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  • Question 1 - As the ward cover foundation year doctor, you receive a fast bleep at...

    Correct

    • As the ward cover foundation year doctor, you receive a fast bleep at 2 am for a patient experiencing a tonic clonic seizure. The nurse informs you that the patient, who is in for neuro observations, sustained a head injury six hours ago in the Emergency Department. The patient currently has an IV cannula, but the nurse has already administered PR diazepam as prescribed on the drug chart. The seizure has been ongoing for about 8 minutes now.

      Fifteen minutes ago, the patient's neuro observations were as follows: HR 70, BP 135/65 mmHg, RR 18, O2 97% on room air, and BM 7.0.

      What would be your next course of drug therapy for this patient, who is slightly older than the previous case?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam 4 mg IV

      Explanation:

      Management Algorithm for Seizures

      It is crucial to have knowledge of the management algorithm for seizures to prevent prolonged seizures that can lead to cerebral damage and hypoxia. The first line of management is a benzodiazepine, which can be repeated if there is no improvement after five minutes of ongoing fitting. Intravenous administration is preferred, but if an IV line is not available, the rectal route is recommended for ease and speed of treatment. Rectal diazepam is commonly prescribed on the PRN section of the drug chart for nursing staff who cannot administer IV drugs.

      In cases where an IV line is present and seizures persist, an IV benzodiazepine such as lorazepam is preferred due to its quick onset and shorter duration of action. Buccal midazolam is now being used in children as a quick and easy route of administration that avoids distressing PR administration. If seizures continue despite two doses of benzodiazepines, phenytoin should be initiated, and senior and expert help is required. If seizures persist, intubation and ventilation may be necessary.

      It is important to remember to obtain an early blood sugar test as hypoglycemic patients may remain refractive to antiepileptic therapies until their sugars are normalized. The acronym ABC then DEFG (Do not ever forget glucose) can help in remembering the order of management steps. Proper management of seizures can prevent further complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old male presents with wheezing and a respiratory rate of 35/min, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents with wheezing and a respiratory rate of 35/min, a pulse of 120 beats per min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, and a peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% predicted. He has received back-to-back nebulisers of salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium 0.5 mg for the past 45 minutes and is currently on face mask oxygen. Additionally, he has been given hydrocortisone 100 mg IV, and the intensive care team has been notified.

      An arterial blood gas test was performed on high-flow oxygen, revealing a pH of 7.42 (7.36-7.44), PaCO2 of 5.0 kPa (4.7-6.0), PaO2 of 22 kPa (11.3-12.6), base excess of -2 mmol/L (+/-2), and SpO2 of 98.

      What is the recommended next step in therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral aminophylline

      Correct Answer: Magnesium 1-2 g IV

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Life Threatening Asthma

      This patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, which requires immediate treatment. A normal PaCO2 in an asthmatic can indicate impending respiratory failure. The initial treatment involves administering β2-agonists, preferably nebuliser with oxygen, and repeating doses every 15-30 minutes. Nebulised ipratropium bromide should also be added for patients with acute severe or life threatening asthma. Oxygen should be given to maintain saturations at 94-98%, and patients with saturations less than 92% on air should have an ABG to exclude hypercapnia. Intravenous magnesium sulphate can be used if the patient fails to respond to initial treatment. Intensive care is indicated for patients with severe acute or life threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy. Steroids should also be given early in the attack to reduce mortality and improve outcomes.

      It is important to note that chest radiographs are not necessary unless there is suspicion of pneumothorax or consolidation, or if the patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, a failure to respond to treatment, or a need for ventilation. Additionally, all patients who are transferred to an intensive care unit should be accompanied by a doctor who can intubate if necessary. In this case, if the patient fails to respond to magnesium, intubation and ventilation may be necessary. It is crucial to discuss the patient’s condition with ITU colleagues during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      90
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine blood pressure check. As she...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine blood pressure check. As she waits in the reception area, she suddenly experiences severe breathlessness with stridor. She had mentioned to someone else in the room that she was stung by an insect on her way to the clinic. Based on your assessment, you determine that she is having an anaphylactic reaction to the sting. What would be the appropriate dose and route of administration for adrenaline in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Intravenous 1:1000 (1 mg)

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular 1:1000 (500 micrograms)

      Explanation:

      Recommended Injection Route for Anaphylactic Reactions

      Anaphylactic reactions require immediate treatment, and one of the most effective ways to administer medication is through injection. The recommended route of injection is intramuscular, which involves injecting the medication into the muscle tissue. While the subcutaneous route can also be used, it is not as effective as the intramuscular route. In some cases, intravenous adrenaline 1:10000 may be used, but only under the supervision of a specialist. It is important to follow the guidelines provided by the Resuscitation Council (UK) for the emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions. By administering medication through the recommended injection route, healthcare providers can effectively manage anaphylactic reactions and potentially save lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      31.1
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man experiences a bout of memory loss. He had a moment...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man experiences a bout of memory loss. He had a moment of confusion three days prior, during which his wife guided him inside and offered him tea. Despite being conscious and able to converse with his wife, he wandered around the house in a confused state and repeatedly asked the same questions. After three hours, he suddenly returned to his normal state and had no memory of the incident. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: A Brief Overview

      Transient global amnesia is a rare condition that typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50. It is characterized by a temporary lack of blood flow to both hippocampi, resulting in a loss of memory function. Despite this, individuals retain their personal identity and cognitive abilities. The episode typically lasts less than 24 hours and is not associated with any long-term effects.

