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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his son, complaining of severe chest pain. An immediate ECG shows widespread ST elevation in the anterolateral chest leads. He is given aspirin, prasugrel, morphine, metoclopramide, and nitrates and is taken to the PCI lab. The attending cardiologist recommends starting him on abciximab to prevent further ischemic events. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Direct thrombin inhibitor
Correct Answer: Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor
Explanation:Heparin activates antithrombin III, while Prasugrel inhibits P2Y12 ADP and Abciximab inhibits glycoprotein IIb/IIIa. Dabigatran and Rivaroxaban both directly inhibit thrombin and factor X, respectively.
Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.
However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.
There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man has been prescribed azathioprine for his ulcerative colitis.
Azathioprine functions by hindering the synthesis of purines, which ultimately results in the prevention of cell replication and apoptosis. The subunit that constitutes DNA comprises which components?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: One sugar, one amine and one phosphate
Explanation:A nucleotide comprises of a sugar molecule, an amine (nucleobase), and a phosphate group.
Nucleotides serve as the building blocks of DNA. They are composed of a sugar molecule, which can either be ribose (in RNA) or deoxyribose (in DNA), an amine (nucleobase), and a phosphate group. The four nucleobases found in DNA are guanine, adenine, cytosine, and thymine. In RNA, uracil replaces thymine.
The nucleobases are classified into two categories: purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (cytosine, uracil, and thymine).
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a double-stranded helical structure that stores genetic information in the nucleus. Each DNA strand is made up of nucleotide monomers, which consist of one sugar, one amine, and one phosphate. The amines, also known as nitrogenous bases, can be categorized as purines or pyrimidines. Purines have double-cyclic structures, while pyrimidines have single-ring structures. Purines and pyrimidines form hydrogen bonds that hold two polynucleotide strands together. Inhibiting the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines can cause cell death via apoptosis, making antimetabolites useful in cancer, autoimmune diseases, and post-transplant situations.
Purines can be synthesized de novo or produced via the salvage pathways. De novo synthesis involves a series of enzymatic reactions that convert ribose 5-phosphate to phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP), then inosine monophosphate (IMP), before eventually producing adenosine monophosphate (AMP) or guanosine monophosphate (GMP). Certain drugs target specific steps of this de novo synthesis pathway. The salvage pathway describes the production of purine nucleotides AMP or GMP using free guanine or adenine bases. Adenine recycling requires the enzyme adenine phosphoribosyltransferase, while guanine recycling requires hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT).
HGPRT is a clinically significant enzyme that recycles guanine and hypoxanthine to GMP and IMP, respectively. This also prevents excess uric acid production, as guanine and hypoxanthine can be metabolized to xanthine and eventually uric acid. The deficiency in the enzyme, seen in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, causes gouty arthritis and nephrolithiasis. Purine nucleotide degradation describes the breakdown of AMP, XMP, and GMP into xanthine and eventually uric acid. Xanthine oxidase converts xanthine into uric acid, and this enzyme can be blocked by allopurinol and febuxostat, which are treatment options to reduce the risk of gout attacks. Another important enzyme in purine degradation is adenosine deaminase (ADA), which breaks down adenosine to inosine. Deficiency in ADA
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman comes to the hospital complaining of chest pain, vomiting, and sweating for the past two hours. She has a medical history of hypertension and peripheral arterial disease. Despite using sublingual nitrate spray at home, the pain has not subsided. Upon admission, she is found to be tachycardic and tachypneic, but no other respiratory or cardiac abnormalities are detected. An ECG reveals ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, as well as ST segment depression in leads I and aVL. Which coronary artery is most likely affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The observed ECG alterations are indicative of an ischemic injury in the lower region of the heart. The ST depressions in leads I and aVL, which are located in the lateral wall, are common reciprocal changes that occur during an inferior myocardial infarction. Typically, the right coronary artery is the most probable site of damage in cases involving lesions in the lower wall.
Understanding Acute Coronary Syndrome
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe various acute presentations of ischaemic heart disease. It includes ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. ACS usually develops in patients with ischaemic heart disease, which is the gradual build-up of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries. This can lead to a gradual narrowing of the arteries, resulting in less blood and oxygen reaching the myocardium, causing angina. It can also lead to sudden plaque rupture, resulting in a complete occlusion of the artery and no blood or oxygen reaching the area of myocardium, causing a myocardial infarction.
