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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old woman had a recent acute myocardial infarction (MI).
    Which medication has been...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman had a recent acute myocardial infarction (MI).
      Which medication has been proven to reduce mortality after an MI?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction Patients

      Post-myocardial infarction (MI) patients require specific medications to prevent further cardiovascular disease and improve their overall health. One of the most important drugs to offer is a beta-blocker, such as bisoprolol, as soon as the patient is stable. This medication should be continued for at least 12 months after an MI in patients without left ventricular systolic dysfunction or heart failure, and indefinitely in those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction. While beta-blockers can reduce mortality and morbidity for up to a year after an MI, recent studies suggest that continuing treatment beyond a year may not provide any additional benefits. Other medications, such as amiodarone, isosorbide mononitrate, and nicorandil, offer symptom relief but do not reduce mortality or morbidity. Calcium-channel blockers, like diltiazem, may be considered for secondary prevention in patients without pulmonary congestion or left ventricular systolic dysfunction if beta-blockers are contraindicated or discontinued. However, current guidelines recommend offering all post-MI patients an ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy, beta-blocker, and statin to improve their long-term health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.9
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  • Question 2 - You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He was diagnosed one year ago and is currently managed with diet and exercise. His additional medication includes ramipril 10 mg once daily, atorvastatin 10 mg and aspirin 75 mg/day.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is measured at 129/75 mmHg. His low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is 2.1 mmol/l (normal range: < 2.6 mmol/l), while his haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) is 62 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol). and creatinine (Cr) is 110 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 μmol/l).
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next treatment step in this case?

      Your Answer: Commence amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Commence metformin

      Explanation:

      Medication Recommendations for a Patient with Diabetes and High Blood Pressure

      Based on the patient’s HbA1c level, it is recommended to start first-line treatment with metformin. If the patient experiences poor tolerance or side-effects from metformin, gliclazide may be considered as a second-line option. Pioglitazone may also be used in conjunction with metformin if HbA1c is poorly controlled on monotherapy. However, the patient’s blood pressure is adequately controlled, so an additional antihypertensive is not necessary. Lastly, the patient’s LDL cholesterol level suggests adequate control, and therefore, there is no need to increase the dosage of atorvastatin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of pale skin on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic guttate hypomelanosis

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in the loss of melanocytes and causing depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing between the ages of 20-30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the peripheries being the most affected. Trauma can also trigger new lesions, known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. Management of the condition includes the use of sunblock for affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up, and topical corticosteroids, which may reverse the changes if applied early. There may also be a role for topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution needs to be exercised with light-skinned patients.

      In summary, vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that can be managed with various treatments, including sunblock, make-up, and topical corticosteroids. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, and caution should be exercised when using certain treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      4.6
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  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever of one week. On evaluation, the child appears unwell, erythema of the palms and soles are noted, along with bilateral conjunctivitis. Examination of the oral cavity reveals cracked lips.
      In addition to the above findings, which one of the following features would prompt an urgent referral for echocardiography?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rash on the trunk and extremities

      Explanation:

      Clinical Features and Differential Diagnoses of Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children under the age of five. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, a patient must have a fever for at least five days and four out of five classical features: bilateral, non-exudative conjunctival injection, changes in lips and oral cavity, oedema and erythema in the hands and feet, polymorphous rash, and cervical lymphadenopathy. However, tonsillar exudate, leukopenia, neck stiffness, and small submental lymph nodes are not classical features of Kawasaki disease and should prompt consideration of other differential diagnoses. Patients with confirmed Kawasaki disease should undergo echocardiographic examination to detect potential coronary artery aneurysms. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 5 - A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with stridor and drooling. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with stridor and drooling. He is sitting forward and appears to be struggling to breathe. The clinician suspects acute epiglottitis. What is the causative organism of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type B

      Explanation:

