swollen and red, but there is no extension of the redness proximally. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Dactylitis, which is often described as a ‘sausage-shaped’ digit, is not typically associated with gout affecting the middle toe. Gout most commonly affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Additionally, the patient’s lack of systemic symptoms, long-standing history, and localized erythema make septic arthritis, which can be linked to diabetes, an unlikely diagnosis. Dactylitis is not a characteristic symptom of rheumatoid arthritis.
Dactylitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of a finger or toe. The causes of this condition include spondyloarthritis, such as Psoriatic and reactive arthritis, sickle-cell disease, and other rare causes like tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, and syphilis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has been experiencing pain and swelling in her hands and feet for four weeks, affecting the proximal interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, wrist, metatarsophalangeal, and ankle joints. What is the most suitable initial investigation to aid in the diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor
Explanation:The patient is suspected to have rheumatoid arthritis and should be urgently referred to a rheumatologist based on clinical grounds alone, without delay from investigations. The first-line test of choice is a rheumatoid factor test, which is positive in 60-70% of rheumatoid arthritis patients and 5% of the normal population. A positive test supports but doesn’t confirm a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Anti-CCP antibodies should be measured if the patient is negative for rheumatoid factor, as it is more specific than rheumatoid factor in diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis. ANA is frequently positive in systemic lupus erythematosus, up to 30% of rheumatoid patients, and weakly positive in up to 10% of the normal population. ESR may be raised but can be normal in rheumatoid arthritis, especially in the early stages. Uric acid or synovial fluid examination can be used to exclude polyarticular gout if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old lady, whose mother has osteoporosis but no fractures, visited your clinic seeking advice.
She has never smoked, doesn't use steroids, has no significant health issues, and has never experienced a fracture. Her menopause began at age 52. She has no other risk factors for osteoporosis. She refuses to take medication but wants to know about lifestyle modifications that can lower her chances of developing osteoporosis.
What is the most suitable course of action to manage this patient's concerns?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be encouraged to undertake weight-bearing aerobic exercise and resistance exercise which have been shown to increase spine bone density in postmenopausal women
Explanation:Exercise and Management of Osteoporosis in Postmenopausal Women
A Cochrane Review has found that postmenopausal women can increase their bone mineral density (BMD) through various exercises such as aerobics, weight-bearing, and resistance exercises. However, a DXA scan may not be necessary for women who do not meet the 1999 RCP guidance or NICE criteria for bisphosphonate use. Additionally, calcium supplementation may not reduce fractures in otherwise healthy women over 50 years old, and HRT is not recommended as a first-line intervention due to associated risks. Hormone replacement therapy can be used to maintain bone density in women with premature menopause until they reach age 50. It is important to consider individual risk factors and appropriate interventions for the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of increased difficulty in walking. During examination, weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and of the extensor hallucis longus is observed, along with loss of sensation on the lateral aspect of the lower leg. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy
Explanation:A lesion in the common peroneal nerve can result in a reduction in the strength of both foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion.
Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion
A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This condition is characterized by foot drop, which is the most common symptom. Other symptoms include weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, weakness of extensor hallucis longus, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman complains she has had pain in her left elbow, left wrist, right knee and right ankle for the last week. She recently came back from Mexico where she had been on a two-week holiday with her friends. She confessed that while on holiday, she had unprotected sex. Examination shows tenderness and swelling of the tendons around the involved joints but no actual joint swelling. She also has a skin rash, which is vesico-pustular.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonococcal arthritis
Explanation:The patient is presenting with arthritis-dermatitis syndrome, which is a symptom of disseminated gonococcal infection. This infection can manifest in two forms: bacteraemic and septic arthritis. The former is more common, with up to 60% of patients presenting with it. Symptoms can appear within one day to three months after initial infection, and up to 80% of women with gonorrhoea may not experience any genitourinary symptoms.
The most common symptom of arthritis-dermatitis syndrome is migratory arthralgias, which are typically asymmetrical and affect the upper extremities more than the lower extremities. Pain may also occur due to tenosynovitis. The associated rash is painless and not itchy, consisting of small papules, pustules or vesicles. A pustule with an erythematous base on the hand or foot can be a helpful diagnostic clue.
Symptoms may resolve spontaneously in 30-40% of cases or progress to septic arthritis in one or more joints. Unlike Staphylococcus aureus septic arthritis, gonococcal arthritis rarely leads to joint destruction.
Gout, reactive arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and tuberculous arthritis are all incorrect diagnoses. Gout typically presents as an acute monoarthritis, reactive arthritis is an autoimmune condition that develops in response to a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection, rheumatoid arthritis affects small joints symmetrically, and tuberculous arthritis usually involves only one joint, with the spine being the most common site of skeletal involvement in tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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