There are many factors that can increase the chance of a patient developing ischaemic heart disease, including unmodifiable risk factors such as increasing age, male gender, and family history, and modifiable risk factors such as smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and obesity.
The classic and most common symptom of ACS is chest pain, which is typically central or left-sided and may radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms include dyspnoea, sweating, and nausea and vomiting. Patients presenting with ACS often have very few physical signs, and the two most important investigations when assessing a patient with chest pain are an electrocardiogram (ECG) and cardiac markers such as troponin.
Once a diagnosis of ACS has been made, treatment involves preventing worsening of the presentation, revascularising the vessel if occluded, and treating pain. For patients who’ve had a STEMI, the priority of management is to reopen the blocked vessel. For patients who’ve had an NSTEMI, a risk stratification tool is used to decide upon further management. Patients who’ve had an ACS require lifelong drug therapy to help reduce the risk of a further event, which includes aspirin, a second antiplatelet if appropriate, a beta-blocker, an ACE inhibitor, and a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old rock climber suffers a fall onto his left arm resulting in a significant haematoma in the left upper arm. Regrettably, the wound is left unattended and becomes infected. Which of the following alterations is the least probable to happen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leucopenia
Explanation:If leucopenia is present, it would be atypical and necessitate an investigation for an alternative underlying factor.
Acute inflammation is a response to cell injury in vascularized tissue. It is triggered by chemical factors produced in response to a stimulus, such as fibrin, antibodies, bradykinin, and the complement system. The goal of acute inflammation is to neutralize the offending agent and initiate the repair process. The main characteristics of inflammation are fluid exudation, exudation of plasma proteins, and migration of white blood cells.
The vascular changes that occur during acute inflammation include transient vasoconstriction, vasodilation, increased permeability of vessels, RBC concentration, and neutrophil margination. These changes are followed by leukocyte extravasation, margination, rolling, and adhesion of neutrophils, transmigration across the endothelium, and migration towards chemotactic stimulus.
Leukocyte activation is induced by microbes, products of necrotic cells, antigen-antibody complexes, production of prostaglandins, degranulation and secretion of lysosomal enzymes, cytokine secretion, and modulation of leukocyte adhesion molecules. This leads to phagocytosis and termination of the acute inflammatory response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male patient is diagnosed with appendicitis. During surgery, it is found that the appendix is located retrocaecally and is hard to reach. Which anatomical structure should be divided in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lateral peritoneal attachments of the caecum
Explanation:The most frequent position of the appendix is retrocaecal. Surgeons who have difficulty locating it during surgery can follow the tenia to the caecal pole where the appendix is situated. If it proves challenging to move, cutting the lateral caecal peritoneal attachments (similar to a right hemicolectomy) will enable caecal mobilisation and make the procedure easier.
Appendix Anatomy and Location
The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.
McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions
McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A pediatric patient with a rare immunodeficiency disorder has been included in a research investigation exploring immunoglobulins and immune system activation. The latest findings indicate that the patient is unable to activate B-cells. The researchers are curious if there is a deficiency in a specific immunoglobulin that could explain the inadequate B-cell activation.
What immunoglobulin is probably affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgD
Explanation:The immunoglobulin IgG is a crucial component of the immune system, with high levels in serum and potent activity against bacterial and viral pathogens. It plays a role in activating the complement system and is also involved in type 2 and type 3 hypersensitivity reactions.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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As an F1 in the emergency department, you encounter a 22-year-old female patient who has come in with her older sister after hitting her head during a night out. While treating the patient, her sister begins to flirt with you and even asks for your phone number. You find yourself attracted to her as well. What is the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Politely decline to give her your number, explaining it would be inappropriate to do so
Explanation:It is not appropriate to pursue a romantic relationship with a patient or someone close to them, as stated in the GMC guidelines. Contacting hospital security would be an extreme reaction. While seeking advice from a colleague is an option, it is important to remember that the guidelines still apply. For more information, please refer to the GMC guidelines mentioned below.
Maintaining Trust in Medical Practice
Maintaining trust is a crucial aspect of medical practice, and it is one of the four domains in Good Medical Practice. To maintain trust, medical professionals must show respect for their patients, treating them and their colleagues fairly and without discrimination. Honesty and integrity are also essential in building and maintaining trust.
