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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of these patients have an absolute contraindication for the COCP?
Your Answer: 38-year-old smoker, smoking 10 cigarettes/day
Correct Answer: 25-year-old breastfeeding at 4 weeks postpartum
Explanation:1: If you are over 35 years old and smoke at least 15 cigarettes a day, smoking is not recommended.
2: A BMI over 35 kg/m² should be evaluated by a medical professional, but it is not considered an absolute contraindication.
3: A history of ectopic pregnancies does not affect the use of COCP.
4: It is not recommended to use COCP within 6 weeks after giving birth.
5: There is no evidence linking the use of COCP to carpal tunnel syndrome.The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the past 2 years without relief. Her symptoms occur when she laughs or coughs, but she has not had any episodes of nocturia. She has tried pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, but these have not improved her symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no signs of infection, and a pelvic examination does not reveal any uterine prolapse. Linda has declined surgical intervention. What is the next best course of action for managing her incontinence?
Your Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:If pelvic floor muscle exercises and surgical intervention are not effective, duloxetine can be used to treat stress incontinence in patients. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes such as infection before starting treatment. Non-pharmacological management should be attempted first, including pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake. Duloxetine is a medication that works as a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor and may cause side effects such as nausea, dizziness, and insomnia. For urge incontinence, antimuscarinic agents like oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin are typically used as first-line treatment. If these are not effective, a β3 agonist called mirabegron can be used as a second-line therapy.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A gynaecologist is performing a hysterectomy for leiomyomata and menorrhagia on a 44-year-old woman. Once under anaesthesia, the patient is catheterised, and the surgeon makes a Pfannenstiel incision transversely, just superior to the pubic symphysis. After opening the parietal peritoneum, he identifies the uterus and makes a shallow, transverse incision in the visceral peritoneum on the anterior uterine wall, and then pushes this downwards to expose the lower uterus.
What is the most likely reason for this?Your Answer: The bladder is reflected downwards with the peritoneum
Explanation:Surgical Manoeuvre for Safe Access to the Gravid Uterus
During Gynaecological surgery, a specific manoeuvre is used to safely access the gravid uterus. The bladder is reflected downwards with the peritoneum, which also displaces the distal ureters and uterine tubes. This displacement renders these structures less vulnerable to damage during the procedure. The ovarian arteries, which are branches of the aorta, are not affected by this manoeuvre. However, the uterine artery needs to be pushed down for safe ligation as the ureters typically run superior to it. The sigmoid colon is also displaced out of the operating field using this manoeuvre, reducing the risk of injury. While the ovarian arteries are unlikely to be injured during surgery as they are more lateral, the incidence of ureteric injury is 1-2% in Gynaecological surgery, with 70% of these injuries occurring during the tying off of the uterine pedicle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment. She has begun a sexual relationship and wants to start long term contraception as she and her partner do not plan on having children anytime soon. Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer a decade ago, and the patient, along with her family, underwent testing at the time. She was found to have a BRCA1 mutation. Based on FSRH guidelines, what is the safest contraception method available?
Your Answer: Copper coil
Explanation:If a woman has a suspected or personal history of breast cancer or a confirmed BRCA mutation, the safest form of contraception for her is the copper coil. The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use (UKMEC) provides guidelines for the choice of contraception, grading non-barrier contraceptives on a scale of 1-4 based on a woman’s personal circumstances. Contraceptive methods that fall under category 1 or 2 are generally considered safe for use in primary care. In this case, all forms of contraception except the combined pill (category 3) can be offered, with the copper coil being the safest option as it falls under category 1.
Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview
Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).
Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.
Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucous. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.
LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucous, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.
It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 36-year-old patient undergoing IVF for tubal disease presents with abdominal discomfort, nausea, and vomiting four days after egg retrieval. She has a history of well-controlled Crohn's disease and is currently taking azathioprine maintenance therapy. On examination, her abdomen appears distended. What is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario?
Your Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome
Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is a potential complication that can occur during infertility treatment. This condition is believed to be caused by the presence of multiple luteinized cysts in the ovaries, which can lead to high levels of hormones and vasoactive substances. As a result, the permeability of the membranes increases, leading to fluid loss from the intravascular compartment.
