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  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis presents with proteinuria during her yearly check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis presents with proteinuria during her yearly check-up. Which medication is most commonly linked to the occurrence of proteinuria?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Correct Answer: Gold

      Explanation:

      Causes of Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by the presence of protein in the urine, low levels of protein in the blood, high levels of cholesterol, and swelling in different parts of the body. The causes of nephrotic syndrome can be classified into primary glomerulonephritis, systemic disease, drugs, and others.

      Primary glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome, accounting for around 80% of cases. The different types of primary glomerulonephritis include minimal change glomerulonephritis, membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, and membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.

      Systemic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, systemic lupus erythematosus, and amyloidosis can also cause nephrotic syndrome, accounting for about 20% of cases. Certain drugs like gold and penicillamine can also lead to the development of nephrotic syndrome.

      Other causes of nephrotic syndrome include congenital factors, neoplasia such as carcinoma, lymphoma, leukaemia, myeloma, and infections like bacterial endocarditis, hepatitis B, and malaria.

      The diagram shows the different types of glomerulonephritis and how they typically present. Understanding the underlying cause of nephrotic syndrome is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 2 - A 23-year-old man comes to the out of hours GP complaining of sudden...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man comes to the out of hours GP complaining of sudden onset left sided scrotal pain, lower abdominal pain and vomiting. He mentions having symptoms of coryza for the past three days. During the examination, the left testicle is found to be swollen, tender and high riding.
      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing the presumed diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Give ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly and doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10 days

      Explanation:

      Testicular Torsion and Epididymo-orchitis

      Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that occurs when the testicle twists on the spermatic cord, leading to a compromised blood supply to the testicle. In such cases, immediate medical attention is required. Antibiotic treatment may be necessary if epididymo-orchitis is suspected, but only after torsion has been ruled out. These treatments may be appropriate if a sexually transmitted organism is suspected. In addition to medication, supportive care such as scrotal elevation and pain relief may help alleviate symptoms of epididymo-orchitis. It is important to note that the Alvarado score, a clinical scoring system used to diagnose appendicitis, is not applicable in this case. Proper diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial in managing testicular torsion and epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 3 - A Jewish family brings their 6-month-old son to their GP to discuss circumcision...

    Incorrect

    • A Jewish family brings their 6-month-old son to their GP to discuss circumcision and whether there are any medical reasons why it should not be performed for religious purposes. What congenital conditions would be considered a contraindication for circumcision in this case?

      Your Answer: Imperforate anus

      Correct Answer: Hypospadias

      Explanation:

      Hypospadias is the only condition that would prevent circumcision in infancy as the foreskin is necessary for the repair process. This means that if a child with hypospadias were to undergo circumcision for religious reasons, it would complicate the repair process as grafting from another part of the body would be required. On the other hand, balanitis xerotica obliterans and phimosis are common reasons for medical circumcision in children in the UK. A horseshoe kidney and an imperforate anus would not affect circumcision for religious reasons and would not be a contraindication.

      Understanding Circumcision

      Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.

      The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.

      Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of an enlarged left testicle....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of an enlarged left testicle. The male GP takes a detailed history and requests to examine the genital area, offering a chaperone. The patient agrees, and a female nurse practitioner acts as a chaperone. The GP conducts the examination, speaking only when necessary. Following the examination, he documents the chaperone's acceptance, last name, and role.

      Has anything been done incorrectly?

      Your Answer: Recording of only the last name and role

      Explanation:

      It is important to document the full name and role of a chaperone when they are used during an intimate or intrusive examination. The chaperone should be impartial and not related to the patient. Patients are allowed to express a preference for the gender of the chaperone. During the examination, it is recommended that the GP only speaks if necessary.

      GMC Guidelines on Intimate Examinations and Chaperones

      The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided comprehensive guidance on how to conduct intimate examinations and the role of chaperones in the process. Intimate examinations refer to any procedure that a patient may consider intrusive or intimate, such as examinations of the genitalia, rectum, and breasts. Before performing such an examination, doctors must obtain informed consent from the patient, explaining the procedure, its purpose, and the extent of exposure required. During the examination, doctors should only speak if necessary, and patients have the right to stop the examination at any point.

      Chaperones are impartial individuals who offer support to patients during intimate examinations and observe the procedure to ensure that it is conducted professionally. They should be healthcare workers who have no relation to the patient or doctor, and their full name and role should be documented in the medical records. Patients may also wish to have family members present for support, but they cannot act as chaperones as they are not impartial. Doctors should not feel pressured to perform an examination without a chaperone if they are uncomfortable doing so. In such cases, they should refer the patient to a colleague who is comfortable with the examination.

      It is not mandatory to have a chaperone present during an intimate examination, and patients may refuse one. However, the offer and refusal of a chaperone should be documented in the medical records. If a patient makes any allegations against the doctor regarding the examination, the chaperone can be called upon as a witness. In cases where a patient refuses a chaperone, doctors should explain the reasons for offering one and refer the patient to another service if necessary. The GMC guidelines aim to ensure that intimate examinations are conducted with sensitivity, respect, and professionalism, while also protecting the interests of both patients and doctors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 5 - You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with lower urinary tract symptoms. He presented...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with lower urinary tract symptoms. He presented six months ago with complaints of weak urinary stream, hesitancy, intermittency, terminal dribbling, and nocturia ×2. He denies any history of visible haematuria or erectile dysfunction. Urine dipstick testing is normal, his eGFR is stable at 84, and his PSA is 0.9 ng/mL. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is less than 30 g in size with no sinister features.

      Despite conservative management and modification of his fluid intake, his symptoms persist and he has returned seeking advice on taking a tablet. His international prostate symptom score was 17 at his initial visit and is now 15. He reports that his quality of life is affected by his urinary symptoms and he is unhappy. He is otherwise healthy and not taking any other medications.

      What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological approach for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oxybutynin 5 mg BD

      Correct Answer: Finasteride 5 mg OD and oxybutynin 5 mg BD

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Drug Treatment of Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms

      NICE recommends drug treatment for bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) if conservative measures fail. For moderate to severe LUTS, an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin should be offered. Patients should be reviewed after four to six weeks until stable. If LUTS is accompanied by an enlarged prostate or a high PSA level, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor like finasteride should be prescribed. Anticholinergic drugs like oxybutynin can be used to manage storage symptoms. For patients with moderate to severe LUTS and an enlarged prostate or high PSA level, both an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor can be started. In the case of a patient with moderate LUTS, a prostate less than 30 g, and a PSA level less than 1.4, starting an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin and reviewing the patient in four to six weeks is the most appropriate approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 6 - What is an accurate epidemiological statement about prostate cancer? ...

    Correct

    • What is an accurate epidemiological statement about prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: Lifetime risk of a prostate cancer diagnosis in the UK is 1 in 250 men

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer in England and Wales

      Approximately 10,000 men die of prostate cancer each year in England and Wales, making it the second leading cause of cancer deaths in men after lung cancer. The lifetime risk of a prostate cancer diagnosis in the UK is 1 in 14 men. However, one of the difficulties with investigating and diagnosing prostate cancer in older men is that as we age, most men have detectable prostate cancer. But, three-quarters of them will grow older and die of something else, and the prostate cancer itself will not impact their life expectancy.

      The five-year survival rate from prostate cancer in the UK is 81%, which is relatively high compared to other types of cancer. However, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving survival rates. Therefore, it is important for men to be aware of the symptoms of prostate cancer and to undergo regular screenings, especially if they are at higher risk due to factors such as age, family history, or ethnicity. By detecting prostate cancer early, men can receive timely treatment and improve their chances of survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. He has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. He has been experiencing urinary urgency and occasional incontinence for the past few months. He reports no difficulty with urinary flow, hesitancy, or straining. Prostate examination and urinalysis reveal no abnormalities.

      What medication is most likely to provide relief for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Alpha blocker

      Correct Answer: Antimuscarinic

      Explanation:

      Patients with an overactive bladder can benefit from the use of antimuscarinic drugs. Oxybutynin, tolterodine, and darifenacin are some examples of such drugs that can be prescribed. However, before resorting to medication, it is important to discuss conservative measures with the patient and offer bladder training as an option.

      Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a thorough examination, including urinalysis, digital rectal examination, and possibly a PSA test. The patient should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.

      For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be considered. For mixed symptoms of voiding and storage, an antimuscarinic drug may be added if alpha-blockers are not effective.

      For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered. If symptoms persist, antimuscarinic drugs such as oxybutynin, tolterodine, or darifenacin may be recommended. If first-line drugs fail, mirabegron may be considered. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night and furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon may be helpful. Desmopressin may also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 8 - Care should always be taken when combining diuretics. However, which one of the...

    Incorrect

    • Care should always be taken when combining diuretics. However, which one of the following combinations is always contraindicated?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide + triamterene

      Correct Answer: Amiloride + spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Potassium-sparing diuretics are classified into two types: epithelial sodium channel blockers (such as amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (such as spironolactone and eplerenone). However, caution should be exercised when using these drugs in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation since these drugs often cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct and are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, relatively large doses of spironolactone (100 or 200 mg) are often used to manage secondary hyperaldosteronism.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 9 - A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two weeks, blood tests are conducted and no other medication changes have been made. The patient is examined and found to be adequately hydrated. As per NICE guidelines, what is the maximum acceptable rise in creatinine levels after initiating an ACE inhibitor?

      Your Answer: No increase

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man presented with bloody discolouration of his urine over the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presented with bloody discolouration of his urine over the past few days, following a recent respiratory tract infection. Urine testing confirmed haematuria and proteinuria, which had also been noted on two previous occasions after respiratory tract infections. He was referred for renal opinion and a biopsy revealed a focal proliferative glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Minimal-change disease

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      IgA nephropathy is a common type of glomerulonephritis that is characterized by the presence of mesangial IgA deposits. This condition is often triggered by an abnormal immune response to viral or other antigens, resulting in the formation of macromolecular aggregates that accumulate in the glomerular mesangium. IgA nephropathy typically presents with macroscopic hematuria and may be associated with upper respiratory or other infections. It is more common in men and tends to affect children over 10 years of age and young adults. Treatment may involve high-dose prednisolone or immunosuppressive drugs, but some patients may eventually develop end-stage renal failure.

      Goodpasture’s syndrome is an autoimmune disease that can cause diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage, glomerulonephritis, acute kidney injury, and chronic kidney disease. With aggressive treatment, the prognosis has improved, with a one-year survival rate of 70-90%.

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a condition that shares similarities with IgA nephropathy and may be a variant of the same disease. About 20% of patients with IgA nephropathy develop impaired renal function, and 5% develop end-stage renal failure.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults and may present as nephritic syndrome or hypertension. It is characterized by widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane and may be idiopathic or due to systemic lupus erythematosus, hepatitis B, malignancy, or the use of certain medications. About 30-50% of patients with membranous glomerulonephritis progress to end-stage kidney disease.

      Minimal change nephropathy is responsible for most cases of nephrotic syndrome in children under 5 years of age and can also occur in adults. It is called minimal change because the only detectable abnormality is fusion and deformity of the foot processes under the electron microscope. Prognosis is generally good for the majority of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 11 - You see a 75-year-old man for his annual medication review. He takes ramipril...

    Correct

    • You see a 75-year-old man for his annual medication review. He takes ramipril for chronic renal impairment but his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) has fallen by 20% since he was last seen 3 months ago. You repeat the test and the results are confirmed. He reports feeling well in himself and apart from getting up several times during the night to pass urine and a reduced urinary stream he reports no other symptoms. Abdominal examination is normal but an abdominal ultrasound shows bilateral hydronephrosis.
      What is the most likely cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Bladder outflow obstruction

      Explanation:

      Urinary Obstruction: Causes and Symptoms

      Urinary obstruction can occur due to various congenital and acquired conditions. Congenital ureteric strictures and urethral valve obstruction are common in infants, while bladder stones can cause bilateral obstructive symptoms in adults. Urethrocele is a condition seen in women, while prostatic enlargement is a common cause of bladder outflow obstruction in men. Acquired urethral strictures can also lead to similar symptoms. Backpressure in the urinary tract can cause renal damage, leading to palpable distended bladder and other complications. It is important to identify the underlying cause of urinary obstruction to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 12 - One of your elderly patients with chronic kidney disease stage 4 has undergone...

    Correct

    • One of your elderly patients with chronic kidney disease stage 4 has undergone his annual blood tests:

      Hb 9.4 g/dl
      Platelets 166 * 109/l
      WBC 6.7 * 109/l

      He is currently receiving treatment from the renal team and has been prescribed erythropoietin. What is the target haemoglobin level for this patient?

      Your Answer: 10-12 g/dl

      Explanation:

      The target for haemoglobin levels in CKD patients with anaemia should be between 10-12 g/dl.

      Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) may develop anaemia due to various factors, with reduced erythropoietin levels being the most significant. This type of anaemia is usually normochromic normocytic and becomes apparent when the GFR is less than 35 ml/min. Other causes of anaemia should be considered if the GFR is greater than 60 ml/min. Anaemia in CKD can lead to the development of left ventricular hypertrophy, which is associated with a three-fold increase in mortality in renal patients.

      There are several causes of anaemia in renal failure, including reduced erythropoietin levels, reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow, reduced absorption of iron, anorexia/nausea due to uraemia, reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis), blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function, and stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss.

      To manage anaemia in CKD, the 2011 NICE guidelines suggest a target haemoglobin of 10-12 g/dl. Determination and optimisation of iron status should be carried out before the administration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). Oral iron should be offered for patients who are not on ESAs or haemodialysis. If target Hb levels are not reached within three months, patients should be switched to IV iron. Patients on ESAs or haemodialysis generally require IV iron. ESAs such as erythropoietin and darbepoetin should be used in those who are likely to benefit in terms of quality of life and physical function.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) because of incontinence. He...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) because of incontinence. He only rarely visits the GP. On examination, his bladder is palpable. During the conversation, he appears to have mild cognitive impairment.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Benign prostatic hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Overflow Incontinence: Causes and Risk Factors

      Overflow incontinence is a condition where the bladder is always full, causing frequent leakage of urine. This is commonly caused by bladder outlet obstruction, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostate cancer, or urethral stricture. However, it can also be caused by lesions affecting sacral segments or peripheral autonomic fibers, resulting in an atonic bladder with loss of sphincter coordination.

      Medications should also be considered as a possible cause of new-onset urinary incontinence, especially in elderly individuals who often take multiple medications. Drugs with anticholinergic effects, α adrenergic agonists, and calcium channel blockers can cause chronic retention, either alone or by exacerbating other causes.

      Severe cognitive impairment can increase the risk of urinary incontinence and worsen other causes. While mild cognitive impairment is unlikely to be the main cause, it should still be considered as a contributing factor.

      Understanding the causes and risk factors of overflow incontinence can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old man has had several cystoscopies for the transurethral resection of superficial...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has had several cystoscopies for the transurethral resection of superficial bladder tumours and for regular surveillance. He complains of urinary frequency, a poor urinary stream, spraying of urine and dribbling at the end of micturition. These symptoms he has noticed for about a year. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is smooth, soft and normal in size. His prostate-specific antigen level is 2 ng/ml.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urethral stricture

      Explanation:

      Urethral Stricture: Causes, Complications, and Treatments

      Urethral strictures are commonly caused by injury, urethral instrumentation, and infections such as gonorrhoea or chlamydia. In this case, the repeated cystoscopies are a likely cause. This condition can lead to complications such as urinary retention and urinary infection.

      To treat urethral strictures, periodic dilation, internal urethrotomy, and external urethroplasty are common options. It is important to note that a normal feeling prostate, a normal prostate-specific antigen level, and regular bladder tumour surveillance make other diagnoses less likely in this case.

      In summary, understanding the causes, complications, and treatments of urethral strictures is crucial for proper management of this condition.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year old man with prostate cancer presents with gynaecomastia.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old man with prostate cancer presents with gynaecomastia.

      Which of the following treatments would explain this presentation?

      Your Answer: Gonadorelin analogue injections

      Correct Answer: Radical prostatectomy

      Explanation:

      Iatrogenic Causes of Gynaecomastia: The Role of Gonadorelin Injections

      There are various iatrogenic causes of gynaecomastia that healthcare providers should consider when evaluating a patient with this condition. In this case, the culprit behind the breast enlargement is the gonadorelin injections.

      Gonadorelin analogues initially stimulate the release of luteinising hormone (LH) by the pituitary gland. However, in the early stages of treatment, this can cause a tumour flare, which can lead to complications such as spinal cord compression and ureteric obstruction. To prevent this problem, an anti-androgen may be prescribed alongside the gonadorelin injections.

      Once treatment is established, gonadorelin analogues produce a clinical picture similar to menopause in females and orchidectomy in males. This occurs as continued use results in hypogonadism due to negative feedback. Typical clinical features include hot flashes, sweating, sexual dysfunction, and gynaecomastia.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 16 - A 48-year-old woman who has had systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) for a number...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman who has had systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) for a number of years complains of facial swelling, which she thinks might be due to a food allergy. On examination, she has facial oedema, raised blood pressure at 170/100 mmHg and although she can only produce a small amount of urine, dipstick testing is strongly positive for blood and protein.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Angioedema

      Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephritis, Angioedema, Chronic Liver Disease, and Hypertensive Emergencies

      Nephritis is a condition that causes haematuria, oliguria, proteinuria, facial oedema, and hypertension. It can be caused by various factors, but it is a common complication of SLE, affecting 30-55% of patients. Hypertension is a poor prognostic sign in these patients.

      Angioedema, on the other hand, causes facial swelling due to an allergic reaction and is not typically associated with renal abnormalities. Urinary tract infections do not usually cause heavy proteinuria and facial swelling. Chronic liver disease can cause hypoalbuminaemia, but it doesn’t typically cause renal abnormalities on its own.

      Hypertensive emergencies include accelerated hypertension and malignant hypertension. Both conditions result in target organ damage due to a recent increase in blood pressure to very high levels (usually ≥180 mm Hg systolic and ≥110 mm Hg diastolic). This damage is usually seen as neurological (e.g., encephalopathy), cardiovascular, or renal damage. In malignant hypertension, papilloedema is present.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old man visits the GP clinic with complaints of soreness, itching, and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits the GP clinic with complaints of soreness, itching, and bleeding from the foreskin. Upon examination, there is evidence of skin fissuring and tightening of the foreskin. What is the probable diagnosis, and what treatment is recommended?

      Your Answer: Lichen sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Common Penile Conditions

      Lichen sclerosis, also known as balanitis xerotica obliterans, is a skin condition that causes inflammation and scarring of the foreskin. It can be itchy and painful, but potent steroid ointments can help reduce inflammation and the need for surgery. However, if left untreated, it may lead to penile squamous cell carcinoma, which presents as an irregular ulceration or nodule.

      Peyronie’s disease is a condition that causes an increased curvature of the penis, but its cause is unknown. On the other hand, phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin covering the glans of the penis, which may be congenital or due to scarring from another medical condition such as lichen sclerosis. Lastly, priapism is a persistent and often painful erection of the penis.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with symptoms consistent with membranous glomerulonephritis.
    Which...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with symptoms consistent with membranous glomerulonephritis.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely be responsible?

      Your Answer: Gold

      Explanation:

      Renal Complications in Rheumatoid Arthritis Treatment

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints and can lead to disability. The use of gold, penicillamine, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents as disease-modifying drugs in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can result in renal complications. Membranous glomerulonephritis is a common complication that occurs due to the widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. Immunofluorescence reveals granular deposits of immunoglobulin and complement. Methotrexate, another drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can also be toxic to the kidney in large doses. However, such doses are unlikely in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor renal function in patients receiving these medications to prevent renal complications.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of consuming bendroflumethiazide?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of consuming bendroflumethiazide?

      Your Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Gout is more likely to occur as a result of taking bendroflumethiazide, rather than pseudogout.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 20 - A 54-year-old woman with Rheumatoid arthritis complains of dysuria, frequency, and foul-smelling urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman with Rheumatoid arthritis complains of dysuria, frequency, and foul-smelling urine for the past 3 days. Upon urinalysis, blood, nitrites, leukocytes, and protein are detected. Upon checking her repeat prescription, it is found that she is taking methotrexate for her Rheumatoid disease. She has no allergies. Which antibiotic should not be prescribed due to the potential for severe bone marrow suppression?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      The combination of methotrexate and antibiotics containing trimethoprim can lead to bone marrow suppression and potentially fatal pancytopenia. Therefore, it is important to avoid using trimethoprim and co-trimoxazole with methotrexate due to their anti-folate properties, which can cause folate depletion. Fatal cases of megaloblastic anemia and pancytopenia have been reported. Nitrofurantoin and cefalexin do not have any known interactions with methotrexate, and penicillins may reduce its excretion.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP for his annual health check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP for his annual health check-up. During the check-up, the GP diagnosed him with hypertension and prescribed ramipril 2.5mg OD. The patient is also taking lansoprazole 30 mg OD, furosemide 20 mg OD, and atorvastatin 40 mg ON.

      The patient's U+E levels have been stable, but a recent blood test showed:
      - Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 140 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 47 ml/min/1.73m2

      One month later, the GP requested a repeat U+E test, which showed:
      - Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 6.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 8.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 43 ml/min/1.73m2

      The patient's ECG was normal. What is the most appropriate management plan, in addition to re-checking the U+E levels?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril and restart at a lower dose

      Correct Answer: Swap ramipril for another Antihypertensive

      Explanation:

      If a patient with CKD has a potassium level above 6 mmol/L, discontinuing ACE inhibitors should be considered, as per NICE Clinical Guideline 182. However, it is important to ensure that any other medications that may contribute to hyperkalemia have already been stopped before making this decision. In this particular case, there are no other medications that can be discontinued to lower potassium levels without deviating from the NICE guidelines.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old male patient presents with recurrent urinary symptoms, reporting bothersome hesitancy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male patient presents with recurrent urinary symptoms, reporting bothersome hesitancy and nocturia. He is currently taking finasteride.
      PSA levels over the past two months have been within normal range for his age, measuring at 3.2 and 3.3 ng/ml. Upon physical examination, including a digital rectal exam, no abnormalities were detected.
      What is the appropriate course of action at this juncture?

      Your Answer: Start an alpha-blocker, such as tamsulosin

      Correct Answer: Stop the finasteride and repeat the PSA in six weeks

      Explanation:

      Importance of Checking for Prostate Cancer in Patients on Finasteride

      Whilst other possibilities should not be disregarded, it is crucial to prioritize checking for prostate cancer in patients taking Finasteride. It is important to note that PSA values may be significantly reduced by up to 50% in patients taking 5-ARIs such as Finasteride, which can bring abnormal prostates into the normal range in terms of PSA values. Additionally, any increase in PSA levels should be a cause for concern, even if the absolute value is within the normal range, when a patient is taking Finasteride. It is essential to double the PSA readings of patients on Finasteride, which means that the corrected values for this patient are 6.2 and 6.0 ng/ml. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize checking for prostate cancer in patients taking Finasteride to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 23 - You received a letter from the ophthalmology department regarding Mrs. Patel, an 80-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You received a letter from the ophthalmology department regarding Mrs. Patel, an 80-year-old woman who has been listed for cataract surgery. They report that her blood pressure (BP) is raised at 156/94 mmHg and ask you to follow this up, as her BP needs to be well controlled before the operation will be performed.

      You have a look at her medication list and see she is already on amlodipine 5mg, losartan 50 mg, and hydrochlorothiazide 12.5mg.

      Her most recent renal profile is below.

      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 82 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Assuming she is compliant with her medications, what is the next treatment step for her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Change bendroflumethiazide to indapamide

      Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker or beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic with a potassium level greater than 4.5mmol/L, the recommended 4th-line option is to add an alpha- or beta-blocker. It is important to check for postural hypotension and confirm the elevated clinic reading with home/ambulatory BP monitoring for patients with resistant hypertension. Combining an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor with an angiotensin II receptor blocker, such as candesartan, is not recommended. There is no need to switch patients who are already taking bendroflumethiazide to indapamide. Referral to cardiology would be appropriate if the patient remains uncontrolled on the maximum tolerated dose of a 4th antihypertensive.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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  • Question 24 - You receive a letter explaining that one of your patients, Mrs. Smith has...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a letter explaining that one of your patients, Mrs. Smith has recently been diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) 5 and is due to commence haemodialysis. It outlines the vaccines that she now requires. Which diseases does she need protection against?

      Your Answer: Pneumococcal, influenza, Hepatitis B and C

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcal, influenza and Hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Haemodialysis units must remain vigilant against blood-borne viruses, despite following standard infection control measures, in order to safeguard both patients and healthcare staff. Fortunately, the occurrence of hepatitis B outbreaks associated with dialysis units has significantly decreased over the past three decades. The Department of Health recommends immunisation against Pneumococcus, influenza, and Hepatitis B for individuals with chronic kidney disease, including those undergoing haemodialysis. While vaccination schedules for both children and adults are rapidly evolving, healthcare professionals must stay informed of these changes and be aware of recommendations for special groups. Although the administration of vaccinations is often delegated, general practitioners must be knowledgeable about contraindications and schedules to provide guidance to patients and parents. Conducting audits of specific target groups may reveal a need for catch-up immunisation in light of changing recommendations.

      The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.

      The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.

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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, reporting symptoms of frequent urination, weak...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, reporting symptoms of frequent urination, weak urinary stream, and dribbling at the end of urination. He has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately a year. Upon examination, his prostate is soft and normal in size, his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) falls within the normal range for his age, and his bladder and kidneys are not palpable. He has a history of renal colic and has previously undergone cystoscopic removal of a bladder stone. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urethral stricture

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Urinary Symptoms: A Differential Diagnosis

      Urinary symptoms can be caused by various conditions, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause. One possible cause is urethral stricture, which refers to the narrowing of the urethra due to scarring from inflammation, trauma, infection, tumors, or surgery. Patients may experience no symptoms, mild discomfort, or complete urinary retention. Another possible cause is benign prostatic hyperplasia, which can cause urinary frequency, poor stream, and terminal dribbling, but normal examination findings make prostatic disease unlikely. Bladder stones can also cause urinary symptoms such as suprapubic pain, dysuria, intermittency, frequency, hesitancy, nocturia, and urinary retention, as well as terminal hematuria and sudden cessation of voiding with associated pain. Chlamydia infection can cause urethritis with urethral discharge and dysuria, and a possible late complication is a stricture. Prostatic carcinoma can also cause similar symptoms, but the patient’s young age and normal examination of the prostate and PSA result make this diagnosis unlikely.

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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue and loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue and loss of appetite of recent origin. Her serum creatinine is 230 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l) and urea is 13.5 mmol/l (2.5-6.5 mmol/l). She has taken diclofenac for pain relief for several years.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this side-effect of diclofenac.