      Haemophilus influenzae type B is the cause of acute epiglottitis. Fortunately, this disease is now rare due to the inclusion of Hib in the childhood vaccination program since 1992. Hib can also lead to other severe infections like meningitis and septicaemia. Haemophilus influenzae type A is an uncommon illness. Staphylococcus aureus is known for causing skin infections like abscesses, respiratory infections such as sinusitis, and food poisoning. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bronchitis, otitis media, and sinusitis.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old man presented to the eye clinic with double vision. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presented to the eye clinic with double vision. He has been experiencing this for the past few weeks. During examination, it was observed that he had horizontal diplopia and slight limitation of one of the extraocular muscles in his left eye. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and prostate cancer. Brain imaging revealed a metastatic lesion in the clivus that surrounds the cavernous sinus and carotid artery. Which cranial nerve palsy is responsible for the diplopia in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left sixth cranial nerve (CN6) palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the 12 Cranial Nerves and their Functions

      The human body has 12 pairs of cranial nerves that originate from the brainstem and control various functions such as movement, sensation, and reflexes. Each nerve has a specific function and pathway, and damage to any of these nerves can result in various clinical symptoms.

      Some of the important functions of these nerves include smell (olfactory nerve), sight (optic nerve), eye movement (oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), facial sensation and mastication (trigeminal nerve), facial movement and taste (facial nerve), hearing and balance (vestibulocochlear nerve), taste and swallowing (glossopharyngeal nerve), phonation and innervation of viscera (vagus nerve), head and shoulder movement (accessory nerve), and tongue movement (hypoglossal nerve).

      In addition to their primary functions, some of these nerves also play a role in various reflexes such as the corneal reflex, jaw jerk reflex, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and pathways of these cranial nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 7 - As a second-year foundation doctor in the emergency department, you come across a...

    Incorrect

    • As a second-year foundation doctor in the emergency department, you come across a thirteen-year-old patient complaining of right hip pain and a limp. The patient has a mild fever, but all other observations and blood tests are normal. An X-ray also shows no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient synovitis

      Explanation:

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common childhood condition that presents with sudden onset pain and limping. It is diagnosed by ruling out other possible causes and typically resolves on its own within 1-2 weeks. While trauma or non-accidental injury may be a factor, this would likely be revealed in the patient’s medical history. However, doctors should remain vigilant for signs of non-accidental injury. Although septic arthritis is a possibility, it is unlikely in cases where blood tests are normal. Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis (SUFE), which causes groin pain and a waddling gait, can be ruled out based on its characteristic x-ray findings.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents to the clinic with advanced cirrhosis and ascites. A recent ascitic tap revealed a protein concentration of 12 g/L and no evidence of organisms. What is the best course of action to manage the risk of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      To prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, it is recommended to administer oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin as prophylaxis to patients with ascites and protein concentration of 15 g/L or less.

      Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a type of peritonitis that typically affects individuals with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and ascites. Diagnosis is usually made through paracentesis, which involves analyzing the ascitic fluid for a neutrophil count of over 250 cells/ul. The most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture is E. coli.

      Management of SBP typically involves the administration of intravenous cefotaxime. Antibiotic prophylaxis is also recommended for patients with ascites who have previously experienced an episode of SBP or have a fluid protein level of less than 15 g/l and a Child-Pugh score of at least 9 or hepatorenal syndrome. NICE recommends prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin until the ascites has resolved.

      Alcoholic liver disease is a significant predictor of poor prognosis in SBP. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of SBP is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of hot flashes that occur randomly and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of hot flashes that occur randomly and are affecting her work as a lawyer, especially during court sessions. She is hesitant to try hormone replacement therapy due to its side effects and is seeking alternative options. What medication can be prescribed to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women experiencing vasomotor symptoms during menopause can be prescribed fluoxetine, a selective serotonin uptake inhibitor (SSRI). While clonidine is also approved for treating these symptoms, its effectiveness is not well-established and it can cause side effects such as dry mouth, sedation, depression, and fluid retention. Gabapentin is being studied for its potential to reduce hot flushes, but more research is needed.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.

      HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 73-year-old man presents with dyspnoea, cough and wheeze that have been ongoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man presents with dyspnoea, cough and wheeze that have been ongoing for a few days. He experiences similar episodes frequently, particularly during the winter months. The patient has a medical history of COPD and osteoarthritis and takes regular inhalers. During examination, an audible wheeze is detected upon chest auscultation, and the patient appears mildly dyspnoeic. A sputum sample is collected for culture, and the patient is started on a course of doxycycline and prednisolone. What is the most probable organism to be identified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The most frequent bacterial organism responsible for infective exacerbations of COPD is Haemophilus influenzae. This patient’s symptoms of dyspnoea, productive cough, and wheeze on a background of known COPD indicate an infective exacerbation. Nebulisers may be added to the treatment plan if the patient is significantly wheezy. Legionella pneumophila is not a common cause of COPD exacerbation, as it typically causes atypical pneumonia with desaturation on exertion and hyponatraemia. Moraxella catarrhalis is another organism that can cause infective exacerbations of COPD, but it is less common than Haemophilus influenzae. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of pneumonia following influenza infection and can sometimes cause infective exacerbations of COPD, but it is not as common as Haemophilus influenzae.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 11 - You are conducting the eight-week baby check on a healthy infant who was...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting the eight-week baby check on a healthy infant who was born at term. As part of health promotion, you are discussing ways to minimize the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) with the mother. She is already aware of the significance of placing the baby on its back while sleeping and does not smoke. What is the most crucial additional risk factor for SIDS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sleeping in the same bed as the baby

      Explanation:

      Studies have indicated that bed sharing is the most prominent risk factor for SIDS, followed by prone sleeping, parental smoking, hyperthermia and head covering, and prematurity.

      Understanding Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, maternal drug use, and an increased incidence during winter.

      However, there are also protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS. Breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers have been shown to be protective. In the event of a SIDS occurrence, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors and protective factors associated with SIDS can help parents and caregivers take steps to reduce the likelihood of this tragic event. By following safe sleep practices and promoting healthy habits, we can work towards reducing the incidence of SIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A mother brings in her 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. For the...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. For the past 3 weeks, the girl has been experiencing discomfort while passing urine. She has a history of 3 previous urinary tract infections. During external examination, you notice thin semitranslucent adhesions that cover the vaginal opening between the labia minora but not the urethra opening. You prescribe a course of trimethoprim. What other treatment options would you consider initiating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen cream

      Explanation:

      Labial adhesions are typically caused by low levels of estrogen and are usually treated conservatively as they often resolve during puberty. However, if there are recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen creams may be considered as a treatment option. The use of trimethoprim pessary, IV dexamethasone, and oral prednisolone are not appropriate treatments for labial adhesions. It is important to address the adhesion as leaving it untreated can lead to complications.

      Labial Adhesions: A Common Condition in Young Girls

      Labial adhesions refer to the fusion of the labia minora in the middle, which is commonly observed in girls aged between 3 months and 3 years. This condition can be treated conservatively, and spontaneous resolution usually occurs around puberty. It is important to note that labial adhesions are different from an imperforate hymen.

      Symptoms of labial adhesions include problems with urination, such as pooling in the vagina. Upon examination, thin semitranslucent adhesions covering the vaginal opening between the labia minora may be seen, which can sometimes cover the vaginal opening completely.

      Conservative management is typically appropriate for most cases of labial adhesions. However, if there are associated problems such as recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried. If this fails, surgical intervention may be necessary.

      In summary, labial adhesions are a common condition in young girls that can be managed conservatively. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation...

    Incorrect

    • As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation where a teenage patient has become uncontrollable and tried to assault a staff member. The patient is currently being restrained in the prone position on the floor, but is still struggling and attempting to break free. The restraint has been in place for approximately 10 minutes. What steps should you take in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give him rapid tranquillisation

      Explanation:

      To avoid prolonged manual restraint, it is recommended to consider rapid tranquillisation or seclusion as alternatives. Prolonged physical restraint poses both physical and emotional risks for both patients and staff. Handcuffs and other mechanical restraints should only be used in exceptional circumstances in high-secure settings. It is important to avoid releasing an agitated patient from restraint as it could be dangerous for staff and other patients. Patients should not be carried during any kind of restraint.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman with established epilepsy has recently had her medication changed at...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with established epilepsy has recently had her medication changed at her epilepsy clinic. She now reports abdominal pain, weight loss and feeling anxious all the time.
      Which of the following medications is likely to have been started?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levetiracetam (Keppra®)

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Anticonvulsants: A Comparison of Five Medications

      Anticonvulsants are commonly used to treat seizures and other neurological conditions. However, they often come with side effects that can impact a patient’s quality of life. Here, we compare the common side effects of five anticonvulsant medications: levetiracetam, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenytoin, and sodium valproate.