OHSS is more commonly seen following gonadotropin or hCG treatment, and it is rare with Clomiphene therapy. Approximately one-third of women undergoing in vitro fertilization (IVF) may experience a mild form of OHSS. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has classified OHSS into four categories: mild, moderate, severe, and critical.
Symptoms of OHSS can range from abdominal pain and bloating to more severe symptoms such as thromboembolism and acute respiratory distress syndrome. It is important to monitor patients closely during infertility treatment to detect any signs of OHSS and manage the condition appropriately. By understanding OHSS and its potential risks, healthcare providers can work to minimize the occurrence of this complication and ensure the safety of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP clinic urgently seeking advice as she had unprotected sex last night. She has recently started taking the combined oral contraceptive pill but missed two pills because she forgot to bring them along while on vacation. She is currently in the first week of a new pack. What steps should her GP take now?
Your Answer: Advise her to take her 2 missed pills on top of her pill today, and use barrier contraception for the next 7 days
Correct Answer: Advise her to take an extra pill today, use barrier contraception for the next 7 days and prescribe emergency contraception
Explanation:If a patient misses 2 pills in the first week of their combined oral contraceptive pill pack and has had unprotected sex during the pill-free interval or week 1, emergency contraception should be considered. The patient should take the missed pills as soon as possible and use condoms for the next 7 days. For patients who have only missed 1 pill, they should take it as soon as possible without needing extra precautions. If extra barrier contraception is needed for patients on the combined oral contraceptive pill, it should be used for at least 7 days. Patients on the progesterone-only pill only need barrier contraception for 2 days. Missing 1 pill at any time throughout a pack or starting a new pack 1 day late generally does not affect protection against pregnancy. Taking more than 2 contraceptive pills in a day is not recommended as it does not provide extra contraceptive effects and may cause side effects.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25 year old woman visits the family planning clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has a history of epilepsy and is currently on carbamazepine medication. Additionally, her BMI is 39 kg/m² and she has no other medical history. What would be the most appropriate contraceptive option to suggest for her?
Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:Contraception for Women with Epilepsy
Women with epilepsy need to consider several factors when choosing a contraceptive method. Firstly, they need to consider how the contraceptive may affect the effectiveness of their anti-epileptic medication. Secondly, they need to consider how their anti-epileptic medication may affect the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Lastly, they need to consider the potential teratogenic effects of their anti-epileptic medication if they become pregnant.
To address these concerns, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends that women with epilepsy consistently use condoms in addition to other forms of contraception. For women taking certain anti-epileptic medications such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, and oxcarbazepine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP and POP as UKMEC 3, the implant as UKMEC 2, and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1.
For women taking lamotrigine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP as UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1. If a COCP is chosen, it should contain a minimum of 30 µg of ethinylestradiol. By considering these recommendations, women with epilepsy can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and ensure the safety and effectiveness of their chosen method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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A hairy 27-year-old woman visits the medical clinic with concerns about her missing menstrual cycles. What is one of the diagnostic criteria for polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?
Your Answer: Oligomenorrhoea
Explanation:Although clinical features such as infrequent or absent ovulation and hyperandrogenism can suggest PCOS, NICE CKS recommends using specific diagnostic criteria. To diagnose PCOS, at least 2 out of 3 of the following criteria should be present: infrequent or no ovulation, signs of hyperandrogenism or elevated testosterone levels, and polycystic ovaries or increased ovarian volume on ultrasonography. It is important to note that a high BMI is not part of the diagnostic criteria, but signs of insulin resistance such as acanthosis nigricans may aid in diagnosis.
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve both high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, with some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. PCOS is characterized by a range of symptoms, including subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.
To diagnose PCOS, a range of investigations may be performed, including pelvic ultrasound to detect multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful baseline investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). While a raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature of PCOS, it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated, but if markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.
To formally diagnose PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if at least two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of at least 12 follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries, and/or an increased ovarian volume of over 10 cmÂł.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old female complains of lower abdominal pain that started one day ago. She has no significant medical history. During the examination, her temperature is 37.5°C, and she experiences extreme tenderness in the left iliac fossa with guarding. Bowel sounds are audible. What is the most suitable initial investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Urinary beta-hCG
Explanation:Importance of Pregnancy Test in Women with Acute Abdominal Pain
When a young woman presents with an acute abdomen and pain in the left iliac fossa, it is important to consider the possibility of an ectopic pregnancy, even if there is a lack of menstrual history. Therefore, the most appropriate investigation would be a urinary beta-hCG, which is a pregnancy test. It is crucial to rule out a potentially life-threatening ectopic pregnancy as the first line of investigation for any woman of childbearing age who presents with acute onset abdominal pain.