      Your Answer: Glomerulosclerosis is most commonly seen

      Correct Answer: It is likely to be reversible if the drug is stopped

      Explanation:

      The Renal Risks of NSAIDs

      One of the most common renal problems is sodium retention, which leads to water retention and oedema. This issue is particularly concerning for patients with pre-existing heart failure, as it can worsen their condition. Additionally, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone, especially in patients with diabetes, heart failure, or multiple myeloma. If the patient is taking potassium-sparing diuretics or ACE inhibitors, the hyperkalaemia may be more severe.

      NSAIDs can cause two types of acute renal failure. The first is haemodynamically mediated, where inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis can lead to reversible renal ischemia, a fall in GFR, and acute renal failure. The second is direct toxic effects on the kidney, such as acute tubular necrosis and acute interstitial nephritis. Adverse renal effects are generally reversible upon discontinuation of NSAID treatment. Glomerulosclerosis, typically caused by diabetes, can also be caused by drug-induced glomerular disease, including that caused by NSAIDs.

      High-dose NSAID use may significantly increase the risk of accelerated renal function decline in patients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, caution should always be exercised when using NSAIDs, and they should be given at the lowest effective dose.

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  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria, proteinuria of 1.5 g/24 hours and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria, proteinuria of 1.5 g/24 hours and a serum creatinine level of 153 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Nephropathies and their Clinical Presentations

      Membranous glomerulonephritis and diabetic nephropathy rarely present with macroscopic haematuria, but rather with greater proteinuria and nephrotic syndrome. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is the most common cause of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in adults. On the other hand, IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is characterized by IgA deposition in the glomerulus and often presents with macroscopic haematuria, which may be triggered by an upper respiratory tract infection. It usually presents asymptomatic haematuria and/or proteinuria and is a nephritic syndrome, but can also rarely present with nephrotic syndrome. Henoch-Schönlein purpura, a variant of IgA nephropathy, is associated with a petechial rash and systemic vasculitis. Although progression is slow, 20-30% of patients may eventually develop end-stage renal failure.

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  • Question 28 - A 46-year-old man comes to you with a scrotal swelling on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man comes to you with a scrotal swelling on the right side that has been worsening over the past two weeks. He is concerned about its appearance and has developed a dragging sensation. Upon examination while lying flat, a tense varicocele is observed on the right side. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer to urology to consider ablative therapy

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to Urology

      Explanation:

      If a patient has rapidly developing varicoceles, solitary right-sided varicoceles, or varicoceles that remain tense when lying down, especially if they are over 40 years old, it could be a sign of testicular tumors. In such cases, urgent referral to a urologist is necessary to rule out cancer. Given the presence of several red flags in this patient, an urgent referral is required. Other options should be avoided as they may cause delays in diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

      Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele

      Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

      Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old patient presents with lower urinary tract symptoms. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old patient presents with lower urinary tract symptoms. Which of the following statements about benign prostatic hyperplasia is not true?

      Your Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases

      Explanation:

      The use of Goserelin (Zoladex) is not recommended for treating benign prostatic hyperplasia.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.

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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of perineal and lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of perineal and lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He also reports urinary frequency, dysuria, and poor urinary flow. He decided to seek medical attention now because he has been experiencing some discomfort during ejaculation over the last week. During rectal examination, the physician notes a tender, normal sized prostate gland. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prostatic abscess

      Correct Answer: Chronic prostatitis

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is suffering from chronic prostatitis, which is characterized by symptoms lasting for at least three months. These symptoms may include pain in various areas such as the perineum, abdomen, lower back, inguinal region, scrotum, testis, or penis. Additionally, the patient may experience lower urinary tract symptoms or sexual dysfunction, such as erectile dysfunction, premature ejaculation, discomfort during ejaculation, or decreased libido. It is important to note that urethritis would not cause perineal pain or lower urinary tract symptoms, while benign prostatic hyperplasia is typically painless and presents with a smooth, enlarged prostate on examination in conjunction with lower urinary tract symptoms. In cases where patients experience persistent perineal pain and recurrent urinary tract infections despite antibiotic therapy, a prostatic abscess may be suspected, often accompanied by an enlarged prostate upon examination.

      Treatment for Chronic Prostatitis

      Chronic prostatitis is a condition that requires a prolonged course of treatment. One of the recommended treatments is a quinolone, which is a type of antibiotic. However, there is some debate about the effectiveness of prostatic massage in improving outcomes. Despite this, there is no conclusive data published to date. It is important to note that treatment for chronic prostatitis should be tailored to the individual patient and their specific symptoms. Additionally, patients should follow up with their healthcare provider regularly to monitor their progress and adjust treatment as needed. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for those with chronic prostatitis.

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  • Question 31 - A 48-year-old man presents to you with elevated blood pressure. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to you with elevated blood pressure. He has a history of chronic kidney disease and his estimated glomerular filtration rate was 53 ml/min six weeks ago. His albumin:creatinine ratio was 35 mg/mmol. He denies experiencing any chest pain or shortness of breath. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 172/94 mmHg and fundoscopy is unremarkable. What is the optimal course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Patients who have chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and an albumin:creatinine ratio exceeding 30 mg/mmol should be initiated on a renin-angiotensin antagonist. These medications have been proven to have positive impacts on both cardiovascular outcomes and renal function. While the other drugs are also utilized for hypertension, they do not offer the same advantages and are not the primary choice for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

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  • Question 32 - Mr. Johnson is a 65-year-old man with multiple sclerosis who has a long...

    Correct

    • Mr. Johnson is a 65-year-old man with multiple sclerosis who has a long term catheter. He was admitted to hospital following a fall and discharged the next day. As part of his work up in the emergency department his urine was sent off for culture.

      You receive a letter in your inbox with the urine culture results:
      Escherichia coli sensitive to amoxicillin, nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim

      You note that he is penicillin allergic. You call Mr. Johnson to find out how he is, however he denies any urinary symptoms or haematuria. There is no blockage and his catheter is draining well.

      How will you best manage Mr. Johnson?

      Your Answer: No treatment needed

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines advise against the routine treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria in catheterised patients. Treatment should only be given if the patient is experiencing symptoms. In such cases, a 7-day course of antibiotics may be prescribed, and the catheter may be changed if necessary. However, removal of the catheter is not an option for long-term catheterised patients. If sepsis is suspected, the patient should be referred to a hospital for intravenous antibiotics.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 33 - As the on-call physician, you encounter a patient in their early 50s who...

    Incorrect

    • As the on-call physician, you encounter a patient in their early 50s who has been experiencing a painful erection for the past 6 hours. The patient had taken sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitor, the previous night. The patient was diagnosed with myeloma 4 months ago and is currently undergoing treatment under the haematology team.

      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: 300 mg aspirin

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to the surgical team

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences priapism, urgent assessment in a hospital is necessary. While priapism is a rare side effect of taking PDE-5 inhibitors, patients with blood disorders such as sickle cell disease, multiple myeloma, or leukemia are at an increased risk.

      Priapism is considered a surgical emergency, and if it lasts for more than two hours, immediate referral to a hospital’s surgical team is required for treatment.

      If the priapism has been present for less than two hours, some measures may help resolve it. These include attempting to pass urine, taking a warm bath or shower, drinking plenty of water, going for a gentle walk, doing exercises like squats or running on the spot, and taking painkillers like paracetamol if necessary.

      Priapism is a condition where a man experiences a prolonged erection that lasts for more than 4 hours and is not related to sexual stimulation. There are two types of priapism: ischaemic and non-ischaemic. Ischaemic priapism is caused by reduced blood flow to the penis, while non-ischaemic priapism is caused by increased blood flow. Priapism can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication, trauma, and underlying medical conditions such as sickle cell disease. Symptoms include pain and a persistent erection. Diagnosis is made through clinical examination and tests such as blood gas analysis and ultrasonography. Treatment for ischaemic priapism involves aspiration of blood from the penis, injection of a saline flush, and vasoconstrictive agents. Non-ischaemic priapism is typically observed. It is important to seek medical attention promptly as untreated priapism can lead to permanent tissue damage and long-term erectile dysfunction.

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  • Question 34 - A 28-year-old man with a history of hypertension and intermittent loin pain presents...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of hypertension and intermittent loin pain presents to his new GP for registration after moving house. During urine testing, evidence of haematuria is found. The patient has a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Kidney Conditions: ADPKD, Glomerulonephritis, Renal Stones, Renal Cell Carcinoma, and Urinary Tract Infection

      The kidneys are vital organs responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and regulating fluid balance in the body. However, they can be affected by various conditions that can lead to significant health problems. Here are some common kidney conditions and their characteristics:

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
      ADPKD is a genetic disorder that causes the growth of multiple cysts in the kidneys, leading to kidney enlargement and dysfunction. Symptoms may include hypertension, painless haematuria, intermittent loin pain, and a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage. ACE inhibitors are the first-line treatment for hypertension in ADPKD patients.

      Glomerulonephritis
      Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation within the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic urinary abnormalities to the nephritic and nephrotic syndromes.

      Renal Stones
      Renal stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause sudden severe renal colic. They may be asymptomatic and discovered during investigations for other conditions.

      Renal Cell Carcinoma
      Renal cell carcinoma is a type of kidney cancer that can be detected using ultrasound and CT scans. More than half of adult renal tumours are detected when using ultrasound to investigate nonspecific symptoms. The classic features of haematuria, loin pain, and loin mass are not as frequently seen now.

      Urinary Tract Infection
      Urinary tract infection is a common condition that presents acutely. It occurs when bacteria enter the urinary tract and cause inflammation and infection. Symptoms may include pain or burning during urination, frequent urination, and cloudy or bloody urine.

      In conclusion, understanding the characteristics of common kidney conditions can help with early detection and appropriate management, leading to better outcomes for patients.

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  • Question 35 - Which statement is accurate when analyzing a semen analysis report? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is accurate when analyzing a semen analysis report?

      Your Answer: Is invalid unless abstention is at least a week

      Correct Answer: 15% abnormal forms is within normal limits

      Explanation:

      Understanding Semen Analysis Results

      Semen analysis is a crucial test that helps determine male fertility. According to the World Health Organisation guidelines, a sperm sample showing 15% or more sperm of normal morphology is considered normal. It is recommended to abstain from masturbation and/or intercourse for at least two days before the test.

      Low volume is a common issue, often caused by missing the container. Motility below 40% is a cause for concern, and the pH should be between 7 and 8.5. The specimen should be examined within an hour, and a count below 20 million would be of some concern, while below 10 million would be clinically significant.

      When conducting semen analysis, the results should be compared with the WHO reference values. The semen volume should be 1.5 ml or more, pH should be 7.2 or more, sperm concentration should be 15 million spermatozoa per ml or more, and the total sperm number should be 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more. The total motility should be 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility, vitality should be 58% or more, and live spermatozoa sperm morphology should be 4% or more.

      In conclusion, understanding semen analysis results is crucial in determining male fertility. It is important to follow the WHO guidelines and compare the results with the reference values to identify any potential issues.

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  • Question 36 - At what stage should thiazide diuretics be avoided in patients with chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage should thiazide diuretics be avoided in patients with chronic kidney disease, according to BNF guidance?

      Your Answer: eGFR < 60 ml / min

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

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  • Question 37 - A 65-year-old woman presents reporting that she experiences vaginal pressure when she strains....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents reporting that she experiences vaginal pressure when she strains. She has a history of mild cognitive impairment and severe osteoarthritis. She has very poor mobility in her back, wrists and hands. Her body mass index is 35 kg/m2. Examination reveals a moderate uterine prolapse with a cystocele and a rectocele. The patient reports that she is still sexually active. She reports she cannot reliably attend follow-up at the surgery.
      Why would a ring pessary likely be contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Inability to attend follow-up care

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Ring Pessary Use in Patients with Specific Conditions

      Ring pessaries are a non-surgical option for managing pelvic organ prolapse. However, certain patient factors must be considered before recommending this treatment.

      Inability to attend follow-up care is a significant concern for patients using ring pessaries. These devices need to be changed every six months, and patients with poor mobility may require assistance from a healthcare provider. Failure to change the pessary can lead to infection and other complications. Therefore, patients who cannot attend follow-up appointments may not be suitable candidates for ring pessary use.

      Obesity is a risk factor for pelvic organ prolapse, but it is not a contraindication for ring pessary use. In fact, weight loss may help alleviate the condition along with pessary use.

      Age is not a barrier to pessary insertion. In fact, ring pessaries are often used in older or frailer patients where surgery is less desirable.

      Sexual activity is not a contraindication for ring pessary use. Patients can leave the pessary in during intercourse, but some may find it uncomfortable. In such cases, the ring can be removed and reinserted after intercourse, or an alternative type of pessary can be tried.

      Mild cognitive impairment doesn’t preclude pessary use, but patients may require additional follow-up to ensure the device is removed and replaced every six months.

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  • Question 38 - A 22-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She had an episode of acute cystitis...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She had an episode of acute cystitis 4 weeks ago, which was successfully treated without any complications. Her urine culture did not show any resistant or atypical organisms. However, she has a history of recurrent lower UTIs and is feeling frustrated as she has had 6 episodes in the past year, which has put a strain on her new relationship. She has tried cranberry juice and probiotics, but they did not provide any relief.

      You ordered an abdominal ultrasound, which came back normal, and her post-void volume was 25 ml. After reviewing her behavioral and self-hygiene measures, you have identified sexual intercourse as the only trigger.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotic prophylaxis for single-dose use with sexual intercourse

      Explanation:

      For women who experience regular urinary tract infections (UTIs) following sexual intercourse, the recommended course of action is to prescribe a single-dose oral antibiotic prophylaxis to be taken with sexual intercourse. This is in line with NICE guidance, which also advises first-line measures such as avoiding douching and occlusive underwear, wiping from front to back after defecation, and maintaining adequate hydration. Daily antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended for premenopausal, non-pregnant women with an identifiable trigger, but may be considered for those who continue to have recurrences with single-dose antibiotic prophylaxis regimens. Vaginal oestrogen cream is recommended for postmenopausal women, while referral to secondary care is only necessary for certain groups, such as those with suspected cancer or persistent haematuria. A self-taken vulvovaginal swab for STIs is not necessary unless there are symptoms of vulvovaginitis, cervicitis, or pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 39 - A 60-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has developed persistent proteinuria. Renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has developed persistent proteinuria. Renal function tests reveal a glomerular filtration rate [GFR] of 49 ml/minute/1.73 m2), similar levels were found four months previously. Her blood pressure today is 140/88 mmHg.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to improve the patient's renal prognosis?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is defined by the presence of kidney damage or decreased kidney function for three months or more. Patients with proteinuria of any cause can benefit from treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, which improve renal prognosis and reduce cardiovascular risk. Blood pressure control with medications like doxazosin can also improve renal outcomes, but blocking the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system is most effective in halting disease progression. Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease, while vitamin D supplementation is used to treat deficiency in later stages of CKD and CKD-mineral and bone disorders. Statins like atorvastatin should be offered to all CKD patients to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

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  • Question 40 - You assess a 55-year-old man who has stage 4 chronic kidney disease. Which...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 55-year-old man who has stage 4 chronic kidney disease. Which medication can be safely prescribed considering his level of renal dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Severe renal failure patients should steer clear of tetracycline, metformin, nitrofurantoin, and lithium. However, warfarin may be well-tolerated, but patients may need more frequent monitoring.

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      Prescribing medication for patients with renal failure can be challenging. It is important to know which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin should be avoided in patients with renal failure. These drugs can cause further damage to the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs require dose adjustment in patients with chronic kidney disease. Antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, and furosemide, are among the drugs that require dose adjustment. Opioids should also be used with caution in patients with renal failure.

      There are also drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics such as erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the drugs’ potential effects on the kidneys and the need for dose adjustment. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to ensure safe and effective medication management for these patients.

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  • Question 41 - A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a lump a few weeks ago while taking a bath and reports that it has appeared quite rapidly. He is not experiencing any symptoms and is otherwise healthy.

      Upon examination, the patient appears to be in good overall health. There is a firm, non-tender swelling on the right side. The testicle cannot be felt separately, and the swelling is translucent when tested with a light source. It is easy to get above the swelling, and the scrotal skin appears normal in color and temperature.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for a scrotal ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Refer to the general surgeons for routine elective hernia repair

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hydroceles: Causes and Diagnosis

      A hydrocele is a painless swelling that occurs in the scrotum due to a collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. It is often confined to one side and the underlying testicle may not be palpable. Transillumination with a light source can help diagnose a hydrocele.

      Hydroceles can be primary or secondary. Primary hydroceles tend to occur in children and the elderly and appear gradually. Secondary hydroceles, on the other hand, are associated with testicular pathology and tend to appear rapidly. Possible underlying causes of a secondary hydrocele include testicular tumour, infection (epididymo-orchitis), torsion, and trauma.

      A clinical diagnosis is often sufficient, but an ultrasound scan may be requested in cases of secondary hydrocele or when there is suspicion of an underlying pathology. For instance, a new onset, rapidly growing hydrocele in a man in his thirties may warrant an ultrasound scan to rule out a testicular tumour.

      If the history and examination do not suggest an infective/inflammatory process, torsion, or trauma as an underlying cause, immediate referral to the hospital is not necessary. The use of anti-inflammatory and antibiotics is also not indicated in such cases. Understanding the causes and diagnosis of hydroceles can help in their appropriate management.

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  • Question 42 - A pair undergo examinations for sterility. What is the most suitable guidance to...

    Incorrect

    • A pair undergo examinations for sterility. What is the most suitable guidance to provide concerning sperm collection?

      Your Answer: Abstain for 3-5 days before giving sample + deliver sample to lab within 4 hours

      Correct Answer: Abstain for 3-5 days before giving sample + deliver sample to lab within 1 hour

      Explanation:

      Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.

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  • Question 43 - You see a 70-year-old patient with diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease (CKD)....

    Correct

    • You see a 70-year-old patient with diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). He had an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) 2 months ago for which he had a stent. He is having his annual review when he mentions that he has suffered from erectile dysfunction for the last 2 years. He says that it came on gradually and that he now never has erections anymore, in any situation. He has been married for 45 years and this is having an effect on his relationship with his wife.

      His blood pressure today is 135/85 mmHg. Recent blood tests reveal that his blood glucose levels are well controlled on oral medications and his CKD is stable. He takes regular exercise.

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient's erectile dysfunction?

      Your Answer: A vacuum erection device along with lifestyle advice

      Explanation:

      The NICE clinical knowledge summary (CKS) guidelines recommend phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitors, such as sildenafil and tadalafil, as the first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction (ED) unless there are contraindications. However, those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors may benefit from vacuum erection devices, which are recommended as the first-line treatment for well-informed older men with infrequent sexual intercourse and comorbidity requiring non-invasive, drug-free management of ED. Lifestyle changes and risk factor modification should also be considered, but this patient already has good control of his risk factors and regularly exercises. Intracavernous injections may be a second-line option for men with pelvic trauma or spinal cord injury. Vasculogenic causes, such as cardiovascular disease, are the most common organic cause of ED, and lifestyle changes and drug treatment can be effective in managing this condition.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old man with symptoms of prostatism has a serum prostate specific antigen...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with symptoms of prostatism has a serum prostate specific antigen (PSA) concentration of 20 µg/l (normal < 4 µg/l).
      Select from the list which single correct statement about the clinical importance of this result is the most likely.

      Your Answer: It could be elevated because a digital rectal examination was performed 48 hours before the blood sample was taken

      Correct Answer: It is more likely to reflect prostatic cancer than benign prostatic hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)

      Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland that plays a crucial role in male reproductive function. Its primary function is to liquefy semen, allowing sperm to move freely. PSA is also believed to help dissolve cervical mucous, facilitating the entry of sperm into the uterus.

      While PSA is present in small amounts in the blood of men with healthy prostates, elevated levels can indicate the presence of prostate cancer or other prostate disorders. However, PSA is not specific to cancer and a biopsy is needed to confirm a diagnosis.

      PSA levels increase with age and in benign prostatic hypertrophy and prostatitis, but a high concentration is more likely to be due to cancer than benign disease. It is important to note that PSA levels may also increase slightly after a digital rectal examination or ejaculation.

      Understanding PSA and its role in prostate health is crucial for early detection and treatment of prostate cancer. Regular prostate exams and PSA screenings are recommended for men over the age of 50, or earlier for those with a family history of prostate cancer.

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  • Question 45 - A 12-year-old boy visits his GP with his mother after he observed blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy visits his GP with his mother after he observed blood in his urine two days after receiving treatment for tonsillitis. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, it is positive for blood and protein. The doctor sends a sample for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity and receives the following results: Growth < 104 cfu/ml, Large numbers of red blood cells, < 10/mm3 of white blood cells, and red-cell casts in microscopy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection (UTI)

      Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Haematuria: A Brief Overview

      Haematuria, or the presence of blood in the urine, can be caused by a variety of conditions. One possible cause is glomerulonephritis, which is indicated by the presence of red-cell casts in the urine. In particular, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) may be suspected if the patient has a recent history of tonsillitis. PSGN typically resolves on its own, but symptom control and infection removal may be necessary.

      Another possible cause of haematuria is myoglobinuria, which is characterized by a positive urine dipstick but the absence of red-cell casts. Myoglobinuria is an early sign of rhabdomyolysis, which requires fluid resuscitation and further investigations into renal function and creatine kinase.

      Porphyria, on the other hand, may cause dark or reddish urine due to excessive excretion of haem precursors. However, red-cell casts are not present and a urine dipstick would not be positive for blood.

      Renal calculus, or kidney stones, is unlikely in a young patient and would typically be accompanied by severe pain. No casts would be present in this case.

      Finally, a urinary tract infection (UTI) may cause haematuria, but a diagnosis requires significant bacteriuria, which is defined as greater than 100,000 colonies of bacteria per milliliter of urine. Counts between 10,000 and 100,000 are indeterminate, while counts below 10,000 are considered normal. Sensitivity testing may be necessary to determine the appropriate antibiotics for treatment.

      In summary, the presence of red-cell casts in the urine suggests glomerulonephritis, while a positive urine dipstick without casts may indicate myoglobinuria. Other possible causes of haematuria include porphyria, renal calculus, and UTI, but these require further investigation and testing for diagnosis.

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  • Question 46 - You encounter a 65-year-old woman who recently underwent a medication review and had...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 65-year-old woman who recently underwent a medication review and had urea and electrolytes performed. You have access to her previous results from 6 months ago for comparison. She has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril. During examination, her blood pressure is measured at 135/80 mmHg.

      Current blood test results:

      - Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 6.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 125 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 54 ml/min/1.73m2

      Blood test results from 6 months ago:

      - Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 5.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 122 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 55 ml/min/1.73m2

      What medication should be added to this woman's current regimen?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      According to NICE criteria, patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of CVD. This patient meets the criteria as she has a persistent reduction in renal function. Antiplatelet treatment is not necessary for secondary prevention of CVD in this patient. Losartan is not required as her blood pressure is well controlled and a combination of renin-angiotensin system antagonists should not be prescribed to patients with CKD. Metformin has no role in the management of CKD in non-diabetic patients.

      Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

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  • Question 47 - A 75-year-old terminally ill man with pancreatic cancer presents to the Emergency Department....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old terminally ill man with pancreatic cancer presents to the Emergency Department. He complains of abdominal pain and has not passed urine for ten hours.
      On examination, he has an easily palpable, enlarged bladder. You decide to insert a urinary catheter.
      What is the most appropriate way to approach this procedure in this patient?

      Your Answer: Once urine flow is achieved, push the catheter as far as it can go before inflating the balloon

      Explanation:

      To ensure proper catheterisation, it is important to push the catheter in as far as it can go before inflating the balloon, once urine flow has been achieved. Aseptic technique should always be used to reduce the risk of infection. It is not advisable to use force to overcome resistance during catheter insertion, as this can create a false passage. The smallest catheter size that allows for effective drainage should be used, unless there is an infection or postoperative bleeding, in which case a larger bore may be necessary to minimise obstruction risk. For long-term catheterisation, an indwelling Foley catheter with an inflatable balloon should be used instead of a straight (Nelaton) catheter that is immediately removed.

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  • Question 48 - A 25-year-old army recruit presents with a swelling in the left scrotum that...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old army recruit presents with a swelling in the left scrotum that has been present for at least two years. On examination, a large non-tender swelling is observed that can be palpated above and transilluminates brightly. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epididymo-orchitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hydrocoele

      A hydrocoele is a condition where there is a buildup of fluid in the tunica vaginalis. It can either be primary, which usually occurs in middle age, or secondary, which can happen in younger individuals and may be caused by an underlying malignancy, chronic epididymo-orchitis, or a hernia. The main symptom is a cystic-feeling swelling in the scrotum, which makes it difficult to feel the testis separately. However, the swelling can be felt above and transilluminates.

      Ultrasound is not typically used to diagnose a simple hydrocoele, but it may be helpful in ruling out other conditions such as testicular tumors.

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  • Question 49 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents with acute left sided pyelonephritis....

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents with acute left sided pyelonephritis. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infection as a child. Her blood pressure is 145/85. Investigations reveal: creatinine 58 μmol/l (Third trimester reference values 35-62 μmol/l).
      Select the single most likely cause.

      Your Answer: Urinary stasis of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Reflux nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Reflux Nephropathy: A Condition Causing Kidney Damage

      Reflux nephropathy is a condition that occurs in some children and infants where the vesico-ureteric junction allows urine to flow back up the ureters during bladder contraction. This can lead to incomplete bladder emptying and infection, which can cause kidney damage. The damage can be variable and unilateral, with papillary damage, interstitial nephritis, and cortical scarring in the affected kidney. As the child grows, infections usually stop, but hypertension may develop, and in severe cases, renal damage may be progressive, leading to chronic renal failure.

      During pregnancy, there is an increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which can cause both urea and creatinine levels to decrease. However, dilatation of the ureters and pelvis during pregnancy can lead to urinary stasis and an increased risk of developing urinary tract infections. In cases where there is a history of reflux, it is likely that reflux nephropathy is the cause of kidney damage. Hypertension and renal failure are common features of this condition, but the presence of infection points to reflux as the underlying cause.

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  • Question 50 - A 42-year-old man has suddenly developed a fever and is experiencing frequent urination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has suddenly developed a fever and is experiencing frequent urination, painful urination, and discomfort in the pelvic area. Upon examination, his prostate is tender. A dipstick test of his urine shows the presence of white blood cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic bacterial prostatitis

      Correct Answer: Acute bacterial prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostatitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Prostatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland. There are different types of prostatitis, including acute bacterial prostatitis, chronic bacterial prostatitis, non-bacterial prostatitis, and asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis. In this article, we will focus on the symptoms and differential diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis.

      Symptoms of Acute Bacterial Prostatitis
      Acute bacterial prostatitis is characterized by a sudden onset of feverish illness, irritative urinary voiding symptoms (dysuria, frequency, urgency), perineal or suprapubic pain, and a very tender prostate on rectal examination. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also common. It is important to note that prostatic massage should not be done as it could lead to complications.

