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  • Question 1 - Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero...

    Correct

    • Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero amplitude, without overshoot?

      Your Answer: Critical damping

      Explanation:

      A damped sine wave is a smooth, periodic oscillation with an amplitude that approaches zero as time goes to infinity. In other words, the wave gets flatter as the x-values become larger.

      Critical damping is defined as the threshold between overdamping and underdamping. In the case of critical damping, the oscillator returns to the equilibrium position as quickly as possible, without oscillating, and passes it once at most.

      In overdamping, the system moves slowly towards the equilibrium. An underdamped system moves quickly to equilibrium, but will oscillate about the equilibrium point as it does so.

      Optimal damping has a damping coefficient of around 0.64-0.7. It maximizes frequency response, minimizes overshoot of oscillations, and minimizes phase and amplitude distortion.

      In an undamped system, the amplitude of the waves that are being generated remain unchanged and constant over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      121.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of...

    Correct

    • The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood (CaO2) and mixed-venous blood (CvO2). At rest, which organ has the greatest a-vO2 difference?

      Your Answer: Heart

      Explanation:

      At rest, the heart has the greatest a-vO2 difference, a high capillary to myocyte ratio, short diffusion distances, and a high mitochondrial density. The flow of blood through the coronary arteries is also tightly controlled. At rest, 70-80 percent of the oxygen available to the cardiac muscle is extracted, increasing to 90 percent during exercise.

      The a-vO2 difference indicates the body’s or an individual organ’s ability to extract oxygen from the blood.

      CaO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including Hb concentration, PaO2 and pulmonary diffusion capacity.

      CvO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including capillary density, regional blood flow, heart, resting skeletal muscle, kidney, intestine and skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      153.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum β-lactamase that opens the β-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A transport ventilator connected to a size CD oxygen cylinder has a setting...

    Incorrect

    • A transport ventilator connected to a size CD oxygen cylinder has a setting of air/oxygen entrainment ratio of 1:1 and a minute volume set at 10 litres/minute. Which value best approximates to the FiO2?

      Your Answer: 0.8

      Correct Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      A nominal volume of 2 litres is contained in a CD cylinder. It has a pressure of 230 bar when full and contains litres 460 L of useable oxygen at STP.

      For every 1000 mL 100% oxygen there will be an entrainment of 1000 mL or air (20% oxygen) in an air/oxygen mix.

      The average concentration is, therefore, 120/2=60% or 0.6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      95.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge to measure temperature?

      Your Answer: Boyle's law

      Correct Answer: Charles's law

      Explanation:

      Charles’ Law states that there is a direct correlation between temperature and volume, where pressure and amount gas are constant. As temperature increases, volume also increases.

      Boyle’s Law states that Pressure is inversely proportional to volume, assuming that temperature and amount of gas are constant. As volume increases, pressure decreases. In Dalton’s law of partial pressure, the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of the gases in mixture.

      According to Henry’s Law for concentration of dissolved gases, at a constant temperature, the amount of a given gas that dissolves in a given type and volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid. An equivalent way of stating the law is that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid.

      Gay-Lussac’s Law states that the pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with the absolute temperature of the gas, when the volume is kept constant. This law is very similar to Charles’ Law, with the only difference being the type of container. Whereas the container in a Charles’ Law experiment is flexible, it is rigid in a Gay-Lussac’s Law experiment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      93.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The fluids with the highest osmolarity is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The fluids with the highest osmolarity is?

      Your Answer: Gelofusine

      Correct Answer: 0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose

      Explanation:

      The concentration of solute particles per litre (mosm/L) = the osmolarity of a solution. Changes in water content, ambient temperature, and pressure affects osmolarity. The osmolarity of any solution can be calculated by adding the concentration of key solutes in it.

      Individual manufacturers of crystalloids and colloids may have different absolute values but they are similar to these.