In summary, a pregnancy test should be performed in women with acute abdominal pain to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, which can be life-threatening if left untreated. This simple and quick test can provide valuable information for prompt and appropriate management of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Correct
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Sophie has presented herself to the GP practice as she is interested in starting contraception. She has chosen to use the contraceptive implant as she wants to avoid taking pills for her contraception. After obtaining informed consent, the implant was inserted into her arm. What is the main mechanism of action of this type of contraception?
Your Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:The contraceptive implant primarily works by inhibiting ovulation through the slow release of progesterone hormone. While it also increases cervical mucous thickness, this is not its main mode of action. The progesterone-only pill also increases cervical mucous thickness, while the intrauterine copper device decreases sperm viability. The intrauterine system prevents implantation of the ovum by exerting local progesterone onto the uterine lining.
Understanding the Mode of Action of Contraceptives
Contraceptives are used to prevent unwanted pregnancies. They work by different mechanisms depending on the type of contraceptive used. The Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) has provided a table that outlines the mode of action of standard contraceptives and emergency contraception.
Standard contraceptives include the combined oral contraceptive pill, progesterone-only pill, injectable contraceptive, implantable contraceptive, and intrauterine contraceptive device/system. The combined oral contraceptive pill and injectable/implantable contraceptives primarily work by inhibiting ovulation, while the progesterone-only pill and some injectable/implantable contraceptives thicken cervical mucous to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. The intrauterine contraceptive device/system decreases sperm motility and survival and prevents endometrial proliferation.
Emergency contraception, which is used after unprotected sex or contraceptive failure, also works by different mechanisms. Levonorgestrel and ulipristal inhibit ovulation, while the intrauterine contraceptive device is toxic to sperm and ovum and inhibits implantation.
Understanding the mode of action of contraceptives is important in choosing the most appropriate method for an individual’s needs and preferences. It is also important to note that no contraceptive method is 100% effective, and the use of condoms can provide additional protection against sexually transmitted infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on switching from the progesterone-only pill to combined oral contraception due to irregular bleeding. She is concerned about the risk of blood clotting adverse effects. What advice should be given to her regarding additional contraception when making the switch?
Your Answer: 7-days of additional barrier contraception is needed
Explanation:To ensure maximum safety when switching from a traditional POP to COCP, it is recommended to use barrier contraception for 7 days while starting the combined oral contraceptive. This is the standard duration of protection required when starting this medication outside of menstruation. It is not necessary to use barrier contraception for 10 or 14 days, as the standard recommendation is 7 days. Using barrier contraception for only 3 days is too short, as it is the duration recommended for starting a traditional progesterone-only pill. While there may be some protection, it is still advisable to use additional contraception for 7 days to prevent unwanted pregnancy.
Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Concurrent antibiotic use has been a concern for many years in the UK, as doctors have advised that it may interfere with the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines to abandon the extra precautions previously advised during antibiotic treatment and for 7 days afterwards. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated to reflect this guidance, although precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.
When it comes to switching combined oral contraceptive pills, the BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice. The FSRH’s Combined Oral Contraception guidelines state that the pill-free interval does not need to be omitted, while the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given this uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF’s advice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman comes in for her routine cervical smear. She reports discomfort during the insertion of the speculum and reveals that she has been experiencing dyspareunia and a burning sensation when using tampons for the past few months. The pain can persist for several hours after sexual intercourse. She denies having any vaginal discharge, and her skin appears normal. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Provoked vulvodynia
Explanation:Understanding Vulvodynia: Types, Causes, and Associated Conditions
Vulvodynia is a chronic pain condition that affects the vulvovaginal region and lasts for at least three months without any identifiable cause. There are two types of vulvodynia: provoked and unprovoked. Provoked vulvodynia is triggered by sexual intercourse or tampon insertion, while unprovoked vulvodynia is a spontaneous chronic pain that is present most of the time.