      Levetiracetam (Keppra®) is known for causing gastrointestinal symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, dyspepsia, nausea, and vomiting. It can also lead to anorexia and anxiety.

      Carbamazepine is rarely associated with abdominal pain and anorexia, but it can cause other gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, constipation, or diarrhea. It is not known to cause anxiety.

      Lamotrigine (Lamictal®) can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, but it is not known to cause abdominal pain, weight loss, or anxiety.

      Phenytoin is commonly associated with anorexia, constipation, nausea, and vomiting. It is not known to cause abdominal pain or anxiety, but it can lead to serious blood disorders such as aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia.

      Sodium valproate (Epilim®) is commonly associated with diarrhea, dyspepsia, nausea, and weight gain. It can also cause aggression and behavioral changes, ataxia and tremors, and transient hair loss.

      It is important to note that these are not the only side effects associated with these medications. Patients should always consult with their healthcare provider about the potential risks and benefits of any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 15 - A senior patient presents with congestive heart failure.
    Which of the following drugs may...

    Incorrect

    • A senior patient presents with congestive heart failure.
      Which of the following drugs may be effective in reducing mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure Management

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve outcomes. Two drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure are angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta blockers. Aspirin, on the other hand, is used to reduce the risk of mortality and further cardiovascular events following myocardial infarction and stroke, but it has no role in heart failure alone.

      Digoxin can be used for short-term rate control for atrial fibrillation, but long-term use should be approached with caution as it may lead to increased mortality. Furosemide is useful in managing symptoms and edema in heart failure, but it has not been shown to have a mortality benefit.

      Lidocaine and other antiarrhythmic agents are only useful when there is arrhythmia associated with heart failure and should only be used with specialist support for ventricular arrhythmias in an unstable patient. Standard drugs such as digitalis and diuretics have not been shown to improve survival rates.

      Studies have shown that reducing left ventricular afterload prolongs survival rates in congestive heart failure. Vasodilators such as ACE inhibitors are effective in inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, affecting coronary artery tone and arterial wall hyperplasia. There is also evidence for the use of beta blockers in heart failure management.

      In conclusion, proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with heart failure. ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, and vasodilators have been shown to reduce mortality rates, while other drugs such as aspirin, digoxin, and furosemide have specific roles in managing symptoms and associated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 16 - A 49-year-old woman comes in with worries about her elbow pain after spending...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman comes in with worries about her elbow pain after spending the weekend painting her house. During examination, there is noticeable pain around the lateral epicondyle, leading to a possible diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis. Which of the following movements would typically exacerbate the pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis is aggravated when the wrist is extended or supinated against resistance while the elbow is extended.

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.

      To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released from the hospital after fracturing her hip. The patient is worried that she may have inherited osteoporosis and wants to know what steps she should take. She has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medications, and has never experienced any fractures. She is a smoker, consuming approximately 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 3-4 units of alcohol daily.

      What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Due to her positive family history, smoking, and excess alcohol intake, this woman is at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis. Therefore, it is recommended that she undergo a FRAX assessment without delay, rather than waiting until the age of 65 as typically recommended for women without such risk factors.

      Assessing the Risk of Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012 for assessing the risk of fragility fracture. Women aged 65 years and older and men aged 75 years and older should be assessed, while younger patients should be assessed in the presence of risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, history of falls, and low body mass index.

      NICE recommends using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors.

      If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement, the results will be categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the FRAX assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorised into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. Patients assessed using QFracture are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old man with known type I diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with known type I diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and vomiting.
      On examination, he appears dehydrated. He is started on an insulin infusion. His blood tests are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH (venous) 7.23 7.35–7.45
      Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) 2.1 kPa 4.5–6.0 kPa
      Partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) 11.2 kPa 10–14 kPa
      Sodium (Na+) 135 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 13 mmol/l 22–28 mmol/l
      Glucose 22.4 mmol/l < 11.1 mmol/l
      Ketones 3.6 mmol/l < 0.6 mmol/l
      What should happen to his regular insulin while he is treated?
      Select the SINGLE best treatment from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue long-acting insulin and stop short-acting insulin

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Continuing Long-Acting Insulin and Stopping Short-Acting Insulin

      When a patient presents with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is important to provide prompt treatment. This involves fluid replacement with isotonic saline and an intravenous insulin infusion at 0.1 unit/kg per hour. While this takes place, the patient’s normal long-acting insulin should be continued, but their short-acting insulin should be stopped to avoid hypoglycemia.

