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  • Question 1 - A 62-year-old man with advanced-stage non-small cell lung carcinoma, after completing chemotherapy and...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man with advanced-stage non-small cell lung carcinoma, after completing chemotherapy and radiotherapy, is referred to the Surgical Department by his oncologist. He has been experiencing difficulty breathing and right-sided chest pain for the past two weeks. A chest X-ray and CT scan of the chest are ordered. The chest X-ray reveals a large pleural effusion on the right side with a mediastinal shift on the same side, while the CT scan shows thickening of the mediastinal pleura with nodular areas. The patient undergoes pleural aspiration, and the sample is sent for laboratory analysis.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment to alleviate the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Thoracocentesis

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Malignant Pleural Effusions

      Malignant pleural effusions are a common complication of lung tumors and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The management of these effusions should focus on improving symptoms and providing palliative care, as it does not affect overall survival rates. Here are some management options for malignant pleural effusions:

      Thoracocentesis: This is the first-line management for providing symptomatic relief. It involves using an ultrasound-guided needle and/or catheter to draw around 1-1.5 liters of pleural fluid while monitoring patient symptoms.

      Pleurectomy: This invasive procedure involves a thoracotomy followed by total pleurodectomy and decortication of the parietal fibrous coat. However, it carries a high risk of mortality and morbidity, and there is little evidence to justify the high risk-to-benefit ratio.

      Pleurodesis: This method involves inducing pleural inflammation to ultimately lead to fibrosis and obliteration of the pleural space. It can be done using a chemical sclerosant or talc and is effective in most clinical settings. It can be the next line of management in recurrent malignant pleural effusions with expandable lungs.

      Pleuroperitoneal shunt: This procedure involves creating a shunt between the pleural and peritoneal cavities to drain the pleural fluid. It is performed in refractory malignant pleural effusions as a last resort of treatment following thoracocentesis and pleurodesis.

      Radiotherapy: This treatment is indicated for malignant pleural effusions in lymphomas and lymphomatous chylothorax. However, it is unlikely to provide symptomatic relief for patients who have already received a course of radiotherapy for their primary tumor.

      In conclusion, the management of malignant pleural effusions should be tailored to the patient’s individual needs and goals, with a focus on improving symptoms and providing palliative care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiothoracic
      158.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the usual anatomical structure affected in Klippel-Feil syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the usual anatomical structure affected in Klippel-Feil syndrome?

      Your Answer: Lumbar vertebra

      Correct Answer: Cervical vertebra

      Explanation:

      Klippel-Feil Syndrome

      Klippel-Feil syndrome is a rare condition that occurs when two of the seven cervical vertebrae in the neck are fused together during fetal development. This abnormality can cause a range of symptoms, including a short neck, a low hairline at the back of the head, and limited mobility in the upper spine. In addition to these common signs, individuals with Klippel-Feil syndrome may also experience other abnormalities such as scoliosis, spina bifida, kidney and rib anomalies, cleft palate, respiratory problems, and heart malformations.

      This disorder can also affect other parts of the body, including the head and face, skeleton, sex organs, muscles, brain and spinal cord, arms, legs, and fingers. While the exact cause of Klippel-Feil syndrome is not fully understood, it is believed to be the result of a failure in the normal segmentation or division of the cervical vertebrae during early fetal development. the symptoms and associated abnormalities of Klippel-Feil syndrome can help individuals and their healthcare providers better manage this rare condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in the right eye. He intermittently loses vision in the right eye, which he describes as a curtain vertically across his visual field. Each episode lasts about two or three minutes. He denies eye pain, eye discharge or headaches.
      His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
      On examination, his pupils are of normal size and reactive to light. There is no scalp tenderness. Blood test results are pending, and his electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes.
      A provisional diagnosis of amaurosis fugax (AG) is being considered.
      Given this diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Transient Vision Loss: Aspirin, Prednisolone, Warfarin, High-Flow Oxygen, and Propranolol

      Transient vision loss can be a symptom of various conditions, including giant-cell arthritis (temporal arthritis) and transient retinal ischaemia. The appropriate treatment depends on the underlying cause.