Medical professionals must always show respect for their patients, regardless of their background or circumstances. This includes listening to their concerns, providing clear explanations, and involving them in decision-making processes. Treating patients and colleagues fairly and without discrimination is also crucial in maintaining trust. Medical professionals must ensure that they do not discriminate against patients based on their race, gender, religion, or any other factor.
Finally, honesty and integrity are essential in building and maintaining trust. Medical professionals must act with transparency, providing accurate information and avoiding any conflicts of interest. They must also be honest about their limitations and seek help when necessary.
In summary, maintaining trust is a critical aspect of medical practice. By showing respect for patients, treating them and colleagues fairly, and acting with honesty and integrity, medical professionals can build and maintain trust with their patients and the wider community.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). During an MDT meeting, it was decided that her first-line treatment will involve chemotherapy. The chosen drug is an antimetabolite that acts as a pyrimidine antagonist, inhibiting DNA polymerase and interfering with DNA synthesis.
What chemotherapy drug is most likely being prescribed based on the above mechanism of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytarabine
Explanation:Cytarabine is a medication used in chemotherapy to treat acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). It works by interfering with DNA synthesis during the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibiting DNA polymerase.
Allopurinol is a medication that inhibits xanthine oxidase, which prevents the production of uric acid. It is commonly used to treat gout, but can also be used to prevent hyperuricaemia in high-grade lymphoma and leukaemia before chemotherapy treatment.
Methotrexate works by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis. It is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and various types of cancer.
Ondansetron is an anti-emetic medication that is used to prevent nausea during chemotherapy treatment. It works by selectively blocking serotonin receptors (5-HT3) in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) of the medulla.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male presents to his GP with a three-month history of abdominal discomfort. He reports feeling bloated all the time, with increased flatulence. He occasionally experiences more severe symptoms, such as profuse malodorous diarrhoea and vomiting.
Upon examination, the GP notes aphthous ulceration and conjunctival pallor. The patient undergoes several blood tests and is referred for a duodenal biopsy.
The following test results are returned:
Hb 110 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
MCV 92 fl (80-100)
Platelets 320 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 7.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Ferritin 12 ng/mL (20 - 230)
Vitamin B12 200 ng/L (200 - 900)
Folate 2.5 nmol/L (> 3.0)
Transglutaminase IgA antibody 280 u/ml (<100)
Ca125 18 u/ml (<35)
Based on the likely diagnosis, what would be the expected finding on biopsy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Villous atrophy
Explanation:Coeliac disease is characterized by villous atrophy, which leads to malabsorption. This patient’s symptoms are typical of coeliac disease, which can affect both males and females in their 50s. Patients often experience non-specific abdominal discomfort for several months, similar to irritable bowel syndrome, and may not notice correlations between symptoms and specific dietary components like gluten.
Aphthous ulceration is a common sign of coeliac disease, and patients may also experience nutritional deficiencies such as iron and folate deficiency due to malabsorption. Histology will reveal villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia. Iron and folate deficiency can lead to a normocytic anaemia and conjunctival pallor. Positive anti-transglutaminase antibodies are specific for coeliac disease.
Ulcerative colitis is characterized by crypt abscess and mucosal ulcers, while Crohn’s disease is associated with non-caseating granulomas and full-thickness inflammation. These inflammatory bowel diseases typically present in patients in their 20s and may have systemic and extraintestinal features. Anti-tTG will not be positive in IBD. Ovarian cancer is an important differential diagnosis for females over 40 with symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman had an open appendectomy 3 days ago and has been experiencing abdominal pain and nausea since then. She has also lost her appetite and has not had a bowel movement. On examination, her abdomen is slightly distended and tender to the touch, but her incision wound looks normal. Her vital signs are stable with a normal temperature, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate. What is the most probable complication causing her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paralytic ileus
Explanation:Paralytic ileus is a frequent complication that can occur after gastrointestinal surgery, often presenting with symptoms of pseudo-obstruction such as constipation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal discomfort and distension.
Adhesional small bowel obstruction is less likely as a complication in the first few days after surgery, and typically presents with more severe symptoms such as vomiting, tenderness, and distension. It is also more commonly seen several weeks to years after abdominal surgery.
Anastomotic leak is a rare but serious complication that can occur when there is a surgical join in the bowel. It is characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and tachycardia, and requires prompt identification and treatment to prevent sepsis and organ failure.