      In summary, transient global amnesia is a temporary condition that affects memory function due to a lack of blood flow to the hippocampi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      66.5
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  • Question 5 - You are summoned to an emergency on the orthopaedic ward where a 75-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to an emergency on the orthopaedic ward where a 75-year-old male has been discovered unconscious by nursing staff. He has recently undergone surgery for a fractured hip.

      Upon examination, he is tachycardic with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. His oxygen saturation was 90% on air, and the nursing staff have administered oxygen at 15 litres/minute. His respiratory rate is 5 breaths per minute, and his chest is clear. The abdomen is soft, and his Glasgow coma scale is 10/15. Pupils are equal, small, and unreactive, and he has flaccid limbs bilaterally.

      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: IV doxapram infusion

      Correct Answer: Urgent review of the drug chart

      Explanation:

      Managing Opioid Toxicity in Post-Surgical Patients

      When a patient exhibits symptoms of opioid toxicity, such as reduced consciousness, respiratory depression, and pinpoint pupils, it is important to review their treatment chart to confirm if they have received opiate analgesia following recent surgery. If confirmed, the patient should be prescribed naloxone to reverse the effects of the opioid and may require ventilatory support.

      Opioid toxicity can be a serious complication in post-surgical patients, and prompt management is crucial to prevent further harm. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for signs of opioid toxicity and to have a plan in place for managing it if it occurs. By being vigilant and prepared, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      46.4
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  • Question 6 - A 57-year-old male presents to the cardiology clinic with complaints of weight loss,...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presents to the cardiology clinic with complaints of weight loss, lethargy, and diarrhea. Upon examination, he is found to be tremulous, tachycardic, and has a palpable goiter. His thyroid function tests reveal a TSH level of <0.02 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5), a free T4 level of 45 pmol/L (normal range: 9-23), and a free T3 level of 6.0 pmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.5). Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders Caused by Amiodarone

      Amiodarone is a medication that contains iodine and can lead to thyroid function disorders. These disorders can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism is more common in areas where iodine intake is normal, while hyperthyroidism is more common in areas where iodine intake is low. Hyperthyroidism can be classified as type 1 when it is associated with an underlying thyroid abnormality or type 2 when it presents as a thyroiditis. Unfortunately, the condition can be refractory, and the drug often has to be discontinued. Treatment with carbimazole or propylthiouracil is often necessary to manage the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      150
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B through blood tests....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B through blood tests. The doctor explains that the patient is highly contagious and at a greater risk of long-term disease. Which of the following blood results is most likely to be seen in this patient?
      HbSAg Anti-HBs IgM anti-HBc IgG anti-HBc HBeAg Anti-HBe
      A + - + + + -
      B - + - + - +
      C + - - + + -
      D + - - + - +
      E - + - - - -

      Your Answer: E

      Correct Answer: C

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Infection and Immunity

      The presence of hepatitis B surface antigen indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the host cells, whether it is a chronic or acute infection. All patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are markers of acute infection and disappear in chronic infection, while IgG antibodies to the core antigen remain present even after the infection has been cleared. Vaccinated individuals develop antibodies to the surface antigen, which confers natural immunity after the infection has cleared.

      If HBsAg persists for more than six months, the patient is a chronic carrier. HBeAg is a marker of virus replication, and HBeAg-positive carriers are highly infectious. However, over time, the HBeAg can be lost from the blood, and anti-HBe can be detected. These carriers are much less infectious.

      In summary, acute HBV infection is indicated by the presence of IgM antibodies, while cleared HBV infection is indicated by the presence of IgG antibodies. Chronic HBV infection can be high or low in infectivity, depending on the presence of HBeAg or anti-HBe. Finally, individuals who respond to the HBV vaccine develop immunity to the virus. these markers and their implications can aid in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      26.1
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  • Question 8 - You are summoned to the assessment unit to evaluate a 65-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the assessment unit to evaluate a 65-year-old man who has been experiencing fevers and purulent green sputum for the past three days. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. He is eager to return home as he is the primary caregiver for his ailing father.

      During the examination, you observe that the patient is alert and oriented, but has bronchial breathing at the right base and a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute. His vital signs are as follows: HR 115 regular, BP 88/58 mmHg, O2 92% room air.