      0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose:
      Tonicity – hypertonic
      Osmolarity – 405 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 107

      0.9% N. Saline:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 308 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      5% Dextrose:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 253 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 170

      Gelofusine (154 mmol/L Na, 120 mmol/L Cl):
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 274 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      Hartmann’s solution:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 273 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 9

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had recently started gliclazide, a sulphonyl urea, as his diabetes was not controlled by metformin alone. Now, he presents to his physician with complaints of anxiety, sweating, and palpitations since the morning. On physical examination, he is pale and clammy and has mydriasis and increased bowel sounds. Which biological site primarily synthesizes the hormone responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex

      Correct Answer: Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      This patient has been shifted to a sulfonylurea drug whose most common side effect is hypoglycaemia. Similar symptoms can arise in a patient on insulin too. The signs and symptoms are consistent with a hypoglycaemic attack and include tachycardia, altered consciousness, and behaviour. This needs to be treated as an emergency with rapid correction of the blood glucose level using glucose or IV 20% dextrose.

      In a hypoglycaemic attack, the body undergoes stress and releases hormones to increase blood glucose levels. These include:
      Glucagon
      Cortisol
      Adrenaline

      Adrenaline or epinephrine is the hormone responsible for this patient’s condition and is primarily produced in the medulla of the adrenal gland. It functions primarily to raise cardiac output and raise blood glucose levels in the blood.

      Alpha-cells of the islets of Langerhans produce the hormone glucagon, which has opposing effects to insulin.

      Follicular cells of the thyroid gland produce and secrete thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones can cause similar symptoms, but it is unlikely with the patient’s medical history.

      Post-ganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system use norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter. Adrenaline can be made in these cells, but it is not their primary production site.

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex is the main site for the production of cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      95
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?

      Your Answer: Is mainly regulated by the autonomic nervous system

      Correct Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output

      Explanation:

      While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.

      Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.

      Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      72.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - At what site would you palpate to assess the posterior tibial pulse? ...

    Correct

    • At what site would you palpate to assess the posterior tibial pulse?

      Your Answer: Behind and below the medial ankle

      Explanation:

      The posterior tibial artery originates from the popliteal artery in the popliteal fossa. It passes posterior to the popliteus muscle to pierce the soleus muscle. It descends between the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles.

      The posterior tibial artery supplies blood to the posterior compartment of the lower limb. The artery can be palpated posterior to the medial malleolus.

      There are 4 main pulse points for the lower limb:

      1. Femoral pulse 2-3 cm below the mid-inguinal point
      2. Popliteal partially flexed knee to loosen the popliteal fascia
      3. Posterior tibial behind and below the medial ankle
      4. Dorsal pedis dorsum of the foot over the navicular bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A caudal epidural block is planned for a 6-year-old child scheduled for an...

    Correct

    • A caudal epidural block is planned for a 6-year-old child scheduled for an inguinoscrotal hernia repair under general anaesthesia. The weight of the child is 20kg. The most important safety aspect the anaesthetist must keep in mind while performing the block is?

      Your Answer: Limiting the bupivacaine dose to no more than 40 mg

      Explanation:

      Choosing an appropriate dose of local anaesthetic to reduce the chance of toxicity is the most important safety aspect in performing a caudal block.

      The caudal will have to be inserted following induction of anaesthesia as performing it in an awake child is not a viable option.

      The patient is placed in the lateral position and the sacral hiatus is identified. Under strict asepsis, a needle ( usually a 21-23FG needle) is advanced at an angle of approximately 55-65° to the coronal plane at the apex of the sacrococcygeal membrane. When there is loss of resistance, thats the endpoint. The needle must first be aspirated before anaesthetic agent is injected because there is a risk (1 in 2000) of perforating the dura or vascular puncture.

      Alternatively, a 22-gauge plastic cannula can be used. Following perforation of the sacrococcygeal membrane, the stilette is removed and only the blunter plastic cannula is advanced. This reduces the risk of intravascular perforation.

