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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is moderately disabled by multiple sclerosis. She can use a wheelchair to move around the house. She has been troubled by urinary incontinence and has a palpable enlarged bladder. Testing indicates sensory loss in the 2nd-4th sacral dermatome areas.
Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer: Intermittent self-catheterisation
Explanation:Intermittent Self-Catheterisation: A Safe and Effective Way to Manage Urinary Retention and Incontinence
Intermittent self-catheterisation is a safe and effective method for managing urinary retention or incontinence caused by a neuropathic or hypotonic bladder. This technique provides patients with freedom from urinary collection systems. Although it may not be feasible for some patients, severe disability is not a contra-indication. Patients in wheelchairs have successfully mastered the technique despite various physical and mental challenges.
Single-use catheters are sterile and come with either a hydrophilic or gel coating. The former requires immersion in water for 30 seconds to activate, while the latter doesn’t require any preparation before use. Reusable catheters are made of polyvinyl chloride and can be washed and reused for up to a week.
While other types of catheterisation are available, intermittent self-catheterisation is typically the first choice. Oxybutynin, an anticholinergic medication, is used to relieve urinary difficulties, including frequent urination and urge incontinence, by decreasing muscle spasms of the bladder. However, in patients with overflow incontinence due to diabetes or neurological diseases like multiple sclerosis or spinal cord trauma, oxybutynin can worsen overflow incontinence because the fundamental problem is the bladder not contracting. The same is true for imipramine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of red discolouration of his urine. He was diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis two months ago and has been taking warfarin since then. His most recent INR test, done two days ago, shows a reading of 2.7. During the examination, no abnormalities are found, but his dipstick urine test shows +++ of blood and + protein. A MSU test shows no growth. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure and monitor INR and warfarin dose closely
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Unexplained Haematuria and Previous DVT
This patient presents with unexplained haematuria and a history of previous DVT. It is important to consider the possibility of underlying occult neoplasia of the renal tract. Therefore, an urgent referral to the urologists is the most appropriate course of action.
It is important to note that in cases where the patient is on therapeutic INR with warfarin, the haematuria should not be attributed to the medication. Warfarin may unmask a potential neoplasm, and it is crucial to investigate the underlying cause of the haematuria. Early detection and treatment of neoplasia can significantly improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been bothering him for two months. He has been in good health but noticed tenderness and swelling in the right breast during a basketball game. Upon examination, breast tissue is palpable in both breasts, and the right breast is tender. Additionally, a non-tender lump of 3 cm in diameter is found in the right testicle, which does not transilluminate. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teratoma
Explanation:Testicular Lesions and Gynaecomastia in Young Males
This young male is presenting with tender gynaecomastia and a suspicious testicular lesion. The most likely diagnosis in this age group is a teratoma, as seminoma tends to be more common in older individuals. Gynaecomastia can be a presenting feature of testicular tumours, as the tumour may secrete betaHCG. Other tumour markers of teratoma include alphafetoprotein (AFP). It is important to note that testicular lymphoma typically presents in individuals over the age of 40 and is not associated with gynaecomastia. Early detection and treatment of testicular lesions is crucial for optimal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 27 year-old female patient, who is not pregnant, reports experiencing dysuria, urinary frequency, and low abdominal pain for the past two days. She denies having a fever or loin pain and is not currently menstruating. Upon conducting a urine dip, it was discovered that she has 3+ leucocytes, nitrites, and 2+ blood. The patient has no prior history of UTI. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send a urine sample for culture and treat with oral antibiotics for 3 days
Explanation:For women with haematuria and suspected UTI, NICE recommends urine culture and sensitivity to confirm infection. Treatment with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 3 days is recommended, which may be extended to 5-10 days in certain cases. After treatment, urine should be re-tested for blood. Persistent haematuria requires urgent referral to exclude urological cancer. For non-visible haematuria in women under 50, urine albumin/creatinine ratio and serum creatinine levels should be measured. Referral to a renal physician is necessary if there is proteinuria or declining eGFR, and referral to a urologist is needed if eGFR is normal and there is no proteinuria.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease and requires long-term haemodialysis. What is the most common long-term complication for patients receiving haemodialysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Cardiovascular Disease and Other Complications in End-Stage Renal Disease Patients
End-stage renal disease (ESRD) patients are at high risk for cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Atherosclerosis is present in all long-term dialysis patients, and premature cardiac death occurs at a much higher rate than in the general population. Hypertension is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease and is often poorly controlled in ESRD patients.
In addition to cardiovascular disease, ESRD patients may also develop β2 microglobulin amyloidosis, which can cause physical handicaps and even life-threatening cervical spinal cord compression. This condition typically appears after 5 years or more of hemodialysis and can affect any joint, but is especially common in the sternoclavicular joint and hips. Clinical features include periarthritis of the shoulders, carpal tunnel syndrome, and spondyloarthropathy.
Kidney transplant recipients may also face complications, including an increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and skin cancers due to prolonged immunosuppressive therapy. However, there is no known increased risk of gastrointestinal malignancy in patients on long-term dialysis.
Overall, ESRD patients require careful monitoring and management to prevent and address these potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis.
Select from the list the single most important item that should be regularly monitored.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal function
Explanation:Renal Adverse Drug Reactions Associated with NSAIDs
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they come with a relatively high incidence of renal adverse drug reactions. These reactions are caused by changes in renal haemodynamics, which are usually mediated by prostaglandins that are affected by NSAIDs. Patients with renal impairment should avoid these drugs if possible, or use them with caution. It is important to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible duration and monitor renal function. NSAIDs may cause sodium and water retention, leading to deterioration of renal function and possibly renal failure. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential renal adverse drug reactions associated with NSAIDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A retired 65-year-old man returns for review. He presented recently requesting a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test as a friend of his had been diagnosed with prostate cancer and this had prompted some concern. He has no lower urinary tract symptoms and he feels completely well. He is otherwise fit and well and plays tennis three times a week. He takes no regular medication.
You can see that a colleague saw him just over six weeks ago and discussed his concerns and the role of PSA testing. Despite having no signs or symptoms the patient was keen to have the test and so a digital rectal examination was performed and a PSA blood test requested. You can see in the notes the rectal examination is recorded as normal.
One week later the patient had the PSA blood test which came back at 4.3 ng/ml.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat the PSA test in one to three months
Explanation:PSA Blood Test Results and Referral for Further Assessment
In this scenario, a man without any symptoms has requested a PSA blood test. However, it is crucial to inform him about the limitations of the test and what a positive or negative result means for him. The man’s PSA level was slightly above the age-specific range at 4.3 ng/ml. According to NICE’s Clinical Knowledge Summaries, a normal PSA level ranges from 0-4 nanograms/mL, but the upper level of normal may vary according to age and race, and the PSA test is not diagnostic.
If a man’s PSA level is elevated, further investigation may be necessary, such as a biopsy. For men aged 50-69 years, if the PSA level is 3.0 nanogram/mL or higher, they should be referred urgently using a suspected cancer pathway referral to a specialist. If the PSA level is within the normal range, there is a low risk of prostate cancer, and referral is only necessary if there are other concerns, such as an abnormal digital rectal examination or factors that increase the risk of prostate cancer.
In this case, as the man’s PSA has increased and there are two readings above the age-specific range, he should be referred urgently to a urologist for further assessment. Clinical judgment should be used to manage symptomatic men and those aged under 50 who are considered to have a higher risk for prostate cancer. It is essential to inform patients about the limitations of the PSA test and the implications of a positive or negative result to ensure appropriate referral and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents with her mother with complaints of nonspecific abdominal pain. Her family are refugees and she was born in a refugee camp in Greece. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen shows an enlarged, irregular cystic kidney on the left side. A renal biopsy has shown dysplasia.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multicystic dysplastic kidney
Explanation:Renal Abnormalities: Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney, Hypospadias, Infantile Polycystic Kidney Disease, Potter Syndrome, and Renal Fusion
Renal abnormalities can present in various forms, each with its own unique characteristics. One such abnormality is multicystic dysplastic kidney, which is identified by the presence of multiple non-communicating cysts of varying sizes in the absence of a normal pelvicalyceal system. Unilateral disease is usually asymptomatic and can remain undetected into adulthood. Hypospadias, on the other hand, is a condition where the urethral opening is not at the usual location on the head of the penis, but below it. It is diagnosed on clinical examination.
Infantile polycystic kidney disease is always bilateral and is characterised by both renal and hepatobiliary disease, which can be severe. Potter syndrome, which usually has a very poor prognosis, is diagnosed at birth and occurs when there is antenatal oligohydramnios secondary to renal disease, usually bilateral renal agenesis. Lastly, renal fusion, also known as horseshoe kidney, is formed by fusion across the midline of two distinct functioning kidneys, one on each side of the midline. Ultrasound scanning can identify various findings, such as a curved configuration of the lower poles, elongation of the lower poles, and poorly defined lower poles, which suggest the presence of horseshoe kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of dysuria, urinary frequency, and lower abdominal pain that has been going on for 24 hours. Upon examination, his vital signs are stable with a temperature of 37.5ºC, heart rate of 70/min, and blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. He experiences tenderness in the suprapubic region, and his urine dip shows positive results for nitrites and leucocytes but negative for blood.
What is the next most appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 day course of empirical antibiotics for UTI
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, men who exhibit symptoms of a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics like trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 7 days, without the need for referral to urology unless the infection is recurrent. Waiting for the results of urinary microscopy culture and sensitivity is not recommended, as prompt treatment is necessary to prevent further complications. Intravenous antibiotics are not usually required unless the patient shows signs of fever, riggers, chills, vomiting, or confusion. In this case, the patient’s borderline temperature doesn’t warrant hospital admission, and empirical antibiotics should be administered. While it is important to rule out sexually transmitted infections, the patient’s symptoms suggest a UTI, and there is no indication of an STI in his medical history.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man has been experiencing widespread aches and pains in his chest, back, and hips for several months. He also reports difficulty with urinary flow and frequent nighttime urination. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels
Explanation:Prostate Cancer and Prostatism: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Patients with prostatism who experience bony pain should be evaluated for prostate cancer, as it often metastasizes to bone. A digital rectal examination should be performed after taking blood for PSA, as the prostate will typically feel hard and irregular in cases of prostate cancer. While chronic urinary retention and urinary infection may be present, investigations should focus on identifying the underlying cause rather than providing symptomatic treatment with an α-blocker. Without a confirmed diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia, finasteride should not be prescribed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some recent results. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 25 ml/min/1.73 m2.
Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperphosphataemia
Explanation:Managing Calcium and Phosphate Metabolism in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate metabolism, particularly in moderate to severe cases (stage 4 and 5). Patients with stage 4 CKD (eGFR 15-29 ml/minute/1.73 m2) should be referred for specialist assessment.
In stage 3+ CKD, the goal is to maintain normal calcium levels, serum phosphate at or below 1.8 mmol/l (reference range 0.7-1.4 mmol/l), and parathormone (PTH) below twice (to three times) the upper limit of normal. Low-normal or low calcium levels are common in renal failure, and high PTH levels are a physiological response to the low serum calcium and phosphate retention.
Dietary advice to reduce phosphate intake and phosphate binders taken with food may be necessary to keep phosphate levels within acceptable limits. Vitamin D derivatives (alfacalcidol, calcitriol) can correct hypocalcaemia resulting from reduced renal activation of vitamin D and suppress PTH secretion. However, initiation of these agents should be on the advice of specialists.
Hypercalcaemia in a patient with kidney disease may indicate that the cause of the renal problem is related to the hypercalcaemia or its underlying cause, such as oral calcium and vitamin D treatment or tertiary hyperparathyroidism. Advanced CKD may also present with anaemia and hyperkalaemia.
In summary, managing calcium and phosphate metabolism is crucial in CKD, and referral to specialists may be necessary for severe disturbances in these levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he should undergo a digital rectal examination to assess his prostate.
For which of the following would it be most appropriate to conduct a digital rectal examination (DRE) to assess prostate size and consistency?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In a patient with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)
Explanation:Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing: Important Considerations
In patients with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), it is important to consider the possibility of locally advanced prostate cancer causing obstructive LUTS. Therefore, a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test and digital rectal exam (DRE) should be offered to men with obstructive symptoms.
While family history is a significant risk factor for prostate cancer, a grandfather’s history of the disease may not be as significant as a first-degree relative’s (father or brother) history.
If a man presents with symptoms of urinary tract infection, it is important to investigate and treat the infection before considering any PSA testing. Prostate cancer typically doesn’t cause symptoms of urinary tract infection.
Currently, there is no formal screening program for prostate cancer. However, men may choose to request a PSA test after being informed of the potential benefits and risks. It is important to note that DRE alone should not be used for screening.
Prior to testing for PSA, it is recommended to perform DRE at least a week prior as it can falsely elevate PSA levels.
Key Considerations for Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You review a 65-year-old man who complains of a 2-day history of pain when passing urine. He also reports going to the toilet more often with the desire to pass urine immediately. He reports having a good urinary stream without hesitancy. He denies any other pain and otherwise feels well in himself. He is not sexually active. He has never had any similar episodes previously and has no significant past medical history.
You complete an examination, which is normal.
Observations:
Blood pressure 134/87 mmHg
Heart rate 78 bpm
Temperature 37.4º
Urine dipstick:
Nitrites ++
Leucocytes trace
Protein -
Blood -
You send a midstream urine for culture and sensitivity.
What would be the best management at this stage, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 day course of nitrofurantoin
Explanation:For men with lower UTIs, the recommended treatment options are trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, unless there is suspicion of prostatitis. In this case, a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is the appropriate choice for an uncomplicated UTI. Follow-up should be arranged after 48 hours to monitor the response to treatment and urine culture results. Delaying antibiotic prescribing based on culture and sensitivity results is not recommended in this scenario, as the clinical findings and urine dipstick are indicative of a UTI. A 3-day course of nitrofurantoin would not be sufficient for this patient, and a 7-day course of ciprofloxacin is not appropriate as the patient doesn’t exhibit symptoms of acute pyelonephritis.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which test is helpful in diagnosing and tracking treatment progress for patients with prostate cancer from the given options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate-specific antigen
Explanation:The Controversy Surrounding PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer
The introduction of the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test has led to increased awareness and earlier diagnosis of prostate cancer. However, the use of PSA testing for screening purposes remains controversial. While PSA is currently the best method for detecting localized prostate cancer and monitoring treatment response, it lacks specificity as it is also increased in patients with benign prostatic hypertrophy. Additionally, the effectiveness and cost-effectiveness of treating localized cancer is still uncertain.
Bone scans at diagnosis are likely unnecessary for patients with a PSA below 20 ng/ml, as bone metastases are unlikely at this level. Repeated bone scans during treatment are also unnecessary unless there are clinical indications, as repeated PSA tests are just as effective and more cost-effective. Biopsies under transrectal-ultrasound control are now commonly used for diagnosing prostate cancer, with a PSA exceeding 4 ng/ml being the usual indication for biopsy.
PSA is a protease produced exclusively by epithelial prostatic cells, both benign and malignant. It breaks down the high molecular weight protein of the seminal coagulum, resulting in more liquid semen. PSA testing is also useful for monitoring therapy in patients with prostate cancer.
Overall, the lack of specificity of the PSA test, combined with a lack of knowledge about the epidemiology and natural history of prostate cancer, are reasons against instituting a national screening program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency. She is in good health otherwise and doesn't show any signs of sepsis. During a urine dip test at the doctor's office, blood, leukocytes, protein, and nitrites are detected. The patient has a medical history of asthma, which is treated with salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers, hypertension, which is treated with amlodipine 10 mg daily and ramipril 5mg daily, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease.
Which antibiotic should be avoided when treating this patient's urinary tract infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Patients with CKD stage 3 or higher should avoid taking nitrofurantoin due to the risk of treatment failure and side effects caused by drug accumulation. Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic that requires adequate renal filtration to be effective in treating urinary tract infections. However, in patients with an eGFR of less than 40-60 ml/min, the drug is ineffective and can accumulate, leading to potential toxicity. Nitrofurantoin can also cause side effects such as peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, and pulmonary reactions. Amoxicillin and co-amoxiclav are safer options for treating urinary tract infections in patients with renal impairment, while ciprofloxacin may require dose reduction from an eGFR of 30-60 ml/min to avoid crystalluria. Patients taking nitrofurantoin should be aware that it can discolour urine and is safe to use during pregnancy except at full term.
Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure
Prescribing medication for patients with renal failure can be challenging. It is important to know which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin should be avoided in patients with renal failure. These drugs can cause further damage to the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.
On the other hand, some drugs require dose adjustment in patients with chronic kidney disease. Antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, and furosemide, are among the drugs that require dose adjustment. Opioids should also be used with caution in patients with renal failure.
There are also drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics such as erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease.
In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the drugs’ potential effects on the kidneys and the need for dose adjustment. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to ensure safe and effective medication management for these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks' pregnant attends for a routine antenatal check-up. Routine urine dipstick reveals blood and protein and urine culture is positive for Escherichia coli. She has no symptoms of urinary tract infection. A second specimen confirms the positive culture.
What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat with amoxicillin
Explanation:Management of Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Pregnancy
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common occurrence in pregnant women and can lead to complications such as pyelonephritis, pre-eclampsia, anaemia, and premature birth. Therefore, it is important to screen for and treat positive cultures in pregnant women. Tetracyclines, sulphonamides, and quinolones should be avoided, but alternatives such as amoxicillin, ampicillin, nitrofurantoin, and oral cephalosporins may be considered. Nitrofurantoin should be avoided near term due to the risk of haemolysis in the newborn. Repeat urine samples should be sent to ensure eradication. Referral to a specialist is not necessary unless there are other indications for specialist-led care. Trimethoprim should be avoided in the first trimester due to the risk of teratogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with periorbital and pedal oedema and ‘frothy urine'. A urine dipstick is positive for protein.
Which of the following is the most characteristic finding you could expect from a blood test in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased serum cholesterol
Explanation:Understanding Abnormal Lab Results in Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema. Abnormal lipid metabolism is common in patients with renal disease, particularly in nephrotic syndrome. This can result in marked elevations in the plasma levels of cholesterol, LDL, triglycerides, and lipoprotein A. However, fibrinogen levels tend to be increased rather than decreased in nephrotic syndrome. Hypocalcemia is also more common in patients with nephrotic syndrome due to loss of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in the urine. The ESR is typically elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome or end-stage renal disease. It is important to understand these abnormal lab results in order to properly diagnose and manage nephrotic syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of recurrent loin-to-groin pain and frank haematuria. A CT scan of his KUB shows a renal calculus located at the left vesico-ureteric junction. What is the most accurate understanding of this man's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recurrent proteus urinary tract infections (UTIs) are associated with renal calculi
Explanation:Understanding Renal Calculi and Recurrent Proteus Urinary Tract Infections
Recurrent Proteus urinary tract infections (UTIs) are often associated with renal calculi, which can be detected through persistently alkaline urine and a finding of Proteus on culture. This is because Proteus organisms produce urease, which converts urea into ammonia and alkalinizes the urine, leading to the formation of organic and inorganic compounds that contribute to calculi formation.
The severity of symptoms related to renal calculi is directly proportional to the size of the stone. Smaller stones usually cause severe pain as they pass into the ureter, while larger stones such as staghorn calculi often remain asymptomatic in the kidney. A moving stone is usually more painful than a static stone.
Contrary to popular belief, most symptomatic urinary calculi originate in the upper renal tract, with the location and composition varying for different types of stones. While gallstones are composed of bile salts, renal stones are usually composed of calcium, oxalate, or uric acid.
About 75% of renal calculi are radio-opaque, meaning they can be detected through conventional KUB X-rays. However, urate and xanthine stones are radiolucent and may be too small to be detected through this method. Understanding the relationship between recurrent Proteus UTIs and renal calculi can help prompt early detection and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the assessment of proteinuria in elderly patients with chronic kidney disease is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An ACR sample is collected over 24 hours
Explanation:Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management
Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.