      Initial blood tests reveal a WCC of 13.2 ×109/L (4-11) and urea of 8.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5).

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Admit to medical assessment unit

      Correct Answer: Admit to HDU

      Explanation:

      The CURB-65 Criteria for Pneumonia Assessment

      Assessing patients for pneumonia is a common task for healthcare professionals. To determine whether hospitalization is necessary, the CURB-65 criteria is a useful tool. The criteria include confusion, urea levels greater than 7, respiratory rate greater than 30, blood pressure less than 90 systolic or less than 60 diastolic, and age greater than 65. Patients who score 0-1 are suitable for home treatment, while those with scores of 2-3 should be considered for admission on a general ward. Patients with scores of 4-5 are likely to require HDU level interventions.

      In this scenario, the patient does not exhibit confusion but scores 4 on the other criteria, indicating the need for hospitalization and at least an HDU review. The CURB-65 criteria provides a clear and concise method for clinicians to assess the severity of pneumonia and make informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      33.2
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  • Question 9 - A 78-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department by ambulance after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department by ambulance after experiencing a cardiac arrest. The ambulance crew is currently performing resuscitation attempts. Upon arrival, the patient has been intubated and connected to a defibrillator monitor, which shows a slow sinus rhythm (pulseless electrical activity) at a rate of 30 complexes per minute. The patient has been administered the full drugs protocol in accordance with the latest Adult Advanced Life Support guidelines. What do these guidelines recommend regarding the use of adrenaline during cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: If the patient is bradycardic, atropine should be used instead of adrenaline during resuscitation attempts

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline 1 mg should be given immediately and then two cycles whilst in this rhythm

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is an integral part of Advanced Life Support attempts during cardiac arrest, with a recommended dose of 1 mg given immediately and then after every 2 cycles. However, there is increasing evidence that the use of adrenaline during resuscitation attempts may be detrimental to a patient’s chance of survival. Atropine, a drug used in bradycardia, was removed from the algorithm for Advanced Life Support in 2010 as there was little evidence it had any effect in cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      72.1
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  • Question 10 - A 48-year-old woman presented to the general medical clinic with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presented to the general medical clinic with a complaint of progressive diffuse myalgia and weakness that had been ongoing for three months. She reported experiencing difficulty walking up and down stairs due to weakness in her shoulder muscles and thighs. Her medical history included hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she took atenolol and simvastatin regularly. On examination, there were no abnormalities in the cranial nerves or detectable neck weakness. However, there was general myalgia in the upper limbs and proximal weakness of 3/5 with preserved distal power. A similar pattern of weakness was observed in the lower limbs with preserved tone, reflexes, and sensation.

      The following investigations were conducted: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, ESR (Westergren), serum sodium, serum potassium, serum urea, serum creatinine, plasma lactate, serum creatine kinase, fasting plasma glucose, serum cholesterol, plasma TSH, plasma T4, and plasma T3. Urinalysis was normal.

      Based on these findings, what is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: McArdle's disease

      Correct Answer: Statin-induced myopathy

      Explanation:

      Statins and Muscle Disorders

      Myalgia, myositis, and myopathy are all known side effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, commonly known as statins. The risk of these muscle disorders increases when statins are taken in combination with a fibrate or with immunosuppressants. If therapy is not discontinued, rhabdomyolysis may occur, which can lead to acute renal failure due to myoglobinuria. Inclusion body myositis is a type of inflammatory myopathy that causes weakness in a distal and asymmetric pattern. On the other hand, McArdle’s disease is an autosomal recessive condition that typically presents in children with painful muscle cramps and myoglobinuria after intense exercise. This condition is caused by a deficiency in myophosphorylase, which impairs the body’s ability to utilize glucose. There are no additional neurological symptoms to suggest a mitochondrial disorder, and the plasma lactate level is normal. Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      26.4
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  • Question 11 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a scalp laceration she...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a scalp laceration she sustained while playing basketball.

      Upon examination, it is found that she has a clean incised wound on her scalp that is approximately 2 cm in length.

      What is the most appropriate method of managing this wound?

      Your Answer: Suture with an absorbable suture

      Correct Answer: Tissue adhesive glue

      Explanation:

      Tissue Adhesive Glue for Scalp Wounds in Children

      Tissue adhesive glue is a highly effective method for closing scalp wounds, especially in children. This technique is suitable for wounds that are clean and less than 3 cm in length. However, it should not be used for wounds around the eyes or over joints. Unlike other methods such as staples or sutures, tissue adhesive glue can be performed without the need for local anesthesia, making it less distressing for patients. Therefore, it is the preferred closure technique for scalp wounds.

      On the other hand, steristrips are not appropriate for scalp wounds as they do not adhere well to the skin due to the presence of hair. In summary, tissue adhesive glue is a safe and efficient method for closing scalp wounds in children, providing a less painful and more comfortable experience for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      36.5
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  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old woman came in with an acute myocardial infarction. The ECG revealed...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman came in with an acute myocardial infarction. The ECG revealed ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is the most probable to be blocked?