      Differential Diagnosis
      It is important to differentiate acute bacterial prostatitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Chronic bacterial prostatitis is more common but symptoms must last for more than three months before this diagnosis can be made. Benign prostatic hyperplasia typically presents with progressive obstructive symptoms, while cystitis doesn’t involve tenderness of the prostate on examination. Non-bacterial prostatitis is associated with chronic pain around the prostate.

      Conclusion
      Acute bacterial prostatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. It is important to consider the differential diagnosis and rule out other conditions with similar symptoms. If you suspect acute bacterial prostatitis, seek medical attention immediately.

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  • Question 51 - A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of loin...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of loin pain and haematuria. The GP refers him to the Nephrology Department for further investigation. A renal ultrasound (US) shows multiple bilateral renal cysts.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Cysts are only confined to the kidneys in affected individuals

      Correct Answer: Screening for it is usually delayed until an individual is an adult

      Explanation:

      Screening for autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) in family members of affected individuals is typically delayed until they reach 20 years of age due to a high false-negative rate in childhood screening. However, there is ongoing debate about the benefits of earlier screening with more reliable ultrasound scanning. Loin pain is a common presenting symptom in newly diagnosed individuals, which can occur in the abdomen, side, and lower back. ADPKD is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion, and while an autosomal-recessive form of PKD exists, it is much less common. ADPKD can also affect other organs, such as the liver and pancreas, and can lead to renal failure in many elderly individuals, with about 50% requiring dialysis or transplantation before the age of 60.

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  • Question 52 - You are having a conversation with a patient who is 60 years old...

    Incorrect

    • You are having a conversation with a patient who is 60 years old and has a PSA level of 10.5 ng/ml. What would be the next course of action that the urologist is likely to suggest?

      Your Answer: Prostatectomy

      Correct Answer: Multiparametric MRI

      Explanation:

      The first-line investigation for suspected prostate cancer has been replaced by multiparametric MRI, replacing TRUS biopsy. This change was made in the 2019 NICE guidelines for investigating suspected prostate cancer in secondary care.

      Investigation for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men. The traditional investigation for suspected prostate cancer was a transrectal ultrasound-guided (TRUS) biopsy. However, recent guidelines from NICE have now recommended the increasing use of multiparametric MRI as a first-line investigation. This is because TRUS biopsy can lead to complications such as sepsis, pain, fever, haematuria, and rectal bleeding.

      Multiparametric MRI is now the first-line investigation for people with suspected clinically localised prostate cancer. The results are reported using a 5-point Likert scale. If the Likert scale is 3 or higher, a multiparametric MRI-influenced prostate biopsy is offered. If the Likert scale is 1-2, then NICE recommends discussing with the patient the pros and cons of having a biopsy. This approach helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with TRUS biopsy and ensures that patients receive the most appropriate investigation for their condition.

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  • Question 53 - Karen, a 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes, visits her practice diabetic nurse...

    Incorrect

    • Karen, a 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes, visits her practice diabetic nurse for her annual diabetes review. The nurse informs her that her HbA1c has increased since her last visit. Karen's results are as follows:

      HbA1c 7.9% (63 mmol/mol)

      Karen assures the nurse that she has been taking all her medications as prescribed, which include metformin 1g twice daily, gliclazide 160 mg twice daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg once daily.

      The nurse suggests that gliclazide may not be effective in controlling her hyperglycaemia at this point and recommends that Karen switch to empagliflozin. Karen agrees but asks about the common side effects of the new medication.

      What are the potential side effects of empagliflozin that should be discussed with Karen?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of urinary tract infections

      Explanation:

      Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, have been linked to an increased risk of urinary tract infections, which is a common side effect that should be discussed with patients, especially females. While hypoglycemia is possible with SGLT2 inhibitors, it is typically only a concern when taken in combination with insulin or sulfonylurea, and may not require stopping other medications. Clinical studies have not shown any increase in renal calculi, and some studies suggest that SGLT2 inhibitors may even be renoprotective. Additionally, SGLT2 inhibitors do not cause weight gain and may even lead to weight loss. However, it is important to note that these medications can rarely cause serious conditions such as Fournier’s gangrene and atypical ketoacidosis, and patients should be warned about the symptoms of these conditions and advised to seek prompt medical attention if necessary.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

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  • Question 54 - A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic worried about red discoloration of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic worried about red discoloration of his urine. He was diagnosed with a DVT two months ago and has been taking warfarin, with his most recent INR test two days ago showing a result of 2.7. During the examination, no abnormalities are found, but his dipstick urine test shows +++ of blood and + protein. A urine culture comes back negative. What is the probable cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prostate carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Bladder carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Consideration of Occult Neoplasia in a Patient with Unexplained Haematuria and Previous DVT

      This patient is presenting with unexplained haematuria and has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of underlying occult neoplasia of the renal tract. The most likely diagnoses in this case are bladder cancer or renal carcinoma, as it is uncommon for prostate cancer to present with haematuria.

      It is important to note that warfarin alone is an unlikely cause of the haematuria, as the patient’s international normalized ratio (INR) is within the target range. Further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the haematuria and to rule out any potential neoplastic processes. Proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further complications and improving the patient’s overall health.

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  • Question 55 - A 42-year-old man presents with painless left testicular enlargement. He reports noticing it...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with painless left testicular enlargement. He reports noticing it approximately 3 weeks ago and denies any urinary symptoms or penile discharge.
      What is the most suitable plan of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Refer to urology on a suspected cancer pathway

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Pathway for Suspected Testicular Cancer

      Any painless enlargement of the testis should be referred urgently to urology for investigation of testicular cancer. The patient should be seen within 2 weeks, and an ultrasound should be arranged urgently. While serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a tumour marker associated with testicular cancer, it should not be used alone to exclude a tumour. AFP can also be used in staging. A mid-stream specimen of urine (MSU) is not necessary unless there are urinary symptoms or signs of infection. Antibiotics are not indicated for painless swelling without signs of infection or epididymo-orchitis. While prompt investigation is necessary, urgent urological admission is not required unless the patient is acutely unwell.

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  • Question 56 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of urinary frequency...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of urinary frequency and nocturia three times per night. These symptoms have gradually worsened over a period of several months. He denies fever or abdominal pain. He is normally fit and well and takes no regular medication.
      What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound (US)

      Correct Answer: Digital rectal examination (DRE)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. To diagnose BPH and rule out other potential causes, several investigations may be necessary.

      Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is the most appropriate initial investigation for BPH. It can identify an enlarged prostate and any irregular or hard areas that could indicate malignancy.

      Abdominal Ultrasound (US) may be indicated after a DRE if there is evidence of raised creatinine or urinary retention, to identify evidence of reflux nephropathy.

      Creatinine (Cr) is useful to investigate for acute or chronic renal impairment, which is a complication of BPH due to chronic urinary retention causing reflux nephropathy. However, it is not the most appropriate initial investigation.

      Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is useful, in combination with DRE, to rule out malignancy as the cause of symptoms. However, PSA levels can be raised due to many reasons, so it is important to avoid recent ejaculation, heavy exercise, or a recent DRE before taking the test.

      Urine culture is useful to rule out a urinary tract infection (UTI) as the cause of symptoms. However, it is not the most likely cause for BPH symptoms. Urine culture would be appropriate if the patient had more symptoms of a UTI, such as dysuria, fever, or abdominal pain.

      Overall, a combination of investigations may be necessary to diagnose and manage BPH effectively.

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  • Question 57 - A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of pain in his right flank, nephrotic syndrome, elevated blood urea, collateral abdominal veins, and gross haematuria. During the examination, a mass is detected in the right lumbar region. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)

      Correct Answer: Renal-cell carcinoma (RCC)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Clinical Features of Renal-Cell Carcinoma

      Renal-cell carcinoma (RCC) is a highly vascular tumor that can obstruct the renal veins. The classic triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass is present in this case, which is suggestive of RCC. However, other conditions may also present with similar clinical features.

      Renal papillary necrosis may cause flank pain and haematuria, but an abdominal mass would be unlikely. Polyarteritis nodosa can cause renal failure, hypertension, or both, but a renal mass would not be present, and frank haematuria would be unusual.

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is characterized by loin pain and hypertension, with enlarged and palpable kidneys bilaterally. Renal amyloidosis is most likely to present as nephrotic syndrome, but it would be unlikely to cause flank pain or a renal mass.

      Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat patients presenting with clinical features of RCC.

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  • Question 58 - A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She denies experiencing any urgency or abdominal pain, and her urine dipstick test is unremarkable. The patient has already attempted physiotherapy and received lifestyle recommendations, but she has declined surgical intervention at this time.

      What is the optimal course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Solifenacin

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      It appears that this woman is experiencing stress incontinence, but there are no signs of urgency. She has already attempted to address the issue through lifestyle changes and pelvic floor muscle training, but is not interested in being referred to a specialist at this time. As an alternative, duloxetine may be worth trying. For urinary urgency, medications such as oxybutynin, solifenacin, and tolterodine can be used. However, amitriptyline is not effective for stress incontinence.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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  • Question 59 - A 68-year-old man with stable chronic renal impairment has routine blood tests and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with stable chronic renal impairment has routine blood tests and urine testing for proteinuria. The results show an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 42 ml/min/1.73m2 and an albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) of 1.3 mg/mmol.
      According to NICE guidance, select the optimal clinical blood pressure in this patient.

      Your Answer: < 130/70 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Managing Blood Pressure in Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      According to NICE guidance, patients with chronic kidney disease should aim for a target blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or less if they do not have proteinuria. However, if they have an albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, the target should be 130/80 mmHg or less.

      For those with chronic kidney disease and diabetes with an ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more, or hypertension with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, or an ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more (regardless of hypertension or cardiovascular disease), an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist should be used.

      It is important to note that microalbuminuria is defined as an ACR > 2.5 mg/mmol (men) or > 3.5 mg/mmol (women), while proteinuria is defined as an ACR > 30 mg/mmol. Without knowing if the patient is hypertensive, it is unclear if they meet the criteria for medication use. Proper management of blood pressure is crucial in the care of patients with chronic kidney disease.

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  • Question 60 - A 65-year-old woman visits the clinic having experienced stress urinary incontinence for 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman visits the clinic having experienced stress urinary incontinence for 2 years. She visited you for the first time 8 months ago and after a thorough evaluation, you recommended lifestyle modifications and referred her for a 3-month supervised pelvic floor muscle training (PFMT) trial.

      She returns to your clinic and reports that her symptoms persist. She declines surgical intervention and requests medication instead.

      What is the most suitable medication to suggest?

      Your Answer: Darifenacin

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Patients with stress incontinence who do not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and refuse surgical intervention may be prescribed duloxetine as a second-line treatment, according to NICE guidelines. If conservative treatments fail or the patient desires further management, referral to a urogynaecologist, gynaecologist, or urologist for assessment and surgical management may be considered. For urgency incontinence, anticholinergic drugs such as darifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine are typically used as first-line treatments, while mirabegron may be prescribed if antimuscarinic drugs are ineffective, not tolerated, or contraindicated.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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  • Question 61 - A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical department complaining of scrotal swelling and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical department complaining of scrotal swelling and discomfort that has been ongoing for the past 4 months.

      Upon examination, the left scrotum is visibly enlarged and transilluminates. The swelling is soft to the touch and doesn't cause any pain. The testis cannot be fully palpated due to the presence of fluid.

      What would be the most suitable next step to take?

      Your Answer: Provide reassurance

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently for testicular ultrasound

      Explanation:

      An ultrasound is necessary for adult patients with a hydrocele to rule out any underlying causes, such as a tumor. Even though the most common cause of a non-acute hydrocele is unknown, it is crucial to exclude malignancy first. Therefore, providing reassurance or reevaluating the patient later would only be appropriate after a testicular ultrasound confirms the absence of malignancy. Testicular biopsy should not be used to investigate suspected testicular cancer as it may spread the malignancy through seeding along the needle’s track. Although a unilateral hydrocele can be an uncommon presentation of a renal carcinoma invading the renal vein, a CTAP would not be the first-line investigation in this scenario. If malignancy is confirmed, CT may be useful in staging the malignancy.

      A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are caused by the patency of the processus vaginalis, which allows peritoneal fluid to drain down into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.

      The features of a hydrocele include a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum, and it can be transilluminated with a pen torch. The testis may be difficult to palpate if the hydrocele is large. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.

      Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation (e.g. ultrasound) is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

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  • Question 62 - A 40-year-old man presents with painless blood staining of the semen upon ejaculation....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with painless blood staining of the semen upon ejaculation. He reports no recent unprotected sexual intercourse and is in good health otherwise.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Prostate cancer

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic and self-limiting

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haematospermia: Causes and Symptoms

      Haematospermia, the presence of blood in the ejaculate, is a common and usually benign symptom that can affect men of any age. In about 50% of cases, the cause is unknown and the symptom is self-limiting. However, further investigation may be necessary for men over 40 or those with accompanying symptoms such as perineal pain or abnormal examination findings.

      Other conditions, such as urinary tract infections, epididymitis, hypertension, and prostate cancer, can also cause haematospermia. However, these conditions are usually accompanied by other symptoms such as dysuria, testicular pain, urinary symptoms, penile discharge, headaches, visual disturbance, or are unlikely in a 35-year-old man without any other symptoms.

      It is important to seek medical attention if haematospermia persists or is accompanied by other symptoms.

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  • Question 63 - A 48-year-old-man presents to his General Practitioner very anxious as he has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old-man presents to his General Practitioner very anxious as he has noticed blood in his urine that morning. For the past three days, he has been experiencing some lower abdominal discomfort, increased urinary frequency and mild dysuria. He is usually fit and well and doesn't take any regular medications. He is afebrile and normotensive. Urine dipstick is positive for blood, leukocytes and nitrites.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Send a routine nephrology referral

      Correct Answer: Prescribe antibiotics and advise him to return if no improvement in symptoms within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to prescribe antibiotics and advise them to return if their symptoms do not improve within 48 hours. A routine nephrology referral is not necessary in this case, as the patient’s haematuria can be explained by the UTI. However, if a patient has unexplained visible haematuria, urgent urological investigations should be conducted. It is not advisable to book an urgent blood test for prostate-specific antigen until after the UTI has been treated, unless there is a strong suspicion of prostate cancer. According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotics should be started immediately for men with typical UTI symptoms, and urine culture should be sent away for analysis. If visible haematuria persists or recurs after successful treatment of the UTI, an urgent suspected cancer referral should be sent. In men over 45 years old, a 2-week-wait referral should be considered in the absence of UTI symptoms.

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  • Question 64 - A 52-year-old man goes for a routine medical check-up before starting a new...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man goes for a routine medical check-up before starting a new job. He has no complaints, and his physical examination is unremarkable. Blood tests are ordered, and all the results are normal except for:

      Uric acid 0.66 mmol/l (0.18-0.48 mmol/l)

      After reading about gout online, the patient is concerned about his risk. What treatment should be started based on this finding?

      Your Answer: Probenecid

      Correct Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      NICE doesn’t recommend treating asymptomatic hyperuricaemia to prevent gout. While high levels of serum uric acid are associated with gout, it is possible to have hyperuricaemia without experiencing any symptoms. Primary prevention of gout in such cases has been found to be neither cost-effective nor beneficial to patients. Instead, lifestyle changes such as reducing consumption of red meat, alcohol, and sugar can help lower uric acid levels without the need for medication. The other options listed are only indicated for the treatment of gout when symptoms are present.

      Understanding Hyperuricaemia

      Hyperuricaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood. This can be caused by an increase in cell turnover or a decrease in the excretion of uric acid by the kidneys. While some individuals with hyperuricaemia may not experience any symptoms, it can be associated with other health conditions such as hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and the metabolic syndrome.

      There are several factors that can contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia. Increased synthesis of uric acid can occur in conditions such as Lesch-Nyhan disease, myeloproliferative disorders, and with a diet rich in purines. On the other hand, decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by drugs like low-dose aspirin, diuretics, and pyrazinamide, as well as pre-eclampsia, alcohol consumption, renal failure, and lead exposure.

      It is important to understand the underlying causes of hyperuricaemia in order to properly manage and treat the condition. Regular monitoring of uric acid levels and addressing any contributing factors can help prevent complications such as gout and kidney stones.

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  • Question 65 - A 50-year-old man with a history of stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD)...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD) attends his annual check-up with his General Practitioner. He reports feeling well.
      During the examination, his haemoglobin (Hb) level is measured at 107 g/l (normal range: 125–165 g/l), and his mean cell volume (MCV) is 86 fl (normal range: 80–100 fl). Iron studies come back normal.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer the patient to nephrology for erythropoietin consideration

      Explanation:

      Management of Renal Anaemia in CKD Patients

      Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and anaemia may require referral to nephrology for erythropoietin treatment if their hemoglobin (Hb) levels are below 110 g/l or if they experience symptoms such as tiredness, shortness of breath, lethargy, and palpitations. Other causes of anaemia should be ruled out before considering erythropoiesis-stimulating agents to maintain Hb levels between 100-120 g/l in adults. Endoscopy may be necessary in cases of iron-deficiency anaemia, but not in normocytic anaemia with normal iron studies. Iron-replacement therapy is not required in this case. Referral to nephrology is necessary for patients with CKD and renal anaemia, diagnosed when Hb levels drop below 110 g/l. Waiting for Hb levels to drop below 10.0 g/dl before referral is not recommended.

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  • Question 66 - A 55-year-old man with liver failure underwent successful transplantation 3 months ago. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with liver failure underwent successful transplantation 3 months ago. He has now developed progressive renal failure.
      Select the single most likely cause.

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Ciclosporin

      Explanation:

      Immunosuppressive Therapy for Liver Transplant Rejection: Drugs and Potential Side Effects

      Liver transplant rejection can be prevented through a combination of drugs, including a calcineurin inhibitor, steroids, and azathioprine. Subsequent immunosuppression may involve tacrolimus or ciclosporin alone, or dual therapy with either azathioprine or mycophenolate. However, these drugs can also cause various side effects.

      Ciclosporin toxicity, for instance, can lead to chronic renal failure in patients who have received different types of allografts. It may also cause a dose-dependent increase in serum creatinine and urea, which may require dose reduction or discontinuation. Azathioprine can cause blood dyscrasias and liver impairment, while mycophenolate mofetil can cause hypogammaglobulinaemia, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis. Prednisolone, on the other hand, doesn’t affect renal function.

      It is important to monitor patients for potential side effects and adjust the dosage or switch to alternative drugs as needed. Additionally, it is unlikely that perioperative causes of renal dysfunction will be significant three months after surgery. About 10-20% of patients taking tacrolimus may develop calcineurin inhibitor-related renal impairment five years after transplant.

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  • Question 67 - A 35-year-old woman takes lithium for bipolar disorder. She presents with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman takes lithium for bipolar disorder. She presents with symptoms of polyuria, nocturia, and polydipsia, and her family is concerned about her confusion. They suspect diabetes, but her random blood glucose measurement is within the normal range. Her urine has a low specific gravity, and further tests reveal high plasma osmolality and low urine osmolality.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetes Insipidus: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Diabetes insipidus is a condition that can be classified as either cranial or nephrogenic. Cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by head injury or pituitary disease, which leads to reduced production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). On the other hand, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by renal insensitivity to ADH, which can be acquired due to renal disease, drugs (such as lithium), or metabolic abnormalities (such as hypercalcaemia). There is also a congenital variety of diabetes insipidus.

      The typical symptoms of diabetes insipidus include polyuria and polydipsia, which can lead to confusion if there is coexistent hypernatraemia. Paired urine and serum osmolality tests can show inappropriately low urine osmolality, and in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, plasma ADH is normal or elevated.

      Treatment for cranial diabetes insipidus involves the use of desmopressin or chlorpropamide, along with addressing the underlying cause where appropriate. In nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, high doses of desmopressin are needed, and a combination of a thiazide diuretic and a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent is usually more effective.

      It is important to note that patients who have been treated long-term with lithium salts for mood disorders have a higher prevalence of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (about 10%). Therefore, it is crucial to monitor these patients for this condition. Once it is established in a patient on lithium, it may not improve even after the drug is stopped, so early recognition is key.

      In summary, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for diabetes insipidus is crucial for proper management of this condition.

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  • Question 68 - Linda, who is experiencing symptoms of stress incontinence, has recently quit smoking and...

    Incorrect

    • Linda, who is experiencing symptoms of stress incontinence, has recently quit smoking and is making efforts to lose weight. She has done some research on pelvic floor muscles and is seeking your advice on how often she should exercise them. What frequency of pelvic floor muscle exercises would you recommend for Linda?

      Your Answer: 8 contractions minimum up to 2 times a day

      Correct Answer: 8 contractions minimum up to 3 times a day

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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  • Question 69 - A 31-year-old female with a history of Crohn's disease comes in with right...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female with a history of Crohn's disease comes in with right flank pain that extends to her groin. Upon urinalysis, there is evidence of non-visible blood in the urine. What is the probable underlying biochemical anomaly?

      Your Answer: Hyperuricaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyperoxaluria

      Explanation:

      Enteric Hyperoxaluria and Renal Stones

      Patients who suffer from chronic diarrhoeal illnesses like ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are at risk of developing enteric hyperoxaluria. This condition leads to an increased risk of developing renal stones. The high levels of oxalate in the body are due to increased absorption of oxalate. This can be a serious complication for patients with chronic diarrhoeal illnesses and requires careful management to prevent the development of renal stones. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients with these conditions closely and provide appropriate treatment to prevent complications.

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  • Question 70 - A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy. He has no other significant medical history and is not taking any other medications.

      How should his bone density be managed in light of this treatment?

      Your Answer: Start vitamin D supplementation

      Correct Answer: Formally assess his fracture risk to determine the need for further investigation and treatment for osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Men with Prostate Cancer

      Osteoporosis is a potential risk for men undergoing hormonal androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer. While bisphosphonates are not routinely recommended, assessing fracture risk can guide the need for investigation and treatment. Bisphosphonates may be offered to men with confirmed osteoporosis, while denosumab can be used if bisphosphonates are not an option. However, a confirmed diagnosis of osteoporosis is necessary before treatment can be prescribed. Lifestyle advice is important, but it is not a substitute for fracture risk assessment and further investigation, such as a DEXA scan, may be necessary. By managing osteoporosis risk, men with prostate cancer can reduce the likelihood of fractures and maintain their quality of life.

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  • Question 71 - A 30-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner with complaints of painful urination...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner with complaints of painful urination and left knee pain. He had experienced a severe episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis, and this patient exhibits two of these classic symptoms.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      This condition is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease.

      The arthritis associated with reactive arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis. Other symptoms include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles).

      To remember the symptoms associated with reactive arthritis, the phrase can’t see, pee, or climb a tree is often used. It is important to note that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that the eponym was named after a member of the Nazi party. Understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 72 - A 28-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of several episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of several episodes of haematospermia over the past few weeks. He denies any urinary symptoms or pain and reports no other unusual bleeding. He is generally healthy and not on any regular medications.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Correct Answer: Chlamydial infection

      Explanation:

      Causes of Haematospermia in a Young Adult

      Haematospermia, the presence of blood in semen, can be a distressing symptom for men. In those under 40 years of age, infections are the most common cause, with sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as chlamydia being a likely culprit, especially in the absence of urinary symptoms. Haemophilia A, a genetic disorder that affects blood clotting, is unlikely to present with haematospermia as the first symptom, especially in a young adult. Malignant hypertension, a rare and severe form of high blood pressure, can cause end-organ damage but is an unusual cause of haematospermia. Prostate cancer, which is more common in older men, can also cause haematospermia, but is usually associated with urinary symptoms and erectile dysfunction. Prostatitis, an inflammation of the prostate gland, can cause haematospermia and other symptoms such as pain and fever, but is less common than UTIs or STIs. A thorough medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations can help identify the underlying cause of haematospermia and guide treatment.

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  • Question 73 - A 55-year-old woman is experiencing depression. She has early morning waking, low mood,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is experiencing depression. She has early morning waking, low mood, and no energy. She has lost interest in all her usual activities and feels like giving up. Additionally, she has a history of stress incontinence. Which medication can effectively treat both her depression and stress incontinence?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Depression and Stress Incontinence

      Duloxetine is a medication that can be used to treat both depression and stress incontinence. It may be the best choice for patients who do not want or are not suitable for surgical treatment. However, before considering drug treatment, it is recommended that patients undertake at least three months of pelvic floor exercises. This can help improve symptoms and reduce the need for medication.

      It is important to counsel patients about the potential adverse effects of duloxetine, which may include nausea, dry mouth, and constipation. Patients should also be advised to report any unusual symptoms or side effects to their healthcare provider. With proper management and monitoring, duloxetine can be an effective treatment option for depression and stress incontinence.

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  • Question 74 - A 75-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease has a serum creatinine of 746 μmol/l...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease has a serum creatinine of 746 μmol/l (60-120 μmol/l). He was known to have normal renal function two years previously. On examination, he has evidence of rigidity, resting tremor and postural instability. He appears to have bilateral small pupils. He has a postural BP drop from 160/72 mm/Hg when supine to 138/60 mmHg when standing. Ultrasound shows bilateral hydronephrosis and a full bladder.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of obstructive renal failure in this patient?

      Your Answer: Benign prostatic hypertrophy

      Correct Answer: Neurogenic bladder

      Explanation:

      Neurogenic Bladder and Other Causes of Obstructive Renal Failure in Parkinson’s Disease

      Parkinson’s disease is often associated with autonomic dysfunction, which can lead to bladder problems such as urgency, frequency, nocturia, and incontinence. In some cases, these symptoms may be mistaken for benign prostatic hypertrophy, but it is important to consider the possibility of neurogenic bladder when risk factors are present. Multichannel urodynamic studies can help confirm the diagnosis and prevent complications such as post-prostatectomy incontinence. Other potential causes of obstructive renal failure in Parkinson’s disease include retroperitoneal fibrosis and renal papillary necrosis, which are rare but serious conditions that require prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 75 - A 75-year-old woman with a catheter in place visits your clinic with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman with a catheter in place visits your clinic with complaints of offensive-smelling urine and suprapubic pain. She mentions having experienced similar symptoms during a previous urinary tract infection. The patient seems to be in considerable discomfort at present.

      What would be the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Topical antibiotics applied to the catheter

      Correct Answer: Treat with a 7 day course of antibiotics based on previous sensitivities (if available) and send another sample for culture today

      Explanation:

      Research suggests that catheterised patients with a UTI experience better outcomes when treated with a 7-day course of antibiotics instead of a 3-day course. In cases where a patient has mild symptoms, it may be appropriate to wait for a culture before administering treatment. However, if a patient is experiencing significant discomfort, delaying treatment is not recommended. A history of only one previous UTI is not sufficient reason to refer a patient to urology. At present, there is no recommendation for the use of topical antibiotics in catheterised patients with UTIs.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 76 - A 65-year-old female presents to your clinic with complaints of increased urgency to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents to your clinic with complaints of increased urgency to urinate and frequent leakage of urine. A urinary dipstick test shows no abnormalities, and a vaginal examination is unremarkable. Malignancy is not suspected. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient's urgency urinary incontinence?