Infection is another potential complication, but in this case, there were no signs of infection at the wound site such as erythema, pus, or induration. Symptoms of an infected wound may include abdominal pain, fever, and signs of sepsis.
Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by reduced bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.
The management of postoperative ileus typically involves nil-by-mouth initially, which may progress to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemic, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. Overall, postoperative ileus is a common complication that requires careful management to ensure a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements relating to sternocleidomastoid is false?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The external jugular vein lies posteromedially.
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located medial (i.e. deep) to the external jugular vein.
The Sternocleidomastoid Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The sternocleidomastoid muscle is a large muscle located in the neck that plays an important role in head and neck movement. It is named after its origin and insertion points, which are the sternum, clavicle, mastoid process, and occipital bone. The muscle is innervated by the spinal part of the accessory nerve and the anterior rami of C2 and C3, which provide proprioceptive feedback.
The sternocleidomastoid muscle has several actions, including extending the head at the atlanto-occipital joint and flexing the cervical vertebral column. It also serves as an accessory muscle of inspiration. When only one side of the muscle contracts, it can laterally flex the neck and rotate the head so that the face looks upward to the opposite side.
The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles, which are important landmarks for medical professionals. The anterior triangle contains several important structures, including the carotid artery, jugular vein, and thyroid gland. The posterior triangle contains the brachial plexus, accessory nerve, and several lymph nodes.
Overall, the sternocleidomastoid muscle is a crucial muscle for head and neck movement and plays an important role in the anatomy of the neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 43-year-old female patient at the breast cancer clinic who is undergoing chemotherapy treatment after a mastectomy. One of the medications she is taking is doxorubicin. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stabilises DNA-topoisomerase II complex, inhibits DNA & RNA synthesis
Explanation:Doxorubicin is an anthracycline that works by stabilizing the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibiting DNA and RNA synthesis. It is used to treat acute leukemias, Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and some solid tumors such as breast and sarcoma. However, it can cause cardiomyopathy as a potential complication. Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 antagonist that is used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Beta-blockers like bisoprolol and atenolol, on the other hand, inhibit beta-1 receptors and are used to treat hypertension, angina, heart failure, and atrial fibrillation. They are not cytotoxic medications. Cisplatin is a cytotoxic agent that inhibits cell division by causing cross-linking of DNA. It is used to treat various cancers such as testicular, lung, cervical, bladder, head and neck, and ovarian cancer. Methotrexate, another cytotoxic agent, inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and is commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. However, it can cause gastrointestinal disturbance as a side effect.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and overall sluggishness. She informs her doctor that she has been following a new diet for the past month, which involves severely limiting her calorie intake and consuming only white rice. Upon examination, the doctor observes that she has difficulty moving her eyes, an unsteady gait, and seems disoriented.
What are the organs that are typically affected by the vitamin deficiency responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brain and heart
Explanation:The brain and heart, which are highly aerobic tissues, are impacted by thiamine deficiency, leading to conditions like Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome and wet beriberi. This is because thiamine plays a crucial role in the breakdown of sugars and amino acids. On the other hand, vitamin D deficiency affects bones, while vitamin A deficiency affects the eyes.
The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her GP with a four-week history of dysphagia, anorexia and weight loss. She has had a hoarse voice for several months.
She has a 40 pack-year smoking history, starting from the age of 16 years. She drinks 30 units a week in the form of binge drinking beer over the weekend. She admits to having a very poor diet consisting mostly of fish and chips. She is noted to have a body mass index of 38kg/mÂČ.
The GP refers her under a two-week wait for suspicion of oesophageal cancer.
What risk factors contributed to her increased likelihood of developing this disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrosamines
Explanation:Exposure to nitrosamines is a known risk factor for the development of oesophageal and gastric cancer, particularly squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus. Nitrosamines are present in high levels in cigarette smoke, which is a significant source of exposure for this patient. Binge drinking of beer can also lead to high levels of nitrosamine exposure. Additionally, nitrosamines can be found in certain fried foods, such as fish and chips, as well as some cheeses.
Aflatoxin, which is produced by Aspergillus species, is another known risk factor for cancer. Specifically, it increases the risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma.
Aniline dyes, which are commonly used in industrial dyeing and the rubber industry, have been linked to an increased risk of developing transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder.
Asbestos, which was once widely used in insulation, building materials, and construction, is a well-known carcinogen that increases the risk of developing mesothelioma and bronchial cancers.