      Your Answer: Left coronary artery

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Localisation of Myocardial Infarction

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a medical emergency that occurs when there is a blockage in the blood flow to the heart muscle. The location of the blockage determines the type of MI and the treatment required. An inferior MI is caused by the occlusion of the right coronary artery, which supplies blood to the bottom of the heart. This type of MI can cause symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea. It is important to identify the location of the MI quickly to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Proper diagnosis and management can improve the patient’s chances of survival and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      38.4
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  • Question 13 - As the foundation year doctor on ward cover, you are asked to assess...

    Incorrect

    • As the foundation year doctor on ward cover, you are asked to assess a 75-year-old male who was admitted to the cardiac care unit five hours ago due to chest pain. The patient has been given morphine, aspirin, clopidogrel, enoxaparin, and metoprolol. However, he has recently experienced a sudden worsening of chest pain, and his heart rate has dropped to 30 beats per minute. His other vital signs are BP 140/85 mmHg, O2 98%, and RR 18. An ECG has been conducted, revealing complete heart block. What is the most probable cause of this sudden development?

      Your Answer: Posterior myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Inferior myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Managing Bradycardia in Patients with Myocardial Infarctions

      Bradycardia is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention and should be managed according to the Resuscitation Council guidelines algorithm. Patients with myocardial infarctions are at a higher risk of developing associated arrhythmias, particularly those with inferior MIs, which can cause transient complete heart block due to the right coronary artery supplying the AV node. Although arrhythmogenic episodes are less common in other territory infarcts, they can still occur.

      In this scenario, the patient has received ACS treatment, including morphine and a beta blocker, which should not cause a sustained or profound bradycardia at therapeutic dosages. However, it is important to check for iatrogenic errors, and drug charts should be closely inspected to identify any potential errors. If an overdose of morphine has occurred, naloxone should be administered urgently, while beta blocker overdoses may require large doses of glucagon to counteract their effects. Any drug errors should be documented on an incident report form as per local policy.

      When managing bradycardia, the patient should be approached in an ABC fashion, and adverse features should be sought out. Four features that suggest decompensation include hypotension <90 systolic, loss of consciousness, chest pain, and shortness of breath. Atropine is the first-line drug, with aliquots of 500 mcg given up to 3 mg. Isoprenaline and adrenaline infusions are suggested as next-line treatments, but they may not be immediately available unless the patient is in a high dependency setting. Transcutaneous pacing should be readily available as an additional function on most defibrillator machines and is the next option if the patient continues to decompensate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      118.8
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  • Question 14 - A 57-year-old male presents with acute abdominal pain that has worsened over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presents with acute abdominal pain that has worsened over the past two hours. The pain originates in the epigastric region and radiates to the left side of his back, with colicky characteristics. He has vomited three to four times, with the vomit being greenish in color.

      Upon examination, his temperature is 37.5°C, pulse is 100 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 114/80 mmHg. He has guarding of the abdomen and marked tenderness in the epigastrium. Bowel sounds are infrequent but audible.

      Lab results show a neutrophilic leukocytosis, elevated glucose and urea levels, and an elevated creatinine level. Urinalysis reveals an elevated amylase level. Abdominal x-ray shows no abnormalities.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition characterized by sudden and severe abdominal pain that radiates through to the back. It is caused by inflammation and swelling of the pancreas, which leads to the loss of enzymes into the circulation and retroperitoneally. This can result in hyperglycemia, hypocalcemia, and dehydration, which are common features of the condition.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, a serum amylase test is usually performed. A result above 1000 mU/L is considered diagnostic. Other investigations may reveal dehydration, an elevated glucose concentration, a mild metabolic acidosis, and heavy amounts of amylase in the urine.

      Treatment for acute pancreatitis involves resuscitation with IV fluids, management of hyperglycemia with sliding scale insulin, nasogastric suction, antibiotics, and analgesia. It is important to manage the condition promptly to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is characterized by inflammation and swelling of the pancreas, which can lead to hyperglycemia, hypocalcemia, and dehydration. Treatment involves resuscitation with IV fluids, management of hyperglycemia, and other supportive measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes and stable ischaemic heart disease presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes and stable ischaemic heart disease presents with palpitations lasting for 4 days. The patient is currently taking metformin 500 mg tds, aspirin 75 mg daily, ramipril 2.5 mg daily, and simvastatin 40 mg daily. Upon examination, the patient's pulse rate is 140/minute and blood pressure is 128/98 mmHg. There is no chest pain or evidence of acute heart failure, but the ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. What is the most appropriate treatment for managing the patient's atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: IV amiodarone

      Correct Answer: Oral bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Onset Symptomatic Atrial Fibrillation

      In cases of acute onset symptomatic atrial fibrillation (AF), the most appropriate chemical agent for rate control is beta blockers. However, if the patient has ischaemic heart disease, rate control is the initial management strategy. If beta blockers are contraindicated, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers can be used instead. In the event that the patient is hypotensive, IV digoxin is the preferred rate control medication. If the patient cannot tolerate beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin, amiodarone is given.