      For transient retinal ischaemia, which is typically caused by atherosclerosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery, antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended. Patients should also be evaluated for cardiovascular risk factors and considered for ultrasound of the carotid arteries.

      Prednisolone is used to treat giant-cell arthritis, which is characterised by sudden mononuclear loss of vision, jaw claudication, and scalp tenderness. However, if the patient does not have scalp tenderness or jaw claudication, oral steroids would not be indicated.

      Warfarin may be considered in patients with underlying atrial fibrillation and a high risk of embolic stroke. However, it should typically be bridged with a heparin derivative to avoid pro-thrombotic effects in the first 48-72 hours of use.

      High-flow oxygen is used to treat conditions like cluster headaches, which present with autonomic manifestations. If the patient does not have any autonomic features, high-flow oxygen would not be indicated.

      Propranolol can be used in the prophylactic management of migraines, which can present with transient visual loss. However, given the patient’s atherosclerotic risk factors and description of visual loss, transient retinal ischaemia is a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for transient vision loss depends on the underlying cause and should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2000.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What was the life expectancy for a woman in the UK during the...

    Incorrect

    • What was the life expectancy for a woman in the UK during the second decade of the twenty-first century, given the significant increase in life expectancy due to reduced infant mortality, improved public health, modern medical advances, and the introduction of the welfare state over the past century?

      Your Answer: 70–74 years

      Correct Answer: 77–82 years

      Explanation:

      The Remarkable Increase in Life Expectancy for UK Men

      At the beginning of the twentieth century, the life expectancy for a man in the UK was only 55 years old. However, due to a combination of factors such as reduced infant mortality, improved public health, modern medical advances, and the introduction of the welfare state, UK men now have an average life expectancy of 79.5 years according to the World Health Organization. This increase in life expectancy is truly remarkable and highlights the progress made in healthcare and social welfare over the past century.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his partner of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his partner of many years passed away recently. He shares that when he woke up this morning, he believed he was lying next to her and heard her voice calling his name. Despite knowing that this is impossible, it has caused him considerable anguish. He is concerned that he may be losing his mind. He has no other significant psychiatric history.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression with psychosis

      Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations, which are characterized by the patient’s awareness that the voice or feeling is coming from their own mind, are not indicative of psychosis or serious psychiatric conditions. This makes schizophrenia and other psychotic options less likely, and there are no signs of schizoid personality disorder in the patient. Pseudohallucinations are often observed in individuals who have experienced bereavement.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations

      Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.

      One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.

      Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      135
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled hypertension experiences painful swelling in...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled hypertension experiences painful swelling in his right knee after starting a new medication prescribed by his GP. What is the most conclusive test to confirm his diagnosis?

      The definitive investigation to confirm his diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for this patient.

      Your Answer: Joint aspirate for microscopy

      Explanation:

      Gout: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis

      Gout is a medical condition characterized by severe joint pain, redness, and swelling, particularly in the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe. This condition is caused by hyperuricaemia, which leads to the deposition of sodium monourate crystals in the joint. Gout attacks can be triggered by various factors, including trauma, surgery, starvation, infection, and diuretics.

      Diagnosing gout can be challenging, as serum uric acid levels are not always elevated. However, the identification of urate crystals in tissues and synovial fluid can accurately confirm the diagnosis. During an acute attack of gout, serum uric acid levels may even fall acutely and be within the normal range. Microscopy of synovial fluid can reveal negatively birefringent crystals and neutrophils with ingested crystals.

      In summary, gout is a painful condition that can be caused by various factors and is characterized by joint pain, redness, and swelling. Accurate diagnosis can be made by identifying urate crystals in tissues and synovial fluid, as serum uric acid levels may not always be elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      680.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man visited the dermatology clinic in the summer with a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visited the dermatology clinic in the summer with a rash on his forearms, shins, and face. Which medication is most likely to be linked with this photosensitive rash?