      Eliciting an appropriate end motor response at an appropriate current strength when the caudal and epidural spaces are stimulated helps in improving the efficacy and safety of neural blockade. A 22G insulated needle is advanced in the caudal canal until a pop is felt. If the needle is placed correctly, an anal sphincter contractions (S2 to S4) is seen when an electrical stimulation of 1-10 mA is applied.

      The application of ultrasound guidance in identification of the caudal epidural space has been shown to prevent inadvertent dural puncture and to increase the safety and efficacy of the block in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      91.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 82-year-old male has severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old male has severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to the examination. He is a known case of atrial fibrillation and diverticulitis. Suspecting mesenteric ischemia, he was thoroughly investigated, and a mesenteric angiography shows ischemia of the left colic flexure. Which artery gives off branches that supply this region directly?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening, especially if the small intestine is involved.

      The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
      The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery to supply the following:
      – distal 1/3 of the transverse colon
      – descending colon

      At approximately the left colic flexure (splenic flexure), a transition occurs in the blood supply of the GI tract. The SMA supplies the proximal part to the flexure, and the IMA supplies the part distal to the flexure. This is why the left colic flexure is a watershed area and is prone to ischemia exacerbated by atherosclerotic changes or hypotension. The dominant arterial supply of the splenic flexure is usually from the left colic artery, but it may also get collaterals from the left branch of the middle colic artery.

      The AMA and PMA do not exist.
      The splenic artery directly supplies the spleen and has branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas.
      The proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery, a branch of the SMA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old...

    Correct

    • An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old man (75 kg). For perioperative and postoperative analgesia, you decide to perform an inguinal field block. Which of the following local anaesthetic solutions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: 30 mL bupivacaine 0.5%

      Explanation:

      Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.

      Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.

      Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.

      The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:

      There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
      200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.

      While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.

      With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%)...

    Correct

    • The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL. What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?

      Your Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline

      Explanation:

      30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
      Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mL

      The volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).

      If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls

      The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      85.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This...

    Incorrect

    • A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This means either a ventricular origin problem or aberrant conduction. The normal resting membrane potential of the heart's ventricular contractile fibres is which of the following?

      Your Answer: -50mV

      Correct Answer: -90mV

      Explanation:

      The cardiac muscle’s contractile fibres have a much more stable resting potential than its conductive fibres. In the ventricular fibres it is -90mV and in the atrial fibres it is -80mV.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms. (QRS complex)

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is true about the bispectral index (BIS)? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about the bispectral index (BIS)?

      Your Answer: Sevoflurane lowers BIS more than ketamine

      Explanation:

      The bispectral index (BIS) monitors works to determine the level of consciousness of a patient by processing electroencephalographic (EEG) signals to obtain a value between 0 and 100, where 0 reflects no brain activity, and 100 reflects a patient is completely awake.

      The general meaning of BIS values are:

      >95: Patient is in an awake state.
      65-85: Patient is in a sedated state.
      40-65: Patient is in a state that is optimal for general surgery.
      <40: Patient is in a deep hypnotic state

      It is important in measuring the depths of anaesthesia to prevent haemodynamic changes or patient awareness during surgery.

      The nature of anaesthetic agent used is a determinant factor in resultant BIS values. Intravenous agents, such as propofol, thiopental and midazolam, result in a deeper hypnotic state, whilst inhalation agents have a lesser hypnotic effect at the same BIS values. Certain agents result in inaccurate BIS values such as ketamine and nitrous oxide (NO). These two agents appear to increase the BIS value, whilst putting the patient in a deeper hypnotic state, and should therefore not be used with BIS monitoring.