Vulvodynia can be localised or generalised and can be primary or secondary. It can affect women of any age and is associated with various factors such as neurological conditions, chronic pain syndromes, genetic predisposition, pelvic muscle overactivity, anxiety, and depression. The exact mechanism of vulvodynia is not yet understood, but it is believed to be multifactorial and complex.
Other conditions that can cause pain in the vulvovaginal region include sexually transmitted infections, lichen sclerosus, and lichen planus. Sexually transmitted infections usually present with dyspareunia, abnormal bleeding, and a vaginal discharge. Lichen sclerosus presents with itching and burning, while lichen planus presents with purple-red lesions and overlying lacy markings.
Vulvodynia is a dysfunctional pain syndrome that can significantly impact a woman’s quality of life. It is essential to seek medical attention if you experience any pain or discomfort in the vulvovaginal region to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic for the third time in the past month. She reports experiencing bloating, mild abdominal discomfort, and a decreased appetite. You have previously referred her for a colonoscopy, which did not reveal any signs of malignancy. However, she remains highly concerned about cancer due to her family history, as her mother, grandmother, and sister have all had breast cancer. Which marker would be the most suitable?
Your Answer: CA 125
Explanation:Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 65-year-old retired librarian presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a feeling of fullness in her vagina. She states that this feeling is present at all times. On further questioning she also has a 1-year history of urinary frequency and has been treated for urinary tract infections in two instances in the past year. She has never smoked and is teetotal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cystocele
Explanation:Common Vaginal Conditions: Symptoms and Management
Cystocele: A weakening of pelvic muscles can cause the bladder to prolapse into the vagina, resulting in stress incontinence, frequent urinary tract infections, and a dragging sensation or lump in the vagina. Management ranges from conservative with pelvic floor exercises to surgery.
Rectocele: Women with a rectocele experience pressure and a lump in the vagina, as well as difficulty with bowel movements. Treatment may involve pelvic floor exercises or surgery.
Bartholin cyst: A blocked Bartholin gland can lead to a cyst that presents as a tender mass in the vaginal wall. Treatment involves incision and drainage, as well as antibiotics.
Vaginal cancer: Symptoms include vaginal or postcoital bleeding, vaginal discharge, and persistent pelvic pain.
Bladder cancer: Painless hematuria is a common symptom, with risk factors including smoking, working in the aniline dye industry, or previous infection with Schistosoma haematobium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary incontinence that has been ongoing for 2 years. She experiences sudden urges to urinate, followed by uncontrollable leakage ranging from a few drops to complete bladder emptying several times a week. She also reports increased urinary frequency, including waking up twice at night to urinate. The patient denies dysuria or haematuria and has never experienced involuntary urination during exertion, sneezing, or coughing. She declines a physical examination due to embarrassment. What is the most appropriate course of management?
Your Answer: Refer for bladder retraining exercises
Explanation:The appropriate management for urgency urinary incontinence (UUI) is to refer the patient for bladder training. UUI is characterized by uncontrollable bladder leakage that occurs shortly after the patient experiences a sudden urge to urinate, and is often associated with an overactive bladder that causes symptoms such as increased urinary frequency and nocturia. Advising the patient to reduce fluid intake and use continence products is not the correct approach, as both too much and too little fluid can contribute to lower urinary tract symptoms. Instead, patients should be advised to make lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine intake, losing weight, and quitting smoking. Referring the patient for pelvic floor muscle training is the appropriate management for stress incontinence, which causes urine leakage during exertion, sneezing, or coughing. However, this is not applicable in this case as the patient denies these symptoms. If conservative management is unsuccessful and the patient does not wish to explore surgical options, a trial treatment with duloxetine may be considered for stress incontinence.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Correct
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What is considered an unacceptable risk (UKMEC4) when prescribing the COCP for women under the age of 18?
Your Answer: Breastfeeding and 4 weeks postpartum
Explanation:The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) offer guidance on the contraindications for using contraception, including the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The UKMEC categorizes the use of COCP as follows: no restriction (UKMEC1), advantages outweigh disadvantages (UKMEC2), disadvantages outweigh advantages (UKMEC3), and unacceptable risk (UKMEC4).
According to UKMEC3, COCP use may have more disadvantages than advantages for individuals who are over 35 years old and smoke less than 15 cigarettes per day, have a BMI over 35, experience migraines without aura, have a family history of deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism in a first-degree relative under 45 years old, have controlled hypertension, are immobile (e.g., use a wheelchair), or are breastfeeding and between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum.