      Your Answer: Ezetimibe

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Cardiology Drugs

      Photosensitivity is a frequently observed negative reaction to certain cardiology drugs, such as amiodarone and thiazide diuretics. This means that patients taking these medications may experience an increased sensitivity to sunlight, resulting in skin rashes or other skin-related issues. Additionally, ACE inhibitors and A2RBs, which are commonly prescribed for cardiovascular conditions, have been known to cause rashes that may also be photosensitive. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side effects and to take necessary precautions, such as wearing protective clothing and using sunscreen, when exposed to sunlight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      255.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned...

    Correct

    • A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned refugee who recently arrived in the United Kingdom and has no medical history.

      Her foster parents have brought her to the clinic as they have noticed that she becomes easily breathless on exertion or after a bath and squats down to catch her breath. During these times, they notice that her lips turn blue.

      Upon examination, you find that she is on the 10th centile for height and weight, her lips are slightly dusky, she has good air entry bilaterally in her chest, and she has a normal heart rate at rest with a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge with an associated thrill.

      A chest x-ray reveals decreased vascular markings and a normal-sized heart. Electrocardiography (ECG) shows sinus rhythm with right axis deviation and deep S waves in V5 and V6.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a common cyanotic congenital heart condition characterized by four abnormalities. Symptoms are determined by the degree of shunting of deoxygenated blood from right to left, which is influenced by the degree of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (RVOTO) and other ways blood can get to the lungs. Squatting can relieve cyanotic episodes by increasing peripheral vascular resistance. The child in question has a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge in keeping with the turbulent flow of blood across the stenosed RVOT. Isolated pulmonary stenosis is a possible differential diagnosis, but the history of squatting is highly suggestive of TOF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      74.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy eye with...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one side. The patient reports feeling generally healthy, without changes to their vision or fever symptoms. They wear contact lenses but have not had an optician appointment recently.

      During the examination, the patient's right eye shows injected conjunctiva, but there is no noticeable swelling or redness around the eye. The application of topical fluorescein does not reveal any corneal staining.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise she should not wear contact lenses for the duration of her symptoms

      Explanation:

      During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn. In this case, the 15-year-old is likely experiencing viral conjunctivitis and should refrain from wearing contact lenses until symptoms have subsided. It is important to note that not having seen an optician recently may affect the patient’s lens prescription, but it does not increase their susceptibility to infection or more severe conditions.

      While warm compresses can be helpful for styes or chalazion, they are not as effective for viral conjunctivitis. In this case, the fluorescein test did not show any corneal stains, indicating that the patient does not require a referral to ophthalmology. However, if a contact lens wearer with these symptoms had corneal staining, they would need to visit eye casualty as this would suggest a corneal injury.

      Although topical antihistamine eye drops may be appropriate for allergic conjunctivitis, the unilateral nature of the patient’s symptoms makes this diagnosis less likely. Topical chloramphenicol is the preferred treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis, but the watery discharge in this case suggests viral conjunctivitis instead.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old woman with mild chronic heart failure and a baseline eGFR of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman with mild chronic heart failure and a baseline eGFR of 58 ml/min (> 90 ml/min) and normal electrolytes, reports to her doctor about breathlessness and increasing pedal oedema. She is prescribed a diuretic and her serum biochemistry is rechecked after two weeks, revealing hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, and hypocalcaemia. What is the most probable diuretic that she was prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Overview of Common Diuretics and Their Mechanisms of Action and Side-Effects

      Diuretics are commonly used medications that increase urine output and help to reduce fluid overload in various medical conditions. There are different types of diuretics, each with a unique mechanism of action and associated side-effects. Here is an overview of some of the most commonly used diuretics:

      Furosemide: This is a loop diuretic that works by blocking the reabsorption of sodium, potassium, and chloride in the thick ascending loop of Henle. It can cause side-effects such as hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, and gout.