      Long-term anticoagulation is necessary after an appropriate risk assessment. Chemical cardioversion can be performed with amiodarone or flecainide, but the latter is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease. Although AF is generally well tolerated, patients with haemodynamic instability that is considered life-threatening require DC cardioversion. If there is a delay in DC cardioversion, amiodarone is recommended.

      Overall, the management of acute onset symptomatic AF involves careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and current condition to determine the most appropriate treatment strategy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      48.5
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department from the local psychiatric...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department from the local psychiatric hospital where he is being treated for resistant schizophrenia.

      His medical history is otherwise significant only for depression, asthma and occasional cannabis use.

      He is extremely agitated and confused and unable to deliver a coherent history. Examination is difficult as he is unable to lie on the bed due to extreme muscle rigidity and his limbs are fixed in partial contractures and there is mild tremor. Chest and heart sounds are normal although he is tachycardic at 115 bpm. He is sweating profusely and his temperature is measured at 40.2°C. Blood pressure is 85/42 mmHg.

      Blood tests reveal:

      Haemoglobin 149 g/L (130-180)

      White cells 21.7 ×109/L (4-11)

      Neutrophils 17.4 ×109/L (1.5-7)

      Lymphocytes 3.6 ×109/L (1.5-4)

      Platelets 323 ×109/L (150-400)

      Sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 5.7 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Urea 10.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 145 μmol/L (60-110)

      CRP 45 g/L -

      Bilirubin 14 μmol/L (0-3.4)

      ALP 64 U/L (45-405)

      ALT 38 U/L (5-35)

      Calcium (corrected) 2.93 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      CK 14398 U/L -

      The registered psychiatric nurse who accompanies him tells you he has been worsening over the previous 48 hours and his regular dose of risperidone was increased a few days ago. Other than risperidone 10 mg daily, he is also taking salbutamol four times a day.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute psychotic deterioration

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious condition that can occur with the long-term use of certain antipsychotic drugs. It is important to consider NMS as a potential cause of deterioration in patients taking these drugs, especially if there has been a recent increase in dosage. Unfortunately, NMS is often misdiagnosed as it can mimic other conditions, including the underlying psychiatric disorder. NMS is caused by changes in dopamine levels in the brain and the release of calcium from muscle cells. This occurs due to activation of the ryanodine receptor, which causes high metabolic activity in muscles, leading to hyperpyrexia and rhabdomyolysis.

      Symptoms of NMS include extreme muscle rigidity, parkinsonism, and high fever. Patients may also experience confusion, fluctuations in consciousness, and autonomic instability. Treatment for NMS involves IV fluid rehydration, dantrolene, and bromocriptine. It is important to differentiate NMS from other conditions, such as sepsis or asthma exacerbation, through careful examination and testing. Discontinuation of the offending drug is mandatory, and patients may require prolonged ITU admissions.

      In conclusion, NMS is a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur with the use of certain antipsychotic drugs. It is important to consider NMS as a potential cause of deterioration in patients taking these drugs and to differentiate it from other conditions through careful examination and testing. Treatment for NMS involves supportive care and discontinuation of the offending drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      60.4
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  • Question 17 - A 14-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He has a two day history of general malaise, vomiting and vague abdominal discomfort. Over the past twelve hours he has become increasingly drowsy.

      On examination, he was unresponsive to verbal commands. His temperature was 36.5°C and his blood pressure was 74/48 mmHg. The following investigations were done:

      - Sodium: 121 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium: 6.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 11.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 162 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Glucose: 1.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      - Chloride: 91 mmol/L (95-107)
      - Bicarbonate: 14 mmol/L (20-28)

      After giving emergency treatment, what single investigation would be most valuable in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fasting blood glucose

      Correct Answer: Tetracosactrin (Synacthen) test

      Explanation:

      Addisonian Crisis and Diagnosis with Synacthen Test

      The patient is experiencing an Addisonian crisis, which is a life-threatening condition caused by a severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone hormones. To confirm the diagnosis of Addison’s disease, a Synacthen test is performed. This test involves injecting a synthetic hormone called Synacthen, which stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol. Blood samples are taken before and after the injection to measure the levels of cortisol in the blood. If the adrenal glands are functioning properly, the cortisol levels will increase significantly after the injection. However, if the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, the levels will remain low. The Synacthen test is a reliable and accurate way to diagnose Addison’s disease and determine the appropriate treatment plan. It is important to diagnose and treat Addison’s disease promptly to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      17.7
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  • Question 18 - What EEG findings are typically observed in patients with hepatic encephalopathy? ...