On the other hand, UKMEC4 indicates that COCP use poses an unacceptable risk for individuals who are over 35 years old and smoke more than 15 cigarettes per day, experience migraines with aura, have a personal history of deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, have a personal history of stroke or ischemic heart disease, have uncontrolled hypertension, have breast cancer, have recently undergone major surgery with prolonged immobilization, or are breastfeeding and less than 6 weeks postpartum.
Source: FSRH UKMEC for contraceptive use.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits the GP clinic with her partner as they are facing difficulty in conceiving. Despite having regular sexual intercourse for a year, they have not been successful. What would be the initial investigation recommended in this case?
Your Answer: Day 21 progesterone
Explanation:If a woman of reproductive age has been having unprotected vaginal sexual intercourse for a year without conceiving and there is no known cause of infertility, NICE guidance recommends that she and her partner undergo further clinical assessment and investigation. The most appropriate initial investigation for this patient is a day 21 progesterone test, which is non-invasive and can determine if the patient is ovulating. Serum prolactin and thyroid function tests are not recommended unless there is a specific reason for testing, such as a pituitary tumor or overt thyroid disease. Transvaginal or abdominal ultrasounds are unlikely to reveal the cause of subfertility and are therefore not necessary. As part of the initial assessment, the male partner should also undergo a semen analysis.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of pelvic pain and intermenstrual bleeding for the past 5 months. The pain is more severe during her periods and sexual intercourse, and her periods have become heavier. She denies any urinary or bowel symptoms. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals multiple masses in the uterine wall. The patient desires surgical removal of the masses, but the wait time for the procedure is 5 months. She inquires about medication to reduce the size of the masses during this period. What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient while she awaits surgery?
Your Answer: Triptorelin
Explanation:The presence of fibroids in the patient’s uterus is indicated by her symptoms of intermenstrual bleeding, pelvic pain, and menorrhagia, as well as her age. While GnRH agonists may temporarily reduce the size of the fibroids, they are not a long-term solution.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with you. She is in a committed relationship with another woman and they have regular unprotected intercourse. Sarah has no medical history and is currently undergoing gender reassignment using oestrogen and antiandrogen therapy, but has not had any surgical interventions yet. What would be the most suitable form of contraception to recommend for Sarah?
Your Answer: No additional contraception required
Correct Answer: Barrier methods such as condoms
Explanation:If a patient was assigned male at birth and is undergoing treatment with oestradiol, GNRH analogs, finasteride or cyproterone, there may be a decrease or cessation of sperm production. However, this cannot be considered a reliable method of contraception. In the case of a trans female patient, who was assigned male at birth, hormonal treatments cannot be relied upon for contraception. There is a possibility of her female partner becoming pregnant, and therefore, barrier methods are recommended. Hormonal contraceptives are not suitable for this patient, and the copper IUD is not an option as she does not have a uterus.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies.
For individuals engaging in vaginal sex where there may be a risk of pregnancy and/or sexually transmitted infections, condoms and dental dams are recommended. Cervical screening and human papillomavirus vaccinations should also be offered to sexually active individuals with a uterus. Those engaging in anal sex and rimming should be advised of the risk of hepatitis A & B and offered vaccinations. Individuals at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of the availability of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis as required.
For patients seeking permanent contraception, a fallopian tube occlusion or a vasectomy may be the most appropriate solution and neither would be affected by hormonal therapy. Testosterone therapy does not provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimes are not recommended in patients undergoing testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and the intrauterine system and injections may also suspend menstruation. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices do not interact with hormonal regimes but can exacerbate menstrual bleeding.
In patients assigned male at birth, there may be a reduction or cessation of sperm production with certain therapies, but the variability of effects means they cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms should be recommended in those patients engaging in vaginal sex wishing to avoid the risk of pregnancy. Emergency contraception may be required in patients assigned female at birth following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either of the available oral emergency contraceptive options may be considered. The non-hormonal intrauterine device may also be an option, but it may have unacceptable side effects in some patients.
Overall, the guidance stresses the importance of individualized care and communication in contraceptive and sexual health decisions for transgender and non-binary individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman presents with two episodes of post-coital bleeding. She reports that she noticed some red spotting immediately after intercourse, which settled shortly afterwards. She is on the combined oral contraceptive pill, with a regular partner, and does not use barrier contraception.