      Amiloride: This is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by preventing sodium binding in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to natriuresis and diuresis while conserving potassium. It can cause hyperkalaemia and other side-effects such as hypotension and dehydration.

      Bendroflumethiazide: This is a thiazide diuretic that works by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule. It can cause side-effects such as hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, and hypercalcaemia.

      Indapamide: This is a thiazide-like diuretic that works similarly to bendroflumethiazide and can cause similar side-effects.

      Spironolactone: This is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by blocking aldosterone receptors in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, leading to natriuresis, diuresis, and reabsorption of potassium. It can cause hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia.

      It is important to note that diuretics can have significant effects on electrolyte balance and other aspects of fluid and electrolyte homeostasis. Therefore, their use should be carefully monitored and adjusted as needed to avoid adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 64-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for hoarseness that has persisted for 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for hoarseness that has persisted for 6 weeks. He smokes 25 cigarettes a day and has been experiencing a chronic cough for the past 3 months. He denies any episodes of coughing up blood. During an initial examination, an otolaryngologist observes that the right vocal fold is immobile while speaking.
      What is the most probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Left-Sided Vocal Cord Paralysis

      Left-sided vocal cord paralysis can be caused by various factors, including nerve damage and stroke. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is a common cause, resulting in hoarseness due to the vocal cord lying in a paramedian position. This type of nerve damage is often associated with an underlying lung malignancy with mediastinal lymph node involvement. On the other hand, left glossopharyngeal nerve palsy does not affect the larynx, while left superior laryngeal nerve palsy is closely related to the recurrent laryngeal nerve and is also more common on the left side. Cerebrovascular accidents involving the left middle or anterior cerebral artery can also cause vocal cord paralysis, but the history provided does not suggest a stroke. Accurately identifying the cause of left-sided vocal cord paralysis is crucial for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP with the desire to conceive. She is worried about the medications she takes for her condition and recalls her rheumatologist mentioning the need to modify her treatment during pregnancy. She is currently on methotrexate and hydroxychloroquine. What guidance should be provided regarding her medication use during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cease methotrexate only at least 6 months prior to attempting to become pregnant

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with rheumatoid arthritis can safely use hydroxychloroquine, but must stop taking methotrexate at least 6 months before attempting to conceive. It is incorrect to continue taking both medications, and there is no need to increase folic acid intake for rheumatoid arthritis or hydroxychloroquine use during pregnancy. It is also worth noting that some women with rheumatoid arthritis may experience symptom relief or remission during pregnancy.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A 63-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a sudden headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a sudden headache and jaw pain while eating breakfast. The medical team starts him on high dose prednisolone and performs a biopsy, which later shows normal results. What should be the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the prednisolone, regardless of the biopsy result

      Explanation:

      When a person shows symptoms that indicate giant cell arthritis, a temporal artery biopsy is usually recommended. However, skip lesions can occur in this condition, which may result in a normal biopsy. It is important to note that steroids should not be stopped as this condition can lead to blindness. It is best to perform the biopsy within 7 days of starting steroids.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 44-year-old man with diagnosed primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) had been taking cholestyramine...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man with diagnosed primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) had been taking cholestyramine and vitamin supplementation for the last 3 years. He had ulcerative colitis which was in remission, and colonoscopic surveillance had not shown any dysplastic changes. His only significant history was two episodes of cholangitis for which he had to be hospitalised in the past year. On examination, he was mildly icteric with a body weight of 52 kg. At present, he had no complaints, except fatigue.
      What is the next best treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver transplantation

      Explanation:

      The only definitive treatment for advanced hepatic disease in primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is orthotopic liver transplantation (OLT). Patients with intractable pruritus and recurrent bacterial cholangitis are specifically indicated for transplant. Although there is a 25-30% recurrence rate in 5 years, outcomes following transplant are good, with an 80-90% 5-year survival rate. PSC has become the second most common reason for liver transplantation in the United Kingdom. Other treatments such as steroids, azathioprine, methotrexate, and pentoxifylline have not been found to be useful. Antibiotic prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin or co-trimoxazole can be used to treat bacterial ascending cholangitis, but it will not alter the natural course of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man has been hospitalized following an overdose. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has been hospitalized following an overdose. What is the most significant indicator of an increased likelihood of future suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Making plans before the overdose to avoid discovery