    Correct

    • What EEG findings are typically observed in patients with hepatic encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: Delta waves

      Explanation:

      EEG Changes in Hepatic Encephalopathy

      Classic EEG changes that are commonly associated with hepatic encephalopathy include delta waves with high amplitude and low frequency, as well as triphasic waves. However, it is important to note that these findings are not specific to hepatic encephalopathy and may be present in other conditions as well. In cases where seizure activity needs to be ruled out, an EEG can be a useful tool in the initial evaluation of patients with cirrhosis and altered mental status. It is important to consider the limitations of EEG findings and to interpret them in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory data. Proper diagnosis and management of hepatic encephalopathy require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the underlying liver disease and any contributing factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      58
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man has been brought to the hospital after collapsing at his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been brought to the hospital after collapsing at his workplace. Upon examination, he is found to be in a comatose state without response to visual stimuli, but he does extend his limbs in response to painful stimuli and occasionally makes incomprehensible sounds. His blood pressure is 164/88 mmHg, pulse rate is 98 beats per minute, and he exhibits hyperreflexia on the left side with bilateral extensor plantar responses. What is his Glasgow coma scale score?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale (GCS) is a widely used tool for assessing critically ill patients. It helps determine the severity of a patient’s condition and has prognostic implications. The GCS score is calculated based on the patient’s eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. The score ranges from 3 to 15, with a lower score indicating a worse prognosis.

      The GCS score is determined by assigning points for each of the three categories. The highest score for eye opening is 4, for verbal response is 5, and for motor response is 6. A patient who is dead would still have a GCS score of 3. The lowest possible score is 3, which indicates no response in any of the categories.

      The GCS score is important for healthcare professionals as it helps them determine the level of care a patient needs. A lower score indicates a more severe injury or illness and may require more intensive treatment. The GCS score is also used to monitor a patient’s progress over time and to assess the effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old plumber presents to the Emergency department with a saw injury to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old plumber presents to the Emergency department with a saw injury to his right thumb. On examination, there is a 1.5 cm laceration on the ulnar aspect of the thumb. The neurovascular supply is intact, and there is no evidence of injury to other structures. What is the suitable local anaesthetic to use for exploring the wound and suturing the laceration?

      Your Answer: Lidocaine 1% with adrenaline - 20 ml

      Correct Answer: Lidocaine 1% - 20 ml

      Explanation:

      Anaesthetics for Wound Management in the Emergency Department

      For wound management in the Emergency department, 1% lidocaine is the most commonly used anaesthetic for cleaning, exploring, and suturing wounds. However, adrenaline should not be used in areas supplied by end arteries, such as fingers and toes.

      The maximum dose of plain lidocaine in a healthy adult is 3 mg/kg or 200 mg (20 ml of 1%). It is important to note that 1% lidocaine is equivalent to 10 mg/ml. On the other hand, if lidocaine with adrenaline is used, the maximum dose is 7 mg/kg or 500 mg (50 ml of 1%). The duration of action for plain lidocaine is 30-60 minutes, while lidocaine with adrenaline lasts approximately 90 minutes.

      Another topical anaesthetic that can be used is ethyl chloride, which is sprayed onto the skin and causes rapid cooling. However, it is very short-acting and lasts less than 60 seconds, making it inadequate for providing sufficient analgesia in most cases.

      In summary, the choice of anaesthetic for wound management in the Emergency department depends on the location and severity of the wound, as well as the patient’s overall health. It is important to follow the recommended maximum doses and duration of action to ensure safe and effective pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The following arterial blood gases (ABGs) were taken from an unconscious 50-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • The following arterial blood gases (ABGs) were taken from an unconscious 50-year-old woman in the Emergency department on FiO2 of 21%:
      pH 7.36 (7.36-7.44)
      pO2 13.0 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      pCO2 3.7 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      HCO3− 15 mmol/L (20-28)

      What is the correct interpretation of the ABG result?

      Your Answer: Compensated respiratory acidosis

      Correct Answer: Compensated metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of ABG Results

      The pH and bicarbonate levels in the ABG results indicate the presence of acidosis. However, the low level of carbon dioxide suggests that it is more likely to be metabolic acidosis rather than respiratory acidosis. The body tries to compensate for the acidosis by increasing the respiratory rate, which helps to eliminate excess hydrogen ions as carbon dioxide. This compensation can also lead to high oxygen levels due to deep and rapid breathing. However, it is important to note that high oxygen levels may also be a result of oxygen therapy provided in the Emergency department. It is worth mentioning that delayed analysis of ABG samples can sometimes lead to inaccurate results, such as a falsely low pO2. However, there is no indication that this has occurred in this particular case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What vitamin is utilized to treat confusion in individuals with chronic alcoholism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What vitamin is utilized to treat confusion in individuals with chronic alcoholism?

      Your Answer: Niacin

      Correct Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

      Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a condition that arises due to insufficient intake of thiamine, as well as impaired absorption and storage. This condition is known to cause various symptoms, including dementia, nystagmus, paralysis of extra ocular muscles, ataxia, and retrograde amnesia, particularly in individuals who struggle with alcoholism.