      In addition to insulin and fluid replacement, correction of electrolyte disturbance is essential. Serum potassium levels may be high on admission, but often fall quickly following treatment with insulin, resulting in hypokalemia. Potassium may need to be added to the replacement fluids, guided by the potassium levels. If the rate of potassium infusion is greater than 20 mmol/hour, cardiac monitoring is required.

      Overall, the key to successful treatment of DKA is a careful balance of insulin, fluids, and electrolyte replacement. By continuing long-acting insulin and stopping short-acting insulin, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 19 - As part of the yearly evaluation, you are assessing a 70-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • As part of the yearly evaluation, you are assessing a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In the previous year, he experienced three COPD exacerbations, one of which required hospitalization. During the current visit, his chest sounds clear, and his oxygen saturation level is 94% while breathing room air. As per NICE guidelines, what treatment options should you suggest to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A home supply of prednisolone and an antibiotic

      Explanation:

      According to the 2010 NICE guidelines, patients who experience frequent exacerbations of COPD should be provided with a home supply of corticosteroids and antibiotics. It is important to advise the patient to inform you if they need to use these medications and to assess if any further action is necessary. Antibiotics should only be taken if the patient is producing purulent sputum while coughing.

      NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old male comes to the neurology department with complaints of weakness. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male comes to the neurology department with complaints of weakness. He initially experienced weakness in his legs a few days ago, which has now progressed to involve his arms. Additionally, he is experiencing shooting pains in his back and limbs. About four weeks ago, he had a brief episode of vomiting and diarrhea. Upon examination, reduced tendon reflexes and weakness are confirmed.

      What test results would you anticipate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abnormal nerve conduction studies

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre syndrome can be diagnosed with the help of nerve conduction studies. The presence of ascending weakness after an infection is a common symptom of this syndrome. Most patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome show abnormal nerve conduction study results. If there are cord signal changes, it may indicate spinal cord compression or a spinal lesion. Inflammatory infiltrates on muscle biopsy are typically observed in patients with myositis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by the presence of anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the CSF protein level is usually elevated, not decreased.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.

      Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.

      To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 78-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a painless lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a painless lump in her groin that she noticed 2 weeks ago. The lump has grown slightly since she first noticed it. On examination, a hard lump is palpable on her left labia majora and she has left inguinal lymphadenopathy. She has no significant past medical history and no known allergies.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vulval carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A possible diagnosis for an older woman with a labial lump and inguinal lymphadenopathy is vulval carcinoma, especially if the lump is firm and has grown rapidly over a short period of time. Risk factors for this condition include advanced age, smoking, and HPV infection. Bartholin’s cyst, condylomata lata, lipoma, and sebaceous cyst are less likely diagnoses, as they do not typically present with the same symptoms or risk factors as vulval carcinoma.

      Understanding Vulval Carcinoma

      Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.

      There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papilloma virus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 22 - Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the following is the most frequent cause of such infections?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inadequate hand disinfection

      Explanation:

      Preventing Hospital-Acquired Wound Infections: Common Causes and Solutions

      Hospital-acquired wound infections are a serious concern for patients and healthcare providers alike. While all wounds are contaminated by microbes, proper hygiene and disinfection can greatly reduce the risk of infection. However, there are several common causes of hospital-acquired wound infections that must be addressed to prevent their occurrence.

      The most frequent cause of nosocomial wound infection is inadequate hand disinfection. Hands are a major source of transmission for hospital infections, and compliance with handwashing protocols can be suboptimal for a variety of reasons. These include lack of accessible equipment, insufficient knowledge of staff about risks and procedures, and too long a duration recommended for washing.

