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  • Question 1 - How should DVT during pregnancy be managed? ...

    Incorrect

    • How should DVT during pregnancy be managed?

      Your Answer: Monitoring

      Correct Answer: Dalteparin

      Explanation:

      Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.

      Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
      Other options are not indicated for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started on chemotherapy. Two days following his first treatment session, he presents to the A&E with nausea, vomiting, and myalgia. On examination, he appears clinically dehydrated. A diagnosis of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is suspected. Which of the following would be consistent with the diagnosis of TLS?

      Your Answer: Low corrected calcium

      Explanation:

      Out of the aforementioned markers, low corrected calcium is the only biochemistry result consistent with the diagnosis. All of the other markers are elevated in TLS.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. As phosphate precipitates calcium, the serum concentration of calcium becomes low. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups
      should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.

      TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
      1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
      2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old female presented with weight loss, night sweats and abdominal pain for...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female presented with weight loss, night sweats and abdominal pain for 6 months. Abdominal ultrasound scan showed a tubo-ovarian mass. What is the most likely organism, which is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Constitutional symptoms such as weight loss, evening pyrexia and night sweats are associated with Mycobacterium Tuberculosis (TB). TB can affect any system of the body and should be top in the list of differentials particularly if the patient has a history of contact with a known TB patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 21 year old university student is taken to the A&E. She lives...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old university student is taken to the A&E. She lives alone in a small apartment. She is normally fit and well but she has been complaining of difficulty with concentrating in classes. She is a one pack per day smoker and she has no significant past medical history. She is also not on any medication. She had a pulse of 123 beats per minute and her blood pressure was measured to be 182/101mmHg. She looked flushed. Chest x-ray was normal and her oxygen saturations were normal. She has typical features of carbon monoxide poisoning.   Initial investigations showed:
      • Haemoglobin 13.0 g/dL (11.5-16.5)
      • White cell count 10.3 x109/L (4-11 x109)
      • Platelets 281 x109/L (150-400 x109)
      • Serum sodium 133 mmol/L (137-144)
      • Serum potassium 3.7 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      • Serum urea 7.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      • Serum creatinine 83 μmol/L (60-110)
      Drug screen Negative Arterial blood gases on air:
      • pO2 7.9 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      • pCO2 4.7 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      • pH 7.43 (7.36-7.44)
      Which test would confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carboxy haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colourless, odourless gas produced by incomplete combustion of carbonaceous material. Clinical presentation in patients with CO poisoning ranges from headache and dizziness to coma and death. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy can significantly reduce the morbidity of CO poisoning, but a portion of survivors still suffer significant long-term neurologic and affective sequelae.

      Complaints:
      Malaise, flulike symptoms, fatigue
      Dyspnoea on exertion
      Chest pain, palpitations
      Lethargy
      Confusion
      Depression
      Impulsiveness
      Distractibility
      Hallucination, confabulation
      Agitation
      Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
      Abdominal pain
      Headache, drowsiness
      Dizziness, weakness, confusion
      Visual disturbance, syncope, seizure
      Faecal and urinary incontinence
      Memory and gait disturbances
      Bizarre neurologic symptoms, coma

      Vital signs may include the following:
      Tachycardia
      Hypertension or hypotension
      Hyperthermia
      Marked tachypnoea (rare; severe intoxication often associated with mild or no tachypnoea)
      Although so-called cherry-red skin has traditionally been considered a sign of CO poisoning, it is in fact rare.

      The clinical diagnosis of acute carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning should be confirmed by demonstrating an elevated level of carboxyhaemoglobin (HbCO). Either arterial or venous blood can be used for testing. Analysis of HbCO requires direct spectrophotometric measurement in specific blood gas analysers. Elevated CO levels of at least 3–4% in non-smokers and at least 10% in smokers are significant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      52.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old female presented to her ophthalmologist with a complaint of weakening eyesight...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female presented to her ophthalmologist with a complaint of weakening eyesight despite continued use of her corrective glasses. She also had a history of mild headaches for a few weeks. On fundoscopy, the disc had blurred margins with mild cupping and a sickle shaped scotoma in both eyes. What is the most appropriate treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Scleral buckling