To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.
According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.
The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man who has type II diabetes attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He takes metformin and gliclazide.
On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/80 mmHg. There are no signs of retinopathy. He feels well.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal values
Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 53 mmol/mol < 43 mmol/mol
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 55 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
Albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) 5.4 mg/mmol (up from 3.0 mg/mmol three months ago) < 1.0 mg/mmol
What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Explanation:Managing Chronic Kidney Disease in a Patient with Diabetes: Treatment Options
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a common complication of diabetes, and early management is crucial to slow progression. In a patient with diabetic nephropathy and stage 3a CKD, the following treatment options are available:
1. Start an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor: This is the most appropriate first-line treatment to reduce the risk of all-cause mortality in patients with diabetic kidney disease.
2. Refer him to a Nephrologist: Management of CKD requires specialized care to slow progression.
3. Optimise his diabetic control and repeat the test in six months: While important, diabetic control should not be the focus of immediate management in this patient.
4. Start a direct renin inhibitor: This treatment is not a priority as the patient’s blood pressure is already below the target.
5. Start a low-protein diet and repeat urinalysis in six months: Dietary protein restriction is not recommended in early-stage CKD, but high-protein intake should be avoided in stage 4 CKD under the guidance of a dietitian.
In conclusion, early management of CKD in patients with diabetes is crucial to slow progression and reduce the risk of mortality. Treatment options should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and managed by a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man returned from holiday to Greece a few days ago. He is complaining of unilateral, posterior, left, scrotal swelling, dysuria, and a purulent discharge from his penis. He admits to having unprotected sex with a number of different women during the week's holiday.
On examination there is left scrotal swelling and tenderness, and a purulent discharge from the urethra. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea
Explanation:Understanding Gonorrhoea
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is characterized by purulent urethral discharge and epididymitis. To diagnose gonorrhoea, a Gram stain of the urethral discharge fluid is performed. It is important to trace partners where possible to prevent further spread of the infection.
The treatment of choice for gonorrhoea is Ceftriaxone IM due to increased resistance to fluoroquinolones. Azithromycin 1G orally as a single dose is also recommended. Other combinations are available as alternatives. It is crucial to screen the patient for other sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.
In summary, gonorrhoea is a common sexually transmitted infection that can be easily diagnosed and treated. Early detection and treatment are essential to prevent complications and further spread of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating from his left flank down to his groin. The pain is severe, comes in waves and the patient looks visibly restless. He has not taken any analgesia.
He has a past medical history of hypertension and stage 4 chronic kidney disease.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate initial analgesia to prescribe in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV paracetamol
Explanation:Choosing the Appropriate Analgesia for a Patient with Renal/Ureteric Colic
When treating a patient with renal or ureteric colic, it is important to consider their medical history and current condition before prescribing analgesia. In this case, the patient has severe kidney disease, which rules out the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as they can cause further harm to the kidneys.
The most appropriate initial analgesia for this patient is IV paracetamol. While opioids such as IV morphine can be considered, they should be reserved as a third-line option. Oral codeine may also be used, but only after NSAIDs and IV paracetamol have been ruled out.
It is important to note that NSAIDs such as oral naproxen and per rectal diclofenac are typically the first-line analgesics for renal/ureteric colic. However, they are contraindicated in this patient due to their severe kidney disease.
In summary, when choosing the appropriate analgesia for a patient with renal/ureteric colic, it is crucial to consider their medical history and current condition. In this case, IV paracetamol is the most appropriate initial option due to the patient’s severe kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of severe pain in the left flank and left lower abdomen with radiation to the left testicle. He reports that he woke up with the pain, but was “fine last night”. The clinician suspects uncomplicated renal colic.
What feature would best support this diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haematuria
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Renal Colic
Renal colic is a condition characterized by sudden and severe pain caused by stones in the urinary tract. The pain typically starts in the loin and moves to the groin, with tenderness in the renal angle. Patients with renal colic may experience periods of relief or dull aches before the pain returns. Other symptoms include microscopic haematuria, nausea, and vomiting. Unlike patients with peritoneal irritation, those with renal colic may writhe around in agony and have increased bowel sounds. Apyrexia is common in uncomplicated cases, while pyrexia suggests infection. It’s important to note that although there may be severe pain in the testis, the testis itself should not be tender. Understanding these symptoms can help with the diagnosis and management of renal colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You assess a 60-year-old man who is undergoing surgery. He has been diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy for 3 years and is currently taking tamsulosin and finasteride to manage his symptoms. However, he has been experiencing worsening symptoms of poor flow, hesitancy, nocturia, weight loss, and back pain for the past 2 months. You order a prostate-specific antigen test, which returns a result of 2.5ng/mL - within the normal range for his age. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate cancer
Explanation:The patient is most likely suffering from prostate cancer. Despite having well-controlled BPH with medication, he has developed new lower urinary tract symptoms along with red flag features such as weight loss and back pain. Although his PSA levels are normal, it should be noted that he is taking finasteride which can lower PSA levels. The duration of symptoms and weight loss over a period of 3 months are not indicative of a urinary tract infection. It is also unlikely that the patient is suffering from treatment-resistant BPH after successfully managing the condition for 5 years. While spinal cord compression can cause urinary symptoms, it is unlikely to cause nocturia or flow issues.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents with a testicular mass.
On examination the mass is painless, approximately 2 cm in diameter, hard, with an irregular surface and doesn't transilluminate.
What is the most likely cause of the lump?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teratoma
Explanation:Tumour Diagnosis Based on Lump Characteristics
The lump’s characteristics suggest that it is a tumour, specifically due to its hard and irregular nature. However, the patient’s age is a crucial factor in determining the type of tumour. Teratomas are more commonly found in patients aged 20-30, while seminomas are prevalent in those aged 30-50. Teratomas are gonadal tumours that originate from multipotent cells present in the ovaries.
In summary, the characteristics of a lump can provide valuable information in diagnosing a tumour. However, age is also a crucial factor in determining the type of tumour, as different types of tumours are more prevalent in certain age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is experiencing persistent urge incontinence despite undergoing a two-month course of bladder training. Drug therapy is now being considered as a treatment option. What is the recommended first-line medication for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tolterodine (immediate release)
Explanation:NICE suggests using oxybutynin (immediate release), tolterodine (immediate release), or darifenacin (once daily preparation) to manage urge incontinence pharmacologically. However, immediate release oxybutynin is not recommended for frail older women. Stress incontinence is better managed with pelvic floor exercises.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with unprovoked, painless, macroscopic haematuria. Dipstick testing confirms the presence of blood but no leukocytes or nitrites.
Select the most likely cause of these symptoms.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bladder tumour
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Macroscopic Haematuria by Age
Macroscopic haematuria, or visible blood in the urine, can be a concerning symptom that may indicate a serious underlying condition. The causes of macroscopic haematuria can vary depending on the age and gender of the patient. In general, painless macroscopic haematuria in an adult should be considered a potential sign of renal tract cancer until proven otherwise.
For patients under 20 years old, glomerulopathies (especially IgA nephropathy), thin basement membrane disease, urinary infection, congenital malformation, hereditary nephritis (Alport’s Syndrome), and sickle cell disease are the most likely causes.
For patients between 20 and 60 years old, urinary infection, nephrolithiasis, endometriosis, bladder, prostate, and renal cancers are the most common causes. The risk of cancer increases significantly after the age of 35-50.
For patients over 60 years old, the most likely causes of macroscopic haematuria differ by gender. In males, cancer and prostatitis are the most common causes, while in females, cancer and urinary infection are the most common causes.
It is important to note that while these age-related trends can be helpful in guiding diagnostic testing and treatment, almost any disease can affect anyone at any age. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the underlying cause of macroscopic haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old man has noticed tenderness and slight swelling in the lower half of his left testicle for the past 2 weeks. What is the most appropriate course of action to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testicular ultrasound
Explanation:Testicular Cancer: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Prognosis
Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that typically affects young men in their third or fourth decade of life. The most common symptom is a painless, unilateral mass in the scrotum, but in about 20% of cases, scrotal pain may be the first symptom. Unfortunately, in about 10% of cases, a testicular tumor can be mistaken for epididymo orchitis, leading to a delay in the correct diagnosis.
Diagnostic ultrasound is the most effective way to confirm the presence of a testicular mass and explore the contralateral testis. It has a sensitivity of almost 100% in detecting a testicular tumor and can determine whether a mass is intra- or extratesticular. Even if a testicular tumor is clinically evident, an ultrasound should still be performed as it is an inexpensive test.
Serum tumor markers, including αfetoprotein, HCG, and LDH, are important prognostic factors and contribute to diagnosis and staging. In about half of all cases of testicular cancer, markers are increased, but there is variation between different cancers and different markers.
In conclusion, early detection and diagnosis of testicular cancer are crucial for successful treatment and a positive prognosis. Men should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their testicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman who is 38+6 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining of a burning sensation while urinating. She denies experiencing any vaginal bleeding or discharge and reports no contractions. She has no known allergies to medications. Urinalysis reveals the presence of nitrates and 3+ leucocytes, indicating a possible urinary tract infection.
What is the next best course of action in primary care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral cefalexin. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure
Explanation:When treating a suspected urinary tract infection in pregnant women, it is important to follow NICE CKS guidance. This includes sending urine for culture and sensitivity before and after treatment, and starting treatment before awaiting culture results. Local antibiotic prescribing guidelines should be followed, but nitrofurantoin should be avoided at term due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. Cefalexin is a safe alternative. The recommended course of antibiotics is seven days.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with acute retention of urine. He has a palpable bladder up to his umbilicus and is in significant discomfort. His GP sends him to the emergency department where he is catheterised and blood is taken to test his renal function. His serum creatinine concentration is 520 µmol/l (normal range 60–120 µmol/l).
Which of the following additional results would be most suggestive that his renal failure was chronic rather than acute?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Biochemical Markers for Acute and Chronic Renal Failure
Renal failure can be classified as acute or chronic based on the duration and severity of the condition. Biochemical markers can help distinguish between the two types of renal failure.
Hypocalcaemia is a common feature of chronic renal failure and occurs due to the gradual increase of phosphorus in the bloodstream. Low serum bicarbonate concentration is indicative of acute kidney injury and can lead to metabolic acidosis. Hyperkalaemia and hyperuricaemia can occur in both acute and chronic renal failure, while mild hyponatraemia is relatively common in both types of renal failure.
Overall, while these biochemical markers can provide some insight into the type of renal failure, they are not definitive and should be considered in conjunction with other clinical factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has long-standing treated hypertension. He has had his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) measured on an annual basis. Last year, his eGFR was estimated at 56 ml/minute/1.73 m². This year, he has an unexplained fall in eGFR to 41 ml/minute/1.73 m². This is confirmed by a second blood sample. He feels otherwise well.
What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine outpatient referral to the renal team
Explanation:Referral and Management of Chronic Kidney Disease Patients
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a common condition that requires appropriate management to prevent progression and complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines on when to refer CKD patients for specialist assessment. Patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.73 m2, albumin creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, sustained decrease in GFR, poorly controlled hypertension, rare or genetic causes of CKD, or suspected renal artery stenosis should be referred for review by a renal team.
In addition to referral, patients with CKD may require further investigations such as renal ultrasound. An ultrasound is indicated in patients with rapid deterioration of eGFR, visible or persistent microscopic haematuria, symptoms of urinary tract obstruction, family history of polycystic kidney disease, or GFR drops to under 30. However, the results of an ultrasound should not determine referral.
Patients with CKD require regular monitoring, but the frequency of monitoring depends on the stage and progression of the disease. Patients with a rapid drop in eGFR, like the patient in this case, require specialist input and should not continue with annual monitoring. However, urgent medical review is only necessary in cases of severe complications such as hyperkalaemia, severe uraemia, acidosis, or fluid overload.
In summary, appropriate referral and management of CKD patients can prevent complications and improve outcomes. NICE guidelines provide clear indications for referral and investigations, and regular monitoring is necessary to track disease progression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic for a new patient medical evaluation. During his assessment, his urine dipstick test reveals the presence of blood+ and protein+. He reports no lower urinary tract symptoms or history of visible haematuria, and has no significant medical history. His blood pressure measures 140/92 mmHg. Over the course of the next two weeks, he submits two additional urine samples, both of which continue to show blood+ and protein+. A blood test reveals mildly elevated creatinine levels within the normal range and an eGFR of 60 ml/min. What is the most appropriate management approach for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to a urologist
Explanation:Microscopic Haematuria and Proteinuria: Clinical Relevance and Referral
Here we have an incidental finding of microscopic haematuria and proteinuria. Microscopic haematuria is considered clinically relevant if present on at least two out of three samples tested at weekly intervals. A dipstick showing ‘trace’ blood should be considered negative, while blood 1+ or more is significant. Additionally, this patient has persistent proteinuria 1+ in all samples.
If there had been no proteinuria, a non-urgent referral to a urologist would have been the best approach given the patient’s age. However, with the presence of proteinuria, referral to a renal physician is indicated as per NICE guidance. It is important to consider these findings and take appropriate action to ensure the best possible patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has been experiencing difficulty urinating. Upon further questioning, he describes urinary hesitancy, a weak stream, occasional dribbling, and a sensation of incomplete emptying. These symptoms are causing him distress to the point where he avoids going out in public. Upon examination, you note a smooth enlarged prostate and decide to send blood for PSA testing and a urine specimen for culture. The results come back clear, and his PSA level is 3.8 ng/ml (normal age-adjusted range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An alpha-blocker is the first-line treatment in this patient group
Explanation:Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Here are some common treatment options and their effectiveness:
Alpha-blockers: These medications, such as tamsulosin, relax smooth muscle and are the first-line treatment for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms.
Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP): Surgery is reserved for patients with bladder outflow obstruction or in those in whom medical therapy fails.
Finasteride: This medication shrinks the prostate, but the benefit is seen over weeks to months.
Prostate biopsy: This should be considered in the investigation of prostate cancer, but is not necessary in this patient with normal PSA and examination findings.
Saw palmetto: This herbal remedy is not more effective than placebo and is not recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old female with stage 4 chronic kidney disease visits her GP for routine blood tests. She is currently following a low-phosphate diet and taking calcitriol. The results are as follows:
Hb 130 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 6.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 8.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 190 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 5 mg/L (< 5)
Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 2.2 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
Amylase 90 U/L (70 - 300)
Uric acid 0.55 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
Creatine kinase 50 U/L (35 - 250)
What is the most appropriate course of action to address these blood test results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sevelamer
Explanation:Managing Mineral Bone Disease in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) leads to low vitamin D and high phosphate levels due to the kidneys’ inability to perform their normal functions. This results in osteomalacia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and low calcium levels. To manage mineral bone disease in CKD, the aim is to reduce phosphate and parathyroid hormone levels.
Reduced dietary intake of phosphate is the first-line management, followed by the use of phosphate binders. Aluminium-based binders are less commonly used now, and calcium-based binders may cause hypercalcemia and vascular calcification. Sevelamer, a non-calcium based binder, is increasingly used as it binds to dietary phosphate and prevents its absorption. It also has other beneficial effects, such as reducing uric acid levels and improving lipid profiles in patients with CKD.
In some cases, vitamin D supplementation with alfacalcidol or calcitriol may be necessary. Parathyroidectomy may also be needed to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Proper management of mineral bone disease in CKD is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man complains of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination, a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus is observed. His blood tests reveal a PSA level of 1.3 ng/ml.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist
Explanation:First-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia involves the use of alpha-1 antagonists.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic for a consultation. He is worried about his recent visit to the renal clinic, where he was informed that he has bilateral renal artery stenosis. He is seeking advice on available treatments. Additionally, his blood pressure was found to be elevated.
What is the initial management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antihypertensive medication and lifestyle modification
Explanation:Managing Renovascular Disease: Treatment Options and Lifestyle Modifications
Renovascular disease, caused by atherosclerosis or fibromuscular dysplasia, can lead to resistant hypertension and ischaemic nephropathy, particularly in older individuals with diffuse atherosclerosis. Lifestyle modifications, such as smoking cessation, diabetes control, statins, aspirin, and adequate antihypertensive therapy, are crucial in reducing vascular risk. However, some patients may not tolerate ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor antagonists, which are commonly used to preserve GFR.
Oral anticoagulants are not recommended as a first-line measure. Instead, medication for blood pressure control, with or without intervention, is necessary to prevent or limit the progression of chronic kidney disease and alleviate other symptoms, such as refractory pulmonary oedema and angina. Percutaneous renal artery balloon angioplasty may be considered in patients with difficult-to-control hypertension or rapidly declining kidney function. Renal artery stenting is generally the first-line intervention for flash pulmonary oedema and severe hypertension. Surgical reconstruction of the renal arteries is reserved for patients with concomitant vascular disease, such as abdominal aortic aneurysm.
In summary, managing renovascular disease requires a combination of lifestyle modifications and appropriate medical interventions to reduce vascular risk and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man is found to have an average blood pressure of 163/101 mmHg on home monitoring. Baseline bloods show a creatinine (Cr) of 95 µmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l) and estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 80 ml/min (normal range: > 90 ml/min). His urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 2.8 (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol).
He is commenced on ramipril 2.5 mg once daily. He tolerates this well and returns to his General Practice Surgery for blood tests two weeks later, which show a Cr level of 125 µmol/l and an eGFR level of 62 mg/mmol.
What is the most likely cause for the change in this man’s renal function?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis (RAS)
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of acute kidney injury after starting ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure, but they can also cause a decline in renal function, especially in patients with renal artery stenosis (RAS). Therefore, it is important to monitor renal function before and after initiating or adjusting ACE inhibitors, especially in patients with risk factors for RAS. In this case, a patient who started ramipril developed a reduction in estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which was consistent with underlying RAS.
Other potential causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) in this patient include dehydration, progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD), hypertensive nephropathy, and concomitant use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). However, the absence of relevant history or laboratory findings makes these diagnoses less likely. Dehydration can cause AKI, but there is no evidence of volume depletion or electrolyte imbalance. CKD is unlikely given the normal urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) and lack of prior renal dysfunction. Hypertensive nephropathy is a chronic condition that typically manifests as proteinuria and gradual decline in renal function, rather than an acute response to antihypertensive treatment. NSAIDs can exacerbate renal impairment in patients with preexisting renal insufficiency, but there is no indication that the patient was taking any NSAIDs.
Therefore, the most likely explanation for the AKI in this patient is the use of ACE inhibitors, which can reduce intraglomerular pressure and renal perfusion in patients with RAS. This highlights the importance of considering the differential diagnosis of AKI in patients who start or change antihypertensive medications, especially ACE inhibitors, and monitoring renal function accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue after experiencing a bout of gastroenteritis last week. She reports no other symptoms and no longer has diarrhea or vomiting. Upon examination, her blood pressure is normal at 128/72 mmHg and her pulse is 92 beats per minute. The following investigations are conducted:
Haemoglobin (Hb) - 129 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
Sodium (Na+) - 143 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+) - 5.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine (Cr) - 80 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
Urea - 9.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mild dehydration
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Mild Dehydration
A patient presents with a slightly raised urea level and normal creatinine (Cr) level, along with mild fatigue. The most likely diagnosis is mild dehydration, which could be caused by gastroenteritis. No further treatment may be necessary, but the patient should ensure adequate nutrition and hydration in the next few days/weeks.