      Hypothermia also affects the BIS value as it causes a 1.12 per °C decrease in body temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old woman admitted following a tonsillectomy has developed stridor with a respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman admitted following a tonsillectomy has developed stridor with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and obstructive movements of the chest and abdomen that is in a see-saw pattern . Her SpO2 is 92% on 60% oxygen with pulse rate 120 beats per minute while her blood pressure is 180/90mmHg. She is repeatedly trying to remove the oxygen mask and appears anxious. Her pharynx is suctioned and CPAP applied with 100% oxygen via a Mapleson C circuit. Which of these is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Administer intravenous suxamethonium 1 mg/kg

      Correct Answer: Administer intravenous propofol 0.5 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Continuous closure of the vocal cords resulting in partial or complete airway obstruction is called Laryngospasm. It is a reflex that helps protect against pulmonary aspiration.

      Predisposing factors include: Hyperactive airway disease, Insufficient depth of anaesthesia, Inexperience of the anaesthetist, Airway irritation, Smoking, Shared airway surgery and Paediatric patients

      Its primary treatment includes checking for blood or stomach aspirate in the pharynx, removing any triggering stimulation, relieving any possible supra-glottic component to airway obstruction and application of CPAP with 100% oxygen.

      In this patient, all the above has been done and the next treatment of choice is the administration of a rapidly acting intravenous anaesthetic agent such as propofol (0.5 mg/kg) in increments as it has been reported to relieve laryngospasm in approximately 75% of cases. Administering suxamethonium to an awake patient would be inappropriate at this stage.

      Magnesium and lidocaine are used for prevention rather than acute treatment of laryngospasm. Superior laryngeal nerve blocks have been reported to successfully treat recurrent laryngospasm but it is not the next logical step in index patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Provided below is an abstract of a study conducted recently. A consensus was...

    Incorrect

    • Provided below is an abstract of a study conducted recently. A consensus was developed among international experts. A total of 27 experts were invited. 91% of them decided to show up. A systematic review was performed. This comprised of open ended questions and the participants were encouraged to provide suggestions by e-mail. In the second phase google forms were used. Participants were asked to rate survey items on a scale of 5 points. Items that were rated critical by no less than 80% of the experts were included. Items that were rendered important by 65-79% of experts were inducted in the next survey for re rating. Items that were rated below 65% were rejected. Which of the following methods was used in the study from which the abstract has been taken?

      Your Answer: Analytic induction

      Correct Answer: The Delphi method

      Explanation:

      The process used in the study is Delphi method. This method kicks off with an open ended questionnaire and uses its responses as a survey instrument for the next round in which each of the participants is asked to rate the items that the investigators have summarized on the basis of the data collected in the first round.

      Any disagreement is further discussed in phases to come on the basis of information obtained from previous phases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      233.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most likely confirm ingestion of substances with anticholinesterase effects?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia and mydriasis

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis

      Explanation:

      An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor or anticholinesterase is a chemical that inhibits the cholinesterase enzyme from breaking down acetylcholine (ACh) therefore increasing the level and duration of action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine(ACh).

      ACh stimulates postganglionic receptors to produce the following effects:

      Salivation
      Lacrimation
      Defecation
      Micturition
      Sweating
      Miosis
      Bradycardia, and
      Bronchospasm.

      Since these effects are produced by muscarine, they are referred to as muscarinic effects, and the postganglionic receptors are called muscarine receptors.

      SLUD (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation – and emesis) is usually encountered only in cases of drug overdose or exposure to nerve gases. It is a syndrome of pathological effects indicating massive discharge of the parasympathetic nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      105.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains...

    Correct

    • An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains will experience immediately which physiologic response to high altitude and hypoxia?

      Your Answer: Increased cardiac output

      Explanation:

      A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.

      After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.

      The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - During a stabbing incident, a 30-year-old injured his inferior vena cava. What number...

    Incorrect

    • During a stabbing incident, a 30-year-old injured his inferior vena cava. What number of functional valves can be usually found in this vessel?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 0

      Explanation:

      The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. The inferior vena cava has no functional valves like the one-way valves commonly found in many veins. The forward flow to the heart is driven by the differential pressure created by normal respiration.