      The inadequate intake of thiamine is often associated with chronic alcoholism, as alcohol can interfere with the body’s ability to absorb and store thiamine. This can lead to a deficiency in the vitamin, which can cause damage to the brain and nervous system. The symptoms of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome can be severe and can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life.

      It is essential to understand the causes and symptoms of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome to ensure that individuals who are at risk receive the necessary treatment and support. With proper care and management, it is possible to manage the symptoms of this condition and improve an individual’s overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old female is found in a confused and drowsy state. Her friend...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female is found in a confused and drowsy state. Her friend discovered her this morning after a night of drinking, but also mentions that she was upset about her recent breakup. Upon examination, she has a Glasgow coma scale rating of 10/15, a blood pressure of 138/90 mmHg, a temperature of 37.5°C, large pupils that react slowly to light, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 32/min, and exaggerated reflexes with Downgoing plantar responses. Additionally, a palpable bladder is found during abdominal examination. What substance is she most likely to have taken?

      Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic Overdose and Treatment

      Anticholinergic overdose can be identified by symptoms such as drowsiness, irritability, large pupils, pyrexia, and tachycardia. Tricyclics, commonly used as antidepressants, can be lethal in overdose. Patients with anticholinergic overdose should be closely monitored for ventricular arrhythmias and seizures, which can be treated with phenytoin and lidocaine, respectively. Additionally, metabolic acidosis should be corrected with bicarbonate.

      Paracetamol overdose may not present with many symptoms or signs initially, but can later lead to fulminant hepatic failure. Opiates typically cause small pupils and depressed respirations, while benzodiazepines usually only result in marked drowsiness. Ecstasy, on the other hand, often causes excitability, tachycardia, and hypertension, except in cases of severe hyponatremia associated with excessive water consumption.

      In summary, anticholinergic overdose requires close monitoring and prompt treatment to prevent potentially lethal complications. Other types of overdose may present with different symptoms and require different interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following indicates a verbal response score of 1 on the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following indicates a verbal response score of 1 on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

      Your Answer: Incomprehensible words

      Correct Answer: No response

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale is a widely used tool to assess the severity of brain injuries. It is scored between 3 and 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 the best. The scale comprises three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response. The verbal response is scored from 1 to 5, with 1 indicating no response and 5 indicating orientation.

      A score of 13 or higher on the Glasgow coma scale indicates a mild brain injury, while a score of 9 to 12 indicates a moderate injury. A score of 8 or less indicates a severe brain injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old accountant presents to the Emergency department with a sudden and severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old accountant presents to the Emergency department with a sudden and severe headache that started six hours ago. She also reports feeling nauseous and has vomited three times. Upon examination, she has neck stiffness and photophobia, but her GCS is 15 and she has no fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sinusitis

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Severe Headaches: Subarachnoid Hemorrhage and Differential Diagnosis

      The sudden onset of a severe headache is a strong indication of subarachnoid hemorrhage, which can be confirmed through a head CT scan. If the scan is normal, a lumbar puncture should be performed to check for red blood cells and xanthochromia. Bacterial meningitis is also a possible diagnosis, but it typically presents with other symptoms of sepsis such as fever. Migraines, on the other hand, are usually preceded by an aura and visual disturbances, and are often associated with prior history and risk factors. Sinusitis and cluster headaches are not suggested by the patient’s history.

      Overall, it is important to consider a range of potential diagnoses when evaluating severe headaches, as prompt and accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - According to the Glasgow coma scale (GCS), what does a verbal score of...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Glasgow coma scale (GCS), what does a verbal score of 1 indicate?

      Your Answer: Somewhat comprehensible

      Correct Answer: No response

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale is a scoring system used to assess the level of consciousness of a patient. It ranges from 3 to 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 being the best. The scale is made up of three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response.

      The best eye response is determined by how the patient reacts to visual stimuli, such as opening their eyes spontaneously or in response to a command. The best verbal response is graded on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 being no response and 5 being an oriented patient who can answer questions appropriately. Finally, the best motor response is assessed by observing the patient’s movements, such as their ability to follow commands or move in response to pain.

      Overall, the Glasgow coma scale is an important tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness of a patient and determine the severity of their condition. By the different parameters and scores, medical professionals can provide appropriate treatment and care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      61.8
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the hospital by the police after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the hospital by the police after being found unconscious on the street. He appears disheveled and smells strongly of alcohol. Despite attempts to gather information about his medical history, none is available. Upon examination, his temperature is 35°C, blood pressure is 106/72 mmHg, and pulse is 52 bpm. He does not respond to commands, but when a venflon is attempted, he tries to grab the arm of the medical professional and makes incomprehensible sounds while keeping his eyes closed. What is his Glasgow coma scale score?