Understanding Carcinogens and Their Link to Cancer
Carcinogens are substances that have the potential to cause cancer. These substances can be found in various forms, including chemicals, radiation, and viruses. Aflatoxin, which is produced by Aspergillus, is a carcinogen that can cause liver cancer. Aniline dyes, on the other hand, can lead to bladder cancer, while asbestos is known to cause mesothelioma and bronchial carcinoma. Nitrosamines are another type of carcinogen that can cause oesophageal and gastric cancer, while vinyl chloride can lead to hepatic angiosarcoma.
It is important to understand the link between carcinogens and cancer, as exposure to these substances can increase the risk of developing the disease. By identifying and avoiding potential carcinogens, individuals can take steps to reduce their risk of cancer. Additionally, researchers continue to study the effects of various substances on the body, in order to better understand the mechanisms behind cancer development and to develop new treatments and prevention strategies. With continued research and education, it is possible to reduce the impact of carcinogens on human health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man undergoes a carotid endarterectomy and appears to be recovering well after the surgery. During a ward review after the operation, he reports experiencing hoarseness in his voice. What is the probable reason for this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Damage to the vagus
Explanation:Carotid surgery poses a risk of nerve injury, with the vagus nerve being the only one that could cause speech difficulties if damaged.
The vagus nerve is responsible for a variety of functions and supplies structures from the fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches, as well as the fore and midgut sections of the embryonic gut tube. It carries afferent fibers from areas such as the pharynx, larynx, esophagus, stomach, lungs, heart, and great vessels. The efferent fibers of the vagus are of two main types: preganglionic parasympathetic fibers distributed to the parasympathetic ganglia that innervate smooth muscle of the innervated organs, and efferent fibers with direct skeletal muscle innervation, largely to the muscles of the larynx and pharynx.
The vagus nerve arises from the lateral surface of the medulla oblongata and exits through the jugular foramen, closely related to the glossopharyngeal nerve cranially and the accessory nerve caudally. It descends vertically in the carotid sheath in the neck, closely related to the internal and common carotid arteries. In the mediastinum, both nerves pass posteroinferiorly and reach the posterior surface of the corresponding lung root, branching into both lungs. At the inferior end of the mediastinum, these plexuses reunite to form the formal vagal trunks that pass through the esophageal hiatus and into the abdomen. The anterior and posterior vagal trunks are formal nerve fibers that splay out once again, sending fibers over the stomach and posteriorly to the coeliac plexus. Branches pass to the liver, spleen, and kidney.
The vagus nerve has various branches in the neck, including superior and inferior cervical cardiac branches, and the right recurrent laryngeal nerve, which arises from the vagus anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery and hooks under it to insert into the larynx. In the thorax, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus on the aortic arch and hooks around the inferior surface of the arch, passing upwards through the superior mediastinum and lower part of the neck. In the abdomen, the nerves branch extensively, passing to the coeliac axis and alongside the vessels to supply the spleen, liver, and kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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During your placement in a neurology team, you observe a clinic session with a consultant who is seeing a 7-year-old girl and her parents. They are trying out a ketogenic diet to manage the girl's epilepsy. Can you explain what this diet entails?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-fat, low-carbohydrate
Explanation:A diet that is high in fat and low in carbohydrates is known as a ketogenic diet. It is believed that this type of diet, with a normal amount of protein, can be helpful in managing epileptic seizures in children, particularly when traditional treatments are not effective. The other dietary combinations mentioned are not associated with a ketogenic diet.
Epilepsy is a neurological condition that causes recurrent seizures. In the UK, around 500,000 people have epilepsy, and two-thirds of them can control their seizures with antiepileptic medication. While epilepsy usually occurs in isolation, certain conditions like cerebral palsy, tuberous sclerosis, and mitochondrial diseases have an association with epilepsy. It’s important to note that seizures can also occur due to other reasons like infection, trauma, or metabolic disturbance.
Seizures can be classified into focal seizures, which start in a specific area of the brain, and generalised seizures, which involve networks on both sides of the brain. Patients who have had generalised seizures may experience biting their tongue or incontinence of urine. Following a seizure, patients typically have a postictal phase where they feel drowsy and tired for around 15 minutes.
Patients who have had their first seizure generally undergo an electroencephalogram (EEG) and neuroimaging (usually a MRI). Most neurologists start antiepileptics following a second epileptic seizure. Antiepileptics are one of the few drugs where it is recommended that we prescribe by brand, rather than generically, due to the risk of slightly different bioavailability resulting in a lowered seizure threshold.