      Your Answer: Refer to a specialist for botulin injections

      Correct Answer: Bladder retraining

      Explanation:

      The initial treatment for urge incontinence is bladder retraining, while pelvic floor muscle training is the first-line approach for stress incontinence. Toileting aids alone are not effective in resolving urge incontinence and should not be recommended as the primary treatment. Oxybutynin and botulin injections may be considered as secondary treatment options if necessary.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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  • Question 77 - A 68-year-old man has a diagnosis of carcinoma of the prostate confirmed by...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has a diagnosis of carcinoma of the prostate confirmed by biopsy. His PSA is 25 ng/ml (normal range < 5 ng/ml in over 60s). The biopsy showed a Gleason score of 6 (range 2 - 10) and confirmed that the tumour is confined to the prostate. His general health is otherwise good, and he was asymptomatic at diagnosis. His father was also diagnosed with prostate cancer at a similar age.
      Which of the following is most likely to signify a high-risk prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: Prostate specific antigen >20 ng/mL

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostate Cancer Risk Factors

      Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and risk stratification is important for determining appropriate treatment. The three main factors that contribute to risk stratification are prostate-specific antigen (PSA), Gleason score, and cancer stage. A PSA level of over 20 ng/mL signifies high-risk disease. The Gleason score estimates the grade of prostate cancer based on its differentiation, with a score of 8-10 indicating high-risk disease. Cancer stage is also important, with T2c indicating high-risk disease. Lower urinary symptoms and family history of prostate cancer are not significant determinants of risk. It is important to understand these risk factors in order to make informed decisions about prostate cancer treatment.

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  • Question 78 - A 32-year-old man undergoes renal function testing and obtains an eGFR result of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man undergoes renal function testing and obtains an eGFR result of 54 ml/min. What is the most probable factor that accounts for this lower-than-expected outcome?

      Your Answer: Being very tall

      Correct Answer: Large muscle mass secondary to body building

      Explanation:

      Individuals with extreme muscle mass, such as body builders, may frequently receive an inaccurate eGFR result, which may indicate a lower than expected value.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

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  • Question 79 - A 65 year-old man visits your clinic following a blood test that revealed...

    Correct

    • A 65 year-old man visits your clinic following a blood test that revealed an elevated prostate specific antigen (PSA) level. He inquires if this indicates the presence of cancer. Can you provide an estimate of the proportion of men with an elevated PSA who have prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: 1-Mar

      Explanation:

      The PSA blood test is used to screen for prostate cancer, but it lacks specificity as only one-third of patients with elevated levels are actually diagnosed with the disease. Therefore, it is crucial to inform patients about this before they undergo the test.

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.

      The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.

      PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.

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  • Question 80 - A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). He underwent screening after his brother was recently diagnosed with the condition. He is currently otherwise well with no other medical issues.
      Which extra-renal complication of ADPKD is this patient most likely to develop?

      Your Answer: Male infertility

      Correct Answer: Hepatic cysts

      Explanation:

      Extra-renal Complications of ADPKD

      ADPKD is a genetic disorder that causes the development of cysts in the kidneys. However, it can also lead to the formation of cysts in other organs, resulting in various extra-renal complications.

      Hepatic cysts are the most common extra-renal complication, occurring in 80% of patients. While they are more prevalent in women, they are also common in men. Most cases of polycystic liver disease are asymptomatic, but symptoms can arise from the mass effect or complications of the cyst.

      Seminal vesicle cysts are also common in patients with ADPKD, but they rarely result in male infertility. On the other hand, cerebral aneurysms occur in 10-20% of patients and can cause cranial nerve palsies or seizures. They are not as common as hepatic cysts.

      Pancreatitis is a rare complication that can develop if cysts grow large enough to impact the pancreas. Fortunately, it is unlikely to occur in most patients.

      Mitral valve prolapse and aortic incompetence are also associated with ADPKD. Mitral valve prolapse occurs in 25% of patients, making it a common occurrence but not the most likely extra-renal complication that this patient is likely to develop.

      In summary, ADPKD can lead to various extra-renal complications, but hepatic cysts and cerebral aneurysms are the most common. Regular monitoring and management of these complications are essential to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

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  • Question 81 - A 4-year-old boy presents with puffy eyes and oedematous legs. Dipstick testing reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents with puffy eyes and oedematous legs. Dipstick testing reveals proteinuria and haematuria. After referral a diagnosis of minimal change glomerulonephritis is made.
      Select the single most likely outcome in this case.

      Your Answer: Chronic renal failure within 2 years

      Correct Answer: Complete recovery

      Explanation:

      Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis: A Common Cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Children

      Minimal change glomerulonephritis is a pathological classification that accounts for 90% of cases of nephrotic syndrome in children and about 20% of cases in adults. It is characterized by normal renal function, normal blood pressure, and normal complement levels, but an increased risk of infections, especially urinary tract infections and pneumococcal infections. The condition usually presents in children aged between 2 and 4 years and is associated with atopy in children and underlying Hodgkin’s disease in adults.

      Light microscopy is normal in minimal change glomerulonephritis, but electron microscopy shows widespread fusion of the epithelial cell foot processes on the outside of the glomerular basement membrane. Immunofluorescence is usually negative. The disease usually responds to a course of high-dose prednisolone, but relapse is frequent. Relapsing disease may go into remission following treatment with prednisolone and cyclophosphamide or ciclosporin. One-third of patients have one episode, one-third occasional relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood. However, minimal change glomerulonephritis doesn’t progress to chronic renal failure.

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  • Question 82 - A 70-year-old man visits his GP for a new-patient screen. His only previous...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his GP for a new-patient screen. His only previous complaints have been type-2 diabetes and mild long-standing back pain. Screening tests reveal an elevated serum creatinine of 215 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l) and anaemia with Hb of 101 g/d (135-175 g/L). He has marked proteinuria. An X-ray shows collapse of the lumbar spine and there is a monoclonal band on serum protein electrophoresis.
      Select the most likely cause of his abnormal renal function.

      Your Answer: Metformin toxicity

      Correct Answer: Amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amyloidosis: Causes, Symptoms, and Prognosis

      Amyloidosis is a group of conditions characterized by the abnormal deposition of amyloid proteins in organs or tissues, leading to damage. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 60 and 70 years. In most cases, amyloidosis is caused by light-chain deposition from a myeloma, as evidenced by a monoclonal band on electrophoresis and lumbar spine collapse. Symptoms of generalized amyloidosis include fatigue, dyspnea, diarrhea, macroglossia, hepatomegaly, and weight loss. Cardiac involvement may result in a restrictive picture with right-sided heart failure and jugular venous distension. Renal amyloidosis can lead to the development of the nephrotic syndrome.

      Apart from myeloma, other causes of amyloidosis include hereditary forms such as familial Mediterranean fever, and those related to chronic disease, infection, or malignancy, such as rheumatoid arthritis, tuberculosis, and renal cell carcinoma. Amyloidosis associated with myeloma has a very poor prognosis, with less than 1-year survival. In contrast, familial forms are associated with much better outcomes, with a prognosis of up to 10-15 years.

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  • Question 83 - A previously healthy 8-year-old girl presents generally unwell, with reduced volumes of smoky-coloured...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 8-year-old girl presents generally unwell, with reduced volumes of smoky-coloured urine.

      She had a sore throat two weeks previously. Immunisations up to date. There is no FH/SH of note.

      On examination her temperature is 37.6°C. She looks quiet and unwell, with slight periorbital oedema. Respiratory rate 15/min, pulse 90/min, blood pressure is 130/100 mmHg. Her JVP is elevated and she has tenderness in both loins.

      Urine dipstick show 3+ haematuria and 3+ proteinuria. Red cell casts are seen on urine microscopy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephritis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Nephritis, also known as acute nephritic syndrome, is a condition characterized by haematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, and oedema with elevated blood pressure. In most cases, the antecedent throat infection makes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis the most likely cause. While blood tests such as ASOT may be useful in confirming the diagnosis, the clinical picture is usually clear.

      The severity of nephritis varies from transient asymptomatic haematuria to severe nephritis with acute renal and heart failure. Treatment is supportive, with close attention to fluid balance. Penicillin is often prescribed, but it may not influence the disease course or spread to family members. Fortunately, 95% of patients recover completely.

      In some cases, uraemia may accompany oliguria, but the clinical and dipstick findings are usually enough for a presumptive diagnosis. In children, the prognosis is excellent, with complete recovery in the vast majority of cases. Fewer than 1% of children experience elevated creatinine levels 10-15 years after an episode.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of nephritis is crucial for managing this condition effectively.

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  • Question 84 - You see a 30-year-old gentleman who is being investigated for subfertility. His semen...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 30-year-old gentleman who is being investigated for subfertility. His semen analysis result shows a mild oligozoospermia.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Repeat test in 4 weeks along with an antisperm antibody test

      Correct Answer: Repeat test in 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Repeat Confirmatory Semen Analysis and Other Fertility Advice

      According to NICE, it is recommended to repeat confirmatory semen analysis after 3 months (12 weeks) from the initial test. This is to allow the cycle of spermatozoa to be completed. However, if there is a significant deficiency in spermatozoa, a repeat test should be taken as early as possible.

      While it is known that elevated scrotal temperatures can reduce semen quality, it is uncertain whether wearing loose-fitting underwear can improve fertility. Nevertheless, it is still advisable to wear looser underwear while trying to conceive.

      Screening for antisperm antibodies is not recommended as there is no effective treatment to improve fertility. The significance of these antibodies is still unclear.

      Overall, these recommendations can help couples who are trying to conceive to take practical steps towards improving their fertility.

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  • Question 85 - You are reviewing some pathology results and come across the renal function results...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing some pathology results and come across the renal function results of a 75-year-old man. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 59 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his results are as follows:

      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 4.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 92 µmol/l

      You look back through his notes and see that he had blood taken as part of his annual review two weeks ago when his eGFR was at 58 (mL/min/1.73 m2). These current blood tests are a repeat organised by another doctor.

      He takes 10 mg of Lisinopril for hypertension but he has no other past medical history.

      You plan to have a telephone conversation with him regarding his renal function.

      What is the correct information to give this man?

      Your Answer: This lady has chronic kidney disease (CKD), she needs no further tests to diagnose it

      Correct Answer: If her eGFR remains below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 on at least 2 occasions separated by at least 90 days you can then diagnose CKD

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where there is an abnormality in kidney function or structure that lasts for more than three months and has implications for health. Diagnosis of CKD requires an eGFR of less than 60 on at least two occasions, separated by a minimum of 90 days. CKD can range from mild to end-stage renal disease, with associated protein and/or blood leakage into the urine. Common causes of CKD include diabetes, hypertension, nephrotoxic drugs, obstructive kidney disease, and multi-system diseases. Early diagnosis and treatment of CKD aim to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and progression to end-stage renal disease. Testing for CKD involves measuring creatinine levels in the blood, sending an early morning urine sample for albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) measurement, and dipping the urine for haematuria. CKD is diagnosed when tests persistently show a reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. This requires an eGFR persistently less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and/or ACR persistently greater than 3 mg/mmol. To confirm the diagnosis of CKD, a repeat blood test is necessary at least 90 days after the first one. For instance, a lady needs to provide an early morning urine sample for haematuria dipping and ACR measurement, and another blood test after 90 days to confirm CKD diagnosis.

      Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

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  • Question 86 - A 66-year-old man undergoes routine blood tests at his General Practice Surgery. These...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man undergoes routine blood tests at his General Practice Surgery. These reveal an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 64 ml/min (normal range: > 90 ml/min).
      A repeat test three months later gives an eGFR result of 62 ml/min. A urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 2.5 mg/mmol (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol). He is otherwise well with no symptoms.
      What is the most appropriate interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: CKD stage 2

      Correct Answer: No CKD

      Explanation:

      Understanding eGFR Results and CKD Stages

      When interpreting eGFR results, it is important to consider other markers of kidney damage such as albuminuria. An eGFR of 60-89 ml/min is considered mild and not indicative of CKD in the absence of albuminuria.

      A sustained reduction in eGFR over three months is not indicative of acute kidney injury, which typically involves a sudden and drastic reduction in eGFR.

      CKD stage 1 is diagnosed when eGFR is >90 ml/min and there is proteinuria (urine ACR >3 mg/mmol). This patient’s eGFR result of 62 ml/min and ACR of 2.5 mg/mmol doesn’t meet these criteria.

      CKD stage 2 is diagnosed when eGFR is 60-89 ml/min and ACR is >3 mg/mmol. While the patient’s eGFR result fits this criteria, the sustained drop and normal ACR exclude this diagnosis.

      CKD stage 3a is diagnosed when eGFR is 45-59 ml/min with or without other markers of kidney damage. This patient doesn’t meet this diagnostic marker.

      In summary, understanding eGFR results and other markers of kidney damage is crucial in determining CKD stages.

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  • Question 87 - A 72-year-old lady presents with urinary incontinence. Her history appears to be consistent...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old lady presents with urinary incontinence. Her history appears to be consistent with stress incontinence. She describes large leaks of urine over the past six months. She often leaks urine when coughing or climbing up stairs and sometimes wakes up a few times at night to urinate. She doesn't complain of dysuria or haematuria. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender and urinalysis is normal. Her BMI is 25.1 and she doesn't smoke. She has tried pelvic floor exercises for 9 months which haven't worked. She is not keen on surgery.
      What medication is licensed for urinary stress incontinence in this patient?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence

      Urinary stress incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine intake, maintaining steady fluid intake, losing weight, and quitting smoking. Pelvic floor exercises can also be helpful. If these measures are not effective, surgical options may be considered. Duloxetine can be used as a second-line treatment if the patient prefers medical grounds or if surgery is not an option. For urge incontinence, first-line medications include solifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine. Desmopressin is used for conditions such as diabetes insipidus, multiple sclerosis, enuresis, and haemophilia and von Willebrand’s disease. By following these treatment options, patients can manage their urinary incontinence and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 88 - A 57-year-old man with type-2 diabetes had a serum creatinine concentration of 250...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man with type-2 diabetes had a serum creatinine concentration of 250 µmol/l (50-110) before admission to hospital for radiographic investigation including intravenous contrast medium visualisation. Two days after discharge home his creatinine concentration is now 470 µmol/l and he has only passed small amounts of urine.
      Select from the list the single most correct option.

      Your Answer: He has acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is diagnosed through decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), increased serum creatinine or cystatin C, or oliguria. AKI is categorized into prerenal, renal, and postrenal. Prerenal AKI occurs when a normally functioning kidney responds to hypoperfusion by decreasing the GFR. Renal AKI refers to a condition where the pathology lies within the kidney itself. Postrenal failure is caused by an obstruction of the urinary tract. The most common cause of AKI in the renal category is acute tubular necrosis (ATN), which is usually due to prolonged ischaemia or nephrotoxins. Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is defined as a significant increase in serum creatinine after a radiographic examination using a contrast agent. Preexisting renal insufficiency, preexisting diabetes, and reduced intravascular volume are associated with an increased risk of CIN. Adequate hydration is an important preventative measure. In most cases, renal function returns to normal within 7-14 days of contrast administration. Dialysis is required in less than 1% of patients, with a slightly higher incidence in patients with underlying renal impairment and in those undergoing primary coronary intervention for myocardial infarction. However, in patients with diabetes and pre-existing severe renal failure, the rate of dialysis can be as high as 12%.

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  • Question 89 - Sarah is a 64-year-old who has come to you for guidance on vaccinations....

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 64-year-old who has come to you for guidance on vaccinations. She has chronic kidney disease stage 1 and uses salbutamol as needed for her asthma. She wants to know if she is eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. What advice should you give her?

      Your Answer: No, he is not eligible as he doesn't have stage 4 chronic kidney disease

      Correct Answer: Yes he is eligible as he is aged over 65 years

      Explanation:

      Jason’s eligibility for the vaccine is based on his age of over 65 years, as his chronic kidney disease is not at stage 3, 4 or 5, and he is not using oral steroids for his asthma.

      The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.

      The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.

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  • Question 90 - A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath over the past few months. He reports no current medication use but mentions experiencing back pain in recent weeks. Upon examination, initial tests show a serum creatinine level of 654 µmol/l (normal range: 60–120 µmol/l). What diagnostic test would be most beneficial in determining a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bence-Jones proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Laboratory Findings in Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be caused by various underlying conditions, and laboratory findings can help identify the specific cause. Bence-Jones proteinuria, the excretion of immunoglobulin light chains, is indicative of multiple myeloma. Other symptoms such as fatigue, breathlessness, and back pain can further support this diagnosis. Anaemia is a common occurrence in renal failure due to decreased erythropoietin production and marrow suppression. Hyperuricaemia, on the other hand, is not associated with any particular underlying cause. Hypocalcaemia is also common in renal failure, but it is typically secondary to decreased renal synthesis of calcitriol and doesn’t indicate a specific cause. Metabolic acidosis occurs in renal failure due to decreased renal acid excretion, but it alone doesn’t help differentiate between potential causes. Understanding these laboratory findings can aid in the diagnosis and management of renal failure.

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  • Question 91 - A 60-year-old man with a 6-month history of fatigue and low back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a 6-month history of fatigue and low back pain has an episode of severe loin pain. Physical examination is unremarkable except for pallor. An X-ray of the lower abdomen shows a ureteric calculus, and lytic lesions and osteoporosis in the lumbar vertebrae. Blood urea, serum creatinine, serum calcium and uric acid levels are raised.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Acute pyelonephritis

      Correct Answer: Myeloma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Features of Myeloma, Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia, Hyperparathyroidism, Acute Pyelonephritis, and Chronic Renal Failure

      Myeloma is a type of plasma cell neoplasm that causes diffuse bone marrow infiltration and localized osteolytic deposits. Patients with myeloma often experience anemia, hypercalcemia, and elevated levels of urea, uric acid, and creatinine. Back pain is a common symptom, and long-term hypercalcemia can lead to the formation of calculi.

      Chronic myeloid leukemia is characterized by massive splenomegaly, but patients typically have normal levels of urea and creatinine. However, uric acid levels may be elevated.

      Hyperparathyroidism is associated with increased bone turnover and elevated serum calcium levels. Subperiosteal resorption, especially on hand X-rays, is a common finding. However, lytic lesions are not typically seen.

      Acute pyelonephritis is not suggested by the patient’s history or physical exam findings.

      Hypocalcemia is a hallmark of chronic renal failure, but urolithiasis is unlikely in this condition.

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  • Question 92 - A 70-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral artery disease is prescribed ramipril for newly diagnosed stage 2 hypertension. After 10 days, his repeat U&Es show a decline in renal function. What is the probable cause of this deterioration?

      Before starting ramipril, his U&Es were within normal limits, with a sodium level of 141 mmol/L (135 - 145), potassium level of 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), bicarbonate level of 24 mmol/L (22 - 29), urea level of 3.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and creatinine level of 78 µmol/L (55 - 120). However, ten days later, his U&Es showed an increase in urea level to 8.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0) and creatinine level to 128 µmol/L (55 - 120), while his sodium and potassium levels remained stable and his bicarbonate level increased to 26 mmol/L (22 - 29).

      Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Bilateral renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis starts taking an ACE inhibitor, they may experience significant renal impairment. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of bilateral renal artery stenosis in patients with risk factors for atherosclerotic vascular disease, especially if they develop hypertension later in life and experience a sudden drop in renal function after starting an ACE inhibitor. This acute decline in renal function is not consistent with chronic kidney conditions like diabetic or hypertensive nephropathy. Glomerulonephritis or pre-renal acute kidney injury from dehydration are unlikely based on the information provided.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

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  • Question 93 - A 65-year-old man comes in seeking advice about urinary symptoms and the decision...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes in seeking advice about urinary symptoms and the decision is made to perform a PSA test. He is a regular gym-goer and exercises daily. What is the recommended duration for him to abstain from intense exercise before taking the PSA test?

      Your Answer: 48 hours

      Correct Answer: 1 week

      Explanation:

      Factors that can affect PSA levels

      PSA testing is a common method used to screen for prostate cancer. However, there are several factors that can increase PSA levels, which can lead to false positives and unnecessary biopsies. Therefore, it is important for men to be aware of these factors before undergoing a PSA test.

      Firstly, men should not have a PSA test if they have an active urinary infection, as this can cause inflammation and increase PSA levels. Additionally, if a man has had a prostate biopsy in the last 6 weeks, this can also cause an increase in PSA levels and should be avoided.

      Furthermore, vigorous exercise in the last 48 hours or ejaculation in the last 48 hours can also affect PSA levels. This is because physical activity and sexual activity can cause temporary inflammation in the prostate gland, leading to an increase in PSA levels.

      In conclusion, men should be counselled on these factors prior to undergoing a PSA test to ensure accurate results and avoid unnecessary procedures.

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  • Question 94 - A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria and severe right flank pain. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria and severe right flank pain. She is agitated and unable to find a position that relieves the pain. On physical examination, there is tenderness in the right lumbar region, but her abdomen is soft. She has no fever.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Presentations of Various Kidney Conditions

      Kidney conditions can present with a variety of symptoms and presentations. Renal colic, caused by the passage of stones into the ureter, is characterized by severe flank pain that radiates to the groin, along with haematuria, nausea, and vomiting. Acute pyelonephritis presents with fever, costovertebral angle pain, and nausea/vomiting, while acute glomerulonephritis doesn’t cause severe loin pain. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease can cause chronic loin pain, but it is not as severe as renal colic unless there is a stone present. Renal cell carcinoma may present with haematuria, loin pain, and a flank mass, but the pain is not as severe as in renal colic and pyrexia is only present in a minority of cases.

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  • Question 95 - A 76-year-old male presents to your clinic with complaints of overactive bladder symptoms....

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old male presents to your clinic with complaints of overactive bladder symptoms. After a thorough investigation, you decide to initiate medication for his symptoms. His blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, his pulse is 72 bpm and regular. Urodynamic studies reveal no urinary retention, and recent blood tests show normal renal and liver function. The patient is currently taking medications for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. However, due to his age and medication regimen, you want to avoid prescribing a medication with a high anticholinergic burden. What medication would you consider starting for this patient's overactive bladder symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prolifenacin

      Correct Answer: Mirabegron

      Explanation:

      Mirabegron, a beta 3 agonist, is recommended by NICE as a second option medication for overactive bladder symptoms, following antimuscarinics. However, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as hypertension (including severe cases) and tachycardia. The other drugs listed are also used for overactive bladder symptoms, but they are anticholinergics.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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  • Question 96 - A 60-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis presents with nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis presents with nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease is diagnosed.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Chloroquine

      Correct Answer: Gold

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Commonly Used Medications

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, oedema, hyperlipidaemia, and hypoalbuminaemia. It can be caused by various primary and secondary glomerular diseases, as well as certain drugs. Some drugs that can cause nephrotic syndrome include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, captopril, lithium, gold, diamorphine, interferon alfa, penicillamine, and probenecid.

      Gold, specifically sodium aurothiomalate, is used to treat active progressive rheumatoid arthritis. However, it can cause immune complex nephritis, leading to unexplained proteinuria above 300 mg/l, and blood dyscrasias and gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Chloroquine is associated with several side effects, such as visual disturbances, skin reactions, nausea and vomiting, hepatitis, and abdominal pain. However, nephrotic syndrome and renal impairment are not known complications.

      Methotrexate can cause various blood dyscrasias and liver toxicity, but nephropathy is a rare complication.

      Paracetamol, when used in its oral form, has rare side effects. However, overdose can lead to liver damage, but kidney damage is infrequent.

      Prednisolone is associated with numerous side effects, including anxiety, abnormal behavior, cataracts, cognitive impairment, Cushing syndrome, hypertension, increased risk of infection, and weight gain. Renal complications are not commonly associated with prednisolone use.

      In summary, while these medications can be effective in treating certain conditions, it is important to be aware of their potential side effects and to monitor for any adverse reactions.

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  • Question 97 - A 68-year-old woman is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease.
    Which complication is most...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease.
      Which complication is most likely to occur?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: Nausea and headache

      Explanation:

      Complications of Dialysis: Understanding the Risks and Symptoms

      Dialysis is a life-saving treatment for patients with end-stage renal disease, but it is not without its risks and complications. One of the most common side effects of removing too much fluid or removing it too rapidly is hypotension, fatigue, chest pains, leg cramps, nausea, and headaches. These symptoms can persist after treatment and are sometimes referred to as the dialysis hangover or dialysis washout.

      Another rare but serious neurological complication is dialysis disequilibrium syndrome, which is characterized by weakness, dizziness, headache, and mental status changes. Hypertension, hyperkalemia, infection, amyloidosis, and malnutrition are other potential complications.

      Contrary to popular belief, hyperkalemia is more commonly seen in dialysis patients than hypokalemia. Patients who undergo hemodialysis are also at an increased risk of contracting hepatitis B, but vaccination has significantly reduced the incidence of this complication.

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism and associated osteodystrophy have been major causes of morbidity in long-term dialysis patients, but better management of calcium and phosphorus metabolism and the availability of new drugs have improved outcomes. Malnutrition and weight loss are more commonly seen than weight gain, which may be due to loss of amino acids and peptides in the dialysate, sodium restriction, and dialysis-induced hypercatabolism.

      In conclusion, understanding the risks and symptoms of dialysis complications is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to ensure the best possible outcomes.

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  • Question 98 - A 63-year-old man, John, reports that his older brother has just been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man, John, reports that his older brother has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer after having his PSA test done as part of the national screening programme. John says that he has had his PSA test today and the results were normal.

      When will John's next PSA test be due?

      Your Answer: 2 years

      Correct Answer: 3 years

      Explanation:

      In the UK, breast cancer screening is currently offered to women between the ages of 50 and 70 every three years. However, there are plans to expand this service to include women aged 47 to 73 by the end of 2016. Additionally, women between the ages of 40 and 50 who are at a high risk of developing breast cancer may be offered screening every two years.

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

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  • Question 99 - A 6-month-old boy was thought to have a unilateral undescended testicle at birth....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy was thought to have a unilateral undescended testicle at birth. At 6 months, the testicle is palpable in the inguinal canal, but cannot be brought down into the scrotum.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Hormone treatment at 6 months

      Correct Answer: Surgery at 6 months

      Explanation:

      Undescended Testicles in Infants: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Undescended testicles, also known as cryptorchidism, is a common condition in male infants where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum. This can lead to potential complications such as infertility and an increased risk of testicular cancer.

      The recommended course of action is to refer the infant to paediatric surgery or urology before six months of age. The current recommended timing for surgery is before 12 months of life to preserve the stem cells for subsequent spermatogenesis. However, even with surgical treatment, long-term outcomes remain problematic with impaired fertility and an increased cancer risk.