Other possible diagnoses include acute gastrointestinal bleeding, acute kidney injury, chronic kidney disease, and malnutrition due to gastroenteritis. However, the patient’s normal hemoglobin level makes acute GI bleeding unlikely, while the absence of an elevated Cr level rules out acute kidney injury and CKD. Malnutrition is also unlikely given the short duration of gastroenteritis symptoms and lack of other indications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents with lower urinary tract symptoms that have been progressively worsening over the years. He complains of weak urinary stream, prolonged voiding, straining, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. He denies any visible haematuria or erectile dysfunction and is not taking any regular medication. His urine dipstick test is normal, and blood tests reveal a PSA level of 3.2 ng/mL. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is about the size of a clementine (approximately 65 cc). He reports having received lifestyle advice in the past regarding his fluid intake, but his symptoms remain bothersome, with an IPSS score of 27 and a self-reported quality of life as terrible. What is the most appropriate pharmacological approach at this stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Finasteride 5 mg OD and tamsulosin 400 mcgs OD
Explanation:Treatment options for Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms (LUTS) in men with an enlarged prostate
Digital rectal examination reveals a prostate about the size of a clementine (approx 65 cc). For bothersome LUTS, NICE advises drug treatment if conservative measures are unsuccessful or inappropriate. An alpha-blocker (such as tamsulosin) should be offered for moderate to severe LUTS. If LUTS are accompanied by an enlarged prostate (>30 g) or a PSA >1.4 ng/mL, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor (such as finasteride) should also be prescribed. Anticholinergic drugs (such as oxybutynin) can be used to manage storage symptoms/overactive bladder symptoms. In this case, an elderly gentleman with severe obstructive LUTS, an enlarged prostate, and a PSA >1.4 ng/mL would benefit from both an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor. The patient should be reviewed regularly to monitor progress and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man who recently moved to the United Kingdom (UK) from India visits his General Practitioner complaining of a painless penile ulcer that has been gradually increasing in size over the past year. Upon examination, the doctor observes a solitary ulcer on the glans and painless inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC)
Explanation:Penile cancer is a rare condition in the UK, but more common in Asia and Africa, particularly in India. The most common type of penile cancer is squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC), which typically presents as a non-healing ulcer in men in their sixth decade. Behçet’s disease is a multisystem disorder that presents with recurrent painful oral and genital ulcers, along with other symptoms such as malaise, myopathy, headaches, and fevers. Adenocarcinoma is a less common type of penile cancer that tends to appear flatter and scalier than SCC. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) and syphilis are both sexually transmitted infections that can cause genital ulceration, but they present with different symptoms and require different treatments. HSV causes painful ulceration and tender lymphadenopathy, while syphilis presents with a painless chancre and painless inguinal lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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What is the ethnic group with the highest incidence of prostate cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asian
Explanation:Factors to Consider in Prostate Cancer
Ethnicity is a significant factor to consider when discussing prostate cancer. The incidence of prostate cancer varies geographically, with the highest rates found in men of black ethnic group and the lowest rates in Chinese men. Age is another important factor, as prostate cancer is rare in men under 50 years old, with the majority of diagnoses made in patients over 65. Family history is also a risk factor, particularly in younger men. Prostate cancer can cluster within families, and having a first-degree relative under 70 with prostate cancer can double a patient’s relative risk of developing the disease. Finally, diet is another factor to consider, as a diet rich in red meat and dairy products has been linked to an increased risk of prostate cancer. By taking these factors into account, healthcare professionals can better assess a patient’s risk of developing prostate cancer and provide appropriate screening and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with flu-like symptoms and subsequently develops haematuria. His urine dipstick is positive for blood and protein, and a urine culture is sent. He is prescribed trimethoprim but later reports feeling ill and coughing up blood. Urine microscopy reveals red cell casts. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Goodpasture syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Goodpasture Syndrome: A Rare Autoimmune Disease with Pulmonary and Renal Complications
Goodpasture syndrome is a rare autoimmune disease that typically occurs after an influenza infection. It is caused by a type II antigen-antibody reaction, resulting in circulating anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies. This disease primarily affects young men, and smokers are at a higher risk of developing severe pulmonary complications. Pulmonary haemorrhage can be massive and lead to respiratory failure. Additionally, it causes rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, which has a poor prognosis if left untreated. Urine microscopy shows casts, and blood testing is positive for anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies. Chest X-ray typically shows blotchy shadowing. Treatment involves steroids and plasmapheresis.
While other diseases can cause pulmonary and renal symptoms, they are unlikely to present in combination. Collagen diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis, idiopathic rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, microscopic polyarteritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and essential mixed cryoglobulinaemia can also cause pulmonary haemorrhage with renal failure. However, acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, resulting from an antecedent infection of the skin or throat caused by nephritogenic strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, doesn’t present with pulmonary haemorrhage. Symptoms of this disease include odema, gross haematuria, malaise, lethargy, anorexia, fever, abdominal pain, and headache. Red blood cell casts are commonly found in the urine.
In conclusion, understanding Goodpasture syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. This rare autoimmune disease can cause severe pulmonary and renal complications, and prompt intervention is necessary to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic with his partner seeking evaluation for infertility. He gives a specimen that shows azoospermia. He has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicocoele
Explanation:Retrograde Ejaculation as a Cause of Infertility
Retrograde ejaculation is a condition that can lead to infertility in men. It may occur after surgery for benign prostatic hyperplasia or due to chronic urethral scarring caused by recurrent infections. In retrograde ejaculation, semen is redirected to the bladder instead of being expelled through the penis during ejaculation. This can make it difficult or impossible for sperm to reach the female reproductive system and fertilize an egg, leading to infertility. It is important to note that there are no other known causes of infertility in this case, based on the patient’s history and examination findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with peripheral oedema and polyuria. Her pulse is 90/min and regular and her blood pressure is 130/80. A full blood count, liver function tests and urea and electrolytes are normal. Her serum albumin is 23 g/l (35 - 50 g/l).
Select the single most appropriate NEXT investigation that should be performed.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dipstick
Explanation:Diagnosing Nephrotic Syndrome: The Importance of Proteinuria and Renal Biopsy
Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria (>3g/24 hours), hypoalbuminaemia (<30g/l), and oedema. To quantify proteinuria, a urine ACR or PCR or 24-hour urine collection is required. However, heavy proteinuria on urine dipstick is sufficient to confirm the need for a renal biopsy. Before a renal biopsy, a renal ultrasound is necessary to ensure the presence of two kidneys and confirm kidney size and position. Autoantibodies aid in diagnosis, but the initial confirmatory investigation is the dipstick. In children and young adults, minimal change glomerulonephritis is the most likely renal biopsy finding, which may be steroid responsive and has a good prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin is red and he seems to be tender posteriorly. He has a temperature of 38.3°C and feels like he has the flu. The testicle and scrotum are of normal size. During the examination, he reports that the testicle feels better when lifted.
Select the most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute epididymo-orchitis
Explanation:Understanding Acute Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Acute epididymo-orchitis is a condition characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, with or without inflammation of the testes. This condition is commonly caused by infections that spread from the urethra or bladder. While orchitis, which is an infection limited to the testis, is less common, epididymitis usually presents with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling of relatively acute onset.
Aside from the symptoms of urethritis or a urinary infection, tenderness and swelling of the epididymis may start at the tail at the lower pole of the testis and spread towards the head at the upper pole of the testis, with or without involvement of the testis. There may also be a secondary hydrocele, erythema, and/or edema of the scrotum on the affected side, as well as pyrexia.
To diagnose epididymo-orchitis, Prehn’s sign is often used, which is indicative of epididymitis. Scrotal elevation relieves pain in epididymitis but not torsion. However, if there is any doubt, urgent referral is indicated, as torsion is the most important differential diagnosis. Torsion is more likely if the onset of pain is more acute and the pain is severe.
It is important to note that a painful swollen testicle in an adolescent boy or a young man should be regarded as torsion until proven otherwise. In this case, the testis is said to be normal in size. Testicular cancer, on the other hand, is usually painless, and there is usually swelling of the testis. Hydrocele causes scrotal swelling.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of acute epididymo-orchitis is crucial in providing appropriate and timely medical care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with a two day history of a gradual onset painful, unilateral, red, tender testicle. He is not in a new relationship.
Which one of these statements is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common urinary tract organisms are the most likely cause of infection in this case
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis: Causes and Treatment
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition that affects the testicles and epididymis, which are the tubes that carry sperm. It is more commonly seen in older men and can be caused by either chlamydia or gonorrhoea, or by common urinary tract organisms.
To diagnose the condition, urine testing for MSU and chlamydia or gonorrhoea can be done. However, due to the gradual onset of symptoms, empirical treatment should not be delayed. A 10-14 day course of quinolone is recommended as the first-line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 60-year-old woman in your afternoon clinic for her annual review. She feels well, although over the last 6 months she has been more tired than usual. She puts this down to starting a new job with increased hours.
Her past medical history includes hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine 5mg once a day. She was diagnosed with mild chronic kidney disease (CKD) last year. She is a non-smoker and drinks 5-10 units of alcohol a week.
Her blood pressure today is 130/82 mmHg. A respiratory and cardiovascular examination are both normal. A urine dip is also normal.
Her blood results today show an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 57 mL/min/1.73 m2. An early morning albumin: creatinine ratio is 25 mg/mmol. The rest of her blood test results are as follows:
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 4.9mmol/l
Urea 6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 µmol/l
Looking back through her notes, her eGFR was 77 mL/min/1.73 m2 12 months ago and >90 mL/min/1.73 m2 2 years ago.
What would be a correct next step for this woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrology referral
Explanation:Referral to a nephrologist is necessary if there is a sustained decrease in eGFR of 15 mL/min/1.73 m2 or more within 12 months. However, in the case of this patient with a normal urine dip, a urology referral would not be necessary. According to NICE guidelines, treatment for hypertension should be followed if the patient has an ACR of <30 mg/mmol, and ACE-i can be started in non-diabetic patients. Aspirin is not recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old patient sees you as part of a health check-up.
He asks you your views about whether he should have a PSA (prostate-specific antigen) check.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient should be dissuaded from a PSA check as there is no evidence that screening for prostate cancer improves mortality rates from the disease
Explanation:PSA Testing and Prostate Cancer Screening
Current advice from the Department of Health states that patients should not be refused a PSA test if they request one. However, patients should be informed about the implications of the test. While there is no clear evidence to support mass prostate cancer screening, studies have shown that diagnosing patients through case presentation has led to improved cancer mortality rates in the USA. It is important to note that many patients with prostate cancer do not experience symptoms, and urinary symptoms are not always indicative of the disease. Additionally, prostate cancer can develop in patients as young as their fifth decade of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with painless macroscopic haematuria. He works in an industrial paint plant. He is normally fit and well and takes no regular medications. He is a smoker.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the bladder
Explanation:Common Causes of Haematuria: A Brief Overview
Haematuria, or blood in the urine, can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. It can be a sign of a variety of conditions, ranging from benign to potentially life-threatening. Here, we will discuss some of the common causes of haematuria.
Carcinoma of the bladder is a type of cancer that commonly presents with painless haematuria in those over the age of 60. Occupational exposure to aromatic amines is a risk factor for this condition.
Renal-cell carcinoma is another type of cancer that can cause haematuria. It is associated with smoking and obesity and typically presents with vague symptoms such as fatigue or weight loss.
Membranous nephropathy is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome, but it is rarely associated with haematuria.
Renal stones can cause painful haematuria, along with other symptoms such as loin pain, dysuria, and nausea.
Urinary tract infections can also cause haematuria, but they are typically associated with urinary frequency, dysuria, and abdominal pain.
It is important to note that haematuria should always be evaluated by a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presents with dysuria. She is in good health with no fever or back pain. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is not experiencing contractions. Her antenatal course has been uncomplicated and she is receiving midwife-led care. She has no known allergies to medications. Urinalysis shows positive nitrites and 2+ leukocytes, indicating a possible urinary tract infection.
What is the most suitable course of action for primary care management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and immediately treat with a short course of oral antibiotics as per local prescribing guidelines. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure
Explanation:For women with suspected urinary tract infections accompanied by visible or non-visible haematuria, it is recommended to send a midstream urine sample. According to current NICE CKS guidelines, this should be done before starting antibiotics and again seven days after completing treatment to confirm cure. Treatment should be initiated promptly if a UTI is suspected, without waiting for culture results. Referral to the maternity assessment unit is not necessary if there are no indications of early labour. However, if group B streptococcus is identified in the culture, it is important to inform the antenatal care service so that prophylactic antibiotics can be administered during labour and delivery.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive. Her renal function is normal but urine dipstick testing shows blood ++. Her mother had also been hypertensive and had died prematurely aged 37 years of a cerebral haemorrhage.
Select the single most likely cause of this patient’s hypertension.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Causes of Hypertension with Renal Involvement
Hypertension with renal involvement has various causes, with renal impairment being the most common identifiable cause. Dipstick haematuria is a strong indicator of glomerulonephritis, particularly IgA nephropathy. However, if there is a family history and cerebral haemorrhage, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a likely cause. ADPKD is the most common inherited cause of serious renal disease and often presents with hypertension and microscopic haematuria. Fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal arteries, which is autosomal dominant, may also cause hypertension but doesn’t present with haematuria. Renovascular atherosclerosis, on the other hand, causes hypertension but doesn’t show abnormal dipstick testing. A bruit may be audible in both fibromuscular dysplasia and renovascular atherosclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old builder presents to the clinic with persistent hypertension despite optimal medical management. The patient is well and has no other medical conditions. The hypertension was initially detected coincidentally during a well man check. As the patient remains hypertensive, investigation for secondary causes is considered.
Which feature is most suggestive of renovascular hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A rise of serum creatinine of ≥ 20% on starting an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:Renovascular hypertension can have various presentations and is often asymptomatic. However, certain features may suggest the diagnosis, such as abrupt onset of hypertension in middle-aged or older patients, severe hypertension, hypertension developing in a patient with other evidence of vascular disease, hypertension in the absence of a family history of hypertension, renal impairment occurring during treatment with ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists, hypertension with hypokalaemia, recurrent episodes of acute pulmonary oedema, and an abdominal bruit best heard over the flank. Renovascular hypertension occurs when stenosed renal arteries prevent afferent flow, and angiotensin II becomes the only mechanism by which the kidney can increase filtration. ACE inhibitors remove this regulatory mechanism and reduce perfusion pressure. Therefore, renal impairment following initiation of an ACE inhibitor would be more indicative of a renovascular problem than refractory hypertension with two Antihypertensive agents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been passing dark brown urine for two days. Worried, she visits her family doctor with her father.
During examination, her face appears swollen and her blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Urine dipstick testing shows a strong presence of blood and moderate protein. Her father mentions that she had a fever and cough about a week ago.
What is the best course of action for the doctor to take at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent paediatric/nephrology admission
Explanation:Urgent Admission for a Patient with Acute Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:
A patient presenting with nephritic syndrome, including haematuria, oliguria, hypertension, and oedema, is likely suffering from acute glomerulonephritis, possibly post-streptococcal. This condition can lead to acute kidney injury and requires urgent investigation. Therefore, routine referral to paediatric nephrologists or urologists is not appropriate in this case. Instead, the patient needs to be admitted to the hospital for urgent investigation and management. While follow-up with paediatric nephrologists may be necessary, the acute presentation with hypertension and oedema requires immediate attention. A two-week rule referral for suspected malignancy is not indicated in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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You observe a 20-year-old male with a left-sided varicocele that has been present for a few months. The varicocele is not causing him any discomfort and has not increased in size, measuring about 2 cm in diameter. During examination, the varicocele is only noticeable when the patient performs the Valsalva manoeuvre. The patient expresses concern about his future fertility, despite not having any immediate plans for children.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Men should not be offered surgery for varicoceles as a form of fertility treatment
Explanation:Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.
Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.
In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his scrotum on one side. He mentioned experiencing dysuria and frequency last week, but it went away on its own. Upon examination, there was a tender swelling at the back of his left testicle. The patient is in good health otherwise and has normal vital signs.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicocele
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for Testicular Pain
The most probable diagnosis for testicular pain in this scenario is epididymo-orchitis. This condition is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis and testes, often following a UTI or sexually transmitted infection. While testicular torsion is also a possibility, the patient’s age, recent UTI, and mild pain make it less likely. However, if the patient experiences severe pain, testicular torsion should be considered and referred to emergency care. Other potential differentials exist, but epididymo-orchitis is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors is most likely to render the use of the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation inappropriate for calculating an individual's eGFR, assuming the patient is 65 years old?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:During pregnancy, GFR typically experiences an increase, although this may not be reflected in the eGFR.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.
CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has chronic renal failure and uses continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). He is feeling unwell and has had mild generalised abdominal pain for 2 days and a cloudy effluent.
Select from the list the single most appropriate initial action.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send effluent fluid for cell count, microscopy and microbiological culture
Explanation:Peritonitis in CAPD Patients: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Peritonitis is a common complication in patients undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD), occurring once per patient-year on average. Symptoms include generalized abdominal pain and cloudy effluent. Localized pain and tenderness may indicate a local process, while severe peritonitis may be due to a perforated organ. Fever is often absent.
To diagnose peritonitis, a sample of the dialysate effluent should be obtained for laboratory evaluation, including a cell count with differential, Gram stain, and culture. An elevated dialysate count of white blood cells (WBC) of more than 100/mm3, of which at least 50% are neutrophils, supports the diagnosis of microbial-induced peritonitis and requires immediate antimicrobial therapy. In asymptomatic patients with only cloudy fluid, therapy may be delayed until test results are available.
Empiric antibiotic treatment should cover both gram-negative and gram-positive organisms, including Staphylococcus epidermidis or Staphylococcus aureus, which are common causes of peritonitis. Candida albicans may also be the cause in rare cases. Antibiotics can be administered intraperitoneally by adding them to the dialysis fluid. Hospital admission is not usually necessary for this complication.
In summary, CAPD patients should be aware of the symptoms of peritonitis and seek prompt medical attention if they occur. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. A colleague at work was recently diagnosed with prostate cancer which has prompted him to make this appointment.
He reports no problems passing urine and detailed questioning reveals no lower urinary tract symptoms and no history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He is currently well with no other specific complaints. He has one brother who is 65 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer.
He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed as his work colleague's diagnosis has made him anxious.
Which of the following is appropriate advice to give the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should have a digital rectal examination (DRE) and only if abnormal be offered PSA testing
Explanation:PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men: Pros and Cons
PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity, as well as the inability to distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, are major points of debate.
Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, it should be offered to men who present with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction. For asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer, it is important to discuss the pros and cons of the test and allow the patient to make their own decision.
Digital rectal examination (DRE) should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities. If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA test should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.
Family history of prostate cancer is an important factor to consider, with the risk of prostate cancer being higher in men with a family history of the disease. The patient should be counselled about the relevance of family history as part of their decision to have a PSA test. Overall, the decision to undergo PSA testing should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the potential benefits and risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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You are examining test results of a 23-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant. The midstream specimen of urine (MSU) indicates bacteriuria. During the discussion with the patient, she reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or fever. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin for 7 days
Explanation:Antibiotics should be administered promptly to pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is in their 60s. The patient is currently taking simvastatin 20 mg, metformin 1g twice daily, and gliclazide 80 mg twice daily. The patient's latest renal function results are as follows:
- Sodium (Na+): 141 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 3.9 mmol/l
- Urea: 5.2 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 115 µmol/l
What is the creatinine threshold at which NICE recommends considering a change in metformin dosage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: > 130 µmol/l
Explanation:If the creatinine level is above 130 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 45 ml/min), NICE suggests that the dosage of metformin should be reevaluated. Additionally, if the creatinine level is above 150 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 30 ml/min), NICE recommends that metformin should be discontinued.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 61
Incorrect
-
You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his erections. He is generally healthy, a non-smoker, and consumes 8-10 units of alcohol per week. He has been in a relationship for 3 years, and this issue is beginning to impact their intimacy.
After conducting a thorough psychosexual history, which findings from the following list would indicate an organic cause rather than a psychogenic cause for his issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A normal libido
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, mixed, or drug-induced.
Symptoms that indicate a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset of the condition, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems, major life events, and psychological issues.
On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset of the condition, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), risk factors in medical history such as cardiovascular, endocrine or neurological conditions, previous operations, radiotherapy, or trauma to the pelvis or scrotum, current use of drugs known to cause ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, and use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.