      Explanation:

      Factors indicating high risk of suicide

      The concealment of an overdose indicates a serious intent to complete suicide, more so than other options. However, a previous history of overdoses does not necessarily imply a more serious intent. Other factors that may suggest a higher risk of suicide include being male, elderly, and having a mental illness.

      According to the Assessment of Suicide Risk clinical guide, protective factors against suicide include religious beliefs, social support, and being responsible for children. While being responsible for children is an important point to note in the management plan for a suicidal patient, it is not a factor that indicates a high risk of suicide.

      It is crucial to identify the factors that suggest a high risk of suicide in order to provide appropriate care and management for the patient. However, it is also important to consider the patient’s wider circumstances and any protective factors that may be present. By taking a comprehensive approach, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for patients at risk of suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - Which type of tumor is typically linked to a paraneoplastic syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of tumor is typically linked to a paraneoplastic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic Syndromes

      Paraneoplastic syndromes are commonly linked to certain types of cancer, such as bronchial carcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, breast carcinoma, and renal cell carcinoma. These syndromes are characterized by clinical effects that are associated with the presence of a neoplasm, but are not directly related to the infiltration of the primary tumor or its metastases. Paraneoplastic syndromes may or may not be caused by hormone secretion.

      One example of a paraneoplastic syndrome is Cushing’s syndrome, which can occur in association with small cell bronchial carcinoma due to the secretion of ectopic ACTH. Another example is hypercalcemia, which can occur in the absence of bony metastases and may be caused by the secretion of a PTH-related peptide. Other paraneoplastic syndromes include myopathy and cerebellar ataxia.

      In summary, paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of clinical effects that are associated with the presence of a neoplasm but are not directly related to the tumor itself. These syndromes can be caused by hormone secretion or other factors and can occur in a variety of cancer types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old male visits his GP complaining of bilateral sore eyes that feel...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male visits his GP complaining of bilateral sore eyes that feel gritty. He has tried using over-the-counter eye drops, but the symptoms returned the next day. During the examination, the doctor notices erythematosus eyelid margins and a small stye on the right side. The patient has no known allergies. What is the initial management that should be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hot compress and mechanical removal of debris

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms that are typical of blepharitis, such as bilateral grittiness. This condition is caused by inflammation of the eyelid margins due to meibomian gland dysfunction, seborrhoeic dermatitis, or infection. Common symptoms include sticky eyes, erythematosus eyelid margins, and an increased risk of styes, chalazions, and secondary conjunctivitis.

      To manage blepharitis, hot compresses should be applied to soften the eyelid margin, and debris should be removed with cotton buds dipped in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be used if the patient reports dry eyes.

      If the patient were suffering from allergic conjunctivitis, topical sodium cromoglycate would be appropriate. This condition would present with bilateral red eyes, itchiness, swelling, rhinitis, and clear discharge. On the other hand, if the patient had anterior uveitis, topical steroids would be indicated. This condition would present with rapid onset blurred vision, photosensitivity, floaters, eye pain, and redness in one or both eyes.

      Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 49-year-old man, with known polycystic kidney disease (PKD), presents with acute-onset fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man, with known polycystic kidney disease (PKD), presents with acute-onset fever, left mid-back pain and occasional chills. He has no dysuria or haematuria. The left renal angle is tender. The white cell count is 27.8 × 109/l, with 92% of neutrophils (54–62%). What is the most appropriate diagnostic tool to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing and Treating Infection in Kidney Cysts: Medical Tests and Procedures

      Infection in kidney cysts is a common complication in patients with polycystic kidney disease (PKD). However, diagnosing and treating this condition can be challenging. Here are some medical tests and procedures that are commonly used to diagnose and treat infection in kidney cysts.