      If one or both testicles are retractile, annual follow-up throughout childhood is advised due to the risk of ascending testis syndrome. Hormone treatment is an option, but it has a lower success rate and more adverse effects compared to surgery.

      For cases where a single testis is undescended, a referral to paediatric surgery or urology should be made by six months of age if the testis has not descended. It is important to review the surgical option after 12 months of age.

      Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial in managing undescended testicles in infants.

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  • Question 100 - A 55-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) has transferred...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) has transferred to the surgery. He is reviewed in clinic and it is noted that his vaccination history is not up to date. The patient's renal disease is advanced and he says that his renal specialist has been discussing the potential for haemodialysis and eventually transplantation.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination regimen for this patient?

      Your Answer: Hib MenC, Men B Pneumococcal vaccine

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B, influenza and pneumococcal

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Recommendations for Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease

      Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) are at increased risk of infections due to their compromised immune system. Vaccination is an important preventive measure for these patients. The following vaccines are recommended for patients with CKD:

      Hepatitis B, influenza, and Pneumococcal Vaccines
      Patients on Renal Replacement Therapy (RRT) or those likely to require RRT in the future should receive the standard series of three doses of hepatitis B vaccine. influenza vaccine should be given annually to all patients with CKD. Patients with CKD 3 or above should be offered two doses of Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) two months apart, followed by a booster dose of PCV every five years.

      Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B Vaccine
      Patients with haemophilia should receive the combination of Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B vaccine.

      Hib MenC, Men B Pneumococcal Vaccine
      Patients with a defective spleen, such as those with sickle cell disease or those who have had or will require splenectomy, should receive this combination vaccine.

      influenza and Pneumococcal and BCG Vaccine
      The BCG vaccine is not recommended for patients with CKD unless they are at increased risk of tuberculosis.

      It is important to note that immunisation should be given early in the course of progressive renal disease to maximise the chance of immunity. Live vaccines may need to be deferred in severely immunocompromised patients, but the majority of patients with CKD have sufficient immune function to safely receive live vaccines if there is no inactivated form available. Patients should also be monitored for antibody levels and offered booster doses as necessary.

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  • Question 101 - A 72-year-old man with a history of chronic constipation visits the General Practice...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with a history of chronic constipation visits the General Practice Surgery with complaints of being unable to pass urine for the past 10 hours. As a result, he has not been drinking fluids and is now dehydrated. Upon examination, you find a tender bladder palpable to his umbilicus and immediately catheterise him. The residual volume is 500 ml. What is the most suitable advice you can provide to this patient regarding his acute retention?

      Your Answer: It is nearly always due to prostatic enlargement

      Correct Answer: Constipation is the most likely cause

      Explanation:

      Mythbusting Urinary Retention: Common Misconceptions Debunked

      Urinary retention is a condition where the bladder is unable to empty completely or at all. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this condition that need to be debunked.

      Firstly, severe constipation can lead to urinary retention and should be considered as a cause. Other common causes include prostatic disease, urethral strictures, pelvic tumors, and medications. It is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.

      Secondly, suprapubic catheterization is not always indicated for co-existent urinary tract infections. It is only recommended when transurethral catheterization is not possible.

      Thirdly, urinary retention may not always be painful. Chronic retention may not cause pain, and even with acute retention, patients may not always report pain.

      Lastly, while benign prostatic hyperplasia is the most common cause of urinary retention in men, there are many other causes, and thorough evaluation is needed to identify and treat the underlying cause. Additionally, urinary retention can occur in both men and women.

      In conclusion, it is important to dispel these myths surrounding urinary retention to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 102 - A 60-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy experiences urinary retention and an acute kidney injury. Which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Due to the risk of lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued as the patient has developed an acute kidney injury. Additionally, in the future, it may be necessary to discontinue paroxetine as SSRIs can exacerbate urinary retention.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 103 - You are seeing a 65-year-old man who has come to discuss PSA testing....

    Correct

    • You are seeing a 65-year-old man who has come to discuss PSA testing. He plays tennis once a week with a friend who is on medication for his 'waterworks' and has had his PSA tested. He has come as he is not sure whether he would benefit from a PSA test.

      He is otherwise well with no specific urinary tract/genitourinary signs or symptoms. He has no significant past medical history or family history.

      Which of the following is appropriate advice to give regarding PSA testing?

      Your Answer: For every 25 men identified with prostate cancer following a high PSA test result, subsequent treatment will save one life

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer Screening: Understanding the Limitations

      PSA testing for prostate cancer screening is a topic of debate among medical professionals. While some advocate for its use, others are wary of over-treatment and patient harm. One of the main concerns is the limitations of PSA testing in terms of its sensitivity and specificity.

      When counseling men about PSA testing, it is important to provide them with understandable statistics and facts. For instance, two-thirds of men with a raised PSA will not have prostate cancer, while 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA will have prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow- and fast-growing cancers, and many men may have slow-growing cancers that would not have impacted their life expectancy if left undiscovered.

      Another point of debate is the frequency of PSA testing. While some patients opt for annual testing, experts suggest that a normal PSA in an asymptomatic man doesn’t need to be repeated for at least two years.

      When it comes to prostate cancer treatment, approximately 48 men need to undergo treatment in order to save one life. Overall, it is important to understand the limitations of PSA testing and to weigh the potential benefits and risks before making a decision about screening.

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  • Question 104 - A 70-year-old male patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and bony...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and bony metastases. Apart from mild urinary symptoms, he is otherwise well.

      The local urology department has asked you to initiate 'hormone manipulation of your choice'.

      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Any of the below are equally valid

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for metastatic prostate cancer

      In the treatment of metastatic prostate cancer, any luteinising hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) analogue can be used, such as goserelin or leuprorelin. However, there is a small risk of tumour flare in patients with metastatic disease, so it is recommended to initiate LHRH analogue therapy with a short-term anti-androgen like bicalutamide or cyproterone acetate. This risk is minimal, but it is considered good practice to take precautions.

      Once treatment has been established, three-monthly preparations of LHRH analogues are convenient for both patients and healthcare professionals. Anti-androgen mono-therapy for metastatic prostate cancer is not recommended. It is important to discuss all treatment options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 105 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of urinary incontinence. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of urinary incontinence. She recently gave birth to her second child through vaginal delivery about two months ago and has resumed exercising. However, she experiences incontinence during aerobics and jogging. On physical examination, she appears healthy with a blood pressure of 120/80 and a BMI of 24 kg/m2. Abdominal examination is normal.

      What is the best course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Refer her for bladder training

      Correct Answer: Start treatment with solifenacin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects many women. Stress or mixed UI can be treated with supervised pelvic floor muscle training, which should be offered as first-line treatment for at least three months. Bladder training, oxybutynin, or solifenacin are treatments for overactive bladder, while sacral nerve stimulation is used for detrusor overactivity in patients who have failed conservative treatment. Pelvic floor exercises are effective in preventing and treating stress incontinence, and supervised exercises have been shown to improve symptoms post-pregnancy. Electrical stimulation or surgical referral are other options if exercises are ineffective. Urodynamic investigations before initial treatment do not improve outcomes.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 106 - A 65-year-old man presents with a three month history of pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a three month history of pain in the perineum, lower urinary tract symptoms, and sexual dysfunction.

      MSU is negative and PR is normal other than a tender prostate.

      Which one of the following is true with regard to chronic prostatitis?

      Your Answer: An infective cause is identified in 90% of patients

      Correct Answer: It is considered a chronic pelvic pain syndrome in 90% of men

      Explanation:

      Chronic Prostatitis: A Complex Diagnosis

      The diagnosis and underlying cause of chronic prostatitis can be challenging to determine. While some experts debate whether it is a chronic pain syndrome, only 10% of cases are caused by infection, and antibiotics are often ineffective in treating the condition. As a result, the term chronic pelvic pain syndrome has been adopted to better reflect the complex nature of this condition. Despite ongoing research, the diagnosis and management of chronic prostatitis remain a challenge for healthcare professionals.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 107 - You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy and takes no medication. Her routine blood tests, including a full blood count, renal and liver function, are all normal. A urine dip was also normal. You notice a urine albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) result and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) result of >90 mL/min/1.73 m2. Her early morning ACR is 5.

      As per NICE guidelines, what stage of chronic kidney disease (CKD) does this woman fall under?

      Your Answer: G3aA3

      Correct Answer: G1A2

      Explanation:

      A patient with a urine ACR of 5 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 is classified as having G1A2 CKD. CKD is categorized based on the eGFR and urine ACR, with G1 representing stage 1 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2, and A2 representing a urine ACR of 3-70 mg/mmol. Patients with G1A1 or G2A2 classification are not considered to have CKD in the absence of kidney damage markers.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 108 - A mother presents to the General Practitioner with her 5-day-old son. She believes...

    Incorrect

    • A mother presents to the General Practitioner with her 5-day-old son. She believes his scrotum looks abnormal and is worried that he has an undescended testicle.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate method of diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopy

      Correct Answer: Physical examination

      Explanation:

      An undescended testis occurs when a testis is not present in the scrotum. This can be due to various reasons such as testicular maldescent, retractile testes, ascending testis syndrome, or testicular agenesis. To diagnose this condition, physical examination is recommended, and the testes can be categorized as palpable or non-palpable. Magnetic resonance imaging is not necessary as physical examination is cheaper, faster, and more accessible. Parental history may raise concern, but physical examination is still necessary for confirmation. Diagnostic laparoscopy can be used to investigate the underlying cause of undescended testes, but it is not used for diagnosis. Ultrasound scanning is not recommended for routine evaluation as it is not accurate enough to reliably detect or confirm the absence of an impalpable testis.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 109 - Your practice decides to do an audit of lithium prescribing as a result...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice decides to do an audit of lithium prescribing as a result of a significant event.
      Select the single correct statement regarding the use of lithium in pediatric practice.

      Your Answer: Lithium has a wide therapeutic range

      Correct Answer: Lithium is associated with an increase in risk of hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Lithium Toxicity: Causes, Symptoms, and Prevention

      Lithium toxicity is a common occurrence, especially among the elderly, despite the implementation of QOF targets and safety advice. To prevent toxicity, patients should undergo regular renal and thyroid function tests before and after starting treatment. Additionally, patients should be informed of common side effects such as tremors, dry mouth, thirst, and urinary frequency. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic window, and toxicity can develop rapidly if the patient becomes dehydrated, has renal impairment, or a concurrent infection. Calcium levels should also be monitored due to the reported association with hyperparathyroidism.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle weakness, ataxia, confusion, lethargy, polyuria, seizures, and coma. Other toxic effects include coarse tremors, muscle twitching, convulsions, and renal failure. Survivors of a poisoning episode may develop persistent neurotoxicity.

      In conclusion, lithium toxicity can be prevented by regular monitoring of renal and thyroid functions, informing patients of common side effects, and monitoring calcium levels. Early detection and treatment of toxicity symptoms can prevent severe complications and persistent neurotoxicity.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 110 - Sophie is a 70-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 70-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with chronic kidney disease secondary to hypertension. She has come to see her GP for a review. On examination her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg. She has no other past medical history of note. Her recent investigation results are as follows:

      Hb 130g/L Female: (120-160)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 7.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      eGFR 60mL/min/1.73m2 (>90 mL/min/1.73m2)
      Urine albumin:Creatinine ratio 30 mg/mmol (<3mg/mmol)
      HbA1c 42 mmol/mol (<42 mmol/mol)

      She currently takes lisinopril, atorvastatin and ferrous sulphate.

      What additional medication should she be prescribed?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Patients with chronic kidney disease and an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of more than 3 mg/mmol should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor. If co-existent diabetes is present, an ACE inhibitor should be prescribed regardless of ACR. If co-existent hypertension is present, an ACE inhibitor should be prescribed if ACR is >30 mg/mmol. If ACR is >70mg/mmol, an ACE inhibitor should also be prescribed. Therefore, ramipril is the appropriate medication. Bendroflumethiazide should be avoided as it may exacerbate renal failure. Aspirin may be used for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease in accordance with guidelines, but not for primary prevention.

      Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management

      Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.

      To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.

      According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.

      The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 111 - A 37-year-old man has noticed tenderness and slight swelling in the lower half...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old man has noticed tenderness and slight swelling in the lower half of his left testicle for the past 2 weeks. What is the most appropriate course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testicular ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Testicular Cancer: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that typically affects young men in their third or fourth decade of life. The most common symptom is a painless, unilateral mass in the scrotum, but in about 20% of cases, scrotal pain may be the first symptom. Unfortunately, in about 10% of cases, a testicular tumor can be mistaken for epididymo orchitis, leading to a delay in the correct diagnosis.

      Diagnostic ultrasound is the most effective way to confirm the presence of a testicular mass and explore the contralateral testis. It has a sensitivity of almost 100% in detecting a testicular tumor and can determine whether a mass is intra- or extratesticular. Even if a testicular tumor is clinically evident, an ultrasound should still be performed as it is an inexpensive test.

      Serum tumor markers, including αfetoprotein, HCG, and LDH, are important prognostic factors and contribute to diagnosis and staging. In about half of all cases of testicular cancer, markers are increased, but there is variation between different cancers and different markers.

      In conclusion, early detection and diagnosis of testicular cancer are crucial for successful treatment and a positive prognosis. Men should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their testicles.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 112 - A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with acute retention of urine. He has a palpable bladder up to his umbilicus and is in significant discomfort. His GP sends him to the emergency department where he is catheterised and blood is taken to test his renal function. His serum creatinine concentration is 520 µmol/l (normal range 60–120 µmol/l).
      Which of the following additional results would be most suggestive that his renal failure was chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Markers for Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be classified as acute or chronic based on the duration and severity of the condition. Biochemical markers can help distinguish between the two types of renal failure.

      Hypocalcaemia is a common feature of chronic renal failure and occurs due to the gradual increase of phosphorus in the bloodstream. Low serum bicarbonate concentration is indicative of acute kidney injury and can lead to metabolic acidosis. Hyperkalaemia and hyperuricaemia can occur in both acute and chronic renal failure, while mild hyponatraemia is relatively common in both types of renal failure.

      Overall, while these biochemical markers can provide some insight into the type of renal failure, they are not definitive and should be considered in conjunction with other clinical factors.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 113 - A 21-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of a lump in his scrotum that he noticed while showering. He reports feeling some discomfort in the area but denies any pain. He has been in a committed relationship with his girlfriend and had a clear sexual health screen two weeks ago.

      During the physical examination, the GP notes a soft mass on the front part of the right testis that cannot be distinguished from the testis itself. The lump is not tender to touch and transilluminates.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrocoele

      Explanation:

      When examining scrotal lumps, it is crucial to differentiate between a hydrocoele and other types of testicular masses. This can be done by determining whether the lump is connected to the testis or separate from it, and whether it is solid or fluid-filled.

      A hydrocoele is a fluid-filled sac that forms around the testis within the tunica vaginalis. It is cystic in nature and cannot be distinguished from the testis itself. However, it can be identified by its ability to transilluminate. Although a hydrocoele is typically benign, it can sometimes be a symptom of a testicular tumor, which can be ruled out with an ultrasound scan.

      In contrast, testicular tumors are usually connected to the testis and have an irregular shape. They are not cystic and do not transilluminate, but they can also cause a secondary hydrocoele.

      Varicocoeles and epididymal cysts are separate from the testis and can be identified by their distinct location.

      Scrotal Swelling: Causes and Management

      Scrotal swelling can be caused by various conditions, including inguinal hernia, testicular tumors, acute epididymo-orchitis, epididymal cysts, hydrocele, testicular torsion, and varicocele. Inguinal hernia is characterized by inguinoscrotal swelling that cannot be examined above it, while testicular tumors often have a discrete testicular nodule and symptoms of metastatic disease. Acute epididymo-orchitis is often accompanied by dysuria and urethral discharge, while epididymal cysts are usually painless and occur in individuals over 40 years old. Hydrocele is a non-painful, soft fluctuant swelling that can be examined above, while testicular torsion is characterized by severe, sudden onset testicular pain and requires urgent surgery. Varicocele is characterized by varicosities of the pampiniform plexus and may affect fertility.

      The management of scrotal swelling depends on the underlying condition. Testicular malignancy is treated with orchidectomy via an inguinal approach, while torsion requires prompt surgical exploration and testicular fixation. Varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, but surgery or radiological management can be considered if there are concerns about testicular function or infertility. Epididymal cysts can be excised using a scrotal approach, while hydroceles are managed differently in children and adults. In children, an inguinal approach is used to ligate the underlying pathology, while in adults, a scrotal approach is preferred to excise or plicate the hydrocele sac.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 114 - An individual who is 70 years old has been diagnosed with prostate cancer...

    Incorrect

    • An individual who is 70 years old has been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is prescribed goserelin (Zoladex). During the first three weeks of treatment, what is the most crucial medication to co-prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate

      Explanation:

      To prevent tumour flare, it is recommended to co-prescribe anti-androgen treatment like cyproterone acetate when initiating gonadorelin analogues. This is because the initial stimulation of luteinising hormone release by the pituitary gland can lead to an increase in testosterone levels. According to the BNF, cyproterone acetate should be started three days prior to the gonadorelin analogue.

      Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.

      In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 115 - A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain. Her family are refugees and she was born in a refugee camp in Greece. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen shows an enlarged, irregular cystic kidney on the left side. A renal biopsy has shown dysplasia.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multicystic dysplastic kidney

      Explanation:

      Renal Abnormalities: Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney, Hypospadias, Infantile Polycystic Kidney Disease, Potter Syndrome, and Renal Fusion

      Renal abnormalities can present in various forms, each with its own unique characteristics. One such abnormality is multicystic dysplastic kidney, which is identified by the presence of multiple non-communicating cysts of varying sizes in the absence of a normal pelvicalyceal system. Unilateral disease is usually asymptomatic and can remain undetected into adulthood. Hypospadias, on the other hand, is a condition where the urethral opening is not at the usual location on the head of the penis, but below it. It is diagnosed on clinical examination.

      Infantile polycystic kidney disease is always bilateral and is characterised by both renal and hepatobiliary disease, which can be severe. Potter syndrome, which usually has a very poor prognosis, is diagnosed at birth and occurs when there is antenatal oligohydramnios secondary to renal disease, usually bilateral renal agenesis. Lastly, renal fusion, also known as horseshoe kidney, is formed by fusion across the midline of two distinct functioning kidneys, one on each side of the midline. Ultrasound scanning can identify various findings, such as a curved configuration of the lower poles, elongation of the lower poles, and poorly defined lower poles, which suggest the presence of horseshoe kidney.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 116 - Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the past 2 years with no relief. Her symptoms occur when she laughs or coughs, but she has not had any episodes of nocturia. She has tried pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, but these have not improved her symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no signs of infection, and a pelvic examination doesn't reveal any uterine prolapse. Linda declines surgical intervention. What is the next most appropriate intervention for her incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with stress incontinence doesn’t respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and declines surgical intervention, duloxetine may be considered as a treatment option. However, it is important to first rule out other potential causes of urinary incontinence, such as infection. Non-pharmacological management, such as pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, should be attempted before medical management. Duloxetine, a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, is commonly used for stress incontinence but may cause side effects such as nausea, dizziness, and insomnia. For urge incontinence, antimuscarinic agents like oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin are typically used as first-line treatment. If these are ineffective, a β3 agonist called mirabegron can be used as a second-line therapy.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 117 - A 30-year-old woman who is currently 8 weeks pregnant contacts the clinic to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is currently 8 weeks pregnant contacts the clinic to inquire about the results of her urine culture that was taken during her first antenatal visit. She reports no symptoms and has no known allergies to medications.

      The urine culture report indicates:

      Significant growth of Escherichia coli

      Trimethoprim Sensitive
      Nitrofurantoin Sensitive
      Cefalexin Sensitive

      What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin (7 day course)

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 118 - An 81-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with increasing oedema and ascites....

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with increasing oedema and ascites. He reports shortness of breath during exercise. Past medical history reveals that he has a history of hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine, and that he drinks two cans of stout on Friday and Saturday nights. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. His chest X-ray (CXR) reveals a normal heart size and no signs of cardiac failure. Urine dipstick doesn't detect haematuria.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Serum albumin 230 g/l 350–500 g/l
      Haemoglobin 12.5 g/dl 13.5–17.5 g/dl
      Mean cell volume (MCV) 92 fl 80–100 fl
      Total cholesterol 7.8 mmol/l < 5 mmol/l
      24-hour urinary protein excretion 5g/24 hours < 0.15g/24 hours
      What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Oedema and Abnormal Lab Results

      Upon examination of a patient displaying oedema and abnormal lab results, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient’s low serum albumin, abnormal cholesterol, and increased urinary protein excretion suggest nephrotic syndrome, which is characterized by urinary protein excretion above 3.5 g/24 hours. This excessive protein loss leads to hypoalbuminaemia and subsequent oedema, which may cause breathlessness due to pleural effusion or ascites.

      However, cardiac failure can also cause oedema, but a normal ECG and CXR without signs of cardiomegaly, pleural effusions, or pulmonary venous congestion make this diagnosis less likely. Amlodipine treatment can also cause oedema, but the patient’s other symptoms do not align with the side effects of this medication.

      Cirrhosis is unlikely as the patient’s alcohol consumption doesn’t exceed safe limits, and there are no indications of any other cause of cirrhosis. Nephritic syndrome, which is characterized by haematuria and reduced urine output, is also unlikely as the patient doesn’t display these symptoms and his urinary protein excretion is above the threshold for this diagnosis.

      In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and lab results suggest nephrotic syndrome as the most likely diagnosis, but other potential causes should also be considered and ruled out through further testing and examination.

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  • Question 119 - A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for routine blood tests. She is currently following a low-phosphate diet and taking calcitriol. The results are as follows:

      Hb 130 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 190 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 5 mg/L (< 5)
      Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 2.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Amylase 90 U/L (70 - 300)
      Uric acid 0.55 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
      Creatine kinase 50 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the most appropriate course of action to address these blood test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sevelamer

      Explanation:

      Managing Mineral Bone Disease in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) leads to low vitamin D and high phosphate levels due to the kidneys’ inability to perform their normal functions. This results in osteomalacia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and low calcium levels. To manage mineral bone disease in CKD, the aim is to reduce phosphate and parathyroid hormone levels.

      Reduced dietary intake of phosphate is the first-line management, followed by the use of phosphate binders. Aluminium-based binders are less commonly used now, and calcium-based binders may cause hypercalcemia and vascular calcification. Sevelamer, a non-calcium based binder, is increasingly used as it binds to dietary phosphate and prevents its absorption. It also has other beneficial effects, such as reducing uric acid levels and improving lipid profiles in patients with CKD.

      In some cases, vitamin D supplementation with alfacalcidol or calcitriol may be necessary. Parathyroidectomy may also be needed to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Proper management of mineral bone disease in CKD is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 120 - You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his...

    Incorrect

    • You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his erections. He is generally healthy, a non-smoker, and consumes 8-10 units of alcohol per week. He has been in a relationship for 3 years, and this issue is beginning to impact their intimacy.

      After conducting a thorough psychosexual history, which findings from the following list would indicate an organic cause rather than a psychogenic cause for his issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A normal libido

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, mixed, or drug-induced.

      Symptoms that indicate a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset of the condition, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems, major life events, and psychological issues.

      On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset of the condition, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), risk factors in medical history such as cardiovascular, endocrine or neurological conditions, previous operations, radiotherapy, or trauma to the pelvis or scrotum, current use of drugs known to cause ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, and use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.

      Therefore, having a normal libido is indicative of an organic cause of ED.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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  • Question 121 - You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day history of dysuria and frequency of urination. There is no reported visible haematuria. He has no history of urinary tract infections, however, he does report longstanding problems with poor urinary stream, hesitancy of urination, and nocturia.

      Clinical examination of his abdomen and loins is unremarkable and he has no fever or systemic upset.

      Urine dipstick testing shows:
      nitrites positive
      leucocytes ++
      protein ++
      blood ++.

      You diagnose a urinary tract infection, send a urine sample to the laboratory for analysis, and treat him with a course of antibiotics.

      You go on to chat about his more longstanding lower urinary tract symptoms. Following this discussion, he is keen to have a rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. Digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged benign feeling prostate.

      Two days later, the laboratory urine results return confirming a urinary tract infection.

      When is the most appropriate time to perform a PSA blood test in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The test can be performed any time from now

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Prostate-Specific Antigen Blood Test

      The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is a common diagnostic tool used to detect prostate cancer. However, the test results can be influenced by various factors, including benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, urinary retention, urinary tract infection, old age, urethral or rectal instrumentation/examination, recent vigorous exercise, or ejaculation.

      It is important to note that the PSA test should be deferred for at least a month in individuals with a proven urinary tract infection. Additionally, if the person has recently ejaculated or exercised vigorously in the past 48 hours, the test should also be postponed. While some sources suggest delaying PSA testing for at least a week after a digital rectal examination, studies have shown that rectal examination has minimal impact on PSA levels.

      In summary, several factors can affect the results of the PSA blood test, and it is crucial to consider these factors before interpreting the test results accurately.

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  • Question 122 - A 74-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of penile pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of penile pain. He has an indwelling catheter that has recently been changed. During examination, the preputial skin is retracted, swollen and forms a tight constricting band behind the glans penis. The glans penis is swollen and congested, while the shaft of the penis appears normal. What is the most suitable initial management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ice packs and manual compression

      Explanation:

      Paraphimosis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Paraphimosis is a medical condition that occurs when the foreskin of the penis becomes trapped behind the head of the penis, leading to swelling and pain. This condition is considered a medical emergency as it can cause serious complications if left untreated. In this article, we will discuss the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for paraphimosis.

      Causes:
      Paraphimosis can occur due to a variety of reasons, including:

      – Trauma to the penis
      – Infection
      – Poor hygiene
      – Sexual activity
      – Medical procedures, such as catheterization

      Symptoms:
      The symptoms of paraphimosis include:

      – Swelling and pain in the penis
      – Inability to retract the foreskin
      – Discoloration of the penis
      – Difficulty urinating

      Treatment Options:
      The treatment for paraphimosis depends on the severity of the condition. In mild cases, the swelling can be reduced using gentle compression, ice, or osmosis. Topical lidocaine gel may also be used to reduce pain and discomfort.

      In more severe cases, multiple punctures or injections of hyaluronidase may be required. In some cases, a dorsal incision may be necessary to release the trapped foreskin. A general anesthetic may be required for these procedures.

      If a catheter is present, it should be removed temporarily until the paraphimosis has resolved.

      In conclusion, paraphimosis is a serious medical condition that requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. If you experience any symptoms of paraphimosis, seek medical attention immediately.

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  • Question 123 - A 14-year-old boy presents with swollen legs and proteinuria (> 3.5g/24 hours). After...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with swollen legs and proteinuria (> 3.5g/24 hours). After referral and kidney biopsy, a diagnosis of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is made.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may present as a nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Glomerulonephritis: Types, Symptoms, and Causes

      Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation in the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can be primary or secondary, and may present with various symptoms such as haematuria, proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, nephritic syndrome, acute or chronic renal failure.