Patients who drive, take other medications, wish to get pregnant, or take contraception need to consider the possible interactions of the antiepileptic medication. Some commonly used antiepileptics include sodium valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and phenytoin. In case of a seizure that doesn’t terminate after 5-10 minutes, medication like benzodiazepines may be administered to terminate the seizure. If a patient continues to fit despite such measures, they are said to have status epilepticus, which is a medical emergency requiring hospital treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of vision difficulty. She is experiencing peripheral vision loss and feels nauseous and dizzy when attempting to look towards the sides. Two months ago, she had a tingling sensation in her left foot. During physical examination, there is a limitation in adduction of both eyes and nystagmus with lateral gaze. An MRI of the brain is scheduled.
Based on the current clinical presentation and likely diagnosis, what is the expected location of lesions on the MRI scan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paramedian area of midbrain & pons
Explanation:The medial longitudinal fasciculus is located in the midbrain and pons and connects cranial nerves III, IV, and VI to facilitate eye movements. Multiple sclerosis can affect this area, causing episodic neurological symptoms and bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia, which is characterized by the inability to adduct the affected eye and results in nystagmus and double vision.
The oculomotor nucleus, located in the midbrain, controls the movement of several eye muscles. A lesion here can cause the eye to point downward and outward, resulting in diplopia and difficulty accommodating.
The trochlear nerve nucleus, also located in the midbrain, controls the superior oblique muscle. A lesion here can cause diplopia, especially on downward gaze, and a characteristic head tilt towards the unaffected side.
The abducens nerve nucleus, located in the pons, controls the lateral rectus muscle. A lesion here can cause the affected eye to be unable to abduct, resulting in nystagmus and diplopia.
The facial nerve nucleus, located in the pons, controls the muscles of the face. A lesion here can cause facial muscle palsies.
Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.
The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male patient is referred to the upper GI clinic under the two-week rule. His daughter first noticed that his skin and eyes are becoming yellow. His past medical history includes neurofibromatosis type 1. He was recently diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus however the blood glucose has been very poorly controlled despite maximum therapy of metformin and gliclazide. On examination, he is jaundiced. There is mild discomfort in the epigastric region and the right upper quadrant. An urgent abdominal CT scan shows a mass arising from the head of the pancreas and dilated common bile duct. A subsequent endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) and biopsy confirms a pancreatic somatostatinoma.
From which cells in the pancreas is this tumour originating?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: D cells
Explanation:Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of chest pain, ankle edema, and difficulty breathing. The diagnosis is heart failure. Which of the following is the cause of the inadequate response of his stroke volume?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Preload
Explanation:The response of stroke volume in a normal heart to changes in preload is governed by Starling’s Law. This means that an increase in end diastolic volume in the left ventricle should result in a higher stroke volume, as the cardiac myocytes stretch. However, this effect has a limit, as seen in cases of heart failure where excessive stretch of the cardiac myocytes prevents this response.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Mr. Johnson, a 68-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of experiencing dizzy spells for the past month. He mentions that he started taking a long-acting nitrate for heart failure about three weeks ago.
The doctor takes his sitting blood pressure and compares it to his previous readings.
Current BP 88/72mmHg
BP two months ago 130/90mmHg
The doctor concludes that the new medication has caused hypotension in Mr. Johnson.
What molecular mechanism could be responsible for this change in blood pressure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrate causing a decrease in intracellular calcium
Explanation:The release of nitric oxide caused by nitrates can lead to a decrease in intracellular calcium. This occurs when nitric oxide activates guanylate cyclase, which converts GDP to cGMP. The resulting decrease in intracellular calcium within smooth muscle cells causes vasodilation and can result in hypotension as a side effect. Additionally, flushing may occur as a result of the vasodilation caused by decreased intracellular calcium. It is important to note that nitrates do not affect intracellular potassium or sodium, and do not cause an increase in intracellular calcium, which would lead to smooth muscle contraction and an increase in blood pressure.
Understanding Nitrates and Their Effects on the Body
Nitrates are a type of medication that can cause blood vessels to widen, which is known as vasodilation. They are commonly used to manage angina and treat heart failure. One of the most frequently prescribed nitrates is sublingual glyceryl trinitrate, which is used to relieve angina attacks in patients with ischaemic heart disease.