      Correct Answer: Pilocarpine eye drops

      Explanation:

      Frequent change of eye glasses, scotoma, and mild cupping are suggestive of primary open angle glaucoma. This means that the anterior angle of the eye is normal but there is a problem in the trabecular meshwork, where the Schlemm’s Canal is not allowing the drainage of the aqueous humor. Pilocarpine should be given to the patient because it is a parasympathomimetic agent. It causes the ciliary muscle of the eye to contract, causing the trabecular meshwork to open up, allowing the aqueous humor to drain again.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27 year old woman presents with a 4cm bleeding ulcer on her...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old woman presents with a 4cm bleeding ulcer on her labia minora. The woman admits she is sexually active. Which lymph nodes will the ulcer drain to?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The woman seems to have a chancroid, which may or may not drain to the lymph nodes of the groin. These nodes are the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old woman presents with a 3 month history of colicky abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with a 3 month history of colicky abdominal pain after eating, and diarrhoea. She has lost 7 kg in weight over the last few months. A recent gastroscopy and colonoscopy were normal. Her past medical history includes angina and a right carotid endarterectomy at the age of 62 years. Her current medication includes aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and losartan. right carotid endarterectomy at the age of 62 years. Her current medication includes aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and losartan. Blood tests revealed: Haemoglobin (Hb) 118 g/l, Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 80 fl, White cell count (WCC) 12.3 x 109/L, Platelets 210 x 109/L, Na+ 133 mmol/L, K+ 5.2 mmol/L, Urea 8.1 mmol/L, Creatinine 134 mmol/L. Select the most appropriate further investigations.

      Your Answer: Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is 74 years old. She has had a recent gastroscopy and colonoscopy. She has a history of angina and a right CEA. She is having colicky abdominal pain after meals and weight loss, which points to a possible diagnosis of chronic mesenteric ischemia. Thus, you would want to do a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen to look for this. A 24 hour cardiac monitor would also be helpful to look for any abnormal rhythm that could be a potential aetiology of her disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma. Which of the following tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: FEV1 and FVC measurements

      Correct Answer: ANCA

      Explanation:

      Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) is one of three important fibrinoid, necrotizing, inflammatory leukocytoclastic systemic small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with antineutrophil cytoplasm antibodies (ANCAs).
      The first (prodromal) phase of Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) consists of asthma usually in association with other typical allergic features, which may include eosinophilia. During the second phase, the eosinophilia is characteristic (see below) and ANCAs with perinuclear staining pattern (pANCAs) are detected. The treatment would therefore be different from asthma. For most patients, especially those patients with evidence of active vasculitis, treatment with corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents (cyclophosphamide) is considered first-line therapy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?

      Your Answer: Increased renal secretion

      Correct Answer: Reduced renal reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Throughout pregnancy the tubular reabsorption of glucose is less effective than in the non-pregnant state, this leads to glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia?

      Your Answer: May be diagnosed radiologically at birth

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is the most common type of short-limb disproportionate dwarfism. A single gene mapped to the short arm of chromosome 4 (band 4p16.3) is responsible for achondroplasia and is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait. All people with achondroplasia have a short stature.
      Characteristic features of achondroplasia include an average-size trunk, short arms and legs with particularly short upper arms and thighs, limited range of motion at the elbows, and an enlarged head (macrocephaly) with a prominent forehead. Fingers are typically short and the ring finger and middle finger may diverge, giving the hand a three-pronged (trident) appearance. People with achondroplasia are generally of normal intelligence.
      Examination of the infant after birth shows increased front-to-back head size. There may be signs of hydrocephalus. It may be diagnosed radiographically at birth, or becomes obvious within the first year with disparity between a large skull, normal trunk length and short limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?

      Your Answer: myc

      Explanation:

      Myc is a family of regulator genes and proto-oncogenes that code for transcription factors.