      Primary glomerulonephritis can be classified based on clinical syndrome, histopathological appearance, or underlying aetiology. One common type is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, which causes segmental scarring and podocyte fusion in the glomerulus. It often leads to nephrotic syndrome and may progress to end-stage renal failure, but can be treated with corticosteroids.

      Another type is IgA nephropathy, which is characterised by IgA antibody deposition in the glomerulus and is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults worldwide. It usually presents with macroscopic haematuria but can also cause nephrotic syndrome.

      Interstitial nephritis, on the other hand, affects the area between the nephrons and can be acute or chronic. The most common cause is a drug hypersensitivity reaction.

      In summary, understanding the types, symptoms, and causes of glomerulonephritis is crucial in diagnosing and managing this group of kidney disorders.

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  • Question 124 - Which of the following indicate the presence of authentic stress incontinence (GSI)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following indicate the presence of authentic stress incontinence (GSI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Passage of large amounts of urine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many people, particularly women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, and each has its own set of symptoms. Genuine stress incontinence is characterized by the loss of urine during physical activity such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or intercourse. The urine loss is immediate and often described as a squirt of urine.

      On the other hand, detrusor dyssynergia (DD) is characterized by a sudden urge to urinate that may occur while at rest or after physical activity. This is followed by a large loss of urine. Dysuria, or painful urination, may indicate an infection of the bladder and urethra or irritation of the vulval and perineal epithelium due to the dribbling of urine.

      In some cases, urinary incontinence may be associated with other pelvic relaxation problems such as cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse.

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  • Question 125 - A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.

      She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.

      She has tried pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months but still finds the symptoms very debilitating. She denies feeling depressed. She is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.

      Urinalysis is unremarkable. On vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.

      What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries are an alternative non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the patient only presents with stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary under the 2-week-wait pathway. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the patient’s symptoms persist after 6 months of trying this approach, it is not advisable to continue with the same strategy.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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  • Question 126 - A 25-year-old male presents with a testicular mass.

    On examination the mass is painless,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents with a testicular mass.

      On examination the mass is painless, approximately 2 cm in diameter, hard, with an irregular surface and doesn't transilluminate.

      What is the most likely cause of the lump?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Tumour Diagnosis Based on Lump Characteristics

      The lump’s characteristics suggest that it is a tumour, specifically due to its hard and irregular nature. However, the patient’s age is a crucial factor in determining the type of tumour. Teratomas are more commonly found in patients aged 20-30, while seminomas are prevalent in those aged 30-50. Teratomas are gonadal tumours that originate from multipotent cells present in the ovaries.

      In summary, the characteristics of a lump can provide valuable information in diagnosing a tumour. However, age is also a crucial factor in determining the type of tumour, as different types of tumours are more prevalent in certain age groups.

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  • Question 127 - A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He has hypertension, depression, type II diabetes and benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).
      On examination, he is found to have an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (normal range: > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2).
      What is the most appropriate medication to reduce given this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medication Management in Renal Impairment: A Case Study

      In managing patients with renal impairment, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of medication use. In this case study, we will review the medication regimen of a patient with an eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 and discuss any necessary adjustments.

      Metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis and should be avoided if the patient’s eGFR is ≤ 30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. The dose should be reviewed if the eGFR is ≤ 45 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Treatment should also be withdrawn in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function.

      Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used in the treatment of depression, can be used with caution in renal failure and doesn’t require dose reduction.

      Finasteride, used to treat BPH, doesn’t require dose adjustment in those with renal failure.

      Tamsulosin, also used to treat BPH, should be used with caution in patients with an eGFR level < 10 ml/min per 1.73 m2. However, this patient's eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 doesn't meet this threshold, so no adjustment is necessary at this time. Nifedipine, used to treat hypertension and angina, doesn’t require dose modification in those with renal impairment. In conclusion, medication management in renal impairment requires careful consideration of each patient’s individual case and potential risks and benefits of medication use. Close monitoring and regular review of medication regimens are essential to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

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  • Question 128 - A 70-year-old man with prostatism has a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with prostatism has a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration of 7.5 ng/ml (normal range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
      What is the most appropriate conclusion to make from this information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It could be explained by prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding PSA Levels in Prostate Health: What You Need to Know

      PSA levels can be a useful indicator of prostate health, but they are not always straightforward to interpret. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      – PSA has a low specificity: prostatitis and acute urinary retention can both result in increased serum PSA concentrations. As the patient is known to have prostatism, this could well account for a raised PSA; however, further investigation to exclude a malignancy may be warranted.
      – It is diagnostic of malignancy: Although this level is certainly compatible with malignancy; it is not diagnostic of it. Further investigations, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scanning and/or prostatic biopsies, are needed to confirm a diagnosis of prostate cancer.
      – It is invalidated if he underwent a digital rectal examination 8 days before the blood sample was taken: Although DRE is known to increase PSA levels, it is a minor and only transient effect. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme says that the test should be postponed for a week following DRE.
      – It is prognostically highly significant: In general, the higher the PSA, the greater the likelihood of malignancy, but some patients with malignancy have normal levels (often taken as = 4 ng/ml but are actually age dependent). The absolute PSA concentration correlates poorly with prognosis in prostatic cancer. Other factors such as the tumour staging and Gleason score need to be considered.
      – It is unremarkable in a man of this age: Although PSA does increase with age, the British Association of Urological Surgeons gives a maximum level of 7.2 ng/ml in those aged 70–75 years (although it acknowledges that there is no ‘safe “maximum” level’). Therefore, this level can still indicate malignancy, regardless of symptoms.

      In summary, PSA levels can provide important information about prostate health, but they should always be interpreted in the context of other factors and confirmed with further testing if necessary.

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  • Question 129 - A 65-year-old man of Mediterranean origin with chronic kidney disease presents for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man of Mediterranean origin with chronic kidney disease presents for his annual check-up. His most recent eGFR is 50 mL/min/1.73m2 and his urine albumin creatinine ratio is 42 mg/mmol. He reports feeling well and adhering to the aspirin and atorvastatin prescribed to him last year. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home and provides a week's worth of readings, which indicate an average blood pressure of 143/95 mmHg.

      What recommendations would you make for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      For patients with chronic kidney disease, the urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) is an important measure of protein loss in the urine. If the ACR is 30 or more, the first line of treatment should be an ACE inhibitor, as it can reduce proteinuria and provide renal protection beyond its use as an antihypertensive. However, if the ACR is less than 30, current NICE guidelines on hypertension should be followed for treatment.

      In the case of this patient, an ACE inhibitor should be considered as the first line of treatment since their ACR is greater than 30. Thiazide-like diuretics are a suitable alternative to calcium channel blockers for non-diabetic patients with hypertension and can be used as a second line option. Beta blockers are not a first line option for blood pressure control in non-diabetic patients and are only recommended as a step 4 treatment for hypertension.

      If there is doubt about the validity of the patient’s home readings or if they prefer lifestyle management, monitoring without medication changes may be a viable option. However, tight blood pressure control is essential to slow the rate of deterioration of chronic kidney disease and reduce cardiovascular risk.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

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  • Question 130 - A 58-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria. She is a heavy smoker and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria. She is a heavy smoker and has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She previously lived in Australia and has used substantial amounts of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis and also phenacetin some years ago. Renal function testing is normal. She has a raised plasma viscosity and is anaemic with a haemoglobin of 100 g/l (115-155).
      Select the most likely diagnosis to fit with this clinical picture.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transitional-cell carcinoma of the bladder

      Explanation:

      Bladder Cancer: Risk Factors, Presentation, and Survival Rates

      Bladder cancer is a relatively uncommon malignancy, accounting for around 3% of cancer deaths. It is more prevalent in males, with a male to female ratio of 4:1, and is rare in individuals under 40 years of age. The most common type of bladder cancer is transitional-cell carcinoma.

      Several risk factors have been identified, including smoking, exposure to certain chemicals found in industrial settings, and the use of certain medications such as phenacetin and cyclophosphamide. Chronic inflammation caused by conditions such as schistosomiasis, indwelling catheters, or stones is associated with squamous-cell carcinoma of the bladder.

      The most common presentation of bladder cancer is painless hematuria (blood in the urine), although pain may occur due to clot retention. Women are more likely to have muscle-invasive disease at presentation.

      The 5-year survival rate for bladder cancer varies depending on the stage of the disease at diagnosis. Patients with small, early superficial tumors have a survival rate of 80-90%, while those with metastases at presentation have a survival rate of only 5%.

      In conclusion, bladder cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by a variety of factors. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving survival rates.

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  • Question 131 - A 60-year-old woman with longstanding diabetes presents with proteinuria. Her serum creatinine level...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with longstanding diabetes presents with proteinuria. Her serum creatinine level is normal.
      What is the most common renal complication in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Diabetes Mellitus: Diabetic Nephropathy

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body. People with diabetes are at a higher risk of developing atherosclerosis, urinary infections, and papillary necrosis. However, the most significant complications arise from diabetic nephropathy, which affects the glomeruli in the kidneys.

      There are three major histological changes that occur in the glomeruli of people with diabetic nephropathy. Firstly, hyperglycemia directly induces mesangial expansion. Secondly, the glomerular basement membrane thickens. Finally, glomerular sclerosis occurs due to intraglomerular hypertension, which can be caused by a dilated afferent renal artery or ischaemic injury.

      It is important to note that obstructive uropathy is not a common complication of diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels and undergo regular kidney function tests to prevent and manage diabetic nephropathy.

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  • Question 132 - A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General Hospital dies suddenly. On reviewing her regular medications, you note that she was taking aspirin, a statin and three antihypertensive agents. She had also been receiving erythropoietin injections.
      What is the most likely cause of sudden death in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiovascular disease

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Sudden Death in Patients Undergoing Renal Dialysis

      Patients undergoing renal dialysis are at a high risk of cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Chronic renal failure leads to several risk factors, such as abnormal lipid levels and hypertension, that contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease. Statins and antihypertensive medications are commonly prescribed to manage these risk factors. Aspirin may also be prescribed to prevent vascular events, although it increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Although patients on dialysis are also at an increased risk of malignancies and pulmonary embolism, sudden death due to these causes is less common than sudden death due to cardiovascular failure. Occult malignancy and overwhelming sepsis are usually preceded by symptoms of illness, whereas sudden death is unexpected. Pulmonary embolism may occur in patients with multiple risk factors, but cardiovascular disease is a more likely cause of death in this context.

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  • Question 133 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at her gynecologist appointment. She is asymptomatic but has had a history of post-coital cystitis in the past. Sarah is currently 8 weeks pregnant.

      The urine culture comes back showing the growth of Escherichia coli.

      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with 7 days of nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have a UTI should be treated promptly, regardless of whether they have symptoms or not. This is because leaving a UTI untreated can increase the risk of pyelonephritis and premature delivery. Therefore, doing nothing is not an option.

      The recommended treatment for a UTI in pregnant women is a 7-day course of antibiotics. The choice of antibiotics depends on the trimester of pregnancy.

      Trimethoprim is not recommended during the first trimester due to its effect on folate metabolism. However, it is safe to use during the second and third trimesters.

      Nitrofurantoin is often the first-line treatment and is safe to use during pregnancy. However, it should be avoided at term (40 weeks) due to the small risk of neonatal haemolysis.

      In this case, since the patient is in her first trimester, a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is the recommended treatment.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 134 - A 55-year-old man who recently moved to the United Kingdom (UK) from India...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man who recently moved to the United Kingdom (UK) from India visits his General Practitioner complaining of a painless penile ulcer that has been gradually increasing in size over the past year. Upon examination, the doctor observes a solitary ulcer on the glans and painless inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Penile cancer is a rare condition in the UK, but more common in Asia and Africa, particularly in India. The most common type of penile cancer is squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC), which typically presents as a non-healing ulcer in men in their sixth decade. Behçet’s disease is a multisystem disorder that presents with recurrent painful oral and genital ulcers, along with other symptoms such as malaise, myopathy, headaches, and fevers. Adenocarcinoma is a less common type of penile cancer that tends to appear flatter and scalier than SCC. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) and syphilis are both sexually transmitted infections that can cause genital ulceration, but they present with different symptoms and require different treatments. HSV causes painful ulceration and tender lymphadenopathy, while syphilis presents with a painless chancre and painless inguinal lymphadenopathy.

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  • Question 135 - A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a new patient check. His blood pressure is noted to be 152/100 mmHg so you arrange blood tests. The results include an eGFR of 55.
      Select the single correct diagnosis that can be made in this case.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of CKD and Hypertension: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension. To diagnose CKD, more than one estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) reading below 60 is required over a period of three months. Similarly, hypertension should not be diagnosed based on a single blood pressure reading, but rather through ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. Acute kidney injury is characterized by a significant increase in serum creatinine or oliguria, and eGFR is not a reliable indicator for its diagnosis. NICE also recommends using eGFRcystatinC to confirm or rule out CKD in individuals with an eGFR of 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2, sustained for at least 90 days, and no proteinuria or other markers of kidney disease.

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  • Question 136 - You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with a medical history of hypertension and a myocardial infarction 6 years ago. During her blood test taken a week ago, her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was found to be 45 mL/min/1.73 m2, indicating reduced kidney function and a possible diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The patient is curious about what other tests are needed to confirm CKD, aside from repeating her kidney function test in 3 months. What other tests should be recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should bring in an early morning urine sample to be dipped for haematuria and sent for urine ACR calculation

      Explanation:

      To diagnose CKD in a patient with an eGFR <60, it is necessary to measure the creatinine level in the blood, obtain an early morning urine sample for ACR testing, and dip the urine for haematuria. CKD is confirmed when these tests show a persistent reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. Proteinuria is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease and mortality, and an early morning urine sample is preferred for ACR analysis. The patient should provide another blood sample after 90 days to confirm the diagnosis of CKD. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

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  • Question 137 - A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with periorbital and pedal oedema and ‘frothy urine'. A urine dipstick is positive for protein.
      Which of the following is the most characteristic finding you could expect from a blood test in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased serum cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormal Lab Results in Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema. Abnormal lipid metabolism is common in patients with renal disease, particularly in nephrotic syndrome. This can result in marked elevations in the plasma levels of cholesterol, LDL, triglycerides, and lipoprotein A. However, fibrinogen levels tend to be increased rather than decreased in nephrotic syndrome. Hypocalcemia is also more common in patients with nephrotic syndrome due to loss of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in the urine. The ESR is typically elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome or end-stage renal disease. It is important to understand these abnormal lab results in order to properly diagnose and manage nephrotic syndrome.

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  • Question 138 - A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic to discuss his recent blood test...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic to discuss his recent blood test results. He was prescribed 2.5 mg of ramipril daily two weeks ago due to his high blood pressure of 154/90 mmHg. Today, his blood pressure is 138/80 mmHg.

      However, his blood test results have changed significantly since his last visit. Two weeks ago, his creatinine level was 50 mmol/l and his potassium level was 4.8 mmol/l. Today, his creatinine level has increased to 106 mmol/l and his potassium level has risen to 5.7 mmol/l.

      What is the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and review blood pressure and urea and electrolytes within 1 week

      Explanation:

      If the patient’s creatinine levels rise above 177 micromol/l or potassium levels rise above 5.5 mmol/l, it is recommended to discontinue the use of ACE inhibitors. Hospital admission on the same day is not necessary in this case. Although the patient’s blood pressure is under control, it is advisable to stop the use of ramipril due to the increase in creatinine and potassium levels. Continuing the use of ramipril would pose a risk to the patient’s health. Similarly, increasing the dosage of ramipril is not recommended.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

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  • Question 139 - A 50-year-old man presents with a two day history of a gradual onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a two day history of a gradual onset painful, unilateral, red, tender testicle. He is not in a new relationship.

      Which one of these statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common urinary tract organisms are the most likely cause of infection in this case

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis: Causes and Treatment

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition that affects the testicles and epididymis, which are the tubes that carry sperm. It is more commonly seen in older men and can be caused by either chlamydia or gonorrhoea, or by common urinary tract organisms.

      To diagnose the condition, urine testing for MSU and chlamydia or gonorrhoea can be done. However, due to the gradual onset of symptoms, empirical treatment should not be delayed. A 10-14 day course of quinolone is recommended as the first-line treatment.

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  • Question 140 - You are discussing with your supervisor the management of patients who present with...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing with your supervisor the management of patients who present with urological symptoms in elderly women.
      Which of the following presentations of urinary symptoms in elderly women requires urgent referral?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 44-year-old patient with urinary incontinence symptoms and feeling of a 'lump down below'

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Painless Visible Haematuria

      Painless macroscopic haematuria, or visible blood in the urine, is a concerning symptom that should be urgently referred for suspicion of bladder or renal cancer. However, it is important to note that if the patient also experiences pain or symptoms of a urinary tract infection, these should be assessed and managed separately.

      Prompt referral for painless visible haematuria is crucial in order to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential cancer. Patients should be advised to seek medical attention immediately if they notice blood in their urine, even if they do not experience any pain or other symptoms. Healthcare providers should also be vigilant in identifying and referring these cases for further evaluation.

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  • Question 141 - A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine dipstick testing shows:
      nitrites+
      leucocytes++
      blood++

      She has had four urinary tract infections in the last six months, with each episode confirmed by laboratory testing. On each occasion, urine dipstick testing has shown microscopic blood as well as nitrite and leucocyte positivity. After treatment with antibiotics, the infections have settled, but on the last occasion, she experienced visible haematuria.

      The patient asks if there is anything she can do to prevent these infections. She had only one previous UTI about six years ago. What is the best approach in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her to a urologist as urgent suspected cancer at this point in time

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Recurrent UTI with Non-Visible Haematuria

      Recurrent UTI is defined as three or more episodes in a year. In the case of a woman with her fourth episode in the last six months, it is important to investigate further. If visible or non-visible haematuria is present on dipstick testing when a UTI is suspected, a urine sample should be sent to the laboratory for mc+s testing in all patients. If infection is confirmed, a urine sample should be dipstick tested for blood after antibiotic treatment has been completed. If haematuria persists, further investigation is warranted.

      According to NICE guidelines, urgent referral is necessary for bladder cancer if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection. For renal cancer, urgent referral is necessary if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection.

      In the case of a woman with recurrent UTIs associated with non-visible haematuria each time, urgent referral to a urologist is necessary. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential cancer.

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  • Question 142 - A 50-year-old man presents with urinary frequency, occasional dysuria, and persistent perineal discomfort....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with urinary frequency, occasional dysuria, and persistent perineal discomfort. Ejaculation is also painful. Symptoms have been present for about 3 months. Before this, he had no history of urinary problems. Examination reveals no pyrexia but a tender prostate. Urine culture is reported as normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Perineal Pain and Urinary Symptoms in Men

      Chronic prostatitis is a likely cause of perineal pain or discomfort in men that lasts for at least 3 months. This condition may also be accompanied by lower urinary symptoms and sexual dysfunction. Recurrent urinary tract infections or a history of acute prostatitis may indicate chronic bacterial prostatitis. A positive urine culture confirms the presence of bacterial prostatitis, but it may be normal in non-bacterial prostatitis. Prostate cancer is unlikely to cause perineal pain or pain on ejaculation, and the examination findings do not support this option. Acute bacterial prostatitis is a more severe illness with sudden onset, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) doesn’t cause dysuria or prostate tenderness. Cystitis doesn’t affect the prostate and doesn’t explain the patient’s symptoms. Therefore, chronic prostatitis is the most probable diagnosis in this case.

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  • Question 143 - You see a 65-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared suddenly last week and is painful. He has no other relevant past medical history.

      On examination, he has what feels like a varicocele in his right scrotum. He has a swelling which feels like a 'bag of worms' and is above his right testicle. It remains there when he lies down.

      You discuss the fact that you think he has a varicocele with the patient. Which statement below is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: About 90% of varicoceles occur on the left side

      Explanation:

      It is common for men with a varicocele to experience pain or a sensation of heaviness or dragging in the scrotum. However, a varicocele on the right side alone is uncommon and requires referral to a urologist. Additionally, around 25% of men with abnormal semen parameters are found to have a varicocele, and this condition affects 40% of infertile men.

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.

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  • Question 144 - A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 60 develops...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 60 develops urinary microalbuminuria (urinary albumin : creatinine ratio > 2.5 mg/mmol for men and > 3.5 mg/mmol for women).
      Which of the following options is likely to confer the most benefit in terms of prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce blood pressure to 130/80 mmHg or less using angiotensin converting enzyme(ACE)inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Microalbuminuria in Diabetes Mellitus

      Microalbuminuria is a common occurrence in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is caused by damage to the renal basement membranes, which allows excess protein to leak into the affected nephrons. In type 1 diabetes, microalbuminuria is a prognostic indicator of chronic kidney disease, while in type 2 diabetes, it is associated with ischaemic heart disease.

      To improve outcomes, it is crucial to aggressively control blood pressure, which is more important than other factors such as HbA1c control. However, HbA1c control should not be ignored. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are particularly helpful in controlling blood pressure and can even reverse microalbuminuria in affected patients. Therefore, it is essential to monitor and manage microalbuminuria in patients with diabetes mellitus to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 145 - A 62-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with bothersome urinary symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with bothersome urinary symptoms of urinary frequency, nocturia and hesitancy. His International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) is 20/35. A recent digital rectal examination (DRE) shows a smoothly enlarged prostate. His blood test results show a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 3.5 ng/ml (age-specific normal range for ages 60-69: < 4.0 ng/ml). What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamsulosin and finasteride

      Explanation:

      This man is experiencing symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), which is common in men over 45 years old and presents with urinary frequency, nocturia, and hesitancy. Upon examination, his prostate is enlarged but his PSA is normal. Based on his moderate voiding symptoms, he should receive combination therapy with an alpha-blocker (such as tamsulosin) and a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (such as finasteride). Finasteride works to physically reduce the size of the prostate, but may take up to six months to show improvement, while the alpha-blocker works quickly to relieve symptoms but has no long-term impact. For patients at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor alone should be offered. It is important to counsel patients about common side-effects, including erectile dysfunction and safety issues. Goserelin is not appropriate in this case as it is used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Oxybutynin may be added for patients with a mixture of storage and voiding symptoms that persist after treatment with an alpha-blocker. Tamsulosin alone may be offered for those with mild symptoms not responding to conservative management or those who decline treatment with finasteride. Common side-effects of tamsulosin include dizziness and sexual dysfunction, and it should be used with caution in the elderly and those with a history of postural hypotension or micturition syncope.

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  • Question 146 - A 61-year-old man with hypertension attends the General Practice Surgery for his annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man with hypertension attends the General Practice Surgery for his annual review. He currently takes a combination of 5 mg ramipril and 5 mg amlodipine once a day.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 136/82 mmHg.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Creatinine (Cr) 142 µmol/l 59–104 µmol/l
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 63 ml/min < 90 ml/min
      Urine albumin : creatine (ACR) ratio 80 mg/mmol < 3.0 mg/mmol
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management advice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A BP treatment goal of < 130/80 mmHg is indicated for patients with proteinuria (ACR > 70 mg/mmol)

      Explanation:

      For patients with proteinuria (ACR > 70 mg/mmol), the goal for blood pressure treatment is to keep it below 130/80 mmHg. In cases of chronic kidney disease (CKD), where the patient has a high Cr level and ACR, the aim is to keep systolic BP below 140 mmHg and diastolic BP below 90 mmHg. However, for patients with CKD and diabetes, or an ACR of > 70 mg/mmol, the target is slightly lower, with systolic BP below 130 mmHg and diastolic BP below 80 mmHg.

      Contrary to popular belief, ACE inhibitors are not contraindicated for patients with only one kidney. In fact, patients with a single kidney are more prone to renal impairment and should be considered for ACE-inhibitor treatment.

      While it was previously recommended that patients with proteinuria consume a high-protein diet to replace urinary losses, recent studies have shown that a low-protein diet can reduce the death rate in those with CKD. However, a prescribed/modified protein intake of 0.75 g/kg ideal-bodyweight/day for patients with stage 4–5 CKD not on dialysis, and 1.2 g/kg ideal-bodyweight/day for patients treated with dialysis, is now suggested.

      It is important to note that the result measured by laboratories is an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which assumes standard body surface area and race. Patients who have had amputations or other physical differences could receive inaccurate results. Additionally, an eGFR level of between 60 and 89 ml/min can signify kidney disease if proteinuria is also present, as is the case with this patient who has an ACR level of > 70 mg/mol. Therefore, it would be inappropriate to suggest that an eGFR level above 60 ml/minute per 1.73 m2 indicates the absence of renal impairment.

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  • Question 147 - A 49-year-old patient sees you as part of a health check-up.
    He asks you...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old patient sees you as part of a health check-up.
      He asks you your views about whether he should have a PSA (prostate-specific antigen) check.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient should be dissuaded from a PSA check as there is no evidence that screening for prostate cancer improves mortality rates from the disease

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing and Prostate Cancer Screening

      Current advice from the Department of Health states that patients should not be refused a PSA test if they request one. However, patients should be informed about the implications of the test. While there is no clear evidence to support mass prostate cancer screening, studies have shown that diagnosing patients through case presentation has led to improved cancer mortality rates in the USA. It is important to note that many patients with prostate cancer do not experience symptoms, and urinary symptoms are not always indicative of the disease. Additionally, prostate cancer can develop in patients as young as their fifth decade of life.

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  • Question 148 - What is the correct statement about measuring the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about measuring the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It doesn't need to be adjusted for different racial groups

      Explanation:

      Understanding Renal Function: Estimating Glomerular Filtration Rate

      Renal function is a crucial aspect of overall health, and it is typically measured by estimating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). There are various equations available to calculate GFR, but the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration (CKD-EPI) creatinine equation is recommended by NICE. This equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and race.

      It is important to note that laboratories often assume a standard body surface area, which can lead to inaccurate results in individuals with extreme muscle mass. For example, bodybuilders, amputees, and those with muscle wasting disorders may have an overestimated or underestimated GFR.

      Additionally, certain factors can affect serum creatinine levels and thus impact the accuracy of eGFR results. For instance, consuming a cooked meat meal can temporarily increase serum creatinine concentration, leading to a falsely lowered eGFR. Conversely, strict and long-term vegetarians may have a reduced baseline eGFR.

      If an eGFR result is less than 60 ml/min/1.73m2 in someone who has not been previously tested, it is recommended to confirm the result by repeating the test in two weeks.

      Finally, it is worth noting that creatinine clearance is sometimes used as a rough measurement of GFR, but it has limitations. This method involves a 24-hour urine collection and a serum creatinine measurement during that time period. However, accurate urine collection can be challenging, and this method tends to overestimate GFR and is time-consuming.

      Overall, understanding how to estimate GFR and interpret the results is crucial for assessing renal function and identifying potential health concerns.

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  • Question 149 - Which renal disorder is most likely to occur in elderly patients with gouty...