Examination reveals a malodorous, green, frothy discharge and an erythematosus cervix with small areas of exudation. High vaginal and endocervical swabs were performed.
Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Metronidazole 400–500 mg twice daily for 5–7 days
Explanation:Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Infections
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) can cause a range of symptoms in women, including post-coital bleeding, vaginal discharge, cervicitis, and more. Here are some common treatment options for STIs:
– Metronidazole: This medication is used to treat Trichomonas vaginalis infections. Patients typically take 400-500 mg twice daily for 5-7 days. It’s important to treat the partner simultaneously and abstain from sex for at least one week.
– Referral for colposcopy: If symptoms persist after treatment, patients may be referred for colposcopy to rule out cervical carcinoma.
– Azithromycin or doxycycline: These medications are used to treat uncomplicated genital Chlamydia infections. Most women with a chlamydial infection remain asymptomatic.
– Ceftriaxone and azithromycin: This combination is the treatment of choice for gonorrhoea infections. Symptoms may include increased vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia, and dysuria.
– No treatment is required: This is not an option for symptomatic patients with T vaginalis, as it is a sexually transmitted infection that requires treatment.It’s important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have an STI, as early treatment can prevent complications and transmission to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman was diagnosed with an early miscarriage 3 weeks ago through transvaginal ultrasound. She has no significant medical history and was G1P0. Expectant management was chosen as the course of action. However, she now presents with light vaginal bleeding that has persisted for 10 days. A recent urinary pregnancy test still shows positive results. She denies experiencing cramps, purulent vaginal discharges, fever, or muscle aches. What is the next appropriate step in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Prescribe oral methotrexate alone
Correct Answer: Prescribe vaginal misoprostol alone
Explanation:The appropriate medical management for a miscarriage involves administering vaginal misoprostol alone. This is a prostaglandin analogue that stimulates uterine contractions, expediting the passing of the products of conception. Oral methotrexate and oral mifepristone alone are not suitable for managing a miscarriage, as they are used for ectopic pregnancies and terminations of pregnancy, respectively. The combination of oral misoprostol and oral mifepristone, as well as vaginal misoprostol and oral mifepristone, are also not recommended due to limited evidence of their efficacy. The current recommended approach is to use vaginal misoprostol alone, as it limits side effects and has a strong evidence base.
Management Options for Miscarriage
Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.
Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.
Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.
It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain. She also reports experiencing pain in her right shoulder. What investigation would be the most helpful in managing this patient further?
Your Answer: Urine β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG)
Explanation:The Importance of Urine Pregnancy Testing in Females with Abdominal Pain
Any female of childbearing age who presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain should have a urinary pregnancy test performed (β-HCG). This is because a negative pregnancy test is necessary to confirm that the patient is not pregnant. It is an easy and inexpensive test to perform.
Shoulder tip pain may indicate diaphragmatic irritation secondary to free intraperitoneal fluid, which can be caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. However, a full blood count (FBC) and urea and electrolytes (U & Es) will not diagnose a potential ruptured ectopic pregnancy and, as such, will not guide subsequent management.
An erect chest X-ray may be requested if perforation is suspected, but a urine pregnancy test would be much more useful in this scenario. An abdominal X-ray is not indicated.
In summary, a urine pregnancy test is crucial in females of childbearing age with abdominal pain to rule out pregnancy and potentially diagnose a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman comes in with postmenopausal bleeding that has been occurring for the past 5 months. After an endometrial biopsy, she is diagnosed with well-differentiated adenocarcinoma (stage II) and there is no indication of metastatic disease. What is the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman with a regular 28-day menstrual cycle reports experiencing mood changes during the week leading up to her period. She describes feeling increasingly anxious and irritable, and these symptoms are severe enough to affect her work and social life. She has a history of migraine with aura. What is the most suitable intervention to alleviate her premenstrual symptoms?
Your Answer: Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI)
Explanation:Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Gynaecology clinic with complaints of vaginal bleeding. She reports that she underwent menopause at age 63 and has never engaged in sexual activity. Her height is 5 ft and she weighs 136 kg. Upon further investigation, malignancy is detected in the suspected organ. What is the typical histologic appearance of the epithelial lining of this organ?