      A tumor suppressor gene, or antioncogene, is a gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer. When this gene mutates to cause a loss or reduction in its function, the cell can progress to cancer, usually in combination with other genetic changes. Tumor suppressor genes can be grouped into categories including caretaker genes, gatekeeper genes, and landscaper genes; the classification schemes are continually evolving.
      Examples include:
      Gene Associated cancers
      p53 Common to many cancers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome
      APC Colorectal cancer
      BRCA1 Breast and ovarian cancer
      BRCA2 Breast and ovarian cancer
      NF1 Neurofibromatosis
      Rb Retinoblastoma
      WT1 Wilm’s tumour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old female presented in the ophthalmology ward complaining of blurry vision for...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female presented in the ophthalmology ward complaining of blurry vision for 4 days. Fundoscopy of both eyes revealed cotton wool spots in both the retinas. What is the most likely cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: CMV infection

      Explanation:

      Fundoscopy findings of cotton wool spots and retinal tears, accompanied by a history of blurred vision, are characteristic of retinitis. Cytomegalovirus is known to cause retinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Which one of the following drugs that he takes is a contraindication to him being able to receive sildenafil?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil administration to patients who are using organic nitrates, either regularly and/or intermittently, in any form is contraindicated.
      Organic nitrates and nitric oxide (NO) donors exert their therapeutic effects on blood pressure and vascular smooth muscle by the same mechanism as endogenous NO via increasing cGMP concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which one of the following is most suggestive of Wilson’s disease? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is most suggestive of Wilson’s disease?

      Your Answer: Reduced serum caeruloplasmin

      Explanation:

      In Wilson’s disease, serum caeruloplasmin is decreased. Skin pigmentation is not increased, but may become jaundiced. 24 hour urine copper excretion is increased. Hepatic copper concentration is increased. Serum copper level is also increased. Key point: high copper. Remember Kayser-Fleisher rings for the eyes in Wilson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic...

    Correct

    • A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic hepatitis B. The mothers latest results are as follows: HBsAg: Positive, HBeAg: Positive. What is the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate?

      Your Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      The Green Book guidelines report in an active infection (HBeAg+ and HBsAg+) to give the vaccine as well as immunoglobulin. If antibodies are present it is not active infection (anti-Hbe) and then in that case only the vaccine, and no immunoglobulin, would be given. The presence of HBeAg means a person is infectious and can transmit to other people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old graduate student with a history of migraines presents for examination. His...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old graduate student with a history of migraines presents for examination. His headaches are now occurring about once a week. He describes unilateral, throbbing headaches that may last over 24 hours. Neurological examination is unremarkable. Other than a history of asthma, he is fit and well. What is the most suitable therapy to reduce the frequency of migraine attacks?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      It should be noted that as a general rule 5-HT receptor agonists are used in the acute treatment of migraine whilst 5-HT receptor antagonists are used in prophylaxis. NICE produced guidelines in 2012 on the management of headache, including migraines. Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing 2 or more attacks per month. Modern treatment is effective in about 60% of patients. NICE advises either topiramate or propranolol ‘according to the person’s preference, comorbidities and risk of adverse events’. Propranolol should be used in preference to topiramate in women of child bearing age as it may be teratogenic and it can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old female with a history of osteoarthritis of the knee, obesity and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female with a history of osteoarthritis of the knee, obesity and depression, presents with neck and right arm pain. She claims that the pain is present for two months and is triggered by flexing her neck. Clinical examination reveals sensory loss over the middle finger and palm of the hand without any obvious muscle atrophy or weakness. Which nerve root is most probably affected?

      Your Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of cervical radiculopathy is degenerative disease in the cervical spine. In 80–90% of patients with cervical radiculopathy, the C5/C6 or C6/C7 motion segments are affected by degenerative disease and the nearby C6 and/or C7 nerve roots are producing the symptoms. Patients with cervical radiculopathy complain of neck pain and radiating pain in the arm sometimes combined with sensory and motor disturbances in the arm and/or hand. These symptoms are accepted as being caused by the nerve root compression. Middle finger and palm of the hand are mostly rising the suspicion for C7 nerve root and median nerve involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be...