    Incorrect

    • Which renal disorder is most likely to occur in elderly patients with gouty arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urolithiasis

      Explanation:

      Gout and Kidney Disease: Prevalence and Risks

      Gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, is associated with an increased risk of kidney disease. The prevalence of nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) in people with gout is higher than in the general population, and chronic urate nephropathy can lead to inflammation and fibrosis in the kidneys. Screening for kidney disease is important for patients with gout, as the prevalence of CKD stage ≥3 is 24%. However, end-stage CKD is less common in gout patients. It is important to note that glomerulosclerosis is associated with diabetes mellitus, while glomerulonephritis is an acute inflammation of the kidney caused by an immune response, and pyelonephritis is due to bacterial infection.

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  • Question 150 - A 63-year-old lady presents to your clinic with complaints of urine leakage when...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old lady presents to your clinic with complaints of urine leakage when she sneezes and coughs. She denies dysuria but reports seeing blood in her urine. She has no gastrointestinal symptoms. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urinalysis reveals the presence of blood, and an MSU shows RBC>100/mm3. She has no known allergies. What would be your approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to urology

      Explanation:

      Managing Urinary Incontinence and Haematuria in Women

      Stress urinary incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as fluid and caffeine intake reduction, and pelvic floor muscle training. If medical or surgical treatment is preferred, duloxetine can be used as a second-line option. However, trimethoprim is not appropriate in the absence of urinary infection. Routine referral to urology may be necessary for surgical management, but only if there are no red flags.

      On the other hand, nephrology referral is indicated for women under 50 years old with microscopic haematuria, proteinuria, or decreased eGFR. In this case, an urgent urology referral is necessary due to the patient’s macroscopic haematuria without urinary tract infection and unexplained microscopic haematuria at her age.

      Managing urinary incontinence and haematuria in women requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Proper diagnosis and referral to the appropriate specialist can help ensure effective treatment and management of these conditions.

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  • Question 151 - What is the probable result after detecting minimal change nephropathy in a 9-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable result after detecting minimal change nephropathy in a 9-year-old boy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full recovery but with later recurrent episode

      Explanation:

      The majority of patients with minimal change glomerulonephritis will experience recurrent episodes later on, with 1/3 having frequent relapses and 1/3 having infrequent relapses. However, it is important to reassure patients that the long-term prognosis is generally favorable.

      Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, a cause can be found in around 10-20% of cases, such as drugs like NSAIDs and rifampicin, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and a reduction of electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin.

      The features of minimal change disease include nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, where only intermediate-sized proteins like albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, while electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.

      Management of minimal change disease involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Roughly one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.

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  • Question 152 - A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency surgery complaining of abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency surgery complaining of abdominal pain that started earlier in the day and is gradually worsening. The pain is situated on his left flank and extends down to his groin. He has no history of similar pain and is generally healthy. Upon examination, the man appears flushed and sweaty, but there are no other notable findings. What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IM diclofenac 75 mg

      Explanation:

      Management and Prevention of Renal Stones

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.

      Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intra corporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.

      Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.

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  • Question 153 - A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts you over the phone, requesting antibiotics for a suspected UTI. She complains of dysuria and frequency for the past two days and had a confirmed UTI with the same symptoms last year. As per GMC guidelines, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics can be prescribed, with normal safeguards and advice

      Explanation:

      GMC Guidelines for Prescribing and Managing Medicines and Devices

      Prescribing and managing medicines and devices is a crucial aspect of a doctor’s role. The General Medical Council (GMC) has published guidelines for good practice in prescribing medicines, which were last updated in 2008. The principles of prescribing include only prescribing drugs to meet the identified needs of patients and avoiding treating oneself or those close to them. Doctors with full registration may prescribe all medicines except those in Schedule 1 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001.

      To ensure that doctors prescribe in patients’ best interests, the guidelines recommend keeping up to date with the British National Formulary (BNF), National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), and Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN). Doctors should also report adverse reactions to medicines to the Committee on the Safety of Medicines through the Yellow Card Scheme. If a nurse or other healthcare professional without prescribing rights recommends a treatment, the doctor must ensure that the prescription is appropriate for the patient and that the professional is competent to have recommended it.

      The guidelines also address doctors’ interests in pharmacies, emphasizing the importance of ensuring that patients have access to information about any financial or commercial interests the doctor or their employer may have in a pharmacy. When it comes to prescribing controlled drugs for oneself or someone close, doctors should avoid doing so whenever possible and should be registered with a GP outside their family. If no other person with the legal right to prescribe is available, doctors may prescribe a controlled drug only if it is immediately necessary to save a life, avoid serious deterioration in the patient’s health, or alleviate otherwise uncontrollable pain.

      Finally, the guidelines provide recommendations for remote prescribing via telephone, email, fax, video link, or a website. While this is supported, doctors must give an explanation of the processes involved in remote consultations and provide their name and GMC number to the patient if they are not providing continuing care. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that they prescribe and manage medicines and devices in the best interests of their patients.

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  • Question 154 - A 65-year-old woman is experiencing persistent urge incontinence despite undergoing a two-month course...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is experiencing persistent urge incontinence despite undergoing a two-month course of bladder training. Drug therapy is now being considered as a treatment option. What is the recommended first-line medication for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolterodine (immediate release)

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests using oxybutynin (immediate release), tolterodine (immediate release), or darifenacin (once daily preparation) to manage urge incontinence pharmacologically. However, immediate release oxybutynin is not recommended for frail older women. Stress incontinence is better managed with pelvic floor exercises.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 155 - You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient during his chronic kidney disease follow-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient during his chronic kidney disease follow-up. He has been undergoing haemodialysis for the past 6 years. What is the leading cause of mortality for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease is a condition that affects the kidneys and can lead to kidney failure if left untreated. There are several common causes of chronic kidney disease, including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, hypertension, and adult polycystic kidney disease. Diabetic nephropathy is a complication of diabetes that affects the kidneys, while chronic glomerulonephritis is a condition that causes inflammation in the kidneys. Chronic pyelonephritis is a type of kidney infection that can lead to scarring and damage to the kidneys. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also cause damage to the kidneys over time. Finally, adult polycystic kidney disease is an inherited condition that causes cysts to form in the kidneys, leading to kidney damage and eventually kidney failure. It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic kidney disease in order to properly manage and treat the condition.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 156 - A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of red discolouration of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of red discolouration of his urine. He was diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis two months ago and has been taking warfarin since then. His most recent INR test, done two days ago, shows a reading of 2.7. During the examination, no abnormalities are found, but his dipstick urine test shows +++ of blood and + protein. A MSU test shows no growth. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and monitor INR and warfarin dose closely

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Unexplained Haematuria and Previous DVT

      This patient presents with unexplained haematuria and a history of previous DVT. It is important to consider the possibility of underlying occult neoplasia of the renal tract. Therefore, an urgent referral to the urologists is the most appropriate course of action.

      It is important to note that in cases where the patient is on therapeutic INR with warfarin, the haematuria should not be attributed to the medication. Warfarin may unmask a potential neoplasm, and it is crucial to investigate the underlying cause of the haematuria. Early detection and treatment of neoplasia can significantly improve patient outcomes.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 157 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP at 37 weeks of pregnancy complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP at 37 weeks of pregnancy complaining of urinary frequency and urgency. She reports feeling generally well, with good fetal movements and no vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs are within normal limits, with a temperature of 37.4ºC, heart rate of 85 bpm, respiratory rate of 18/min, and blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg.

      Upon performing a urine dipstick test, leukocytes are detected while nitrites, blood, and ketones are absent.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat with seven days of amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      For a pregnant woman in the third trimester with a UTI, the recommended antibiotic treatment is amoxicillin for seven days. Nitrofurantoin is the first-line antibiotic, but it should be avoided later in pregnancy due to potential harm to the baby. Cefalexin is also an appropriate second-line option. It is important to obtain a urine sample for testing before starting treatment and to confirm cure with a follow-up test. Hospital admission is not necessary unless there are signs of sepsis or pyelonephritis or pregnancy complications. Empirical therapy should be initiated promptly, and treatment can be adjusted based on sensitivity results if necessary.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 158 - A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin is red and he seems to be tender posteriorly. He has a temperature of 38.3°C and feels like he has the flu. The testicle and scrotum are of normal size. During the examination, he reports that the testicle feels better when lifted.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute epididymo-orchitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Acute epididymo-orchitis is a condition characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, with or without inflammation of the testes. This condition is commonly caused by infections that spread from the urethra or bladder. While orchitis, which is an infection limited to the testis, is less common, epididymitis usually presents with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling of relatively acute onset.

      Aside from the symptoms of urethritis or a urinary infection, tenderness and swelling of the epididymis may start at the tail at the lower pole of the testis and spread towards the head at the upper pole of the testis, with or without involvement of the testis. There may also be a secondary hydrocele, erythema, and/or edema of the scrotum on the affected side, as well as pyrexia.

      To diagnose epididymo-orchitis, Prehn’s sign is often used, which is indicative of epididymitis. Scrotal elevation relieves pain in epididymitis but not torsion. However, if there is any doubt, urgent referral is indicated, as torsion is the most important differential diagnosis. Torsion is more likely if the onset of pain is more acute and the pain is severe.

      It is important to note that a painful swollen testicle in an adolescent boy or a young man should be regarded as torsion until proven otherwise. In this case, the testis is said to be normal in size. Testicular cancer, on the other hand, is usually painless, and there is usually swelling of the testis. Hydrocele causes scrotal swelling.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of acute epididymo-orchitis is crucial in providing appropriate and timely medical care.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 159 - A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his scrotum...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his scrotum on one side. He mentioned experiencing dysuria and frequency last week, but it went away on its own. Upon examination, there was a tender swelling at the back of his left testicle. The patient is in good health otherwise and has normal vital signs.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicocele

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for Testicular Pain

      The most probable diagnosis for testicular pain in this scenario is epididymo-orchitis. This condition is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis and testes, often following a UTI or sexually transmitted infection. While testicular torsion is also a possibility, the patient’s age, recent UTI, and mild pain make it less likely. However, if the patient experiences severe pain, testicular torsion should be considered and referred to emergency care. Other potential differentials exist, but epididymo-orchitis is the most likely diagnosis.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 160 - Samantha is an 80-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease and hypertension who has...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is an 80-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease and hypertension who has scheduled an appointment with you for a medication review. She is currently on ramipril 2.5mg once daily and amlodipine 5mg once daily. Her recent blood and urine tests are as follows:

      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      eGFR 39 ml/min/1.73m²

      Urine albumin:creatinine ratio = 73 mg/mmol.

      Based on the above results, what is the target blood pressure for Samantha according to NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      For patients with chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 or more, it is recommended to aim for a lower blood pressure target of <130/80 mmHg. This approach can provide advantages such as reducing the risk of cardiovascular complications and slowing the progression of the disease. However, if the patient’s ACR is less than 70 mg/mmol, the blood pressure target can be slightly higher at <140/90 mmHg. For individuals under 80 years old, the recommended target for home blood pressure readings is <135/85 mmHg. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease. Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

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  • Question 161 - A 50-year-old man is to have a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test performed.
    Select...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is to have a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test performed.
      Select from the list the option that would allow you to do the test immediately rather than defer it to a later date.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He says his last ejaculation was 4 days ago

      Explanation:

      PSA levels can be affected by various factors such as digital rectal examination, urinary or prostatic infections, prostate biopsies, urinary catheterization, prostate or bladder surgery, prolonged exercise, and ejaculation. It is advisable to defer DRE for a week, but if necessary, a gentle examination is unlikely to significantly increase PSA levels. PSA levels may remain elevated for several months after infections, and testing should be delayed for at least three months after biopsies or surgeries. Prolonged exercise and ejaculation may raise PSA levels for up to 48 hours.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 162 - A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been bothering him for two months. He has been in good health but noticed tenderness and swelling in the right breast during a basketball game. Upon examination, breast tissue is palpable in both breasts, and the right breast is tender. Additionally, a non-tender lump of 3 cm in diameter is found in the right testicle, which does not transilluminate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Testicular Lesions and Gynaecomastia in Young Males

      This young male is presenting with tender gynaecomastia and a suspicious testicular lesion. The most likely diagnosis in this age group is a teratoma, as seminoma tends to be more common in older individuals. Gynaecomastia can be a presenting feature of testicular tumours, as the tumour may secrete betaHCG. Other tumour markers of teratoma include alphafetoprotein (AFP). It is important to note that testicular lymphoma typically presents in individuals over the age of 40 and is not associated with gynaecomastia. Early detection and treatment of testicular lesions is crucial for optimal outcomes.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 163 - A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating from his left flank down to his groin. The pain is severe, comes in waves and the patient looks visibly restless. He has not taken any analgesia.
      He has a past medical history of hypertension and stage 4 chronic kidney disease.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate initial analgesia to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Appropriate Analgesia for a Patient with Renal/Ureteric Colic

      When treating a patient with renal or ureteric colic, it is important to consider their medical history and current condition before prescribing analgesia. In this case, the patient has severe kidney disease, which rules out the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as they can cause further harm to the kidneys.

      The most appropriate initial analgesia for this patient is IV paracetamol. While opioids such as IV morphine can be considered, they should be reserved as a third-line option. Oral codeine may also be used, but only after NSAIDs and IV paracetamol have been ruled out.

      It is important to note that NSAIDs such as oral naproxen and per rectal diclofenac are typically the first-line analgesics for renal/ureteric colic. However, they are contraindicated in this patient due to their severe kidney disease.

      In summary, when choosing the appropriate analgesia for a patient with renal/ureteric colic, it is crucial to consider their medical history and current condition. In this case, IV paracetamol is the most appropriate initial option due to the patient’s severe kidney disease.

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  • Question 164 - A 36-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department with drowsiness. Upon examination, he appears rigid. His concerned friends suspect neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Which of the following is not a typical feature of this condition?

      Renal failure
      16%
      Pyrexia
      5%
      Elevated creatine kinase
      6%
      Usually occurs after prolonged treatment
      68%
      Tachycardia
      5%

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is often observed in patients who have just started treatment, and renal failure may result from rhabdomyolysis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Usually occurs after prolonged treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who have recently started treatment are commonly affected by neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which can lead to renal failure due to rhabdomyolysis.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs for Parkinson’s disease. It can also occur with atypical antipsychotics. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion. A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases.

      Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. IV fluids are given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene may be useful in selected cases. Dantrolene works by decreasing excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle by binding to the ryanodine receptor and decreasing the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, may also be used. It is important to note that neuroleptic malignant syndrome is different from serotonin syndrome, although both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 165 - Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin and LH levels should be measured

      Explanation:

      Important Information about Erectile Dysfunction

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the population, with prevalence estimates ranging from 32 to 52%. It is important to measure both lipids and glucose in all patients, as early detection of ED may precede cardiovascular disease (CVD) symptoms by up to three years. While the causes of ED are multifactorial, it is recommended to only measure pituitary hormones if testosterone levels are low. Additionally, it is important to note that recreational drugs such as cocaine and heroin can also cause ED. Overall, it is crucial to be aware of the potential risk factors and causes of ED in order to properly diagnose and treat this condition.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 166 - You assess a 78-year-old woman who has a history of type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 78-year-old woman who has a history of type 2 diabetes and mild cognitive impairment. During a previous visit, you referred her for bladder retraining due to urge incontinence. However, she reports that her symptoms have not improved and the incontinence is becoming increasingly bothersome and embarrassing. She is interested in exploring other treatment options, but expresses concerns about potential medication side effects on her memory. What would be the most suitable next step in managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirabegron

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing urge incontinence, anticholinergics like solifenacin and oxybutynin can cause confusion in elderly patients, making them less suitable for those with cognitive impairment. Instead, mirabegron, a beta-3 adrenergic agonist, is a better alternative that can effectively treat urge incontinence without the risk of anticholinergic side effects. Long-term catheterisation and fluid restriction should not be considered as viable options for managing incontinence.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 167 - A 45-year-old woman with stage 3a chronic kidney disease visits her primary care...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with stage 3a chronic kidney disease visits her primary care physician to receive the results of her yearly eGFR test. The following are her eGFR results from the past three years:

      Date 10/31/17 10/31/18 10/31/19
      eGFR (ml/min/1.73m²) 59 51 35

      What would be the most suitable course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to nephrologist

      Explanation:

      CKD is diagnosed when there is evidence of kidney damage or a decrease in kidney function for at least three months. This can be determined by a persistent eGFR of less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 or a change in GFR category or sustained decrease in eGFR of 15 mL/min/1.73 m2 or more within 12 months. Additionally, a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless proteinuria is known to be associated with diabetes mellitus and is managed appropriately, or a urinary ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more together with persistent haematuria, after exclusion of a urinary tract infection (UTI), can also indicate CKD. Other indications include hypertension that remains uncontrolled despite the use of at least four antihypertensive drugs at therapeutic doses, a suspected or confirmed rare or genetic cause of CKD, such as polycystic kidney disease, suspected renal artery stenosis, or a suspected complication of CKD.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

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  • Question 168 - A 58-year-old man has hesitancy, a weak and sometimes intermittent urinary stream and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man has hesitancy, a weak and sometimes intermittent urinary stream and terminal dribbling. He has to pass water once or twice in the night. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is firm and smooth and without nodules. It is enlarged to about two fingers’ breadth. Urinalysis is normal. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 1.5 ng/ml (cut off age 55 - 59 = 3.5 ng/ml). He is otherwise well. He finds the symptoms troublesome and requests something to help quickly.
      Which would be the most appropriate drug to prescribe to relieve his symptoms quickly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamsulosin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in men, characterized by troublesome symptoms such as difficulty urinating. There are several treatment options available, depending on the severity of symptoms and the size of the prostate.

      Alpha-blockers, such as tamsulosin, are usually the first-line treatment for men with moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms. These drugs reduce the tone in the muscle of the neck of the bladder, providing relief within days.

      5-alpha-reductase inhibitors, such as finasteride, can be offered to men with symptoms. These drugs block the synthesis of dihydrotestosterone from testosterone and can reduce symptoms, but it may take several months before benefit is noted.

      Oral desmopressin, an analogue of antidiuretic hormone, can be used when nocturnal polyuria is the predominant symptom and there is no other obvious treatable cause.

      Goserelin, a gonadorelin analogue, is used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Given the examination findings of a smoothly enlarged prostate and a normal PSA, prostate cancer is unlikely.

      Antimuscarinic drugs, such as oxybutynin, can be added for men with a mixed picture of voiding and storage symptoms. However, for men with predominantly voiding symptoms and signs of BPH on examination, oxybutynin would not be first line.

      In summary, treatment options for BPH depend on the individual’s symptoms and prostate size. Alpha-blockers and 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors are commonly used, while desmopressin and goserelin are reserved for specific cases. Antimuscarinic drugs may be added for men with mixed symptoms, but are not first-line for those with predominantly voiding symptoms.

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  • Question 169 - A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis. What is the most common long-term complication for patients receiving haemodialysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular Disease and Other Complications in End-Stage Renal Disease Patients

      End-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients are at high risk for cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Atherosclerosis is present in all long-term dialysis patients, and premature cardiac death occurs at a much higher rate than in the general population. Hypertension is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease and is often poorly controlled in ESRD patients.

      In addition to cardiovascular disease, ESRD patients may also develop β2 microglobulin amyloidosis, which can cause physical handicaps and even life-threatening cervical spinal cord compression. This condition typically appears after 5 years or more of hemodialysis and can affect any joint, but is especially common in the sternoclavicular joint and hips. Clinical features include periarthritis of the shoulders, carpal tunnel syndrome, and spondyloarthropathy.

      Kidney transplant recipients may also face complications, including an increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and skin cancers due to prolonged immunosuppressive therapy. However, there is no known increased risk of gastrointestinal malignancy in patients on long-term dialysis.

      Overall, ESRD patients require careful monitoring and management to prevent and address these potential complications.

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  • Question 170 - A 72-year-old diabetic woman is in her seventh year of haemodialysis. She visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old diabetic woman is in her seventh year of haemodialysis. She visits her General Practitioner with symptoms of pain, numbness and tingling in both hands during the early hours of the morning. She also complains of stiffness in her shoulders, hips and knees.
      What diagnosis best fits with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dialysis amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, Shoulder Pain, and Flexor Tenosynovitis

      Dialysis Amyloidosis: A Likely Diagnosis

      The patient in question has been undergoing dialysis therapy for six years, which puts them at risk for dialysis amyloidosis. This condition occurs due to the accumulation of beta-2-microglobulin (B2M) in the body, which is not effectively cleared during dialysis. Symptoms of B2M amyloidosis typically appear after five years of dialysis therapy and often present as a triad of carpal tunnel syndrome, shoulder pain, and flexor tenosynovitis in the hands. The presence of all three symptoms in this patient strongly supports a diagnosis of dialysis amyloidosis.

      Other Possible Diagnoses

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a possible diagnosis due to joint pain and stiffness, but the absence of joint swelling makes it less likely. Diabetic neuropathy can cause sensory and motor neuropathies, but the joint symptoms in this patient do not support this diagnosis. Seronegative arthritis is unlikely due to the absence of joint swelling, and it doesn’t account for the neuropathic symptoms seen in this patient. Uraemic neuropathy is a distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy caused by uraemic toxins, but the presence of joint symptoms in this patient doesn’t support a diagnosis of neuropathy.

      Conclusion

      Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, dialysis amyloidosis is the most likely diagnosis. However, further testing and evaluation may be necessary to confirm this diagnosis and rule out other possible conditions.

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  • Question 171 - Samantha is a 50-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer who had...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 50-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer who had a mastectomy 3 months ago. You have been requested to conduct a routine surveillance mammogram after 3 months. The mammogram shows a small area of calcification. How would you manage this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to oncology

      Explanation:

      After a prostatectomy, the PSA level should be undetectable, meaning it should be less than 0.2ng/ml. If the PSA level is 2 after 3 months (even though it falls within the normal range for untreated patients), it is still considered significantly high and requires immediate referral to oncology for further examination.

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.

      The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.

      PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.

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  • Question 172 - What is the most significant risk factor for prostate cancer among men residing...

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    • What is the most significant risk factor for prostate cancer among men residing in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Selenium consumption

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer Risk Factors: Surprising Findings

      When it comes to prostate cancer risk factors, there are a few surprises to be found. One of the strongest known risk factors for this disease is a family history of prostate cancer, according to Cancer Research UK. However, there are other factors that may not be as expected. For example, diabetes may actually be associated with a lower risk of prostate cancer. Additionally, while obesity and physical inactivity have been linked to many types of cancer, they have not been proven to be significant risk factors for prostate cancer. On the other hand, consuming foods high in leucopene and selenium has been associated with a reduced risk. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the unique risk factors for prostate cancer.

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  • Question 173 - A digital rectal examination and PSA test should be offered to which of...

    Incorrect

    • A digital rectal examination and PSA test should be offered to which of the following patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 62-year-old man with unexplained lower back pain

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, men experiencing unexplained symptoms such as erectile dysfunction, haematuria, lower back pain, bone pain, and weight loss (especially in the elderly) should be offered a PR and PSA test. However, before conducting a PSA test, a urine dipstick/MSU should be done to rule out any infection. If a UTI is treated, PSA testing should be avoided for at least a month.

      If the age-specific PSA is high or increasing, even in asymptomatic patients with a normal PR examination, an urgent referral should be made. In cases where the PSA is at the upper limit of normal in asymptomatic patients, a repeat PSA should be conducted after 1-3 months. If the PSA is increasing, an urgent referral should be made. These guidelines are outlined in the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer.

      Understanding Prostate Cancer: Features and Risk Factors

      Prostate cancer is a prevalent type of cancer among adult males in the UK, and it is the second leading cause of cancer-related deaths in men, next to lung cancer. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing prostate cancer, including increasing age, obesity, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, and a family history of the disease. In fact, around 5-10% of cases have a strong family history.

      Localised prostate cancer is often asymptomatic, which means that it doesn’t show any symptoms. This is because the cancer cells tend to develop in the periphery of the prostate, which doesn’t cause obstructive symptoms early on. However, some possible features of prostate cancer include bladder outlet obstruction, hesitancy, urinary retention, haematuria, haematospermia, pain in the back, perineal or testicular area, and an asymmetrical, hard, nodular enlargement with loss of median sulcus during a digital rectal examination.

      Understanding the features and risk factors of prostate cancer is crucial in detecting and treating the disease early on. In some cases, prostate cancer may metastasize or spread to other parts of the body, such as the bones. A bone scan using technetium-99m labelled diphosphonates can detect multiple osteoblastic metastasis, which is a common finding in patients with metastatic prostate cancer.

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  • Question 174 - A 40-year-old man comes to see his General Practitioner with sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to see his General Practitioner with sudden onset of severe right flank pain that radiates to his groin and vomiting. He has no medical history. During examination, his heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 129/79 mmHg, and temperature is 36.5 °C. He is well hydrated. A urine dipstick shows microscopic haematuria but nothing else. The doctor suspects renal colic. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Management of the patient from home

      Explanation:

      Management of Renal Colic at Home

      When managing a patient with renal colic at home, it is important to ensure that there are no urgent indications for admission, such as signs of sepsis or dehydration. If the patient is well hydrated and responding to analgesia, home treatment may be appropriate. However, urgent renal imaging should be arranged within 24 hours to confirm the diagnosis. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be offered as the first-line analgesic, but if contraindicated, intravenous paracetamol or opioid analgesia can be considered. Antibiotics are not necessary in the absence of infection, and prophylactic use should be avoided. It is important to monitor the patient’s symptoms and seek urgent medical attention if there is any deterioration.

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  • Question 175 - You are seeing a 65-year-old gentleman who has come to discuss PSA testing....

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 65-year-old gentleman who has come to discuss PSA testing. He recently read an article in a newspaper that discussed the potential role of PSA testing in screening for prostate cancer and mentioned seeing your GP to discuss this further.

      He is otherwise well with no specific urinary tract/genitourinary signs or symptoms. He has no significant past medical history or family history.

      What advice would you give regarding PSA testing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 25 men with a normal PSA level will turn out to have prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer: Benefits and Limitations

      PSA testing for prostate cancer in asymptomatic men is a contentious issue with some advocating it as a screening test and others wary of over-treatment and patient harm. It is important to clearly impart the benefits and limitations of PSA testing to the patient so that they can make an informed decision about whether to be tested.

      One of the main debates surrounding PSA testing is its limitations in terms of sensitivity and specificity. Two out of three men with a raised PSA will not have prostate cancer, and 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA will have prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, leading to potential over-treatment.

      There is also debate about the frequency of PSA testing. Patients with elevated PSA levels who are undergoing surveillance often have PSA levels done every three to six months, but how often should a PSA level be repeated in an asymptomatic man who has had a normal result? Some experts suggest a normal PSA in an asymptomatic man doesn’t need to be repeated for at least two years.