      The absence of functional valves has an important clinical role when cannulating during cardiopulmonary bypass.

      There is a valve that is non-functioning called the eustachian valve that lies at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium. This valve has a role to help direct the flow of oxygen-rich blood through the right atrium to the left atrium via the foramen ovale during fetal life. It has no specific function in adult life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old man, presents to the emergency department with crushing pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, presents to the emergency department with crushing pain in the central chest area, which radiates to his left arm and jaw. He also reports feelings of nausea with no other symptoms. Elevation of the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads upon ECG, leading to a diagnosis of ST-elevation MI. What vessel gives rise to the coronary vessels?

      Your Answer: Coronary sinus

      Correct Answer: Ascending aorta

      Explanation:

      The above mentioned patient presentation is one of an acute coronary syndrome.

      The elevations noted in the ST-segments of multiple heart leads on ECG is diagnostic of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction.

      The pulmonary artery branches to give rise to the right and left pulmonary arteries, which supply deoxygenated blood to the right and left lungs from the right ventricle.

      The pulmonary veins do not form any bifurcations, and therefore do not give rise to any vessels. They travel to the left atrium from the lungs, carrying oxygenated blood.

      The descending aorta continues from the aortic arch, and bifurcates to give off many branches, including the right and left common iliac arteries.

      The coronary sinus is formed from the combination of four coronary veins, receiving blood supply from the great, middle, small and posterior cardiac veins, and transporting this venous blood into the right atrium.

      The right and left aortic sinus give rise to the right and left coronary arteries, respectively. They branch of the ascending aorta, in the area just superior to the aortic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which drug, if given to a pregnant woman, can lead to deleterious fetal...

    Correct

    • Which drug, if given to a pregnant woman, can lead to deleterious fetal effects due to its ability to cross the placenta?

      Your Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      It is well known that atropine will cross the placenta and that maternal administration results in an increase in fetal heart rate.

      Atropine is highly selective for muscarinic receptors. Its potency at nicotinic receptors is much lower, and actions at non-muscarinic receptors are generally undetectable clinically. Atropine does not distinguish among the M1, M2, and M3 subgroups of muscarinic receptors. In contrast, other antimuscarinic drugs are moderately selective for one or another of these subgroups. Most synthetic antimuscarinic drugs are considerably less selective than atropine in interactions with nonmuscarinic receptors.

      A study on glycopyrrolate, a quaternary ammonium salt, was found to have a fetal: maternal serum concentration ratio of 0.4 indicating partial transfer.

      Heparin, suxamethonium, and vecuronium do not cross the placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought to the emergency department and undergoes investigations and treatment. On X-ray of the humerus, she has a mid-shaft fracture. What structure is at the highest risk of damage with a mid-shaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Brachial artery

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs.
      The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
      On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

      The humeral shaft has two compartments:
      1. Anterior:
      Brachial artery and vein
      Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
      Musculocutaneous, median, and ulnar nerves
      2. Posterior:
      Radial nerve
      Triceps

      Other significant nerve injuries are:
      1. Axillary nerve – surgical neck fracture of the humerus
      2. Brachial Artery – supracondylar fracture of the humerus
      3. Axillary artery – surgical neck fracture of the humerus, but is relatively uncommon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?

      Your Answer: Inhibit DNA synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which structure passes through the foramen magnum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure passes through the foramen magnum?

      Your Answer: Vagus nerve

      Correct Answer: Spinal roots of the accessory nerve

      Explanation:

      The structures that pass through the foramen magnum are:

      Meningeal lymphatics
      Spinal cord
      Spinal meninges
      Sympathetic plexus of vertebral arteries
      Vertebral arteries
      Vertebral artery spinal branches
      The spinal roots of the accessory nerve.

      The jugular foramen contains the vagus nerve, the accessory nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve.