      Inadequate instrument disinfection is another common cause of hospital-acquired wound infections. Different levels of disinfection are recommended for patient equipment depending on the type of care, with surgical instruments presenting a critical level of risk. Sterilisation or high-level disinfection is necessary to minimise the risk of infection.

      While strict schedules for cleaning and disinfection of rooms are in place in hospitals, inadequate room disinfection is still a concern. However, this is not the main cause of surgical wound infection.

      The use of wrong disinfectants during skin disinfection can also contribute to hospital-acquired wound infections. Specific hand disinfectants are used for skin disinfection, including alcoholic rubs and emollient gels.

      Finally, too frequent skin disinfection can lead to the destruction of the normal skin flora, which can increase the risk of infection. Disinfecting agents must be chosen with care to avoid sensitisation or irritation of the skin.

      In conclusion, preventing hospital-acquired wound infections requires a multifaceted approach that addresses the common causes of infection. Proper hand hygiene, instrument disinfection, and skin disinfection are all essential components of a comprehensive infection prevention program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 23 - As a foundation year two doctor on the surgical admissions unit, you encounter...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation year two doctor on the surgical admissions unit, you encounter a thirty-year-old patient complaining of right upper abdominal pain and anorexia. Upon examination, you find an overweight Caucasian female with a soft abdomen that is tender in the right upper quadrant. Her observations indicate fever and mild tachycardia. Blood tests reveal a significantly elevated bilirubin level (87 umol/L). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain is known as Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which indicates an infection of the bile ducts. This patient is likely suffering from ascending cholangitis. Cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, can also cause right upper quadrant pain and may precede ascending cholangitis. While gallstones are a common cause of cholangitis, they can be asymptomatic and are not a diagnosis on their own. Pregnancy is not a likely cause of right upper quadrant pain. Gilbert’s syndrome typically causes mild jaundice only during times of stress and is usually asymptomatic.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 24 - When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United...

    Incorrect

    • When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between fifth and ninth day of life

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: Identifying Potential Health Risks in Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a routine procedure performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. The test involves collecting a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for potential health risks. Currently, there are nine conditions that are screened for, including congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to the stress she experienced during a recent business trip to Italy. Since then, she has been feeling feverish and tired, and her cough started two days ago. She has no medical history, but she admits to having had unprotected sex recently. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in both lung bases. Her blood tests are as follows:

      - White blood cell count: 12 * 10^9/l
      - Hemoglobin: 135 g/l
      - C-reactive protein: 145 mg/l
      - Sodium: 125 mmol/l
      - Potassium: 4.7 mmol/l
      - Alanine transaminase: 87 IU/l

      What is the causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophilia

      Explanation:

      Legionella is characterized by typical symptoms such as flu-like illness, dry cough, confusion, and relative bradycardia. Blood tests may reveal hyponatremia.

      Outbreaks of Legionella pneumonia often occur in communities with shared water supplies, as hinted at in the question with the reference to the recent conference in Spain. This type of pneumonia frequently affects both lungs, as seen in the question. Additionally, Legionella can cause abnormal liver function tests and hyponatremia, which can lead to confusion in some cases, although this is not mentioned in the question.

      The mention of unprotected sex is a distractor, as it would take years for HIV infection to make a person susceptible to infections like TB and Pneumocystis jiroveci.

      Legionnaire’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Legionnaire’s disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium, which is commonly found in water tanks. It is not transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. Other features include relative bradycardia, hyponatraemia, and deranged liver function tests. Pleural effusion is seen in around 30% of patients.

      Diagnosis of Legionnaire’s disease can be done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-ray features of the disease are non-specific but may include patchy consolidation with a mid-to-lower zone predominance.

      Compared to Mycoplasma pneumonia, Legionnaire’s disease has distinct differences in symptoms and diagnostic methods. It is important to be aware of the potential for Legionnaire’s disease in cases where water tanks or air-conditioning systems may be involved, as early diagnosis and treatment can lead to better outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 26 - A 72-year-old male presents to the surgical assessment unit with lower abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents to the surgical assessment unit with lower abdominal pain and inability to pass urine for the past 12 hours. He has a palpable bladder and tenderness in the suprapubic region. On PR examination, his prostate is smooth and not enlarged. He has a medical history of high blood pressure, depression, neuropathic pain, and diabetes. What could be the probable cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Urinary retention can be caused by Amitriptyline due to its anticholinergic activity. The patient, who has a small prostate on PR examination, is currently experiencing urinary retention. None of the other medications are known to cause this condition.