The mechanism of action for nitrates involves the release of nitric oxide in smooth muscle, which activates guanylate cyclase. This enzyme then converts GTP to cGMP, leading to a decrease in intracellular calcium levels. In the case of angina, nitrates dilate the coronary arteries and reduce venous return, which decreases left ventricular work and reduces myocardial oxygen demand.
However, nitrates can also cause side effects such as hypotension, tachycardia, headaches, and flushing. Additionally, many patients who take nitrates develop tolerance over time, which can reduce their effectiveness. To combat this, the British National Formulary recommends that patients who develop tolerance take the second dose of isosorbide mononitrate after 8 hours instead of 12 hours. This allows blood-nitrate levels to fall for 4 hours and maintains effectiveness. It’s important to note that this effect is not seen in patients who take modified release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet that feel like walking on pebbles. He has been generally healthy, but he recently returned from a trip to Corfu where he had a diarrheal illness. He admits to infrequently taking ecstasy but takes no other medication. On examination, he has limited movement and pain in the sacroiliac joints and soreness in the soles of his feet upon deep palpation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:After a diarrhoeal illness, the patient may be at risk of developing reactive arthritis, which is a possible diagnosis for both sacroiliitis and plantar fasciitis. However, it is less likely to be related to inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) if there is only one acute episode of diarrhoea.
Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which is located at the base of the spine where it connects to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain and stiffness in the heel and arch of the foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following accurately characterizes the mechanisms that drive type IV hypersensitivity reactions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T cell mediated response at the site of inflammation
Explanation:ACID represents the four types of hypersensitivity reactions:
– Type 1 is Anaphylactic
– Type 2 is Cytotoxic
– Type 3 is Immune complex
– Type 4 is Delayed hypersensitivity
Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by T cells and are characterized by the lack of immune complex deposition.Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A client comes to the medical facility after a surgical operation. She reports an inability to shrug her shoulder. What is the probable nerve injury causing this issue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accessory nerve
Explanation:Operations in the posterior triangle can result in injury to the accessory nerve, which can impact the functioning of the trapezius muscle.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A young adult presents to the emergency department on a Sunday morning after a night out with friends. Upon waking up, they realize they had fallen asleep with their arm draped over the back of a park bench and are now diagnosed with a radial nerve injury. Which muscle is expected to exhibit weakness during examination as a result of this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extensor carpi ulnaris
Explanation:The radial nerve supplies all extensor muscles in the upper limb, including the extensor carpi ulnaris. The only exception is the brachioradialis muscle, which is not an extensor. The median nerve is responsible for wrist and finger flexion, as well as thumb opposition, while the ulnar nerve innervates the interossei muscles.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old male is hospitalized for a heart attack and receives treatment with different medications, including aspirin. What is the enzyme that aspirin inhibits to prevent platelet aggregation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: COX
Explanation:As a non-reversible inhibitor of COX 1 and 2, aspirin blocks the conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandins, prostacyclins, and thromboxane, which are essential for platelet aggregation. Thrombin, derived from prothrombin, converts fibrinogen to fibrin, leading to platelet aggregation. While tPA converts plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down clots in the blood, aspirin does not act through this mechanism to prevent platelet aggregation.
How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.
Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A patient with intricate mental health issues and multiple medications presents at the clinic with concerns about weight gain. Which of the following medications is probable to be the cause of this side effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Weight gain is a prevalent side effect of antipsychotics.
While antipsychotics are successful in treating schizophrenia, they often lead to weight gain and an increased likelihood of developing type 2 diabetes. The most rapid weight gain typically occurs within the first six months of starting antipsychotic treatment.
In particular, Olanzapine and Clozapine are associated with a high risk of weight gain. They stimulate appetite and result in overeating, as well as disrupt glucose regulation.