      Blood Culture
      Blood cultures are more reliable than urine cultures in detecting infection in kidney cysts. Gram-negative bacteria are the most common cause of infection in these cases. Antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones, co-trimoxazole, or chloramphenicol are often used to treat the infection. Treatment may last for 4-6 weeks, and surgical drainage may be necessary in some cases.

      Computed Tomography (CT) Scan of the Abdomen
      CT scans can detect internal echoes in one or more cysts, but they cannot differentiate between infection and hemorrhage. Therefore, CT scans alone cannot confirm an infection.

      Urine Culture
      Urine cultures may be unreliable in detecting infection in kidney cysts because cysts often have no communication with the collecting system.

      Ultrasonography of the Kidneys
      Ultrasonography can detect internal echoes within a cyst, but it cannot differentiate between infection and hemorrhage.

      Scintiscan of the Kidneys
      Scintiscans are not used to diagnose infected cysts.

      In conclusion, diagnosing and treating infection in kidney cysts can be challenging. Blood cultures are the most reliable test for detecting infection, and antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones, co-trimoxazole, or chloramphenicol are often used to treat the infection. CT scans and ultrasonography can detect internal echoes in cysts, but they cannot differentiate between infection and hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 19 - A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of chest pain, breathlessness, and palpitations. An admission ECG reveals ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a ventricular rate of 170 bpm. His blood pressure is 100/66 mmHg, and his oxygen saturations are 95% on air and 100% on high flow oxygen (15 L/min). His blood sugar level is 8.3 mmol/L. Despite his condition, he remains alert and able to communicate. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and asthma. The medical team administers intravenous amiodarone to attempt to stop the arrhythmia. What is the mandatory intervention while giving intravenous amiodarone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continuous ECG recording should be done via cardiac monitoring

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic drug that prolongs the repolarisation phase of the action potential by modulating calcium and potassium permeability. It is useful in various cardiac arrhythmias but requires continuous ECG monitoring due to its negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects. Amiodarone is metabolised via the cytochrome P450 enzyme system and is contraindicated in bradycardia and second or third degree heart block. Rapid infusion can cause a significant drop in blood pressure and should be avoided. Amiodarone can cause pulmonary complications, so routine chest x-rays and follow-up radiographs are recommended. It does not affect glucose metabolism but can cause hypoglycaemia when used with some oral antidiabetic drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old man presents to the hospital in a confused state. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the hospital in a confused state. He is unable to explain his condition but insists that he was admitted for 10 days last month despite records showing his last admission to be 7 months ago. He cannot recall which secondary school he attended and, after being on the ward for a week, he does not recognize his primary doctor's face. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, ischemic stroke, and alcoholic liver disease.

      Upon examination, the patient has normal tone, upgoing plantar reflexes on the right, and a broad-based gait. There are bilateral cranial nerve 6 (CN 6) palsies associated with nystagmus.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a complication that can arise from Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and it is characterized by anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. In this case, the patient displays confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, as well as anterograde and retrograde amnesia with confabulation, which suggests that they have progressed to Korsakoff’s syndrome. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by a deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1), which is often due to chronic alcohol abuse or malnutrition. It presents with confusion, ataxia, and oculomotor dysfunction, which can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome if left untreated. Brain tumors typically present with symptoms of increased intracranial pressure and focal neurological deficits, which are not present in this case. Lewy body dementia can be diagnosed if a patient with decreased cognition displays two or more of the following symptoms: parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, waxing-and-waning levels of consciousness, and rapid-eye-movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder. Transient global amnesia is a temporary condition that involves retrograde and anterograde amnesia following a stressful event, lasting between 2-8 hours but less than 24 hours. Based on the patient’s symptoms and history of alcohol abuse, Korsakoff’s syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. The condition is caused by a deficiency of thiamine, which leads to damage and bleeding in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often develops after untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      The symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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