      Drugs that can cause urinary retention

      Urinary retention is a condition where a person is unable to empty their bladder completely. This can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Some drugs that may lead to urinary retention include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline, anticholinergics such as antipsychotics and antihistamines, opioids, NSAIDs, and disopyramide. These drugs can affect the muscles that control the bladder, making it difficult to urinate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 27 - What is the most appropriate next step in managing a 40-year-old woman who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate next step in managing a 40-year-old woman who presents with yellowing of the skin and eyes, fatigue, and intense itching, and has a history of coeliac disease? Her test results show elevated bilirubin, positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies, and normal kidney function.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Biliary Cholangitis

      Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is an inflammatory condition that affects middle-aged, overweight women. The most common symptoms are fatigue and pruritis, along with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is the preferred treatment for PBC as it slows disease progression. Cholestyramine can effectively control pruritis, but it does not affect overall mortality in PBC. Liver transplantation is reserved for cases where medical alternatives have failed. Loratadine is not indicated for PBC, and prednisolone is used in the treatment of autoimmune hepatitis, which is a different condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old male visits his primary care clinic complaining of progressive dyspnea on...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male visits his primary care clinic complaining of progressive dyspnea on exertion and a dry cough. He has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. He denies chest pain, weight loss, or hemoptysis. In the past, he was prescribed bronchodilators for COPD, but they did not alleviate his symptoms.

      During the examination, the physician detects fine crackles at the lung bases bilaterally, and the patient has significant finger clubbing. The physician orders a chest X-ray, pulmonary function tests, and refers him urgently to a respiratory clinic.

      What pulmonary function test pattern would you expect to see based on the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FEV1:FVC normal or increased, TLCO reduced

      Explanation:

      In cases of IPF, the TLCO (gas transfer test) is reduced, indicating a restrictive lung disease that results in a reduced FEV1 and reduced FVC. This leads to a normal or increased FEV1:FVC ratio, which is a distinguishing factor from obstructive lung diseases like COPD or asthma. Therefore, the correct statement is that in IPF, the FEV1:FVC ratio is normal or increased, while the TLCO is reduced.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, the results are as follows:
      TSH <0.05 mU/l
      Free T4 25 pmol/l
      What is the leading cause of this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis is primarily caused by Graves’ disease in the UK, while the other conditions that can lead to thyrotoxicosis are relatively rare.

      Understanding Thyrotoxicosis: Causes and Investigations

      Thyrotoxicosis is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. Graves’ disease is the most common cause, accounting for 50-60% of cases. Other causes include toxic nodular goitre, subacute thyroiditis, post-partum thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, amiodarone therapy, and contrast administration. The latter is rare but can occur in elderly patients with pre-existing thyroid disease. Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should not receive iodinated contrast medium as it can result in hyperthyroidism developing over 2-12 weeks due to a large iodine load to the thyroid.

      Investigations for thyrotoxicosis include measuring TSH, which is typically low, and T4 and T3, which are elevated. Thyroid autoantibodies may also be tested. Isotope scanning may be done in some cases, but other investigations are not routinely performed. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in a Venn diagram. Understanding the causes and investigations of thyrotoxicosis is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old female patient contacts her GP seeking guidance on folic acid supplements....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient contacts her GP seeking guidance on folic acid supplements. She and her partner are attempting to conceive, and she has never been pregnant before. She is in good health overall, with a history of asthma that she manages with a salbutamol inhaler as needed. Her BMI is 31 kg/m2, and she has no notable family medical history. What recommendations should she receive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5mg folic acid from now until the 12th week of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with obesity (BMI >30 kg/m2) are recommended to take a high dose of 5mg folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. This is because obesity puts them at a higher risk of neural tube defects. The suggestion of taking 400 micrograms would be for women who are not at a higher risk. Therefore, the other answers provided are incorrect.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
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