Therefore, having a normal libido is indicative of an organic cause of ED.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner concerned about his recent diagnosis of membranous glomerulonephritis. He inquires if there is any other health condition that could be associated with this diagnosis.
What is a possible condition that can lead to membranous glomerulonephritis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Membranous Glomerulonephritis
Membranous glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease that often presents with a mixed nephrotic and nephritic picture. The condition is characterized by widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, and its cause is often unknown. However, certain factors have been linked to the development of membranous glomerulonephritis, including cancers of the lung and bowel, infections such as hepatitis and malaria, and drugs like penicillamine and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
One of the most significant risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is malignancy, which is responsible for approximately 5-10% of cases. Patients over the age of 60 are at higher risk, and effective treatment of the underlying malignancy can sometimes lead to improvement in renal symptoms. However, spontaneous recovery occurs in about one-third of patients, while one-third remain with membranous nephropathy and one-third progress to end-stage renal failure.
Other conditions, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hepatic fibrosis, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertension, can also impact renal function but do not directly cause membranous glomerulonephritis. COPD, for example, can induce microvascular damage, albuminuria, and a worsening of renal function, while hepatic fibrosis can lead to hepatorenal syndrome. Chronic hypertension can also lead to hardening of the arteries and a reduction in renal function. However, understanding the specific causes and risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 63
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old Asian man who has lived in the United Kingdom for the past 10 years presents with painless haematuria. He is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day.
Investigations reveal a haemoglobin of 110 g/L (120-160), urinalysis shows ++ blood and PA chest x ray shows small flecks of white opacifications in the upper lobe of the left lung.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bladder carcinoma
Explanation:Diagnosis and Risk Factors for Haematuria and Anaemia in a Middle-Aged Male
The most likely diagnosis for a middle-aged male presenting with haematuria and anaemia is carcinoma of the bladder. This is supported by the patient’s history of smoking, which is a known risk factor for bladder cancer. Although renal TB is a possibility, the absence of systemic symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and weight loss makes it less likely. The opacifications in the lung are consistent with previous primary TB. It is important to note that renal TB can present without systemic symptoms, but bladder cancer is more common in this scenario. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial in cases of haematuria and anaemia, and further investigations should be carried out to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 74-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of penile pain. He has an indwelling catheter that has recently been changed. During examination, the preputial skin is retracted, swollen and forms a tight constricting band behind the glans penis. The glans penis is swollen and congested, while the shaft of the penis appears normal. What is the most suitable initial management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ice packs and manual compression
Explanation:Paraphimosis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Paraphimosis is a medical condition that occurs when the foreskin of the penis becomes trapped behind the head of the penis, leading to swelling and pain. This condition is considered a medical emergency as it can cause serious complications if left untreated. In this article, we will discuss the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for paraphimosis.
Causes:
Paraphimosis can occur due to a variety of reasons, including:– Trauma to the penis
– Infection
– Poor hygiene
– Sexual activity
– Medical procedures, such as catheterizationSymptoms:
The symptoms of paraphimosis include:– Swelling and pain in the penis
– Inability to retract the foreskin
– Discoloration of the penis
– Difficulty urinatingTreatment Options:
The treatment for paraphimosis depends on the severity of the condition. In mild cases, the swelling can be reduced using gentle compression, ice, or osmosis. Topical lidocaine gel may also be used to reduce pain and discomfort.In more severe cases, multiple punctures or injections of hyaluronidase may be required. In some cases, a dorsal incision may be necessary to release the trapped foreskin. A general anesthetic may be required for these procedures.
If a catheter is present, it should be removed temporarily until the paraphimosis has resolved.
In conclusion, paraphimosis is a serious medical condition that requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. If you experience any symptoms of paraphimosis, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin and LH levels should be measured
Explanation:Important Information about Erectile Dysfunction
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the population, with prevalence estimates ranging from 32 to 52%. It is important to measure both lipids and glucose in all patients, as early detection of ED may precede cardiovascular disease (CVD) symptoms by up to three years. While the causes of ED are multifactorial, it is recommended to only measure pituitary hormones if testosterone levels are low. Additionally, it is important to note that recreational drugs such as cocaine and heroin can also cause ED. Overall, it is crucial to be aware of the potential risk factors and causes of ED in order to properly diagnose and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General Hospital dies suddenly. On reviewing her regular medications, you note that she was taking aspirin, a statin and three antihypertensive agents. She had also been receiving erythropoietin injections.
What is the most likely cause of sudden death in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiovascular disease
Explanation:Common Causes of Sudden Death in Patients Undergoing Renal Dialysis
Patients undergoing renal dialysis are at a high risk of cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Chronic renal failure leads to several risk factors, such as abnormal lipid levels and hypertension, that contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease. Statins and antihypertensive medications are commonly prescribed to manage these risk factors. Aspirin may also be prescribed to prevent vascular events, although it increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
Although patients on dialysis are also at an increased risk of malignancies and pulmonary embolism, sudden death due to these causes is less common than sudden death due to cardiovascular failure. Occult malignancy and overwhelming sepsis are usually preceded by symptoms of illness, whereas sudden death is unexpected. Pulmonary embolism may occur in patients with multiple risk factors, but cardiovascular disease is a more likely cause of death in this context.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman with diet-controlled type II diabetes is being treated with a thiazide, a beta blocker and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for hypertension. Her General Practitioner has recently increased some of her medication and has asked her to return to the surgery for a repeat blood pressure measurement and blood test to check for renal function and electrolytes.
Investigations:
Investigation Results Normal value
Serum potassium concentration 3.1 mmol/l 3.5-5.0 mmol/l
Blood pressure 156/94 mmHg <140/90 mmHg
Serum creatinine concentration 115 µmol/l 70-120 µmol/l
Which of the following is the single most likely cause of her hypokalaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The thiazide diuretic
Explanation:Causes of Hypokalaemia: Understanding the Factors that Lower Potassium Levels
Hypokalaemia, or low potassium levels, can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is the use of thiazide diuretics, which inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. This can lead to excess potassium loss via urine, especially in patients with underlying renal impairment. However, the use of a potassium-sparing diuretic can help offset this problem.
Another possible cause of hypokalaemia is primary aldosteronism, also known as Conn syndrome. This condition can cause hypertension and hypokalaemia, but it only accounts for a small percentage of hypertension cases.
Low dietary potassium intake is also a factor that can contribute to hypokalaemia, although it is less common in people who are eating normally. Potassium depletion is more likely to occur in cases of starvation.
Renal tubular acidosis type 4, which is often seen in patients with diabetes, is associated with hyperkalaemia rather than hypokalaemia. On the other hand, renal tubular acidosis types 1 and 2 are linked to hypokalaemia.
Lastly, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors tend to raise the plasma potassium concentration rather than decrease it, due to their action on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
Understanding the various causes of hypokalaemia is important in identifying and treating the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He has been lethargic and anorexic. He describes his urine is frothy. Dipstick testing of urine reveals a trace of blood but is strongly positive for protein. His blood pressure is 140/85. There are no other abnormal physical signs. He takes no medication apart from ibuprofen for intermittent backache.
Select the single most likely cause for this.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome: Causes and Mechanisms
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. The primary causes of nephrotic syndrome include minimal-change nephropathy, focal glomerulosclerosis, and membranous nephropathy, while secondary causes include systemic diseases and drugs. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults.
The glomerular structural changes that may cause proteinuria involve damage to the endothelial surface, the glomerular basement membrane, or the podocytes. In membranous glomerulonephritis, immune complexes localize between the outer aspects of the basement membrane and the podocytes.
If left untreated, nephrotic syndrome can progress to end-stage renal failure in 30-50% of patients. However, some patients with idiopathic membranous nephropathy may experience complete or partial spontaneous remission of nephrotic syndrome with stable renal function.
It is important to differentiate nephrotic syndrome from other kidney conditions such as diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, acute tubular necrosis, and acute interstitial nephritis. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of nephrotic syndrome can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to see you after his recent prostatectomy for localised prostate cancer. He was diagnosed after presenting with minimal symptoms and as such he is worried about relapse and recurrence of his prostate cancer.
He tells you that his specialist mentioned that he would have a PSA blood test performed periodically as a means of monitoring for recurrence. How often should he have his PSA checked?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At six weeks, then at least six monthly for two years, then at least annually thereafter
Explanation:Monitoring Prostate Cancer Patients
Patients who have had prostate cancer require regular monitoring to check for any signs of recurrence or progression. This is usually done through PSA blood tests, which can be done at the GP surgery. However, it is important to note that patients should be under the direction of a specialist for monitoring and follow-up appointments.
As a GP, it is important to have an understanding of the monitoring process so that you can effectively counsel and advise patients who may have concerns about recurrence. Fear of recurrence is a common issue amongst cancer survivors, and they may feel more comfortable discussing this with their GP.
NICE has provided guidance on active surveillance and monitoring post-treatment, which can help inform your consultations with patients. By understanding the necessary monitoring, you can provide better support and care for patients who have been affected by prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a 72-hour history of lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and frequent urination. He has no prior history of urinary issues and no significant medical history. Upon urine dipstick testing, leucocytes and nitrites are positive while blood and protein are negative. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotics
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, men with symptoms of a lower UTI should receive oral antibiotics such as trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, based on local microbiology protocols. This patient’s dipstick test is positive for nitrites, indicating a UTI, and he should be treated accordingly.
Intravenous antibiotics are not typically necessary for UTI treatment unless the patient experiences rigors, chills, vomiting, or confusion. Therefore, this option is not appropriate for this patient.
Men with UTIs should not be routinely referred to urology unless the infection is recurrent. The two-week rule pathway should be followed for patients aged 45 and over with unexplained visible haematuria or aged 60 and over with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test.
While it may be important to rule out a sexually transmitted infection, this patient’s symptoms suggest a UTI, and there is no indication of an STI in his medical history. Therefore, empirical antibiotics should be administered initially.
Although it is important to perform a urinary MC+S test to assess for resistant bacteria, antibiotic treatment should not be delayed while waiting for the results. In this case, prompt treatment is necessary to prevent the infection from spreading or causing sepsis.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 71
Incorrect
-
A 12-year-old boy presents with dark discolouration of his urine. There is a history of upper respiratory tract infection with severe pharyngitis two weeks earlier. He was previously fit and well. On examination he has a puffy face with periorbital oedema. His blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.
Given the likely diagnosis, which complication would be most likely to occur in the acute illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Understanding Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Complications
Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN) is a type of nephritic syndrome that causes widespread hypercellularity in the kidneys. The condition is often caused by post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which can lead to dark urine and haemolysis of red blood cells. While DPGN is rare in developed countries, it remains common in the developing world and can also be associated with systemic lupus erythematosus.
Symptoms of DPGN include hypertension, oedema, and nephrotic-range proteinuria. While most children will recover without treatment, a small proportion of adults may develop renal impairment that can progress to end-stage renal failure requiring dialysis. Acute cardiac failure is unlikely in patients with normal cardiovascular systems, but can be a cause of death in elderly patients.
It is important to differentiate DPGN from other types of nephritic and nephrotic syndromes, such as IgA nephropathy, lupus nephritis, and minimal change disease. Complications such as acute rheumatic fever are rare but can occur in some patients. Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and potential complications of DPGN is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 72
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman who is currently 8 weeks pregnant contacts the clinic to inquire about the results of her urine culture that was taken during her first antenatal visit. She reports no symptoms and has no known allergies to medications.
The urine culture report indicates:
Significant growth of Escherichia coli
Trimethoprim Sensitive
Nitrofurantoin Sensitive
Cefalexin Sensitive
What is the best course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin (7 day course)
Explanation:Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a new patient check. His blood pressure is noted to be 152/100 mmHg so you arrange blood tests. The results include an eGFR of 55.
Select the single correct diagnosis that can be made in this case.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Diagnosis of CKD and Hypertension: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension. To diagnose CKD, more than one estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) reading below 60 is required over a period of three months. Similarly, hypertension should not be diagnosed based on a single blood pressure reading, but rather through ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. Acute kidney injury is characterized by a significant increase in serum creatinine or oliguria, and eGFR is not a reliable indicator for its diagnosis. NICE also recommends using eGFRcystatinC to confirm or rule out CKD in individuals with an eGFR of 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2, sustained for at least 90 days, and no proteinuria or other markers of kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is to have a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test performed.
Select from the list the option that would allow you to do the test immediately rather than defer it to a later date.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He says his last ejaculation was 4 days ago
Explanation:PSA levels can be affected by various factors such as digital rectal examination, urinary or prostatic infections, prostate biopsies, urinary catheterization, prostate or bladder surgery, prolonged exercise, and ejaculation. It is advisable to defer DRE for a week, but if necessary, a gentle examination is unlikely to significantly increase PSA levels. PSA levels may remain elevated for several months after infections, and testing should be delayed for at least three months after biopsies or surgeries. Prolonged exercise and ejaculation may raise PSA levels for up to 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of urgency of urine and urinary incontinence. He denies any voiding symptoms or post-micturition symptoms. There is no evidence of haematuria.
On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender with no evidence of a distended bladder and his prostate feels normal. Blood tests for renal function, fasting glucose and PSA were all normal. Urinalysis is also reported as normal as well as MSU.
He was sent for bladder training which didn't help his symptoms and tolterodine and darifenacin haven't helped his symptoms. He became confused with oxybutynin.
Which of the following options would you offer next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to urology
Explanation:Management of Overactive Bladder in Frail Older Men
When dealing with an overactive bladder in frail older men, it is important to rule out other diagnoses and try bladder training before considering medication. Oxybutynin is not recommended due to potential risks, while solifenacin is unlikely to work. Duloxetine is not recommended for overactive bladder in men, but may be used for stress incontinence in women. Desmopressin has no role in overactive bladder in men. Urology referral may be an option, but mirabegron can be used prior to referral and its effectiveness can be reviewed at 4-6 weeks. It is important to note that mirabegron is a ‘black triangle’ drug and is subject to intensive post-marketing safety surveillance. For more information on managing overactive bladder in men, visit the link provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 76
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who has a routine urine culture sent at her gynecologist appointment. She is asymptomatic but has had a history of post-coital cystitis in the past. Sarah is currently 8 weeks pregnant.
The urine culture comes back showing the growth of Escherichia coli.
What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat with 7 days of nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Pregnant women who have a UTI should be treated promptly, regardless of whether they have symptoms or not. This is because leaving a UTI untreated can increase the risk of pyelonephritis and premature delivery. Therefore, doing nothing is not an option.
The recommended treatment for a UTI in pregnant women is a 7-day course of antibiotics. The choice of antibiotics depends on the trimester of pregnancy.
Trimethoprim is not recommended during the first trimester due to its effect on folate metabolism. However, it is safe to use during the second and third trimesters.
Nitrofurantoin is often the first-line treatment and is safe to use during pregnancy. However, it should be avoided at term (40 weeks) due to the small risk of neonatal haemolysis.
In this case, since the patient is in her first trimester, a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is the recommended treatment.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 77
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old man presents with left loin pain which has been present for the last four to six weeks. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications.
The pain doesn't radiate from the left loin and it is not mechanical in nature. It is constant and has started to disturb his sleep at night. He reports that he is opening his bowels normally and denies any lower urinary tract symptoms. Systems review reveals he has lost just over half a stone in weight over the last two months. He tells you he also feels more tired over the last few months.
On examination there is no tenderness on palpation of the lower back at the site of pain. The overlying skin is normal and no masses are felt. Truncal movements and walking do not exacerbate the pain. Abdominal examination is normal. There are no groin abnormalities palpated. A left sided varicocoele is noted. His blood pressure is elevated at 178/98 mmHg.
What is the next best course of action in primary care to aid in establishing a diagnosis for this 49-year-old man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Faecal occult blood testing
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Renal Carcinoma
This patient is displaying signs and symptoms that suggest a possible renal carcinoma. The presence of non-mechanical back pain, weight loss, tiredness, hypertension, and left sided varicocoele should alert the clinician to consider a renal cause. It is important to rule out musculoskeletal causes for the back pain and to check for the presence of blood in the urine through a dipstick test.
Renal tumours are often picked up by ultrasound, with haematuria and PUO being more common presentations than pain. It is worth noting that renal and retroperitoneal tumours may cause obstruction of the left testicular vein, leading to a left-sided varicocoele. Therefore, if a varicocoele is found on testicular imaging, the kidneys should also be scanned for any masses. Overall, it is crucial to consider a renal aetiology when presented with these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day history of dysuria and frequency of urination. There is no reported visible haematuria. He has no history of urinary tract infections, however, he does report longstanding problems with poor urinary stream, hesitancy of urination, and nocturia.
Clinical examination of his abdomen and loins is unremarkable and he has no fever or systemic upset.
Urine dipstick testing shows:
nitrites positive
leucocytes ++
protein ++
blood ++.
You diagnose a urinary tract infection, send a urine sample to the laboratory for analysis, and treat him with a course of antibiotics.
You go on to chat about his more longstanding lower urinary tract symptoms. Following this discussion, he is keen to have a rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. Digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged benign feeling prostate.
Two days later, the laboratory urine results return confirming a urinary tract infection.
When is the most appropriate time to perform a PSA blood test in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The test can be performed any time from now
Explanation:Factors Affecting Prostate-Specific Antigen Blood Test
The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is a common diagnostic tool used to detect prostate cancer. However, the test results can be influenced by various factors, including benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, urinary retention, urinary tract infection, old age, urethral or rectal instrumentation/examination, recent vigorous exercise, or ejaculation.
It is important to note that the PSA test should be deferred for at least a month in individuals with a proven urinary tract infection. Additionally, if the person has recently ejaculated or exercised vigorously in the past 48 hours, the test should also be postponed. While some sources suggest delaying PSA testing for at least a week after a digital rectal examination, studies have shown that rectal examination has minimal impact on PSA levels.
In summary, several factors can affect the results of the PSA blood test, and it is crucial to consider these factors before interpreting the test results accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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You encounter a 50-year-old man who presents with a personal issue. He has been experiencing difficulties with achieving and maintaining erections for the past year, with a gradual worsening of symptoms. He infrequently seeks medical attention and has no prior medical history.
What is the predominant organic etiology for this particular symptom?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vascular causes
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual activity. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, and mixed, with certain medications also contributing to the condition.
Organic causes of ED include vasculogenic, neurogenic, structural, and hormonal factors. Among these, vasculogenic causes are the most common and are often linked to cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking, and major pelvic surgery.
The risk factors for ED are similar to those for cardiovascular disease and include obesity, diabetes, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, hypertension, endothelial dysfunction, and lifestyle factors such as lack of exercise and smoking. Therefore, when evaluating a man with ED, it is important to screen for cardiovascular disease and obtain a thorough psychosexual history.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of dysuria, visible haematuria, and feeling generally unwell for the past 24 hours. She also has a fever. The patient has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications. During the examination, the patient's abdomen is soft with slight suprapubic tenderness. There is no renal angle tenderness, and bowel sounds are normal.
What is the appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral antibiotics and mid-stream urine (MSU)
Explanation:For women with suspected UTI accompanied by visible or non-visible haematuria, it is necessary to send an MSU along with oral antibiotics. Admission for suspected pyelonephritis is not required, but safety netting should be done. Encouraging hydration and reviewing in 24-48h is not appropriate for this case. Oral antibiotics without any investigations are not recommended. An MSU is essential in the presence of haematuria. Delaying antibiotics could lead to pyelonephritis, so a delayed prescription could be considered for less unwell patients.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a 2-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency, and urgency. She appears to be in good health and is only taking folic acid. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. A urine dip test reveals positive results for leucocytes and nitrates but negative for ketones and glucose. As the healthcare provider, you decide to initiate antibiotic therapy. What is the most suitable duration of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:For pregnant women with a UTI, a 7-day course of antibiotics is necessary. During the first trimester, nitrofurantoin is the preferred antibiotic, given as 100 mg modified-release twice a day for the entire duration. However, it should be avoided during the term as it may cause neonatal haemolysis. Uncomplicated UTIs in non-pregnant patients can be treated with a 3-day course of antibiotics. For simple lower respiratory tract infections or skin infections, a 5-day course of antibiotics is recommended. Previously, men with UTIs were advised to undergo a 10-14 day treatment, but the latest NICE guidance in 2018 recommends a 7-day course of either trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for suspected lower urinary tract infections in men.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.