Schizophrenia management guidelines were published by NICE in 2009. The guidelines recommend that first-line treatment for schizophrenia should involve oral atypical antipsychotics. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients. It is important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification due to the high rates of cardiovascular disease in schizophrenic patients, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare professionals should take necessary measures to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which nerve provides the motor supply to the brachialis muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial and musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation:The Brachialis Muscle: Anatomy and Innervation
The brachialis muscle is responsible for flexing the forearm and is located in the anterior half of the humerus and intermuscular septa. It attaches to the coronoid process and tuberosity of the ulna at the elbow joint. The main nerve supply for the brachialis muscle is the musculocutaneous nerve, with C6 and radial nerve also playing a role. Additionally, the lateral part of the brachialis muscle is supplied by branches from the C7 root. Overall, the brachialis muscle is an important muscle for forearm flexion and is innervated by multiple nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is recuperating after a challenging mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection for breast cancer. She reports experiencing shoulder discomfort, and upon examination, her scapula is visibly winged. Which of the following is the most probable root cause of the loss of innervation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serratus anterior
Explanation:Winging of the scapula is usually caused by long thoracic nerve injury, which may occur during axillary dissection. Rhomboid damage is a rare cause.
The Long Thoracic Nerve and its Role in Scapular Winging
The long thoracic nerve is derived from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7, which are located close to their emergence from intervertebral foramina. It runs downward and passes either anterior or posterior to the middle scalene muscle before reaching the upper tip of the serratus anterior muscle. From there, it descends on the outer surface of this muscle, giving branches into it.
One of the most common symptoms of long thoracic nerve injury is scapular winging, which occurs when the serratus anterior muscle is weakened or paralyzed. This can happen due to a variety of reasons, including trauma, surgery, or nerve damage. In addition to long thoracic nerve injury, scapular winging can also be caused by spinal accessory nerve injury (which denervates the trapezius) or a dorsal scapular nerve injury.
Overall, the long thoracic nerve plays an important role in the function of the serratus anterior muscle and the stability of the scapula. Understanding its anatomy and function can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat conditions that affect the nerve and its associated muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fever and night sweats that have been ongoing for several months. He reports a weight loss of 8 kg during this time and smokes half a pack of cigarettes per day. His temperature is 38 ÂșC, and he has splenomegaly on physical examination. No lymphadenopathy is observed. Laboratory results show a leukocyte count of 60 * 109, and a low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase level.
What is the most likely finding in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: t(9;22) translocation
Explanation:Genetics of Haematological Malignancies
Haematological malignancies are cancers that affect the blood, bone marrow, and lymphatic system. These cancers are often associated with specific genetic abnormalities, such as translocations. Here are some common translocations and their associated haematological malignancies:
– Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22)): This translocation is present in more than 95% of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). It results in the fusion of the Abelson proto-oncogene with the BCR gene on chromosome 22, creating the BCR-ABL gene. This gene codes for a fusion protein with excessive tyrosine kinase activity, which is a poor prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
– t(15;17): This translocation is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3) and involves the fusion of the PML and RAR-alpha genes.
– t(8;14): Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with this translocation, which involves the translocation of the MYC oncogene to an immunoglobulin gene.
– t(11;14): Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with the deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene.
– t(14;18): Follicular lymphoma is associated with increased BCL-2 transcription due to this translocation.
Understanding the genetic abnormalities associated with haematological malignancies is important for diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with polyuria. He complains that it has been affecting his social life, as he often has to go to the bathroom in the middle of social situations. The patient mentions that he notices this mostly when he drinks alcohol with his friends. He is otherwise feeling well. There is no significant past medical history and he is not on any regular medication. Clinical examinations are normal. A urine dipstick test shows no abnormalities. Blood results show no electrolyte abnormalities. The general practitioner explains that his symptoms are likely related to alcohol intake, as alcohol can cause polyuria.
What is the most likely physiological explanation for this patient's polyuria?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suppressed antidiuretic hormone secretion
Explanation:Polyuria in the patient is most likely caused by alcohol bingeing, which can suppress ADH secretion in the posterior pituitary gland. This leads to decreased water reabsorption in the kidneys and subsequent polyuria. Other potential causes such as ADH resistance from chronic lithium ingestion, diabetes insipidus, osmotic diuresis from hyperglycemia, and chronic kidney disease are less likely based on the patient’s symptoms and investigative findings.
Polyuria, or excessive urination, can be caused by a variety of factors. A recent review in the BMJ categorizes these causes by their frequency of occurrence. The most common causes of polyuria include the use of diuretics, caffeine, and alcohol, as well as diabetes mellitus, lithium, and heart failure. Less common causes include hypercalcaemia and hyperthyroidism, while rare causes include chronic renal failure, primary polydipsia, and hypokalaemia. The least common cause of polyuria is diabetes insipidus, which occurs in less than 1 in 10,000 cases. It is important to note that while these frequencies may not align with exam questions, understanding the potential causes of polyuria can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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