Your Answer: Simple columnar cells
Explanation:Types of Epithelial Cells in the Female Reproductive System
The female reproductive system is composed of various types of epithelial cells that serve different functions. Here are some of the most common types of epithelial cells found in the female reproductive system:
1. Simple columnar cells – These cells are found in the endometrial lining and have a pseudostratified columnar appearance. They are often associated with endometrial carcinoma.
2. Glycogen-containing stratified squamous cells – These cells are found in the vagina and are responsible for producing glycogen, which helps maintain a healthy vaginal pH.
3. Cuboidal cells – These cells are found in the ovary and are responsible for producing and releasing eggs.
4. Stratified squamous cells – These cells are found in the cervix and provide protection against infections.
5. Columnar ciliated cells – These cells are located in the Fallopian tubes and are responsible for moving the egg from the ovary to the uterus.
Understanding the different types of epithelial cells in the female reproductive system can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various reproductive disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 25-year-old female comes to see her GP with concerns about her mood during her menstrual cycle. She has been experiencing symptoms for the past 8 months despite making lifestyle changes. The week before her period, she notices a significant change in her mood, feeling extremely low and anxious with poor concentration. Her irritability is starting to affect her work as a primary school teacher. She has no other physical symptoms and feels like her usual self for the rest of the month. She has a medical history of migraine with aura.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits the gynaecology clinic with a history of endometriosis diagnosed 3 years ago after laparoscopic surgery. She complains of chronic pelvic pain that intensifies during her menstrual cycle and deep dyspareunia. Despite trying ibuprofen, the progesterone-only pill, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, she has not found relief. The patient has no medical history, allergies, or current desire to conceive. What would be the recommended course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Trial a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonist
Explanation:If a patient with endometriosis is not experiencing relief from their symptoms with a combination of non-steroidal anti-inflammatories and the combined oral contraceptive pill, they may be prescribed gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonists (GnRH agonists) as a second-line medical management option. progesterone-only contraception may also be offered in this stage of treatment. GnRH agonists work by down-regulating GnRH receptors, which reduces the production of oestrogen and androgen. This reduction in hormones can alleviate the symptoms of endometriosis, as oestrogen thickens the uterine lining. The copper intrauterine device is not an appropriate treatment option, as it does not contain hormones and may actually worsen symptoms. NICE does not recommend the use of opioids in the management of endometriosis, as there is a high risk of adverse effects and addiction. Amitriptyline may be considered as a treatment option for chronic pain, but it is important to explore other medical and surgical options for endometriosis before prescribing it, as it comes with potential side effects and risks.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor's office with concerns about forgetting to change her combined contraceptive patch. She has missed the deadline by 12 hours and had sex during this time. She has never missed a patch before. What guidance would you offer her?
Your Answer: Apply a new patch and use additional contraception for 7 days
Correct Answer: Apply a new patch immediately, no further precautions needed
Explanation:The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.
If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.
If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is suffering from menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea, causing her to miss work and experience significant distress. She has not yet had children but hopes to in the future. An ultrasound of her pelvis reveals a 2 cm intramural fibroid and is otherwise normal. What is the best course of treatment for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Myomectomy
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)
Explanation:Medical treatment can be attempted for uterine fibroids that are smaller than 3 cm and not causing distortion in the uterine cavity. The most suitable option for this scenario would be the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). Other medical management options include the intrauterine system, oral progesterone, and gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists like goserelin. Hysterectomy would not be recommended for patients who wish to have children in the future. Hysteroscopic resection of fibroids is not necessary for fibroids that are smaller than 3 cm and do not cause distortion in the uterine cavity. Myomectomy should only be considered after trying out medical therapies like COCP, tranexamic acid, and levonorgestrel intrauterine system. It may be a suitable treatment for larger fibroids.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman goes to her doctor's office. She had a termination of pregnancy two weeks ago at 8 weeks gestation. She calls the doctor's office, worried because her home pregnancy test is still positive. What is the maximum amount of time after a termination that a positive pregnancy test is considered normal?
Your Answer: 1 week
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:After a termination of pregnancy, a urine pregnancy test can still show positive results for up to 4 weeks. However, if the test remains positive beyond this time frame, it could indicate an incomplete abortion or a persistent trophoblast, which requires further examination. Therefore, any other options suggesting otherwise are incorrect.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.
The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.
The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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