She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.
She has tried pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months but still finds the symptoms very debilitating. She denies feeling depressed. She is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.
Urinalysis is unremarkable. On vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.
What is the next most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine
Explanation:Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries are an alternative non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the patient only presents with stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary under the 2-week-wait pathway. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the patient’s symptoms persist after 6 months of trying this approach, it is not advisable to continue with the same strategy.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a painful, persistent erection that has lasted for six hours and doesn't subside. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sickle cell disease
Explanation:Understanding Priapism: Causes and Types
Priapism is a medical condition characterized by prolonged and painful erections that can last for several hours. There are two types of priapism: low-flow (ischaemic) and high-flow (arterial). Low-flow priapism is the most common type and is often associated with sickle cell disease, leukaemia, thalassemia, and other medical conditions. It is caused by the inadequate return of blood from the penis, resulting in a rigid erection. High-flow priapism, on the other hand, is less common and is usually caused by a ruptured artery from a blunt injury to the penis or perineum.
Stuttering priapism is a distinct condition that is characterized by repetitive and painful episodes of prolonged erections. It is a type of low-flow priapism and is often associated with sickle cell disease. The duration of the erectile episodes in stuttering priapism is generally shorter than in the low-flow ischaemic type.
Other medical conditions that can cause priapism include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, Fabry’s disease, neurologic disorders, such as spinal cord lesions and spinal cord trauma, and neoplastic diseases, such as prostate, bladder, testicular, and renal cancer and myeloma. Many drugs can also cause priapism, but nearly 50% of cases are idiopathic.
In conclusion, priapism is a serious medical condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the causes and types of priapism can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a progressively diminishing urinary stream, dysuria and urinary frequency. He denies any possibility of a sexually transmitted disease. He feels quite unwell. On examination, he has temperature of 38.7°C and digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a very tender and slightly enlarged prostate.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute prostatitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Dysuria and a Tender Prostate on DRE in Men
When a man presents with dysuria and a tender prostate on digital rectal examination (DRE), several conditions may be considered. Acute prostatitis is a likely diagnosis, especially if the patient also has lower urinary tract symptoms and fever. The cause is often a urinary tract infection, with Escherichia coli being the most common culprit. In sexually active men under 35, Neisseria gonorrhoeae should also be considered.
Prostate cancer is less likely to present with acute symptoms and is more commonly associated with a gradual onset of symptoms or urinary retention. Cystitis is rare in men and would not explain the tender prostate on examination. Urethritis may cause dysuria and urinary frequency but is not typically associated with a tender prostate on DRE. Prostatic abscess should be suspected if symptoms worsen despite treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis or if a fluctuant mass is palpable in the prostate gland.
In summary, when a man presents with dysuria and a tender prostate on DRE, acute prostatitis is the most likely diagnosis, but other conditions should also be considered based on the patient’s history and clinical presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine dipstick testing shows:
nitrites+
leucocytes++
blood++
She has had four urinary tract infections in the last six months, with each episode confirmed by laboratory testing. On each occasion, urine dipstick testing has shown microscopic blood as well as nitrite and leucocyte positivity. After treatment with antibiotics, the infections have settled, but on the last occasion, she experienced visible haematuria.
The patient asks if there is anything she can do to prevent these infections. She had only one previous UTI about six years ago. What is the best approach in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her to a urologist as urgent suspected cancer at this point in time
Explanation:Referral Guidelines for Recurrent UTI with Non-Visible Haematuria
Recurrent UTI is defined as three or more episodes in a year. In the case of a woman with her fourth episode in the last six months, it is important to investigate further. If visible or non-visible haematuria is present on dipstick testing when a UTI is suspected, a urine sample should be sent to the laboratory for mc+s testing in all patients. If infection is confirmed, a urine sample should be dipstick tested for blood after antibiotic treatment has been completed. If haematuria persists, further investigation is warranted.
According to NICE guidelines, urgent referral is necessary for bladder cancer if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection. For renal cancer, urgent referral is necessary if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection.
In the case of a woman with recurrent UTIs associated with non-visible haematuria each time, urgent referral to a urologist is necessary. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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You assess a 78-year-old woman who has a history of type 2 diabetes and mild cognitive impairment. During a previous visit, you referred her for bladder retraining due to urge incontinence. However, she reports that her symptoms have not improved and the incontinence is becoming increasingly bothersome and embarrassing. She is interested in exploring other treatment options, but expresses concerns about potential medication side effects on her memory. What would be the most suitable next step in managing her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirabegron
Explanation:When it comes to managing urge incontinence, anticholinergics like solifenacin and oxybutynin can cause confusion in elderly patients, making them less suitable for those with cognitive impairment. Instead, mirabegron, a beta-3 adrenergic agonist, is a better alternative that can effectively treat urge incontinence without the risk of anticholinergic side effects. Long-term catheterisation and fluid restriction should not be considered as viable options for managing incontinence.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male came to the urologists complaining of urinary hesitancy and dribbling. The diagnosis was benign prostatic hyperplasia and he was prescribed finasteride. What is the mechanism of action of finasteride?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LHRH antagonist
Explanation:Finasteride: A 5-alpha-reductase Inhibitor
Finasteride is a medication that inhibits the enzyme 5-alpha-reductase, which is responsible for converting testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). By blocking this conversion, finasteride opposes the effects of testosterone, leading to common side effects such as gynaecomastia and reduced libido.
In addition to its use as a treatment for these side effects, finasteride is also prescribed orally as Propecia to treat male pattern hair loss. Despite its potential side effects, finasteride has been shown to be an effective treatment for hair loss in many men.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with stage 3a chronic kidney disease visits her primary care physician to receive the results of her yearly eGFR test. The following are her eGFR results from the past three years:
Date 10/31/17 10/31/18 10/31/19
eGFR (ml/min/1.73m²) 59 51 35
What would be the most suitable course of action for her treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to nephrologist
Explanation:CKD is diagnosed when there is evidence of kidney damage or a decrease in kidney function for at least three months. This can be determined by a persistent eGFR of less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 or a change in GFR category or sustained decrease in eGFR of 15 mL/min/1.73 m2 or more within 12 months. Additionally, a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless proteinuria is known to be associated with diabetes mellitus and is managed appropriately, or a urinary ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more together with persistent haematuria, after exclusion of a urinary tract infection (UTI), can also indicate CKD. Other indications include hypertension that remains uncontrolled despite the use of at least four antihypertensive drugs at therapeutic doses, a suspected or confirmed rare or genetic cause of CKD, such as polycystic kidney disease, suspected renal artery stenosis, or a suspected complication of CKD.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.
CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man attends for diabetic annual review. His current medication consists of metformin 500 mg TDS, pioglitazone 30 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, and atorvastatin 20 mg ON. His latest HbA1c blood test result is 66 mmol/mol. His renal function shows an eGFR of >90 ml/min.
As part of his review his urine is dipstick tested and shows blood+. It is negative for glucose, protein, leucocytes, nitrites and ketones.
The patient feels well and denies any urinary symptoms or frank haematuria. His blood pressure is 126/82 mmHg.
You provide him with two urine containers and ask him to submit further samples in one and two weeks time for repeat testing. You also send a urine sample to the laboratory for microalbuminuria testing.
The repeat tests show persisting blood+ only. His urine albumin:creatinine ratio is 1.9 and there is a leucocytosis on blood testing.
What is the most appropriate approach in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Review his medications and refer urgently to a urologist
Explanation:Managing Microscopic Haematuria
Persistent microscopic haematuria should be considered clinically relevant if present on at least two out of three samples tested at weekly intervals. A dipstick showing ‘trace’ blood should be considered negative. Blood 1+ or more is significant. If a patient is aged 60 and over and has unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, referral to a Urologist as an urgent suspected cancer is advised according to NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer.
It is important to note that certain medications, such as clopidogrel, aspirin, and warfarin, should not be attributed to microscopic haematuria. Additionally, if the sample is painless, it must have 1+ of blood or more on at least 2 out of 3 occasions to be considered abnormal.
If a patient is on pioglitazone, which carries a small but significant increased risk of bladder cancer, it would be prudent to stop the medication at least until the microscopic haematuria has been investigated.
In summary, managing microscopic haematuria involves careful consideration of the frequency and amount of blood present in the sample, as well as referral to a specialist for further investigation in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of frequent urine leakage. What is the initial method to evaluate urinary incontinence or overactive bladder in women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of therapy
Explanation:Importance of a Bladder Diary in Assessing Urinary Incontinence
A bladder diary is a crucial tool in the initial assessment of urinary incontinence or overactive bladder syndrome in women. It helps to identify patterns and triggers of urinary symptoms, which can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of the condition. Women should be encouraged to complete a minimum of three days of the diary to cover variations of their usual activities, including work and leisure time.
By keeping track of their urinary habits, women can provide their healthcare provider with valuable information about their symptoms, such as frequency, urgency, and leakage. This information can help the provider to determine the type and severity of the condition and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Therefore, it is essential for women to use a bladder diary when experiencing urinary incontinence or overactive bladder syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man with hypertension attends the General Practice Surgery for his annual review. He currently takes a combination of 5 mg ramipril and 5 mg amlodipine once a day.
On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 136/82 mmHg.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal values
Creatinine (Cr) 142 µmol/l 59–104 µmol/l
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 63 ml/min < 90 ml/min
Urine albumin : creatine (ACR) ratio 80 mg/mmol < 3.0 mg/mmol
Which of the following is the most appropriate management advice for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A BP treatment goal of < 130/80 mmHg is indicated for patients with proteinuria (ACR > 70 mg/mmol)
Explanation:For patients with proteinuria (ACR > 70 mg/mmol), the goal for blood pressure treatment is to keep it below 130/80 mmHg. In cases of chronic kidney disease (CKD), where the patient has a high Cr level and ACR, the aim is to keep systolic BP below 140 mmHg and diastolic BP below 90 mmHg. However, for patients with CKD and diabetes, or an ACR of > 70 mg/mmol, the target is slightly lower, with systolic BP below 130 mmHg and diastolic BP below 80 mmHg.
Contrary to popular belief, ACE inhibitors are not contraindicated for patients with only one kidney. In fact, patients with a single kidney are more prone to renal impairment and should be considered for ACE-inhibitor treatment.
While it was previously recommended that patients with proteinuria consume a high-protein diet to replace urinary losses, recent studies have shown that a low-protein diet can reduce the death rate in those with CKD. However, a prescribed/modified protein intake of 0.75 g/kg ideal-bodyweight/day for patients with stage 4–5 CKD not on dialysis, and 1.2 g/kg ideal-bodyweight/day for patients treated with dialysis, is now suggested.
It is important to note that the result measured by laboratories is an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which assumes standard body surface area and race. Patients who have had amputations or other physical differences could receive inaccurate results. Additionally, an eGFR level of between 60 and 89 ml/min can signify kidney disease if proteinuria is also present, as is the case with this patient who has an ACR level of > 70 mg/mol. Therefore, it would be inappropriate to suggest that an eGFR level above 60 ml/minute per 1.73 m2 indicates the absence of renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man of Mediterranean origin with chronic kidney disease presents for his annual check-up. His most recent eGFR is 50 mL/min/1.73m2 and his urine albumin creatinine ratio is 42 mg/mmol. He reports feeling well and adhering to the aspirin and atorvastatin prescribed to him last year. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home and provides a week's worth of readings, which indicate an average blood pressure of 143/95 mmHg.
What recommendations would you make for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:For patients with chronic kidney disease, the urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) is an important measure of protein loss in the urine. If the ACR is 30 or more, the first line of treatment should be an ACE inhibitor, as it can reduce proteinuria and provide renal protection beyond its use as an antihypertensive. However, if the ACR is less than 30, current NICE guidelines on hypertension should be followed for treatment.
In the case of this patient, an ACE inhibitor should be considered as the first line of treatment since their ACR is greater than 30. Thiazide-like diuretics are a suitable alternative to calcium channel blockers for non-diabetic patients with hypertension and can be used as a second line option. Beta blockers are not a first line option for blood pressure control in non-diabetic patients and are only recommended as a step 4 treatment for hypertension.
If there is doubt about the validity of the patient’s home readings or if they prefer lifestyle management, monitoring without medication changes may be a viable option. However, tight blood pressure control is essential to slow the rate of deterioration of chronic kidney disease and reduce cardiovascular risk.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history asks for a PSA test after hearing about a friend of his father who was diagnosed with prostate cancer. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give him a patient information leaflet with details of the PSA test and allow him to make the choice
Explanation:PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.
The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.
PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old Caucasian man visits his GP for a routine health check-up. During the examination, his clinic blood pressure is found to be elevated. Further ambulatory monitoring reveals a daytime average measurement of 160/96 mmHg. His blood and urine tests show the following results:
- Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Creatinine 136 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 56 ml/min/1.73 m² (>90)
- HbA1c 39 mmol/mol (<42)
- Urinary albumin: creatinine ratio 45 mg/mmol (<3)
The patient confirms that the urine sample was produced in the early morning, and his eGFR is unchanged from last year. What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence ramipril
Explanation:Patients who have chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of >30 mg/mmol should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor or an ARB, regardless of age or ethnicity, to reduce the progression of kidney damage. In the case of a man with stage 2 hypertension and chronic kidney disease G3aA3, commencing ramipril is the correct choice. His blood pressure target should be less than 140/90 mmHg. Amlodipine is not recommended for patients with chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of >30 mg/mmol. Dapagliflozin is not appropriate for this man as he doesn’t have type 2 diabetes. Referring him to a nephrologist is not necessary at this time as he doesn’t meet the criteria for specialist referral. While lifestyle modifications should be advised, pharmacological treatment is necessary for this man given the severity of his condition.
Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management
Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.
To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.
According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.
The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old lady presents to your clinic with complaints of urine leakage when she sneezes and coughs. She denies dysuria but reports seeing blood in her urine. She has no gastrointestinal symptoms. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urinalysis reveals the presence of blood, and an MSU shows RBC>100/mm3. She has no known allergies. What would be your approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to urology
Explanation:Managing Urinary Incontinence and Haematuria in Women
Stress urinary incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as fluid and caffeine intake reduction, and pelvic floor muscle training. If medical or surgical treatment is preferred, duloxetine can be used as a second-line option. However, trimethoprim is not appropriate in the absence of urinary infection. Routine referral to urology may be necessary for surgical management, but only if there are no red flags.
On the other hand, nephrology referral is indicated for women under 50 years old with microscopic haematuria, proteinuria, or decreased eGFR. In this case, an urgent urology referral is necessary due to the patient’s macroscopic haematuria without urinary tract infection and unexplained microscopic haematuria at her age.
Managing urinary incontinence and haematuria in women requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Proper diagnosis and referral to the appropriate specialist can help ensure effective treatment and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about measuring the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It doesn't need to be adjusted for different racial groups
Explanation:Understanding Renal Function: Estimating Glomerular Filtration Rate
Renal function is a crucial aspect of overall health, and it is typically measured by estimating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). There are various equations available to calculate GFR, but the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration (CKD-EPI) creatinine equation is recommended by NICE. This equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and race.
It is important to note that laboratories often assume a standard body surface area, which can lead to inaccurate results in individuals with extreme muscle mass. For example, bodybuilders, amputees, and those with muscle wasting disorders may have an overestimated or underestimated GFR.
Additionally, certain factors can affect serum creatinine levels and thus impact the accuracy of eGFR results. For instance, consuming a cooked meat meal can temporarily increase serum creatinine concentration, leading to a falsely lowered eGFR. Conversely, strict and long-term vegetarians may have a reduced baseline eGFR.
If an eGFR result is less than 60 ml/min/1.73m2 in someone who has not been previously tested, it is recommended to confirm the result by repeating the test in two weeks.
Finally, it is worth noting that creatinine clearance is sometimes used as a rough measurement of GFR, but it has limitations. This method involves a 24-hour urine collection and a serum creatinine measurement during that time period. However, accurate urine collection can be challenging, and this method tends to overestimate GFR and is time-consuming.
Overall, understanding how to estimate GFR and interpret the results is crucial for assessing renal function and identifying potential health concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 54-year-old male patient who you initiated on 2.5mg of ramipril two weeks ago for stage 2 hypertension. He has a history of mild chronic kidney disease (CKD) diagnosed two years ago. He is not taking any other medications and has no significant past medical history. On a previous assessment, you noted some pulmonary oedema, and an echo revealed normal left-ventricular function. A urine dip was unremarkable. He remains hypertensive today, but apart from shortness of breath on exertion, he is asymptomatic. There is no notable family history.
Two weeks ago, his blood tests showed an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 67 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his blood results were:
- Na+ 139 mmol/l
- K+ 4.9 mmol/l
- Urea 6.5 mmol/l
- Creatinine 110 µmol/l
This week, his blood tests show an eGFR of 65 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his renal function showed:
- Na+ 141 mmol/l
- K+ 5.0 mmol/l
- Urea 6.9 mmol/l
- Creatinine 140 µmol/l
What is the likely underlying diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:If a patient experiences an increase in serum creatinine after starting an ACE-inhibitor like ramipril, it may indicate renal artery stenosis. Other signs of this condition include refractory hypertension and recurrent pulmonary edema with normal left ventricular function. A normal urine dip makes options 1, 2, and 3 unlikely, and there are no symptoms of cancer, infection, or diabetes. While polycystic kidney disease is a possibility, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and typically presents with hypertension, kidney stones, haematuria, or an abdominal mass. However, given the patient’s history and lack of family history of renal disease, renal artery stenosis is the more likely diagnosis.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.
CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old lady presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She denies any dysuria or haematuria and reports no gastrointestinal symptoms. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and urinalysis is unremarkable. She reports drinking 7 glasses of water daily and abstaining from caffeinated beverages. Her BMI is 23.5, and she is a non-smoker. You decide to refer her to a physiotherapist for pelvic floor exercises. How long should she continue these exercises before seeing a benefit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:Referral for Pelvic Floor Exercises
Referral for supervised pelvic floor exercises is recommended for women who experience urinary stress incontinence after making lifestyle changes. This referral can be made to a continence advisor, specialist nurse, or physiotherapist. The program is tailored to the individual’s needs and lasts for at least three months, with the option to continue if benefits are observed. Patients are advised to perform a minimum of eight pelvic floor muscle contractions three times a day.
It is important to be aware of the evidence-based approach to inform patients of what they may expect in secondary care. For more information on pelvic floor exercises, visit pogp.csp.org.uk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has renal impairment. His eGFR has been measured at 32 ml/min/1.73 m2. He has developed anaemia. He has a normocytic anaemia with a haemoglobin concentration of 98 g/l (normal 130 – 180g/l). His ferritin level is low.
Select from the list the single correct option concerning anaemia in chronic kidney disease.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treatment of his anaemia should aim to maintain his haemoglobin between 100g/l and 120g/l
Explanation:Managing Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease Patients
Anaemia is a common occurrence in patients with severe renal impairment. The kidneys’ reduced ability to produce erythropoietin leads to normochromic, normocytic anaemia. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends investigating and managing anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) if their haemoglobin level falls to 110g/l or less (105g/l if less than 2 years) or if they develop symptoms of anaemia.
Iron deficiency is a common issue in people with CKD, which may be due to poor dietary intake, occult bleeding, or functional imbalance between the iron requirements of the erythroid marrow and the actual iron supply. It is important to manage iron deficiency before starting erythropoetic stimulating agent therapy. The aspirational haemoglobin range is typically between 100 and 120g/l (95 to 115g/l if less than 2 years to reflect lower normal range in that age group).