      When it comes to prostate cancer treatment, approximately 48 men need to undergo treatment in order to save one life. It is important for patients to weigh the potential benefits and limitations of PSA testing before making a decision.

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  • Question 176 - A 25-year-old man returned from holiday to Greece a few days ago. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man returned from holiday to Greece a few days ago. He is complaining of unilateral, posterior, left, scrotal swelling, dysuria, and a purulent discharge from his penis. He admits to having unprotected sex with a number of different women during the week's holiday.

      On examination there is left scrotal swelling and tenderness, and a purulent discharge from the urethra. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gonorrhoea

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is characterized by purulent urethral discharge and epididymitis. To diagnose gonorrhoea, a Gram stain of the urethral discharge fluid is performed. It is important to trace partners where possible to prevent further spread of the infection.

      The treatment of choice for gonorrhoea is Ceftriaxone IM due to increased resistance to fluoroquinolones. Azithromycin 1G orally as a single dose is also recommended. Other combinations are available as alternatives. It is crucial to screen the patient for other sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      In summary, gonorrhoea is a common sexually transmitted infection that can be easily diagnosed and treated. Early detection and treatment are essential to prevent complications and further spread of the infection.

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  • Question 177 - A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He has been lethargic and anorexic. He describes his urine is frothy. Dipstick testing of urine reveals a trace of blood but is strongly positive for protein. His blood pressure is 140/85. There are no other abnormal physical signs. He takes no medication apart from ibuprofen for intermittent backache.
      Select the single most likely cause for this.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome: Causes and Mechanisms

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. The primary causes of nephrotic syndrome include minimal-change nephropathy, focal glomerulosclerosis, and membranous nephropathy, while secondary causes include systemic diseases and drugs. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults.

      The glomerular structural changes that may cause proteinuria involve damage to the endothelial surface, the glomerular basement membrane, or the podocytes. In membranous glomerulonephritis, immune complexes localize between the outer aspects of the basement membrane and the podocytes.

      If left untreated, nephrotic syndrome can progress to end-stage renal failure in 30-50% of patients. However, some patients with idiopathic membranous nephropathy may experience complete or partial spontaneous remission of nephrotic syndrome with stable renal function.

      It is important to differentiate nephrotic syndrome from other kidney conditions such as diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, acute tubular necrosis, and acute interstitial nephritis. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of nephrotic syndrome can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 178 - A 56-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner concerned about his recent diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner concerned about his recent diagnosis of membranous glomerulonephritis. He inquires if there is any other health condition that could be associated with this diagnosis.
      What is a possible condition that can lead to membranous glomerulonephritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Membranous Glomerulonephritis

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease that often presents with a mixed nephrotic and nephritic picture. The condition is characterized by widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, and its cause is often unknown. However, certain factors have been linked to the development of membranous glomerulonephritis, including cancers of the lung and bowel, infections such as hepatitis and malaria, and drugs like penicillamine and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

      One of the most significant risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is malignancy, which is responsible for approximately 5-10% of cases. Patients over the age of 60 are at higher risk, and effective treatment of the underlying malignancy can sometimes lead to improvement in renal symptoms. However, spontaneous recovery occurs in about one-third of patients, while one-third remain with membranous nephropathy and one-third progress to end-stage renal failure.

      Other conditions, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hepatic fibrosis, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertension, can also impact renal function but do not directly cause membranous glomerulonephritis. COPD, for example, can induce microvascular damage, albuminuria, and a worsening of renal function, while hepatic fibrosis can lead to hepatorenal syndrome. Chronic hypertension can also lead to hardening of the arteries and a reduction in renal function. However, understanding the specific causes and risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 179 - A 55-year-old builder presents to the clinic with persistent hypertension despite optimal medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old builder presents to the clinic with persistent hypertension despite optimal medical management. The patient is well and has no other medical conditions. The hypertension was initially detected coincidentally during a well man check. As the patient remains hypertensive, investigation for secondary causes is considered.
      Which feature is most suggestive of renovascular hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A rise of serum creatinine of ≥ 20% on starting an ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Renovascular hypertension can have various presentations and is often asymptomatic. However, certain features may suggest the diagnosis, such as abrupt onset of hypertension in middle-aged or older patients, severe hypertension, hypertension developing in a patient with other evidence of vascular disease, hypertension in the absence of a family history of hypertension, renal impairment occurring during treatment with ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists, hypertension with hypokalaemia, recurrent episodes of acute pulmonary oedema, and an abdominal bruit best heard over the flank. Renovascular hypertension occurs when stenosed renal arteries prevent afferent flow, and angiotensin II becomes the only mechanism by which the kidney can increase filtration. ACE inhibitors remove this regulatory mechanism and reduce perfusion pressure. Therefore, renal impairment following initiation of an ACE inhibitor would be more indicative of a renovascular problem than refractory hypertension with two Antihypertensive agents.

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  • Question 180 - A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis.
      Select from the list the single most important item that should be regularly monitored.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal function

      Explanation:

      Renal Adverse Drug Reactions Associated with NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they come with a relatively high incidence of renal adverse drug reactions. These reactions are caused by changes in renal haemodynamics, which are usually mediated by prostaglandins that are affected by NSAIDs. Patients with renal impairment should avoid these drugs if possible, or use them with caution. It is important to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible duration and monitor renal function. NSAIDs may cause sodium and water retention, leading to deterioration of renal function and possibly renal failure. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential renal adverse drug reactions associated with NSAIDs.

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  • Question 181 - A 25-year-old man presents to the surgery having noticed fresh blood in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the surgery having noticed fresh blood in his semen yesterday evening. This has not occurred previously and he is otherwise fit and well. He is married and has never changed sexual partner.

      On examination, blood pressure is 110/70; abdominal, testicular, and digital rectal examination are normal. His urine culture result returns with no significant growth.

      What is the next most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scrotal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Haematospermia: Causes and Referral Guidelines

      Haematospermia, or blood in semen, is usually a benign and self-limiting condition. In men under 40, infection is the most common cause. If no underlying cause is found for a single episode of haematospermia, it is likely to resolve on its own. Referral to haematology is not necessary unless there are other signs of a bleeding disorder, leukaemia, or lymphoma. However, urgent referral to Urology may be necessary for patients over 40 or those with signs of prostate cancer, such as an elevated PSA or abnormal digital rectal examination. Scrotal ultrasound may be useful if there is testicular swelling. Ciprofloxacin may be used to treat prostatitis, but it is not typically indicated for haematospermia.

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  • Question 182 - Which test is helpful in diagnosing and tracking treatment progress for patients with...

    Incorrect

    • Which test is helpful in diagnosing and tracking treatment progress for patients with prostate cancer from the given options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate-specific antigen

      Explanation:

      The Controversy Surrounding PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      The introduction of the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test has led to increased awareness and earlier diagnosis of prostate cancer. However, the use of PSA testing for screening purposes remains controversial. While PSA is currently the best method for detecting localized prostate cancer and monitoring treatment response, it lacks specificity as it is also increased in patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy. Additionally, the effectiveness and cost-effectiveness of treating localized cancer is still uncertain.

      Bone scans at diagnosis are likely unnecessary for patients with a PSA below 20 ng/ml, as bone metastases are unlikely at this level. Repeated bone scans during treatment are also unnecessary unless there are clinical indications, as repeated PSA tests are just as effective and more cost-effective. Biopsies under transrectal-ultrasound control are now commonly used for diagnosing prostate cancer, with a PSA exceeding 4 ng/ml being the usual indication for biopsy.

      PSA is a protease produced exclusively by epithelial prostatic cells, both benign and malignant. It breaks down the high molecular weight protein of the seminal coagulum, resulting in more liquid semen. PSA testing is also useful for monitoring therapy in patients with prostate cancer.

      Overall, the lack of specificity of the PSA test, combined with a lack of knowledge about the epidemiology and natural history of prostate cancer, are reasons against instituting a national screening program.

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  • Question 183 - A 36-year-old man presents with sudden onset pain in the left flank radiating...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents with sudden onset pain in the left flank radiating to the left groin and testis. The pain is accompanied by vomiting. You suspect the patient may have ureteric colic.
      Select from the list the single other feature that would support this diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haematuria

      Explanation:

      Renal/Ureteric Colic: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Renal/ureteric colic is characterized by sudden and severe pain, often caused by stones. However, in some cases, no obvious cause is found. Unlike biliary or intestinal colic, the pain of renal colic is constant, with periods of relief or dull aches before it returns. The location of the pain changes as the stone moves. Patients with renal colic experience intense pain and may writhe around in agony, while those with peritoneal irritation lie still. Although there may be severe pain in the testis, it should not be tender. Uncomplicated renal colic doesn’t cause fever, which suggests pyelonephritis. Haematuria, often detected only on dipstick testing, is a common symptom.

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  • Question 184 - You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a...

    Incorrect

    • You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a 84-year-old woman in a nursing home. The result shows a pure growth of Escherichia coli with full sensitivity but levels of white cells and red blood cells are within the normal range. You telephone the nursing home and are told that she is well in herself but that they routinely send urine specimens on all patients.
      Select the single most appropriate management option in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action required

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Elderly and Pregnant Women

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common condition in elderly and pregnant women. In healthy patients, a pure growth with normal white and red cells doesn’t require treatment unless an invasive urological procedure is planned. However, in pregnant women, it should be treated as it is associated with low birth weight and premature delivery. There is no evidence of long-term harm or benefit from medication in patients with a normal renal tract. It is important to be cautious in apparently asymptomatic men who may have chronic prostatitis.

      Public Health England advises against sending urine for culture in asymptomatic elderly individuals with positive dipsticks. Urine should only be sent for culture if there are two or more signs of infection, such as dysuria, fever > 38 °C, or new incontinence. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in the elderly should not be treated as it is very common, and treating it doesn’t reduce mortality or prevent symptomatic episodes. In fact, treating it can increase side effects and antibiotic resistance.

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  • Question 185 - A 50-year-old man has long-standing treated hypertension. He has had his estimated glomerular...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has long-standing treated hypertension. He has had his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) measured on an annual basis. Last year, his eGFR was estimated at 56 ml/minute/1.73 m². This year, he has an unexplained fall in eGFR to 41 ml/minute/1.73 m². This is confirmed by a second blood sample. He feels otherwise well.
      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine outpatient referral to the renal team

      Explanation:

      Referral and Management of Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a common condition that requires appropriate management to prevent progression and complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines on when to refer CKD patients for specialist assessment. Patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.73 m2, albumin creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, sustained decrease in GFR, poorly controlled hypertension, rare or genetic causes of CKD, or suspected renal artery stenosis should be referred for review by a renal team.

      In addition to referral, patients with CKD may require further investigations such as renal ultrasound. An ultrasound is indicated in patients with rapid deterioration of eGFR, visible or persistent microscopic haematuria, symptoms of urinary tract obstruction, family history of polycystic kidney disease, or GFR drops to under 30. However, the results of an ultrasound should not determine referral.

      Patients with CKD require regular monitoring, but the frequency of monitoring depends on the stage and progression of the disease. Patients with a rapid drop in eGFR, like the patient in this case, require specialist input and should not continue with annual monitoring. However, urgent medical review is only necessary in cases of severe complications such as hyperkalaemia, severe uraemia, acidosis, or fluid overload.

      In summary, appropriate referral and management of CKD patients can prevent complications and improve outcomes. NICE guidelines provide clear indications for referral and investigations, and regular monitoring is necessary to track disease progression.

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  • Question 186 - You receive a fax through from urology. One of your patients in their...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a fax through from urology. One of your patients in their 50s with a raised PSA recently underwent a prostatic biopsy. The report reads as follows:

      Adenocarcinoma prostate, Gleason 3+4

      Which one of the following statements regarding the Gleason score is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The lower the Gleason score the worse the prognosis

      Explanation:

      Prognosis of Prostate Cancer Based on Gleason Score

      Prostate cancer prognosis can be predicted using the Gleason score, which is determined through histology following a hollow needle biopsy. The Gleason score is based on the glandular architecture seen on the biopsy and is calculated by adding the most prevalent and second most prevalent patterns observed. This results in a Gleason grade ranging from 1 to 5, which is then added together to obtain a Gleason score ranging from 2 to 10. The higher the Gleason score, the worse the prognosis for the patient. Therefore, the Gleason score is an important factor in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients with prostate cancer.

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  • Question 187 - An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He reports no dysuria, fever, or other symptoms and feels generally well. He is currently taking apixaban, atenolol, simvastatin, and ramipril due to a history of myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. A urine dipstick test shows positive for blood but negative for leukocytes and nitrites. What is the best course of action for management? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer him under the 2-week wait pathway to urology for suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      Management of Painless Haematuria: Choosing the Right Pathway

      When a patient presents with painless haematuria, it is important to choose the right management pathway. In this case, a 2-week wait referral to urology for suspected cancer is the appropriate course of action for a patient over 45 years old with unexplained haematuria. Routine referral to urology is not sufficient in this case.

      Sending a mid-stream urine sample for culture and sensitivity and starting antibiotics is not recommended unless there are accompanying symptoms such as dysuria or fever. Referring for an abdominal X-ray and ultrasound is also not the best option as a CT scan is more appropriate for ruling out bladder or renal carcinoma.

      It is also important to note that while anticoagulants like apixaban can increase the risk of bleeding, they do not explain the underlying cause of haematuria. Therefore, reviewing the use of apixaban alone is not sufficient in managing painless haematuria.

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  • Question 188 - A 65-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency and dysuria for the last 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency and dysuria for the last 3 days. She denies vomiting or fevers and has no back pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis but no other significant medical conditions.

      During the examination, she experiences mild suprapubic tenderness, but there is no renal angle tenderness. Her heart rate is 68 beats per minute, blood pressure is 134/80 mmHg, and tympanic temperature is 36.8 oC. Urinalysis reveals 2+ leucocytes, positive nitrites, and no haematuria.

      Based on the current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send a urine culture and commence a 3 day course of nitrofurantoin immediately

      Explanation:

      For women over 65 years old with suspected urinary tract infections, it is recommended to send an MSU for urine culture according to current NICE CKS guidance. Asymptomatic bacteriuria is common in older patients, so a urine dip is no longer recommended. However, a urine culture can help determine appropriate antibiotic therapy in this age group. Antibiotics should be prescribed for 3 days in women and 7 days in men with suspected urinary tract infections. Since the woman is experiencing symptoms, it is appropriate to administer antibiotics immediately rather than waiting for culture results.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 189 - A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has been experiencing difficulty urinating. Upon further questioning, he describes urinary hesitancy, a weak stream, occasional dribbling, and a sensation of incomplete emptying. These symptoms are causing him distress to the point where he avoids going out in public. Upon examination, you note a smooth enlarged prostate and decide to send blood for PSA testing and a urine specimen for culture. The results come back clear, and his PSA level is 3.8 ng/ml (normal age-adjusted range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An alpha-blocker is the first-line treatment in this patient group

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Here are some common treatment options and their effectiveness:

      Alpha-blockers: These medications, such as tamsulosin, relax smooth muscle and are the first-line treatment for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms.

      Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP): Surgery is reserved for patients with bladder outflow obstruction or in those in whom medical therapy fails.

      Finasteride: This medication shrinks the prostate, but the benefit is seen over weeks to months.

      Prostate biopsy: This should be considered in the investigation of prostate cancer, but is not necessary in this patient with normal PSA and examination findings.

      Saw palmetto: This herbal remedy is not more effective than placebo and is not recommended by NICE.

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  • Question 190 - A 5-year-old boy presents with a history of poor urinary stream. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with a history of poor urinary stream. He has no other obvious abnormalities.
      Select the single investigation from this list that would be most helpful in this case.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Micturating cystourethrography

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Urinary Tract Obstruction in Children

      Urinary tract obstruction in children can lead to a poor urinary stream, indicating a blockage in the urinary system. The most common cause of this condition in boys is posterior urethral valves (PUVs), which are folds of urothelium that obstruct the bladder. PUVs can range in severity, from life-threatening to asymptomatic, but can lead to end-stage renal disease in 30% of patients. Vesicoureteric reflux, the backward flow of urine from the bladder into the kidneys, is also common in PUV patients.

      Antenatal ultrasound has increased the diagnosis of PUVs, with most cases recognized during the second and third trimester. Delayed presentation can include urinary infection, enuresis, voiding pain or dysfunction, and an abnormal urinary stream. Neurogenic bladder, caused by a birth defect involving the spinal cord, can also lead to urinary retention, leakage, and infection. Urethral calculi and strictures are less common causes of urinary tract obstruction in children, but should still be considered in the differential diagnosis.

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  • Question 191 - A 72-year-old man has advanced chronic kidney disease.
    Select from the list of serum...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has advanced chronic kidney disease.
      Select from the list of serum biochemical investigations the single one that is typical for a patient with this condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Renal Failure and its Effects on Electrolyte Balance

      Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis due to decreased excretion of H+ ions and reduced synthesis of urinary buffers such as phosphate and ammonia. This results in a marked decrease in urinary phosphate levels and a rise in extracellular potassium levels due to intracellular displacement. Calcium homeostasis is also affected as the kidney’s role in activating vitamin D and increasing calcium reabsorption from the kidneys is inhibited by phosphate retention. Sodium levels may be normal or decreased due to water retention outweighing the decreased excretion. Overall, renal failure has significant effects on electrolyte balance.

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  • Question 192 - A 12-year-old boy presents with dark discolouration of his urine. There is a...

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    • A 12-year-old boy presents with dark discolouration of his urine. There is a history of upper respiratory tract infection with severe pharyngitis two weeks earlier. He was previously fit and well. On examination he has a puffy face with periorbital oedema. His blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which complication would be most likely to occur in the acute illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Complications

      Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN) is a type of nephritic syndrome that causes widespread hypercellularity in the kidneys. The condition is often caused by post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which can lead to dark urine and haemolysis of red blood cells. While DPGN is rare in developed countries, it remains common in the developing world and can also be associated with systemic lupus erythematosus.

      Symptoms of DPGN include hypertension, oedema, and nephrotic-range proteinuria. While most children will recover without treatment, a small proportion of adults may develop renal impairment that can progress to end-stage renal failure requiring dialysis. Acute cardiac failure is unlikely in patients with normal cardiovascular systems, but can be a cause of death in elderly patients.

      It is important to differentiate DPGN from other types of nephritic and nephrotic syndromes, such as IgA nephropathy, lupus nephritis, and minimal change disease. Complications such as acute rheumatic fever are rare but can occur in some patients. Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and potential complications of DPGN is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 193 - A 45-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive. Her renal function is normal...

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    • A 45-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive. Her renal function is normal but urine dipstick testing shows blood ++. Her mother had also been hypertensive and had died prematurely aged 37 years of a cerebral haemorrhage.
      Select the single most likely cause of this patient’s hypertension.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypertension with Renal Involvement

      Hypertension with renal involvement has various causes, with renal impairment being the most common identifiable cause. Dipstick haematuria is a strong indicator of glomerulonephritis, particularly IgA nephropathy. However, if there is a family history and cerebral haemorrhage, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a likely cause. ADPKD is the most common inherited cause of serious renal disease and often presents with hypertension and microscopic haematuria. Fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal arteries, which is autosomal dominant, may also cause hypertension but doesn’t present with haematuria. Renovascular atherosclerosis, on the other hand, causes hypertension but doesn’t show abnormal dipstick testing. A bruit may be audible in both fibromuscular dysplasia and renovascular atherosclerosis.

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  • Question 194 - A 55-year-old Asian man who has lived in the United Kingdom for the...

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    • A 55-year-old Asian man who has lived in the United Kingdom for the past 10 years presents with painless haematuria. He is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day.

      Investigations reveal a haemoglobin of 110 g/L (120-160), urinalysis shows ++ blood and PA chest x ray shows small flecks of white opacifications in the upper lobe of the left lung.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Risk Factors for Haematuria and Anaemia in a Middle-Aged Male

      The most likely diagnosis for a middle-aged male presenting with haematuria and anaemia is carcinoma of the bladder. This is supported by the patient’s history of smoking, which is a known risk factor for bladder cancer. Although renal TB is a possibility, the absence of systemic symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and weight loss makes it less likely. The opacifications in the lung are consistent with previous primary TB. It is important to note that renal TB can present without systemic symptoms, but bladder cancer is more common in this scenario. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial in cases of haematuria and anaemia, and further investigations should be carried out to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

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  • Question 195 - You encounter a 60-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension who reports experiencing erectile...

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    • You encounter a 60-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension who reports experiencing erectile dysfunction for the past 6 months. After prescribing sildenafil, which provided some relief, you increased the dosage but the patient is now experiencing adverse effects. He is curious about other treatment options available to him through the NHS. What medications can be prescribed for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Generic sildenafil, other PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil

      Explanation:

      Men who have diabetes may be prescribed other PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil on the NHS. Generic sildenafil is available without any restrictions on the NHS. However, Viagra®, tadalafil (Cialis®), vardenafil (Levitra®), avanafil (Spedra®), and alprostadil cannot be prescribed on an NHS prescription, except for men who have certain medical conditions or have undergone specific medical procedures. Additionally, specialist centers may prescribe PDE-5 inhibitors on the NHS if the man is experiencing severe distress due to impotence.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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  • Question 196 - A couple is struggling with infertility. The male partner is 32-years-old and the...

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    • A couple is struggling with infertility. The male partner is 32-years-old and the female partner is 34-years-old. They have no children and she has never been pregnant before. They have been having unprotected sexual intercourse regularly for the past 14 months. Prior to this, they used condoms and she has not used any form of hormonal contraception for over two years.

      Upon further discussion, the male partner had a unilateral orchidopexy at the age of 5 for an undescended testicle. He is in good health, doesn't smoke, and has a body mass index of 24.8 kg/m2. The female partner has regular periods every four weeks and experiences bleeding for three to four days with each period. She doesn't have significant menorrhagia or dysmenorrhea and denies any unscheduled vaginal bleeding or discharge. Her periods have been light and regular for as long as she can remember. She has no significant medical history and is a non-smoker with a body mass index of 23.4 kg/m2.

      What is the most appropriate advice to provide for management at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They should continue to have regular unprotected sexual intercourse and return for review if they have not conceived within 2 years

      Explanation:

      Investigating Infertility in Couples

      When a couple has been having regular unprotected sexual intercourse for a year without any comorbidities affecting fertility, it is important to investigate infertility. However, if the woman is 36 years or older, or there is a known cause or risk factor for infertility, immediate referral is necessary. Couples with male factor problems, tubal disorders, or ovulatory disorders should also be referred if primary care treatment is not possible. Additionally, patients with unexplained infertility after two years of regular unprotected sexual intercourse should be referred.

      In cases where there is a history of undescended testes, there is a potential male factor problem that requires immediate investigation. While the woman’s history doesn’t suggest any specific problem, semen analysis for the male is the best initial investigation approach. Proper investigation and referral can help couples receive the necessary treatment and support to overcome infertility.

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  • Question 197 - A 25-year-old woman presents with peripheral oedema and polyuria. Her pulse is 90/min...

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    • A 25-year-old woman presents with peripheral oedema and polyuria. Her pulse is 90/min and regular and her blood pressure is 130/80. A full blood count, liver function tests and urea and electrolytes are normal. Her serum albumin is 23 g/l (35 - 50 g/l).
      Select the single most appropriate NEXT investigation that should be performed.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dipstick

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Nephrotic Syndrome: The Importance of Proteinuria and Renal Biopsy

      Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria (>3g/24 hours), hypoalbuminaemia (<30g/l), and oedema. To quantify proteinuria, a urine ACR or PCR or 24-hour urine collection is required. However, heavy proteinuria on urine dipstick is sufficient to confirm the need for a renal biopsy. Before a renal biopsy, a renal ultrasound is necessary to ensure the presence of two kidneys and confirm kidney size and position. Autoantibodies aid in diagnosis, but the initial confirmatory investigation is the dipstick. In children and young adults, minimal change glomerulonephritis is the most likely renal biopsy finding, which may be steroid responsive and has a good prognosis.

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  • Question 198 - A 67-year-old man who has type II diabetes attends his general practice surgery...

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    • A 67-year-old man who has type II diabetes attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He takes metformin and gliclazide.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/80 mmHg. There are no signs of retinopathy. He feels well.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 53 mmol/mol < 43 mmol/mol
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 55 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
      Albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) 5.4 mg/mmol (up from 3.0 mg/mmol three months ago) < 1.0 mg/mmol
      What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Managing Chronic Kidney Disease in a Patient with Diabetes: Treatment Options

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a common complication of diabetes, and early management is crucial to slow progression. In a patient with diabetic nephropathy and stage 3a CKD, the following treatment options are available:

      1. Start an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor: This is the most appropriate first-line treatment to reduce the risk of all-cause mortality in patients with diabetic kidney disease.

      2. Refer him to a Nephrologist: Management of CKD requires specialized care to slow progression.

      3. Optimise his diabetic control and repeat the test in six months: While important, diabetic control should not be the focus of immediate management in this patient.

      4. Start a direct renin inhibitor: This treatment is not a priority as the patient’s blood pressure is already below the target.

      5. Start a low-protein diet and repeat urinalysis in six months: Dietary protein restriction is not recommended in early-stage CKD, but high-protein intake should be avoided in stage 4 CKD under the guidance of a dietitian.

      In conclusion, early management of CKD in patients with diabetes is crucial to slow progression and reduce the risk of mortality. Treatment options should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and managed by a specialist.

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  • Question 199 - A 32-year-old man presents with erectile dysfunction. He reports being in good health...

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    • A 32-year-old man presents with erectile dysfunction. He reports being in good health and not taking any regular medications. He has recently entered into a new relationship and has not experienced this issue before.
      What is the probable cause of this patient's erectile dysfunction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychological factors

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Erectile Dysfunction in a Young Man

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common problem that affects men of all ages. In a young, otherwise healthy man, psychological factors are the most likely cause of ED. This may be due to anxiety, stress, or relationship issues, especially if the symptoms started around the time of a new relationship. Other possible causes of ED include medical conditions such as diabetes mellitus, hypogonadism, and testicular cancer. However, these are less likely in a 28-year-old man who previously had no erectile problems. Prostate cancer is also an unlikely cause of ED in a young man. It is important to consult a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause of ED and to discuss appropriate treatment options.

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  • Question 200 - You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with...

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    • You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is in their 60s. The patient is currently taking simvastatin 20 mg, metformin 1g twice daily, and gliclazide 80 mg twice daily. The patient's latest renal function results are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 141 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 3.9 mmol/l
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 115 µmol/l

      What is the creatinine threshold at which NICE recommends considering a change in metformin dosage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: > 130 µmol/l

      Explanation:

      If the creatinine level is above 130 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 45 ml/min), NICE suggests that the dosage of metformin should be reevaluated. Additionally, if the creatinine level is above 150 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 30 ml/min), NICE recommends that metformin should be discontinued.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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Kidney And Urology (29/110) 26%
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