      The vertebral veins does not pass into the skull.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen?

      Your Answer: Has a critical temperature of 183°C

      Correct Answer: Forms molecules containing either two or three atoms

      Explanation:

      Oxygen is formed by a molecule of oxygen and two molecules of hydrogen with a molecular formula of H2O

      The critical temperature is defined as a temperature above which the substance cannot be liquefied, no matter how much pressure is applied.
      Water has a critical temperature of -118.6oC. So, it cannot be liquified at room temperature.

      Medical oxygen cylinder is stored in a cylinder with a white shoulder and black body. Meanwhile, medial air is stored in cylinders with a white and black shoulder and a French grey body.

      The partial pressure of air at a high altitude is less but the relative concentration remains constant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true?

      Your Answer: The lower border is attached to the first tracheal ring

      Explanation:

      The cricoid cartilage is a hyaline cartilage ring surrounding the trachea. It provides support for key phonation muscles.

      The inferior border of the cricoid cartilage is attached to the thyroid cartilage and the inferior border is attached to the first tracheal ring through the cricotracheal ligament.

      Application of pressure to the cricoid cartilage to reduce risk of aspiration of gastric contents (Sellick manoeuvre) does not stop tracheal aspiration and cannot stop regurgitation into the oesophagus.

      A force of 44 newtons to the cricoid cartilage is needed to control regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Antomy
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia. Induction is done using fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supraglottic airway is inserted and the mixture used to maintain anaesthesia is and air oxygen mixture and 2.5% sevoflurane. Using a Bain circuit, the patient breathes spontaneously and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal CO2 increase from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa. The most appropriate action that should follow is:

      Your Answer: Increase the fresh gas flow in the circuit

      Correct Answer: Observe the patient for further change

      Explanation:

      Such a high rise of end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) in a patient who is spontaneously breathing is often encountered.

      Close observation should occur for further rises in EtCO2 and other signs of malignant hyperthermia. If this were to rise even more, it might be wise to ensure that ventilatory support is available.

      A lot would depend on whether surgery was almost completed. At this stage of anaesthesia, it would be inappropriate to administer opioid antagonists or respiratory stimulants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      99.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic...

    Incorrect

    • A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic extraction ratio of 0.25 and three quaternary nitrogen atoms in its structure. It has been discovered that it has a half-life of fifteen minutes in healthy volunteers. Which of the following elimination mechanisms is the most likely to explain this pharmacological behaviour?

      Your Answer: It is rapidly redistributed

      Correct Answer: It is filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules

      Explanation:

      The neuromuscular blocking agent is likely to be filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules due to an exclusion process.

      Neuromuscular blocking agents that contain one or more quaternary nitrogen atoms are polar and ionised. As a result, the molecules have low lipid solubility, low membrane diffusion capacity, and low distribution volume.

      It’s unlikely that a compound with three quaternary nitrogen atoms is an ester. Its high polarity would prevent molecules from moving quickly into tissues.

      When drugs have a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.3), the venous and arterial drug concentrations are nearly identical. The liver is not the primary site of drug metabolism.

      Therefore:

      Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on clearance.
      Protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion are all very sensitive to changes in clearance.
      When taken orally, there is no first-pass metabolism.

      There is no reason for the lungs to eliminate any neuromuscular blocking agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant...

    Incorrect

    • A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant on the coagulation cascade. The intrinsic pathway is being studied and the best measurement to be recorded is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: aPTT

      Explanation:

      The intrinsic pathway is best assessed by the aPTT time.

      D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.

      A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.

      The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.

      Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.

      Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.

      Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.

      Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Measurement (2/2) 100%
Pathophysiology (2/4) 50%
Pharmacology (3/6) 50%
Physiology (0/4) 0%
Basic Physics (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (3/7) 43%
Physiology And Biochemistry (1/2) 50%
Statistical Methods (0/1) 0%
Antomy (0/1) 0%
Passmed