It is not recommended to prescribe vitamin C supplements as adjuvants specifically for the anaemia of CKD. Overall, managing anaemia in CKD patients requires careful attention to iron levels and haemoglobin ranges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with prostatism has a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration of 7.5 ng/ml (normal range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
What is the most appropriate conclusion to make from this information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It could be explained by prostatitis
Explanation:Understanding PSA Levels in Prostate Health: What You Need to Know
PSA levels can be a useful indicator of prostate health, but they are not always straightforward to interpret. Here are some key points to keep in mind:
– PSA has a low specificity: prostatitis and acute urinary retention can both result in increased serum PSA concentrations. As the patient is known to have prostatism, this could well account for a raised PSA; however, further investigation to exclude a malignancy may be warranted.
– It is diagnostic of malignancy: Although this level is certainly compatible with malignancy; it is not diagnostic of it. Further investigations, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scanning and/or prostatic biopsies, are needed to confirm a diagnosis of prostate cancer.
– It is invalidated if he underwent a digital rectal examination 8 days before the blood sample was taken: Although DRE is known to increase PSA levels, it is a minor and only transient effect. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme says that the test should be postponed for a week following DRE.
– It is prognostically highly significant: In general, the higher the PSA, the greater the likelihood of malignancy, but some patients with malignancy have normal levels (often taken as = 4 ng/ml but are actually age dependent). The absolute PSA concentration correlates poorly with prognosis in prostatic cancer. Other factors such as the tumour staging and Gleason score need to be considered.
– It is unremarkable in a man of this age: Although PSA does increase with age, the British Association of Urological Surgeons gives a maximum level of 7.2 ng/ml in those aged 70–75 years (although it acknowledges that there is no ‘safe “maximum” level’). Therefore, this level can still indicate malignancy, regardless of symptoms.In summary, PSA levels can provide important information about prostate health, but they should always be interpreted in the context of other factors and confirmed with further testing if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with increasing oedema and ascites. He reports shortness of breath during exercise. Past medical history reveals that he has a history of hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine, and that he drinks two cans of stout on Friday and Saturday nights. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. His chest X-ray (CXR) reveals a normal heart size and no signs of cardiac failure. Urine dipstick doesn't detect haematuria.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Serum albumin 230 g/l 350–500 g/l
Haemoglobin 12.5 g/dl 13.5–17.5 g/dl
Mean cell volume (MCV) 92 fl 80–100 fl
Total cholesterol 7.8 mmol/l < 5 mmol/l
24-hour urinary protein excretion 5g/24 hours < 0.15g/24 hours
What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Oedema and Abnormal Lab Results
Upon examination of a patient displaying oedema and abnormal lab results, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient’s low serum albumin, abnormal cholesterol, and increased urinary protein excretion suggest nephrotic syndrome, which is characterized by urinary protein excretion above 3.5 g/24 hours. This excessive protein loss leads to hypoalbuminaemia and subsequent oedema, which may cause breathlessness due to pleural effusion or ascites.
However, cardiac failure can also cause oedema, but a normal ECG and CXR without signs of cardiomegaly, pleural effusions, or pulmonary venous congestion make this diagnosis less likely. Amlodipine treatment can also cause oedema, but the patient’s other symptoms do not align with the side effects of this medication.
Cirrhosis is unlikely as the patient’s alcohol consumption doesn’t exceed safe limits, and there are no indications of any other cause of cirrhosis. Nephritic syndrome, which is characterized by haematuria and reduced urine output, is also unlikely as the patient doesn’t display these symptoms and his urinary protein excretion is above the threshold for this diagnosis.
In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and lab results suggest nephrotic syndrome as the most likely diagnosis, but other potential causes should also be considered and ruled out through further testing and examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of poor urinary stream and dribbling. He has had four urinary tract infections (UTIs) diagnosed in the last eight months. He is otherwise developmentally normal.
What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valve
Explanation:Possible Causes of Poor Urinary Stream in Boys
Poor urinary stream in boys can be a sign of urinary-tract obstruction, which is often caused by posterior urethral valves. While this condition is usually diagnosed before birth, delayed presentation can be due to recurrent urinary tract infections. Other possible causes of poor urinary stream include urethral stricture, bladder calculi, and neurogenic bladder. However, these conditions are less common and may be associated with other developmental or neurological issues. Vesicoureteric reflux, which occurs when urine flows back from the bladder up the ureters, may also be a result of urinary tract obstruction but is not likely to be the primary cause of poor urinary stream and terminal dribbling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the surgery having noticed fresh blood in his semen yesterday evening. This has not occurred previously and he is otherwise fit and well. He is married and has never changed sexual partner.
On examination, blood pressure is 110/70; abdominal, testicular, and digital rectal examination are normal. His urine culture result returns with no significant growth.
What is the next most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scrotal ultrasound
Explanation:Haematospermia: Causes and Referral Guidelines
Haematospermia, or blood in semen, is usually a benign and self-limiting condition. In men under 40, infection is the most common cause. If no underlying cause is found for a single episode of haematospermia, it is likely to resolve on its own. Referral to haematology is not necessary unless there are other signs of a bleeding disorder, leukaemia, or lymphoma. However, urgent referral to Urology may be necessary for patients over 40 or those with signs of prostate cancer, such as an elevated PSA or abnormal digital rectal examination. Scrotal ultrasound may be useful if there is testicular swelling. Ciprofloxacin may be used to treat prostatitis, but it is not typically indicated for haematospermia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes in with an inflamed glans and prepuce of his penis. He has not been sexually active for six months and denies any discharge. He reports cleaning the area twice a day. He has no history of joint problems or skin conditions. Which of the following statements is accurate in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is likely this is an allergic reaction
Explanation:Balanitis: Causes and Management
Balanitis is a common condition that presents in general practice. It can have various causes, but the most likely cause in many cases is an irritant reaction from excessive washing and use of soaps. Other common causes include Candida, psoriasis, and other skin conditions. If there is any discharge, swabbing should be done. If ulceration is present, herpes simplex virus (HSV) should be considered. In older men with persistent symptoms, Premalignant conditions and possible biopsy may be considered.
The management of balanitis involves advice, reassurance, and a topical steroid as the initial treatment. Testing for glycosuria should be considered to rule out Candida. If the symptoms persist, further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause. It is important to identify the cause of balanitis to ensure appropriate management and prevent recurrence. By understanding the causes and management of balanitis, healthcare professionals can provide effective care to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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Evelyn, an 80-year-old woman visits the clinic for a medication review. She has a medical history of well-controlled osteoarthritis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Currently, she takes Symbicort (budesonide with formoterol) 200/6, salbutamol, and uses senna and naproxen tablets as required.
Her recent urine sample indicates an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 87 mg/mmol, which is higher than the previous sample taken 6 months ago, showing an ACR of 79 mg/mmol. Additionally, her serum urea and creatinine results have mildly deteriorated over the last 6 months.
During her clinic visit, her blood pressure measures 129/76 mmHg.
What medication changes would you suggest for Evelyn?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start ramipril and atorvastatin, consider alternatives to naproxen
Explanation:Patients who have chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, all patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of cardiovascular disease. In the case of a patient experiencing a decline in renal function, it may be advisable to discontinue the use of naproxen, although this decision should be made in consideration of the patient’s symptoms and functional impairment. The recommended course of action would be to start the patient on ramipril and atorvastatin while exploring alternative treatments for osteoarthritis. The second option is only partially correct, as ramipril is advised regardless of blood pressure in CKD patients with this level of proteinuria. The third option doesn’t include ramipril or atorvastatin, while the fourth and fifth options do not include atorvastatin. Ultimately, the decision to discontinue naproxen use will depend on the healthcare professional’s clinical judgement, the patient’s preferences, and the frequency of use.
Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management
Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.
To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.
According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.
The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is an inpatient in the Nephrology Ward. He has chronic renal failure. He is on dialysis and is anaemic, with a haemoglobin concentration of 85 mg/l (normal range: 130–180 mg/l). He is being considered for erythropoietin therapy.
What is the most important consideration for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Up to 30% of patients on erythropoietin may experience a rise in blood pressure
Explanation:Myth-busting: The Effects of Erythropoietin on Blood Pressure, Sexual Function, Cognitive Function, Exercise Tolerance, and Quality of Life in Dialysis Patients
Contrary to popular belief, erythropoietin doesn’t always lead to a rise in blood pressure. While up to 30% of patients may experience this side effect, it is not a universal occurrence. Additionally, erythropoietin has been shown to improve sexual function, cognitive function, and exercise tolerance in dialysis patients with renal anaemia. Furthermore, contrary to another misconception, erythropoietin has been demonstrated to improve quality-of-life scores in these patients. It is important to monitor blood pressure, haemoglobin, and reticulocyte count during treatment, but erythropoietin can have positive effects on various aspects of patients’ lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in his groin area. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor observes a reducible lump with a cough impulse above and medial to the pubic tubercle. The patient reports no pain or other symptoms.
What is the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine surgical referral
Explanation:Referral for surgical repair is the recommended course of action for inguinal hernias, even if they are not causing any symptoms. This patient, who has an inguinal hernia, should be referred for surgery as they are fit and well. Physiotherapy referral, reassurance and safety netting, and ultrasound scan are not appropriate in this case.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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You see a 6-year-old boy who you see for occasional bouts of abdominal pain. His appetite is good, and he opens his bowels regularly. There are no other symptoms reported, and examination is unremarkable. A urine dipstick is positive for leucocytes but negative otherwise.
What would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action necessary
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for UTI Diagnosis in Children
According to NICE guidelines, children aged 3 years and above who test positive for leucocytes on a dipstick test but negative for nitrites should have a urine sample sent for MC&S. Antibiotic treatment should only be started if there is good clinical evidence of a UTI. Symptoms in verbal children may include frequency, dysuria, and changes in continence, while younger children may present with nonspecific symptoms such as fever, vomiting, and poor feeding.
If the dipstick test shows only nitrite positivity, antibiotic treatment should be initiated, and a urine sample should be sent for culture. However, if the dipstick test shows both nitrite and leucocyte positivity, a UTI is confirmed, and a culture should be sent if there is a risk of serious illness or a history of previous UTIs. These guidelines aim to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of UTIs in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a serum creatinine level of 160 µmol/l (60-120 µmol/l).
Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome rather than nephrotic syndrome.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oliguria
Explanation:Understanding Nephrotic and Nephritic Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes
Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, oedema, and hyperlipidaemia, while nephritic syndrome is defined by acute kidney injury, hypertension, oliguria, and urinary sediment. Both syndromes can be caused by various renal diseases and are a constellation of several symptoms.
In nephritic syndrome, increased cellularity within the glomeruli and a leucocytic infiltrate cause an inflammatory reaction that injures capillary walls, leading to red cells in urine and decreased glomerular filtration rate. Hypertension is likely due to fluid retention and increased renin release. Examples of conditions causing nephritic syndrome include diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, and lupus nephritis.
Acute nephritic syndrome is the most serious and requires immediate referral to secondary care, while patients with nephrotic syndrome will also be referred but usually do not require acute admission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with acute urinary retention. What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Explanation:Causes of Urinary Retention: Understanding the Common Triggers
Urinary retention is a condition that affects many people, and it can be caused by a variety of factors. The most common cause of urinary retention is benign prostatic hyperplasia, which accounts for over half of all cases. Prostate cancer is another potential cause, although it is less common, accounting for only 13% of cases.
In addition to these conditions, drugs can also cause urinary retention in some cases. Anticholinergics, antihistamines, calcium channel blockers, nasal decongestants, opioids, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, benzodiazepines, and alcohol are all potential culprits. Spinal cord compression, such as intervertebral disc lesions and spinal tumors, can also lead to urinary retention, although this is a less common cause.
Finally, acute urinary retention is often seen after surgery. This can be due to pain from traumatic instrumentation, bladder overdistension, or drugs. Understanding the various causes of urinary retention can help individuals and healthcare providers identify potential triggers and develop effective treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is worried about his left testis as he has observed a swelling and some slight discomfort. The discomfort intensifies when he stands and subsides when he lies down. The left side scrotum hangs lower and feels like “a bag of worms”. Both testes are of the same size and feel normal. The swelling becomes more noticeable when he performs a Valsalva manoeuvre while standing.
Select the accurate statement from the options given.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Controversy surrounds the need for treatment
Explanation:Varicocele: To Treat or Not to Treat?
Varicocele is a common condition found in 20% of all men in the general population and 40% of infertile men. While it may cause abnormal sperm count and infertility, controversy surrounds the need for treatment. A Cochrane review has cast doubt on the merits of varicocelectomy, but European guidelines cite several meta-analyses favoring treatment. Surgery is only indicated for persistent pain. In older men with newly symptomatic varicocele, an advanced renal tumor is possible and should be excluded. Overall, most varicoceles do not require treatment and are unlikely to cause long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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An individual who is 70 years old has been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is prescribed goserelin (Zoladex). During the first three weeks of treatment, what is the most crucial medication to co-prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate
Explanation:To prevent tumour flare, it is recommended to co-prescribe anti-androgen treatment like cyproterone acetate when initiating gonadorelin analogues. This is because the initial stimulation of luteinising hormone release by the pituitary gland can lead to an increase in testosterone levels. According to the BNF, cyproterone acetate should be started three days prior to the gonadorelin analogue.
Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.
In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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You are working in a GP surgery when you have been asked to review a urine result of a 26-year-old woman who is currently 12 weeks pregnant. The urine sample was collected during her recent appointment with her midwife and the result has returned showing the presence of Escherichia coli. You speak to the patient on the phone to discuss the results and learn that she is well with no history of urinary symptom, abdominal pain or temperature.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibiotic prescription for 7 days
Explanation:The immediate treatment of antibiotics is recommended for pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria. This condition is prevalent and poses a risk for pyelonephritis, premature delivery, and low birth weight, according to NICE guidelines. Treatment for seven days is currently advised. Escherichia coli, which can cause urinary tract infections and gastroenteritis, is a pathogenic organism.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man received a kidney transplant for end-stage renal disease. After four weeks, he experiences fever, night sweats, and myalgia. He visits his General Practitioner and is referred to the Nephrology Clinic. His CXR reveals bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia. What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Post-Transplant Infections: Common Causes and Symptoms
Renal transplant patients are at risk for various infections due to immunosuppressive therapy. One of the most common infections is caused by cytomegalovirus, which typically presents with nonspecific symptoms such as fever and myalgia. A chest X-ray may reveal bilateral interstitial or reticulonodular infiltrates that start in the lower lobes and spread outwards. Epstein-Barr virus can also cause complications post-transplant, leading to lymphoproliferative disease. However, this tends to develop months to years after transplantation and would not account for the CXR results. Herpes simplex virus usually results in oral or anogenital lesions, while Mycobacterium tuberculosis can present with fever and night sweats but would not explain the diffuse CXR findings. Varicella-zoster virus is more likely to cause a classic Chickenpox rash or shingles-type rash. It is important to monitor for these infections and promptly treat them to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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You receive a fax through from urology. One of your patients in their 50s with a raised PSA recently underwent a prostatic biopsy. The report reads as follows:
Adenocarcinoma prostate, Gleason 3+4
Which one of the following statements regarding the Gleason score is incorrect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lower the Gleason score the worse the prognosis
Explanation:Prognosis of Prostate Cancer Based on Gleason Score
Prostate cancer prognosis can be predicted using the Gleason score, which is determined through histology following a hollow needle biopsy. The Gleason score is based on the glandular architecture seen on the biopsy and is calculated by adding the most prevalent and second most prevalent patterns observed. This results in a Gleason grade ranging from 1 to 5, which is then added together to obtain a Gleason score ranging from 2 to 10. The higher the Gleason score, the worse the prognosis for the patient. Therefore, the Gleason score is an important factor in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients with prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man has been referred under the 2-week rule due to frank haematuria. He underwent a flexible cystoscopy and biopsies, which revealed a small superficial bladder tumour. He is a non-smoker. What is the most suitable advice you can give this patient regarding his bladder tumour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The majority of tumours involve only the urothelium and are non-invasive
Explanation:Bladder Cancer: Facts and Figures
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, a hollow organ in the pelvis that stores urine. Here are some important facts and figures about bladder cancer:
– The majority of bladder tumours involve only the urothelium (the lining of the bladder) and are non-invasive.
– Transitional-cell tumours account for 90% of bladder cancers in the UK. About 70% of patients have superficial disease at diagnosis.
– The 5-year survival rate for bladder cancer is typically less than 50%. However, patients with superficial tumours have a 5-year survival rate of 80-90%, while those with muscle-invasive tumours have a rate as low as 30-60%.
– Although smoking is a risk factor for bladder cancer, it is linked to only about 50% of cases, meaning that it is still common in non-smokers.
– Most non-invasive bladder tumours are managed with transurethral resection of the bladder tumour (TURBT). Radical cystectomy (removal of the bladder) may be necessary for invasive tumours.
– The most common symptom of bladder cancer is painless haematuria (blood in the urine). Voiding symptoms are more likely to occur in advanced disease.Bladder cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any symptoms of bladder cancer, such as blood in the urine or changes in urination patterns, you should see a doctor right away.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining of a burning sensation while urinating. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is in good health otherwise. She has no recorded drug allergies. Urinalysis shows positive results for nitrates and 3+ leucocytes. The GP suspects a urinary tract infection.
What is the best course of action in primary care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral cefalexin. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure
Explanation:To avoid the risk of birth defects, trimethoprim should not be used during the first trimester of pregnancy. When a urinary tract infection is suspected in women, it is recommended to start treatment before waiting for culture results. However, a urine culture and sensitivity test should be done before starting antibiotics and again seven days after completing treatment to ensure it was effective. Local guidelines for prescribing antibiotics should be followed, and cefalexin is a safe alternative to trimethoprim. The current recommendation is to take antibiotics for seven days.
Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy
Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This may cause an interaction with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim may also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug competitively inhibits the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the medication. Additionally, trimethoprim blocks the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It also inhibits creatinine secretion, which often leads to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.
When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. Manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication, especially during pregnancy, to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is found to have an eGFR of 65 ml/min/1.73 m2 on routine testing. This is the first time this test has been done.
Select from the list the single correct statement about his management.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: His eGFR should be repeated in 2 weeks
Explanation:This man is likely to have stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD). If an initial abnormal eGFR result is detected, it is important to conduct clinical assessment and repeat the test within 2 weeks to evaluate the rate of change in GFR. If CKD is confirmed, at least three eGFR assessments should be made over a period of not less than 90 days to monitor the rate of change in GFR. The frequency of eGFR monitoring will depend on the severity of kidney impairment. Significant progression of CKD is defined as a decline in eGFR of > 5 ml/min/1.73 m² within 1 year or >10 ml/min/1.73 m² within 5 years.
Proteinuria should be assessed by measuring the protein:creatinine or albumin:creatinine ratio, ideally on an early-morning urine specimen. Proteinuria (ACR ≥30 mg/mmol) together with haematuria may indicate glomerulonephritis and is an indication for referral. However, dipstick testing for haematuria is a screening tool that requires microscopy to make a definitive diagnosis. Haematuria is defined as >3 RBC/high power field of centrifuged sediment under the microscope. If there is only a trace, a sample needs to be sent to confirm haematuria. Patients with CKD should have their proteinuria level assessed at least annually.
To manage CKD, systolic blood pressure should be lowered to <140 mm Hg (target range 120-139 mmHg) and diastolic blood pressure to <90 mm Hg. Atorvastatin 20 mg should be offered for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD to people with CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient during his chronic kidney disease follow-up. He has been undergoing haemodialysis for the past 6 years. What is the leading cause of mortality for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Causes of Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease is a condition that affects the kidneys and can lead to kidney failure if left untreated. There are several common causes of chronic kidney disease, including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, hypertension, and adult polycystic kidney disease. Diabetic nephropathy is a complication of diabetes that affects the kidneys, while chronic glomerulonephritis is a condition that causes inflammation in the kidneys. Chronic pyelonephritis is a type of kidney infection that can lead to scarring and damage to the kidneys. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also cause damage to the kidneys over time. Finally, adult polycystic kidney disease is an inherited condition that causes cysts to form in the kidneys, leading to kidney damage and eventually kidney failure. It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic kidney disease in order to properly manage and treat the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A digital rectal examination and PSA test should be offered to which of the following patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 62-year-old man with unexplained lower back pain
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, men experiencing unexplained symptoms such as erectile dysfunction, haematuria, lower back pain, bone pain, and weight loss (especially in the elderly) should be offered a PR and PSA test. However, before conducting a PSA test, a urine dipstick/MSU should be done to rule out any infection. If a UTI is treated, PSA testing should be avoided for at least a month.