      Your Answer: 11

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale: A Simple and Reliable Tool for Assessing Brain Injury

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a widely used tool for assessing the severity of brain injury. It is simple to use, has a high degree of interobserver reliability, and is strongly correlated with patient outcomes. The GCS consists of three components: Eye Opening (E), Verbal Response (V), and Motor Response (M). Each component is scored on a scale of 1 to 6, with higher scores indicating better function.

      The Eye Opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to verbal or painful stimuli. The Verbal Response component evaluates the patient’s ability to speak and communicate appropriately. The Motor Response component assesses the patient’s ability to move their limbs in response to verbal or painful stimuli.

      The GCS score is calculated by adding the scores for each component.

      When providers use the GCS in connection with a head injury, they tend to apply scoring ranges to describe how severe the injury is. The ranges are:

      • 13 to 15: Mild traumatic brain injury (mTBI). Also known as a concussion.
      • 9 to 12: Moderate TBI.
      • 3 to 8: Severe TBI.

      The GCS score is an important prognostic indicator, as it can help predict patient outcomes and guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      24.8
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  • Question 28 - A nervous 23-year-old man with a rapid breathing rate presents with the following...

    Incorrect

    • A nervous 23-year-old man with a rapid breathing rate presents with the following arterial blood gas findings:
      pH 7.27 (7.36-7.44)
      PCO2 2.6 KPa (4.7-6.0)
      Base excess −12 mmol/L
      What is his acid-base status?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis with some compensatory metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis with some compensatory respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic Acidosis

      Metabolic acidosis is a condition characterized by a low pH level and base deficit, indicating an excess of acid in the body. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, poisoning, and renal tubular acidosis. Additionally, loss of bicarbonate due to conditions such as diarrhea, biliary/pancreatic/small bowel fistulae, urinary diversion surgery, and cholestyramine can also contribute to metabolic acidosis.

      One of the physiological responses to metabolic acidosis is respiratory compensation, which involves the body attempting to normalize pH by clearing out the acidic gas CO2. This can result in a low CO2 level. It is important to identify the underlying cause of metabolic acidosis in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      23.9
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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old male with a history of alcohol dependence and chronic hepatitis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male with a history of alcohol dependence and chronic hepatitis presents with reduced consciousness. He was discovered at home by a friend who reported that he had been depressed and threatening suicide.

      Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachycardic and hypotensive, with a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. His Glasgow coma scale is 13/15, and there are no signs of jaundice or hepatomegaly. A plasma-paracetamol concentration of 70 mg/litre is detected.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Paracetamol Overdose

      This patient may have taken too much paracetamol, but it is unclear when this occurred. The paracetamol level in their blood is 70 mg/litre, which is difficult to interpret without knowing the timing of the overdose. If there is any doubt about the timing or need for treatment, the patient should receive N-acetylcysteine. In remote areas where this is not available, oral methionine can be used instead. Gastric lavage, which involves washing out the stomach, is not typically helpful for patients who have only overdosed on paracetamol. Overall, prompt treatment is essential to prevent serious liver damage and other complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 30 - As a foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the resuscitation nurse...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the resuscitation nurse to prescribe Tazocin in accordance with departmental policy for a 50-year-old patient with COPD who was previously seen by your colleague and is currently undergoing treatment for severe sepsis. However, ten minutes later, you receive a fast bleep to the resuscitation room where the patient is now experiencing hypotension, tachycardia, and developing a urticarial rash and wheezing. The patient's medical records indicate that they have an allergy to penicillin. What is the next therapeutic measure you will prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline 500 mcg 1:1000 intramuscularly

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis: A Life-Threatening Hypersensitivity Reaction

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that affects the airway, breathing, and circulation of an individual. It is crucial for clinicians to keep this diagnosis in mind as it has a lifetime prevalence ranging from 0.05-2%, and most clinicians will encounter this condition at some point in their career. The most common precipitants of anaphylaxis are antibiotics and anaesthetic drugs, followed by stings, nuts, foods, and contrast agents.

      In a scenario where a patient has been prescribed a penicillin-based antibiotic despite having a documented penicillin allergy, the acute onset of life-threatening airway, breathing, and circulation issues, along with a rash, are classic symptoms of anaphylaxis. In such cases, adrenaline must be administered urgently, preferably intramuscularly, at a dose of 500 mcg 1:1000, repeated after five minutes if there is no improvement. Hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine are also given, but their effects are seen approximately four to six hours post-administration. It is essential to note that these drugs should not delay the administration of adrenaline in suspected anaphylaxis.

      It is crucial to review patient notes and drug charts carefully before prescribing drugs, especially when taking over care of patients from other clinicians. It is the responsibility of the prescriber and the nurse administering the medication to check and re-check the patient’s allergy status. Finally, the Tazocin must be stopped as soon as possible, and an alternative antibiotic prescribed according to local sepsis policies. However, this is a secondary issue to the acute anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (23/28) 82%
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