    Incorrect

    • A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be screened for cystic fibrosis. His brother and wife had a child with cystic fibrosis so he is concerned. His wife is currently 10 weeks pregnant. When screened, he was found to be a carrier of the DF508 mutation for cystic fibrosis but despite this result, the wife declines testing. What are the chances that she will have a child with cystic fibrosis, given that the gene frequency for this mutation in the general population is 1/20?

      Your Answer: 1/4

      Correct Answer: 1/80

      Explanation:

      The chance of two carriers of a recessive gene having a child that is homozygous for that disease (that is both genes are transmitted to the child) is 25%. Therefore, the chances of this couple having a child with CF are 25%(1/4) x 1/20 = 1/80.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which...

    Correct

    • Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which of the following statements is true concerning organophosphate poisoning?

      Your Answer: Atropine is useful in the management of organophosphate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The principal action of organophosphates is the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase’s, therefore leading to the accumulation of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors (miosis, hypersalivation, sweating, diarrhoea, excessive bronchial secretions), nicotinic receptors (muscle fasciculations and tremor) and in the central nervous system (anxiety, loss of memory, headache, coma).

      Removal from the source of the organophosphate, adequate decontamination, supplemental oxygen and atropine are the initial treatment measures. Pralidoxime, an activator of cholinesterase, should be given to all symptomatic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 18 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his...

    Correct

    • A 18 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his brother had the same condition. What is the echocardiographic finding that is related to the highest risk of sudden cardiac death?

      Your Answer: Significant thickening of the interventricular septum

      Explanation:

      There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
      -family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
      -unexplained recent syncope
      -large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT ≥ 30 mm)
      -multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
      -hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone...

    Correct

    • In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone disease or bone demineralization?

      Your Answer: Dietary modification and thiazide diuretics

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic hypercalciuria presents with excess calcium in the urine without an apparent cause. Dietary modification is the first step in addressing this condition, however, because hypercalciuria increases the risk of developing renal stones and bone demineralisation, thiazide diuretics should be prescribed to increase calcium reabsorption when these symptoms are also present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the GP with tiredness and anxiety during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the GP with tiredness and anxiety during the third trimester of her second pregnancy. The Examination is unremarkable, with a BP of 110/70 mmHg and a pulse of 80. Her BMI is 24 and she has an abdomen consistent with a 31-week pregnancy. The GP decides to check some thyroid function tests. Which of the following is considered to be normal?

      Your Answer: Decreased total T4

      Correct Answer: Elevated total T4

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, profound changes in thyroid physiology occur to provide sufficient thyroid hormone (TH) to both the mother and foetus. This is particularly important during early pregnancy because the fetal thyroid starts to produce considerable amounts of TH only from approximately 20 weeks of gestation, until which time the foetus heavily depends on the maternal supply of TH. This supply of TH to the foetus, as well as increased concentrations of TH binding proteins (thyroxine-binding globulin) and degradation of TH by placental type 3 iodothyronine deiodinase, necessitate an increased production of maternal TH. This requires an intact thyroid gland and adequate availability of dietary iodine and is in part mediated by the pregnancy hormone human chorionic gonadotropin, which is a weak agonist of the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor. As a consequence, serum-free thyroxine (FT4) concentrations increase and TSH concentrations decrease from approximately the eighth week throughout the first half of pregnancy, resulting in different reference intervals for TSH and FT4 compared to the non-pregnant state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection. On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection. On examination, he was found to be confused and dyspnoeic with O2 saturation of 88%. He has a 60 pack-year smoking history. An arterial blood gas analysis reveals CO2 retention. He has been deemed unfit for admission into the intensive care unit. The physician elects to begin a doxapram infusion. Among the following statements which best fits with the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer: Epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use

      Explanation:

      The statement that fits the characteristics of doxapram is, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use. Concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation not relaxation.

      Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.

      Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
      The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.

      Drug interactions:
      Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 87-year-old woman presents with 'funny spots' affecting her vision. Over the past...