If the age-specific PSA is high or increasing, even in asymptomatic patients with a normal PR examination, an urgent referral should be made. In cases where the PSA is at the upper limit of normal in asymptomatic patients, a repeat PSA should be conducted after 1-3 months. If the PSA is increasing, an urgent referral should be made. These guidelines are outlined in the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer.
Understanding Prostate Cancer: Features and Risk Factors
Prostate cancer is a prevalent type of cancer among adult males in the UK, and it is the second leading cause of cancer-related deaths in men, next to lung cancer. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing prostate cancer, including increasing age, obesity, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, and a family history of the disease. In fact, around 5-10% of cases have a strong family history.
Localised prostate cancer is often asymptomatic, which means that it doesn’t show any symptoms. This is because the cancer cells tend to develop in the periphery of the prostate, which doesn’t cause obstructive symptoms early on. However, some possible features of prostate cancer include bladder outlet obstruction, hesitancy, urinary retention, haematuria, haematospermia, pain in the back, perineal or testicular area, and an asymmetrical, hard, nodular enlargement with loss of median sulcus during a digital rectal examination.
Understanding the features and risk factors of prostate cancer is crucial in detecting and treating the disease early on. In some cases, prostate cancer may metastasize or spread to other parts of the body, such as the bones. A bone scan using technetium-99m labelled diphosphonates can detect multiple osteoblastic metastasis, which is a common finding in patients with metastatic prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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What is the primary purpose of checking the urea and electrolytes before initiating amiodarone therapy in a patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To detect hypokalaemia
Explanation:The risk of arrhythmias can be increased by all antiarrhythmic drugs, especially when hypokalaemia is present.
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with bothersome urinary symptoms of urinary frequency, nocturia and hesitancy. His International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) is 20/35. A recent digital rectal examination (DRE) shows a smoothly enlarged prostate. His blood test results show a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 3.5 ng/ml (age-specific normal range for ages 60-69: < 4.0 ng/ml). What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tamsulosin and finasteride
Explanation:This man is experiencing symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), which is common in men over 45 years old and presents with urinary frequency, nocturia, and hesitancy. Upon examination, his prostate is enlarged but his PSA is normal. Based on his moderate voiding symptoms, he should receive combination therapy with an alpha-blocker (such as tamsulosin) and a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (such as finasteride). Finasteride works to physically reduce the size of the prostate, but may take up to six months to show improvement, while the alpha-blocker works quickly to relieve symptoms but has no long-term impact. For patients at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor alone should be offered. It is important to counsel patients about common side-effects, including erectile dysfunction and safety issues. Goserelin is not appropriate in this case as it is used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Oxybutynin may be added for patients with a mixture of storage and voiding symptoms that persist after treatment with an alpha-blocker. Tamsulosin alone may be offered for those with mild symptoms not responding to conservative management or those who decline treatment with finasteride. Common side-effects of tamsulosin include dizziness and sexual dysfunction, and it should be used with caution in the elderly and those with a history of postural hypotension or micturition syncope.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with chronic renal failure presents with anaemia.
Select the single most likely cause.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Anaemia is a common complication in patients with chronic kidney disease, with a prevalence of about 12%. As the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls, the prevalence of anaemia increases. Patients should be investigated if their haemoglobin falls to 110g/L or less or if symptoms of anaemia develop.
The typical normochromic normocytic anaemia of chronic kidney disease mainly develops from decreased renal synthesis of erythropoietin. Anaemia becomes more severe as the glomerular filtration rate decreases. Iron deficiency is also common and may be due to poor dietary intake or occult bleeding. Other factors contributing to anaemia include the presence of uraemic inhibitors, a reduced half-life of circulating blood cells, or deficiency of folate or vitamin B12.
Although supplements of vitamin C have been used as adjuvant therapy in the anaemia of chronic kidney disease, NICE recommends that they should not be prescribed for this purpose as evidence suggests no benefit. It is important to monitor and manage anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease to improve their quality of life and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of dysuria, frequent urination, and malaise for the past week. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant. Upon examination, a dipstick test reveals nitrites ++ and leukocytes ++, and a urine culture is ordered.
What is the initial management strategy that should be employed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin PO
Explanation:When a pregnant woman presents with symptoms of a UTI such as dysuria, frequency, and malaise, nitrofurantoin is the first-line treatment option. However, if the woman is close to term, this medication should be avoided. A urine culture should be sent and if necessary, second-line antibiotics such as amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used. For non-pregnant women, trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin are the recommended treatments. In cases of acute pyelonephritis, IV cefuroxime is a viable antibiotic option.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of fever, dysuria, suprapubic pain, and increased frequency of micturition. This is happening 14 days after finishing antibiotic treatment for an Escherichia coli (E coli) urinary-tract infection (UTI). She is currently using condoms for contraception. Urine culture reveals the presence of the same E coli. She has no history of recurrent UTIs and is in good health otherwise.
What is the most likely cause of her persistent symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Silent pyelonephritis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of recurrent UTI in a young woman
Recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common problem in women, but their underlying causes can vary. In this case, the patient presents with symptoms suggestive of cystitis, but her urine culture is positive for the same organism despite completing a course of antibiotics. This raises the possibility of silent pyelonephritis, a condition in which the kidney is infected but there are no overt signs of inflammation. Other potential diagnoses to consider include interstitial cystitis, atrophic vaginitis, chlamydial urethritis, and use of spermicidal jelly. Each of these conditions has distinct features that can help guide further evaluation and management. For example, interstitial cystitis is characterized by sterile urine cultures and chronic pelvic pain, while atrophic vaginitis is more common in postmenopausal women and can cause recurrent UTIs due to changes in vaginal flora. Chlamydial urethritis may be suspected if there is a history of unprotected sexual activity, and a mid-stream urine culture would be negative. Finally, the use of spermicidal jelly can increase the risk of UTIs, but this is usually due to re-infection rather than relapse. Overall, a careful history and physical examination, along with appropriate laboratory tests, can help narrow down the differential diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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You are discussing with your supervisor the management of patients who present with urological symptoms in elderly women.
Which of the following presentations of urinary symptoms in elderly women requires urgent referral?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 44-year-old patient with urinary incontinence symptoms and feeling of a 'lump down below'
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Painless Visible Haematuria
Painless macroscopic haematuria, or visible blood in the urine, is a concerning symptom that should be urgently referred for suspicion of bladder or renal cancer. However, it is important to note that if the patient also experiences pain or symptoms of a urinary tract infection, these should be assessed and managed separately.
Prompt referral for painless visible haematuria is crucial in order to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential cancer. Patients should be advised to seek medical attention immediately if they notice blood in their urine, even if they do not experience any pain or other symptoms. Healthcare providers should also be vigilant in identifying and referring these cases for further evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with polyuria. She has a history of multiple attendances and a previous neurology referral for headache.
On examination, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. Dipstick urinalysis reveals haematuria. She commences a three-day course of trimethoprim. She returns, still complaining of symptoms, at which point the presence of normochromic normocytic anaemia is noted, along with a serum creatinine of 220 µmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l). A urine culture result shows no growth.
What diagnosis is most likely to explain her reduced renal function?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Analgesic nephropathy
Explanation:Possible Causes of Renal Dysfunction in a Patient with Chronic Headache
One possible cause of renal dysfunction in a patient with chronic headache is analgesic nephropathy. This condition is characterized by polyuria, haematuria, deteriorating renal function, hypertension, and anaemia, which can result from long-term use of over-the-counter analgesics. Another possible cause is acute glomerulonephritis, which can present with asymptomatic proteinuria, haematuria, or nephrotic or nephritic syndrome. However, the patient’s history is more suggestive of analgesic nephropathy. Renal failure secondary to sepsis is unlikely, as the patient has no symptoms of sepsis and the urine culture is negative. Hypertensive renal disease usually presents with asymptomatic microalbuminuria and deteriorating renal function in patients with a long history of hypertension, which doesn’t fit with the clinic history given above. Reflux nephropathy, which commonly occurs in children due to a posterior urethral valve or in adults due to bladder outlet obstruction, is not suggested by the above history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to his GP with a swollen testicle. Upon examination, the GP suspects a testicular tumour rather than epididymo-orchitis. What finding is most likely to have led to this suspicion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A painless testicular swelling
Explanation:Testicular Tumours and Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Testicular tumours can present as painless or painful lumps or enlarged testicles, often accompanied by a dragging sensation and pain in the lower abdomen. Inflamed testicles are very tender, while malignant ones may lack normal sensation. Ultrasound is usually used to confirm the diagnosis.
Acute epididymo-orchitis, on the other hand, is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, often caused by infections spreading from the urethra or bladder. Symptoms may include urethral discharge, hydrocele, erythema, oedema of the scrotum, and pyrexia. Orchitis, limited to the testis, is less common.
The differential diagnosis of a testicular mass includes not only tumours and epididymo-orchitis but also testicular torsion, hydrocele, hernia, hematoma, spermatocele, and varicocele.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male visits his general practitioner (GP) complaining of swelling in his testicles. He reports a soft sensation on the top of his left testicle but denies any pain or issues with urination or erections. The GP orders an ultrasound, and the results show a mild varicocele on the left side with no other abnormalities detected in the right testis. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure and observe
Explanation:Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele
Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.
Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the GP clinic with complaints of lower back pain, fevers, and weight loss. He has also noticed a weakened urinary stream and increased frequency of urination over the past six months. On examination, including digital rectal examination, there are no significant findings. The GP recommends that he see the practice phlebotomist to check his prostate serum antigen level. What is the most probable factor that could lead to a false positive result?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A confirmed UTI, successfully treated two weeks ago
Explanation:Factors Affecting PSA Measurement
Prostate serum antigen (PSA) measurement is a crucial screening tool for detecting prostate cancer. However, recent urinary tract infections can increase PSA levels, which may remain elevated for up to a month. There are several other factors that can influence PSA levels, including recent prostate biopsy, vigorous exercise within the last 48 hours, and ejaculation within the last 48 hours. It is recommended that men avoid PSA testing under these circumstances. On the other hand, there is no evidence to suggest that an intercurrent illness, such as an upper respiratory tract infection, affects PSA levels. Proper understanding of these factors can help ensure accurate PSA measurement and reliable prostate cancer detection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a 84-year-old woman in a nursing home. The result shows a pure growth of Escherichia coli with full sensitivity but levels of white cells and red blood cells are within the normal range. You telephone the nursing home and are told that she is well in herself but that they routinely send urine specimens on all patients.
Select the single most appropriate management option in this patient.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action required
Explanation:Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Elderly and Pregnant Women
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common condition in elderly and pregnant women. In healthy patients, a pure growth with normal white and red cells doesn’t require treatment unless an invasive urological procedure is planned. However, in pregnant women, it should be treated as it is associated with low birth weight and premature delivery. There is no evidence of long-term harm or benefit from medication in patients with a normal renal tract. It is important to be cautious in apparently asymptomatic men who may have chronic prostatitis.
Public Health England advises against sending urine for culture in asymptomatic elderly individuals with positive dipsticks. Urine should only be sent for culture if there are two or more signs of infection, such as dysuria, fever > 38 °C, or new incontinence. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in the elderly should not be treated as it is very common, and treating it doesn’t reduce mortality or prevent symptomatic episodes. In fact, treating it can increase side effects and antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old male patient complains of a painless scrotal swelling on the right side that has been present for two weeks. Upon examination, a soft non-tender swelling is observed on the right side of the scrotum that transilluminates with a pen torch. Palpation of the testicle reveals an irregular, hard swelling. The patient is afebrile and there is no erythema. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for urgent scrotal ultrasound
Explanation:An ultrasound is the recommended first-line investigation for a testicular mass. It is important to note that a new hydrocele could be a sign of testicular malignancy, especially in males aged 20-40 years old who are at the highest risk. Therefore, NICE guidelines state that urgent scrotal ultrasound is necessary for investigating new hydroceles in this age group. It is not appropriate to simply reassure the patient or request a routine ultrasound or outpatient review, as this could delay the diagnosis of malignancy. Blood tests to check for tumour markers may be appropriate after the identification of suspected testicular malignancy.
Testicular cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The majority of cases (95%) are germ-cell tumors, which can be further classified as seminomas or non-seminomas. Non-germ cell tumors, such as Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas, are less common. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis. Symptoms may include a painless lump, pain, hydrocele, and gynaecomastia.
Tumour markers can be used to diagnose testicular cancer. For germ cell tumors, hCG may be elevated in seminomas, while AFP and/or beta-hCG are elevated in non-seminomas. LDH may also be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool.
Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for Stage I seminomas and 85% for Stage I teratomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has Parkinson's disease and is started on treatment. A month later he presents and is concerned that his urine is dark red in color.
Select the most probable cause.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L-Dopa treatment
Explanation:Understanding Acute Interstitial Nephritis and its Causes
Acute interstitial nephritis is a condition that results in acute kidney injury. The most common cause of this condition is a drug hypersensitivity reaction, accounting for 40-60% of cases. However, drugs used for Parkinson’s disease are not known to cause nephritis.
Wilson’s disease, on the other hand, is a condition characterized by abnormal copper metabolism. It typically presents as liver disease in children and adolescents, and as neuropsychiatric illness in young adults, which may include Parkinsonian features. Although haematuria has been reported in Wilson’s disease, gross haematuria is uncommon in urinary tract infection.
L-Dopa is the primary treatment for Parkinson’s disease, and it can cause reddish discolouration of urine and other body fluids. In contrast, bromocriptine doesn’t have this side effect. While the BNF reports that the side effect of bromocriptine is uncommon, it would still be wise to test the urine for blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency and dysuria for the last 3 days. She denies vomiting or fevers and has no back pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis but no other significant medical conditions.
During the examination, she experiences mild suprapubic tenderness, but there is no renal angle tenderness. Her heart rate is 68 beats per minute, blood pressure is 134/80 mmHg, and tympanic temperature is 36.8 oC. Urinalysis reveals 2+ leucocytes, positive nitrites, and no haematuria.
Based on the current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send a urine culture and commence a 3 day course of nitrofurantoin immediately
Explanation:For women over 65 years old with suspected urinary tract infections, it is recommended to send an MSU for urine culture according to current NICE CKS guidance. Asymptomatic bacteriuria is common in older patients, so a urine dip is no longer recommended. However, a urine culture can help determine appropriate antibiotic therapy in this age group. Antibiotics should be prescribed for 3 days in women and 7 days in men with suspected urinary tract infections. Since the woman is experiencing symptoms, it is appropriate to administer antibiotics immediately rather than waiting for culture results.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman with longstanding diabetes presents with proteinuria. Her serum creatinine level is normal.
What is the most common renal complication in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glomerulosclerosis
Explanation:Complications of Diabetes Mellitus: Diabetic Nephropathy
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body. People with diabetes are at a higher risk of developing atherosclerosis, urinary infections, and papillary necrosis. However, the most significant complications arise from diabetic nephropathy, which affects the glomeruli in the kidneys.
There are three major histological changes that occur in the glomeruli of people with diabetic nephropathy. Firstly, hyperglycemia directly induces mesangial expansion. Secondly, the glomerular basement membrane thickens. Finally, glomerular sclerosis occurs due to intraglomerular hypertension, which can be caused by a dilated afferent renal artery or ischaemic injury.
It is important to note that obstructive uropathy is not a common complication of diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels and undergo regular kidney function tests to prevent and manage diabetic nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to see you to discuss PSA testing. He plays tennis with a few friends once a week and they have all been talking about the PSA test after one of his friends went to see his own GP with 'waterworks' problems.
He has no lower urinary tract symptoms and denies any history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He has one brother who is 63 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer. He is currently well.
He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed.
What advice would you give to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should be advised of the benefits and limitations of PSA testing and make an individual decision on whether to have the test
Explanation:PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men
PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity are significant, with two out of three men with a raised PSA not having prostate cancer and 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA having prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers.
Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, in men with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction, digital rectal examination (DRE) and PSA testing should be offered. Asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer should be informed of the pros and cons of the test and allowed to make their own decision. DRE should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities.
If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.
Family history is an important factor when considering prostate cancer. If the patient has a first-degree relative with prostate cancer, this may influence their decision on whether to have a PSA blood test. The risk of prostate cancer is increased by 112-140% for men with an affected father and 187-230% for men with an affected brother. Risks are higher for men under the age of 65 and for men where the relative is diagnosed before the age of 60.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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Which of the following indicate the presence of authentic stress incontinence (GSI)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Passage of large amounts of urine
Explanation:Understanding Urinary Incontinence
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many people, particularly women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, and each has its own set of symptoms. Genuine stress incontinence is characterized by the loss of urine during physical activity such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or intercourse. The urine loss is immediate and often described as a squirt of urine.
On the other hand, detrusor dyssynergia (DD) is characterized by a sudden urge to urinate that may occur while at rest or after physical activity. This is followed by a large loss of urine. Dysuria, or painful urination, may indicate an infection of the bladder and urethra or irritation of the vulval and perineal epithelium due to the dribbling of urine.
In some cases, urinary incontinence may be associated with other pelvic relaxation problems such as cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man comes to your clinic. He has a medical history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin as an anticoagulant. During a routine hypertension clinic appointment 10 weeks ago, a urine dipstick showed the presence of blood and leucocytes. However, the initial urine microscopy and culture did not reveal any growth. The urine dipstick has been repeated twice since then, with the same result.
What would be the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to urology
Explanation:Patients taking warfarin have a comparable incidence of non-visible haematuria to the general population, and thus should be evaluated in the same manner. While most haematuria protocols recommend referring younger patients (under 40 years) to nephrology, this patient’s age warrants referral to urology for a cystoscopy.
Haematuria: Causes and Management
The management of haematuria can be challenging due to the lack of widely followed guidelines. Haematuria is now classified as visible or non-visible, with the latter being found in approximately 2.5% of the population. Transient or spurious non-visible haematuria can be caused by urinary tract infections, menstruation, vigorous exercise, or sexual intercourse. Persistent non-visible haematuria may be caused by cancer, stones, benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urethritis, or renal conditions such as IgA nephropathy or thin basement membrane disease. Spurious causes of haematuria include certain foods and drugs.
Screening for haematuria is not recommended, and patients taking aspirin or warfarin should also be investigated. Urine dipstick is the preferred test for detecting haematuria, and persistent non-visible haematuria is defined as blood being present in 2 out of 3 samples tested 2-3 weeks apart. Renal function, albumin:creatinine or protein:creatinine ratio, and blood pressure should also be checked. NICE guidelines recommend urgent referral for patients aged 45 or older with unexplained visible haematuria or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection. Patients aged 60 or older with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test should also be urgently referred. Patients under 40 years of age with normal renal function, no proteinuria, and who are normotensive may be managed in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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You have arranged a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been trying to conceive with his wife for the last 12 months without success.
The results are as follows:
Semen volume 1.8 ml (1.5ml or more)
pH 7.4 (7.2 or more)
Sperm concentration 12 million per ml (15 million per ml or more)
Total sperm number 21 million (39 million or more)
Total motility 40% progressively motile (32% or more)
Vitality 68% live spermatozoa (58% or more)
Normal forms 5% (4% or more)
His partner is also currently undergoing investigations. You plan on referring him to fertility services.
What is the appropriate course of action based on these semen analysis results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat test in 3 months
Explanation:If a semen sample shows abnormalities, it is recommended to schedule a repeat test after 3 months to allow for the completion of the spermatozoa formation cycle. In cases where there is a severe deficiency in spermatozoa (azoospermia or a sperm concentration of less than 5 million per ml), an immediate recheck may be necessary. Based on World Health Organisation criteria, this man has mild oligozoospermia/oligospermia with a sperm concentration of 10 to 15 million per ml, thus requiring a confirmatory test after 3 months.
Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at the diabetes clinic for a review. Her blood tests from three months ago showed:
K+ 4.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 116 µmol/l
eGFR 47 ml/min
She was started on lisinopril to manage hypertension and act as a renoprotective agent. The medication was titrated up to treatment dose. Her current blood results are:
K+ 4.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 123 µmol/l
eGFR 44 ml/min
What is the most appropriate course of action among the following options?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action
Explanation:The slight alterations in creatinine and eGFR are within acceptable limits and do not warrant discontinuation of ACE inhibitors.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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You encounter a 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man who wishes to discuss his struggles with erectile dysfunction. He has been experiencing difficulty achieving and maintaining erections for the past 8 months.
The patient's medical history includes hypertension and sickle cell disease, for which he takes ramipril and amlodipine. He maintains a healthy body mass index and regularly exercises for an hour five days a week, primarily using the treadmill and weights. He doesn't smoke but consumes approximately 4 units of alcohol daily.
What is the risk factor for erectile dysfunction in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High alcohol intake
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by various factors, including organic and psychogenic causes, as well as certain drugs. Some drugs that can cause ED include antihypertensives, diuretics, antidepressants, and recreational drugs like marijuana. High alcohol intake is also a well-known cause of ED, and this risk is increased when a person drinks more than the recommended safe amount.
Among the organic causes of ED, vasculogenic causes are the most common, including cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, and smoking. By modifying risk factors and receiving treatment, most patients can experience significant improvement. This includes controlling blood pressure and lipid levels, losing weight, quitting smoking, increasing exercise, and reducing alcohol intake. However, excessive cycling can worsen ED.
Treatment for ED often involves the use of phosphodiesterase inhibitors (PDE5), unless there are contraindications. For instance, sickle cell disease increases the risk of priapism (persistent erection), so caution is necessary when prescribing PDE5 inhibitors to patients with this condition. However, sickle cell disease doesn’t increase the risk of ED per se.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old girl presents with a fever (38 oC) for 48 hours and occasional vomiting. A urine sample was sent to the laboratory and you receive the following result:
White cells
> 100 cells per µl
Red blood cells
> 100 cells per µl
Organisms
3+
Epithelial cells
1+
Culture
Escherichia coli> 108
Which of the following would be the single most appropriate initial management for this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start antibiotics immediately
Explanation:Interpretation of Urine Test Results in Children with Suspected Urinary Tract Infection
Interpretation of urine test results in children with suspected urinary tract infection (UTI) is crucial in determining the appropriate course of treatment. A positive result for bacteriuria and fever of 38oC or higher suggests a typical bacterial infection, which may progress to an upper UTI. In such cases, referral to a paediatric specialist is recommended. However, if there are no indications of an atypical infection or serious illness, treatment with an antibiotic showing a low resistance pattern is reasonable.
It is important to note that routine prophylaxis with antibiotics after a first infection is not necessary, nor is imaging required if the child responds to treatment within 48 hours. However, imaging is necessary during and after atypical infections and after recurrent infections for a child of this age. Therefore, careful interpretation of urine test results and appropriate follow-up measures are essential in managing UTIs in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with swollen legs and proteinuria (> 3.5g/24 hours). After referral and kidney biopsy, a diagnosis of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is made.
Select from the list the single correct statement about this condition.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may present as a nephritic syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Glomerulonephritis: Types, Symptoms, and Causes
Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation in the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can be primary or secondary, and may present with various symptoms such as haematuria, proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, nephritic syndrome, acute or chronic renal failure.
Primary glomerulonephritis can be classified based on clinical syndrome, histopathological appearance, or underlying aetiology. One common type is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, which causes segmental scarring and podocyte fusion in the glomerulus. It often leads to nephrotic syndrome and may progress to end-stage renal failure, but can be treated with corticosteroids.
Another type is IgA nephropathy, which is characterised by IgA antibody deposition in the glomerulus and is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults worldwide. It usually presents with macroscopic haematuria but can also cause nephrotic syndrome.
Interstitial nephritis, on the other hand, affects the area between the nephrons and can be acute or chronic. The most common cause is a drug hypersensitivity reaction.
In summary, understanding the types, symptoms, and causes of glomerulonephritis is crucial in diagnosing and managing this group of kidney disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 50-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer who had a mastectomy 3 months ago. You have been requested to conduct a routine surveillance mammogram after 3 months. The mammogram shows a small area of calcification. How would you manage this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to oncology
Explanation:After a prostatectomy, the PSA level should be undetectable, meaning it should be less than 0.2ng/ml. If the PSA level is 2 after 3 months (even though it falls within the normal range for untreated patients), it is still considered significantly high and requires immediate referral to oncology for further examination.
PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.
The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.
PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A couple is struggling with infertility. The male partner is 32-years-old and the female partner is 34-years-old. They have no children and she has never been pregnant before. They have been having unprotected sexual intercourse regularly for the past 14 months. Prior to this, they used condoms and she has not used any form of hormonal contraception for over two years.
Upon further discussion, the male partner had a unilateral orchidopexy at the age of 5 for an undescended testicle. He is in good health, doesn't smoke, and has a body mass index of 24.8 kg/m2. The female partner has regular periods every four weeks and experiences bleeding for three to four days with each period. She doesn't have significant menorrhagia or dysmenorrhea and denies any unscheduled vaginal bleeding or discharge. Her periods have been light and regular for as long as she can remember. She has no significant medical history and is a non-smoker with a body mass index of 23.4 kg/m2.
What is the most appropriate advice to provide for management at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They should continue to have regular unprotected sexual intercourse and return for review if they have not conceived within 2 years
Explanation:Investigating Infertility in Couples
When a couple has been having regular unprotected sexual intercourse for a year without any comorbidities affecting fertility, it is important to investigate infertility. However, if the woman is 36 years or older, or there is a known cause or risk factor for infertility, immediate referral is necessary. Couples with male factor problems, tubal disorders, or ovulatory disorders should also be referred if primary care treatment is not possible. Additionally, patients with unexplained infertility after two years of regular unprotected sexual intercourse should be referred.
In cases where there is a history of undescended testes, there is a potential male factor problem that requires immediate investigation. While the woman’s history doesn’t suggest any specific problem, semen analysis for the male is the best initial investigation approach. Proper investigation and referral can help couples receive the necessary treatment and support to overcome infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health assessment. She feels well, has never smoked, and has no complaints. The examination is unremarkable. Investigations reveal microscopic haematuria in the urine and the following results. She has no pain, dysuria and was not exercising prior to collection.
Hb 140 g/L
Platelets 280 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 12 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent (2-week) referral to a urologist
Explanation:If a patient aged 60 or over presents with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, it is important to exclude bladder cancer. Referral using the suspected cancer pathway should be made within 2 weeks. The urologist may request investigations such as a urine red cell morphology, CT intravenous pyelogram, and urine cytology. However, CT kidneys, ureter and bladder is not appropriate at this stage as it assesses radio-opaque stones in the renal tract. Routine referral to a urologist is also not ideal if bladder cancer is suspected. In resource-poor settings, the GP should commence relevant investigations for bladder cancer while waiting for the urology appointment. Reassuring and re-checking in two weeks or six weeks may be appropriate for lower risk cases.
Bladder cancer is a common urological cancer that primarily affects males aged 50-80 years old. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons increase the risk of developing the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is also a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, such as inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are rare. The most common bladder malignancies are urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and adenocarcinoma. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with papillary growth patterns having a better prognosis. The remaining tumors may be of higher grade and prone to local invasion, resulting in a worse prognosis.
The TNM staging system is used to describe the extent of bladder cancer. Most patients present with painless, macroscopic hematuria, and a cystoscopy and biopsies or TURBT are used to provide a histological diagnosis and information on depth of invasion. Pelvic MRI and CT scanning are used to determine locoregional spread, and PET CT may be used to investigate nodes of uncertain significance. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, surgery (radical cystectomy and ileal conduit), and radical radiotherapy. The prognosis varies depending on the stage of the cancer, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T, N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 60 develops urinary microalbuminuria (urinary albumin : creatinine ratio > 2.5 mg/mmol for men and > 3.5 mg/mmol for women).
Which of the following options is likely to confer the most benefit in terms of prognosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce blood pressure to 130/80 mmHg or less using angiotensin converting enzyme(ACE)inhibitors
Explanation:Microalbuminuria in Diabetes Mellitus
Microalbuminuria is a common occurrence in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is caused by damage to the renal basement membranes, which allows excess protein to leak into the affected nephrons. In type 1 diabetes, microalbuminuria is a prognostic indicator of chronic kidney disease, while in type 2 diabetes, it is associated with ischaemic heart disease.
To improve outcomes, it is crucial to aggressively control blood pressure, which is more important than other factors such as HbA1c control. However, HbA1c control should not be ignored. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are particularly helpful in controlling blood pressure and can even reverse microalbuminuria in affected patients. Therefore, it is essential to monitor and manage microalbuminuria in patients with diabetes mellitus to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 148
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man has advanced chronic kidney disease.
Select from the list of serum biochemical investigations the single one that is typical for a patient with this condition.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low bicarbonate
Explanation:Renal Failure and its Effects on Electrolyte Balance
Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis due to decreased excretion of H+ ions and reduced synthesis of urinary buffers such as phosphate and ammonia. This results in a marked decrease in urinary phosphate levels and a rise in extracellular potassium levels due to intracellular displacement. Calcium homeostasis is also affected as the kidney’s role in activating vitamin D and increasing calcium reabsorption from the kidneys is inhibited by phosphate retention. Sodium levels may be normal or decreased due to water retention outweighing the decreased excretion. Overall, renal failure has significant effects on electrolyte balance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of fever, low-grade back pain, and rigors that have been going on for 3 days. He also reports an increase in his frequency of urination. He has a medical history of well-controlled asthma and type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM).
What is the most common causative agent of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Pyelonephritis is most commonly caused by E. coli, with young females having the highest incidence. Given the patient’s symptoms and previous T1DM diagnosis, this is a likely diagnosis. While other organisms can also cause pyelonephritis, any that can ascend up the genitourinary tract, E. coli is the most frequent culprit.
Understanding Acute Pyelonephritis
Acute pyelonephritis is a condition that is commonly caused by an ascending infection, usually E. coli from the lower urinary tract. However, it can also be caused by the spread of infection through the bloodstream, leading to sepsis. The clinical features of acute pyelonephritis include fever, rigors, loin pain, nausea/vomiting, and symptoms of cystitis such as dysuria and urinary frequency.
To diagnose acute pyelonephritis, patients should have a mid-stream urine (MSU) test before starting antibiotics. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered. Local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available, and the BNF currently recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone (for non-pregnant women) for 7-10 days.
In summary, acute pyelonephritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience any of the clinical features mentioned above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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Which renal disorder is most likely to occur in elderly patients with gouty arthritis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urolithiasis
Explanation:Gout and Kidney Disease: Prevalence and Risks
Gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, is associated with an increased risk of kidney disease. The prevalence of nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) in people with gout is higher than in the general population, and chronic urate nephropathy can lead to inflammation and fibrosis in the kidneys. Screening for kidney disease is important for patients with gout, as the prevalence of CKD stage ≥3 is 24%. However, end-stage CKD is less common in gout patients. It is important to note that glomerulosclerosis is associated with diabetes mellitus, while glomerulonephritis is an acute inflammation of the kidney caused by an immune response, and pyelonephritis is due to bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents with complaints of erectile dysfunction. You suggest a trial of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor (such as sildenafil) after discussing his condition. What would be a contraindication to prescribing this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recent chest pain awaiting cardiology opinion
Explanation:The use of PDE 5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, is contraindicated in individuals who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction or unstable angina. However, in the case of someone experiencing chest pain and awaiting cardiology opinion, caution should also be exercised before prescribing these medications due to the potential cardiac nature of the symptoms. Additionally, patients with known angina who use a GTN spray should wait at least 24 hours after taking sildenafil or vardenafil, or 48 hours after taking tadalafil, to avoid the risk of excessive hypotension leading to a myocardial infarction.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with a medical history of hypertension and a myocardial infarction 6 years ago. During her blood test taken a week ago, her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was found to be 45 mL/min/1.73 m2, indicating reduced kidney function and a possible diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The patient is curious about what other tests are needed to confirm CKD, aside from repeating her kidney function test in 3 months. What other tests should be recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should bring in an early morning urine sample to be dipped for haematuria and sent for urine ACR calculation
Explanation:To diagnose CKD in a patient with an eGFR <60, it is necessary to measure the creatinine level in the blood, obtain an early morning urine sample for ACR testing, and dip the urine for haematuria. CKD is confirmed when these tests show a persistent reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. Proteinuria is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease and mortality, and an early morning urine sample is preferred for ACR analysis. The patient should provide another blood sample after 90 days to confirm the diagnosis of CKD. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a four-hour long erection that has become increasingly painful. The penis is fully rigid and there is no significant medical history.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration and irrigation with normal saline
Explanation:Acute Ischaemic Priapism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Acute ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent damage to the corpora cavernosa. If left untreated, it can lead to impotence. The condition is characterized by a prolonged and painful erection that lasts for more than four hours.
Historically, several first-line treatments have been suggested, including exercise, ejaculation, ice packs, cold baths, and cold-water enemas. However, there is a lack of evidence on the efficacy of these measures.
The first intervention for an episode of priapism lasting more than four hours is corporal aspiration, which involves draining stagnant blood from the corporal bodies. This procedure, with or without saline irrigation, has up to a 30% chance of promoting detumescence.
If a sympathomimetic drug or an α-adrenergic agonist is also injected, resolution rates of up to 80% are reported. Oral terbutaline, a β2-agonist with minor β1 effects and some α-agonistic activity, has been suggested as a treatment option for ischaemic priapism lasting more than 2.5 hours after intracavernosal injection of vasoactive agents.
Surgical interventions are second-line treatments for use when conservative options fail. It is crucial to seek medical attention immediately if you experience symptoms of acute ischaemic priapism to prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of significant urge incontinence (UI) for the past year. She denies any stress incontinence and has been ruled out for infection. What is the initial recommended treatment for urge incontinence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bladder training for a minimum of six weeks
Explanation:Managing Urge Incontinence
Urge incontinence is a condition where urine leakage occurs involuntarily, often preceded by a sudden urge to urinate. According to NICE guidance on Urinary incontinence (CG171), women with urge incontinence or mixed incontinence should be offered bladder training as a first-line treatment for at least six weeks. This involves learning techniques to control the urge to urinate and gradually increasing the time between visits to the toilet. If bladder training is not effective, immediate release oxybutynin may be offered as an alternative treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with swollen legs and is diagnosed with proteinuria. Identify the one characteristic that would strongly indicate a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome instead of nephritic syndrome.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proteinuria > 3.5g/24 hours
Explanation:Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome and Nephritic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. On the other hand, nephritic syndrome is defined by azotemia, hematuria, hypertension, and oliguria. Both syndromes present with edema, but the amount of proteinuria is higher in nephrotic syndrome.
In nephrotic syndrome, the glomerulus has small pores that allow protein to pass through but not cells, resulting in proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia. The liver compensates for protein loss by increasing the synthesis of albumin, LDL, VLDL, and lipoprotein(a), leading to lipid abnormalities. Patients with nephrotic syndrome are also at risk of hypercoagulability and infection due to the loss of inhibitors of coagulation and immunoglobulins in the urine.
The etiology of nephrotic syndrome varies depending on age and comorbidities. Minimal change disease is the most common cause in children, while focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is the most common cause in younger adults. Membranous nephropathy is the most common cause in older people, and diabetic nephropathy in adults with long-standing diabetes. Secondary causes include amyloidosis, lupus nephritis, and multiple myeloma.
Categorizing glomerular renal disease into syndromes such as nephrotic syndrome and nephritic syndrome helps narrow the differential diagnosis. Understanding the differences between these two syndromes is crucial in the diagnosis and management of glomerular renal disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist.
What is an example of a medication that falls under the category of muscarinic antagonist?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tolterodine
Explanation:Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man with a history of stage 3a chronic kidney disease and hypertension presents with recurrent gout. He has experienced three episodes in the past year and requires prophylactic therapy with allopurinol. He is currently taking amlodipine and atorvastatin. What is the recommended approach for initiating allopurinol in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence allopurinol and provide colchicine to take simultaneously while starting
Explanation:When starting allopurinol for this patient, it is important to use either NSAID or colchicine cover. This is because allopurinol can cause acute flares of gout due to changes in uric acid levels in the serum and tissues. Therefore, commencing allopurinol without any cover is not recommended. However, since the patient has chronic kidney disease, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories should be avoided. Indomethacin may be an alternative cover option for some patients. Prednisolone is effective but has many adverse effects and should only be used for a few days. It is important to note that this patient doesn’t have any contraindications to allopurinol, such as a history of hypersensitivity syndrome, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, having the HLA-B*5801 allele, or severe renal failure.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with hypertension presents with frank haematuria. He gives a history that his uncle recently underwent a renal transplant and that his father died of renal failure. On physical examination, a large mass is felt over the right lumbar area. A smaller mass is felt in the left flank. Blood urea and serum creatinine levels are raised.
Select the single most probable diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Common Renal Conditions and Their Presentations
Adult polycystic kidney disease, a bilateral and gradual decline in renal function, presents with acute loin pain and/or haematuria. Hypertension is an early and common feature. Renal cell carcinoma presents with haematuria, loin pain, and a unilateral mass in the flank, with malaise, anorexia, and weight loss as possible symptoms. Ureteric calculus causes extremely severe pain and is usually associated with haematuria. Prostatic carcinoma appears in older men and presents with lower urinary tract obstruction or metastatic spread, particularly to the bone. Renal amyloidosis presents with asymptomatic proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, or renal failure, but not frank haematuria.
Understanding Common Renal Conditions and Their Presentations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 159
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He reports no dysuria, fever, or other symptoms and feels generally well. He is currently taking apixaban, atenolol, simvastatin, and ramipril due to a history of myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. A urine dipstick test shows positive for blood but negative for leukocytes and nitrites. What is the best course of action for management? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him under the 2-week wait pathway to urology for suspected cancer
Explanation:Management of Painless Haematuria: Choosing the Right Pathway
When a patient presents with painless haematuria, it is important to choose the right management pathway. In this case, a 2-week wait referral to urology for suspected cancer is the appropriate course of action for a patient over 45 years old with unexplained haematuria. Routine referral to urology is not sufficient in this case.
Sending a mid-stream urine sample for culture and sensitivity and starting antibiotics is not recommended unless there are accompanying symptoms such as dysuria or fever. Referring for an abdominal X-ray and ultrasound is also not the best option as a CT scan is more appropriate for ruling out bladder or renal carcinoma.
It is also important to note that while anticoagulants like apixaban can increase the risk of bleeding, they do not explain the underlying cause of haematuria. Therefore, reviewing the use of apixaban alone is not sufficient in managing painless haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male patient complains of a lump in his right scrotum that has been present for the past 2 weeks. He denies any pain or urinary symptoms and reports stable weight. Upon examination, a smooth 4mm lump is palpated above and separate from the testicle, which is mobile and non-tender. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epididymal cyst
Explanation:Based on the description provided, it is probable that the lump is an epididymal cyst. The patient doesn’t appear to be experiencing any symptoms associated with the lump. It is not a teratoma as it is not located in the testicle. A hydrocoele is a swelling of one side of the scrotum, and there are no lymph nodes in this area. Varicoceles typically feel like a cluster of veins and are more commonly found on the left side. An ultrasound of the scrotum can be used to confirm the diagnosis of an epididymal cyst.
Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele
Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.
Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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