    Incorrect

    • An 87-year-old woman presents with 'funny spots' affecting her vision. Over the past week she has noticed a number of flashes and floaters in the visual field of the right eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment

      Explanation:

      Posterior vitreous detachment is thought to occur in up to 50-75% of the population over 65 years and is the most likely diagnosis here. Patients should be reviewed by an ophthalmologist to assess the risk of progressing to retinal detachment. Flashes of light (photopsia) occur in the peripheral field of vision while floaters often occur on the temporal side of the central vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being reviewed six months after she had a mastectomy following the diagnosis. Which of the following tumour markers is the most useful in monitoring her disease?

      Your Answer: CA 15-3

      Explanation:

      Tumour marker CA 15-3 is mostly associated with breast cancer.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He...

    Correct

    • An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He is hypertensive, for which he takes amlodipine. There is shortness of breath on exercise. His alcohol history is two cans of stout per day.   ECG is normal, and CXR reveals normal heart size and no signs of cardiac failure. Serum albumin is 23 g/dl; urinary albumin excretion is 7 g/24 h, with no haematuria. He has mild anaemia with a normal MCV. Total cholesterol is elevated.   What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome usually presents with the symptoms in this patient: low albumin, abnormal cholesterol, increased urinary albumin excretion, oedema, and as a consequence, hypertension as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What does Caplan's syndrome refer to? ...

    Correct

    • What does Caplan's syndrome refer to?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis

      Explanation:

      Caplan’s syndrome is defined as the association between silicosis and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). It is rare and usually diagnosed in an advanced stage of RA. It generally affects patients with a prolonged exposure to silica.

      Caplan’s syndrome presents with rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis. Originally described in coal miners with progressive massive fibrosis, it may also occur in asbestosis, silicosis and other pneumoconiosis. Chest radiology shows multiple, round, well defined nodules, usually 0.5 – 2.0 cm in diameter, which may cavitate and resemble tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision in the dark for a long time but is now worried as he is developing 'tunnel vision'. He states his grandfather had a similar problem and went blind in his 50's. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      Retinitis pigmentosa primarily affects the peripheral retina resulting in tunnel vision. Night blindness is often the initial sign. Tunnel vision occurs due to loss of the peripheral retina (occasionally referred to as funnel vision).
      Fundoscopy exam reveals black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina, and mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 3-year old boy presents with an abdominal mass. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 3-year old boy presents with an abdominal mass. Which of the following is associated with Wilm’s tumour (nephroblastoma)?

      Your Answer: Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

      Explanation:

      Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is a inherited condition associated with organomegaly, macroglossia, abdominal wall defects, Wilm’s tumour and neonatal hypoglycaemia. Wilm’s tumour is a kidney cancer that usually occurs in children. The causes are unknown, however, risk factors include race and family history. Of note, Wilm’s tumour can occur as part of the following syndromes: WAGR syndrome, Denys-Drash syndrome, and Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome and not the other listed options in this question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 63 year old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 63 year old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the A&E Department with an exacerbation. Which therapy represents the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Intravenous voriconazole

      Correct Answer: Oral glucocorticoids

      Explanation:

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.

      Treatment of ABPA aims to control inflammation and prevent further injury to your lungs. ABPA is a hypersensitivity reaction that requires treatment with oral corticosteroids. Inhaled steroids are not effective. ABPA is usually treated with a combination of oral corticosteroids and anti-fungal medications. The corticosteroid is used to treat inflammation and blocks the allergic reaction. Examples
      of corticosteroids include: prednisone, prednisolone or methylprednisolone. Inhaled corticosteroids alone – such as used for asthma treatment – are not effective in treating ABPA. Usually treatment with an oral corticosteroid is needed for months.

      The second type of therapy used is an anti-fungal medication, like itraconazole and voriconazole. These medicines help kill Aspergillus so that it no longer colonizes the airway. Usually one of these drugs is given for at least 3 to 6 months. However, even this treatment is not curative and can have side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      14
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (2/6) 33%
Haematology & Oncology (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology (3/3) 100%
Nephrology (3/4) 75%
Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Clinical Sciences (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
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