00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old male presents with delayed pubertal development and a history of impaired...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents with delayed pubertal development and a history of impaired sense of smell. He has a height on the 90th centile and weight on the 95th centile. There is no pubertal development in his external genitalia and his testicular volumes are 3 mL bilaterally. Upon investigation, his plasma luteinising hormone and follicle stimulating hormone levels are both 1.0 U/L (1-10), while his serum testosterone level is 2.0 pmol/L (9-33). His free T4 level is 20 pmol/L (10-22) and his plasma thyroid stimulating hormone level is 3.2 mU/L (0.4-5). A CT brain scan shows no abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient has Kallmann’s syndrome, characterized by hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism and anosmia. Klinefelter’s and Noonan’s also cause hypogonadism, while Prader-Willi is associated with hypogonadism and hyperphagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old patient visits the Endocrinology Clinic with a complaint of worsening headache...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient visits the Endocrinology Clinic with a complaint of worsening headache and bitemporal hemianopia for the past three weeks. The patient has a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) syndrome type 1. The endocrinologist considers the possibility of MEN 1 and orders the appropriate investigations to arrive at a differential diagnosis. According to the definition, which three types of tumors must be present for a diagnosis of MEN 1, with at least two of them being present?

      Your Answer: Pituitary adenoma, pancreatic islet cells, parathyroid

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) Syndromes

      Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) syndromes are a group of inherited disorders that cause tumors to develop in the endocrine glands. MEN type 1 is characterized by the occurrence of tumors in any two of the parathyroids, anterior pituitary, and pancreatic islet cells. A pituitary adenoma is a common manifestation of MEN type 1, which can cause bitemporal hemianopia.

      To remember the features of MEN type 1, think of the letter P: Pituitary adenoma, Parathyroid hyperplasia, and Pancreatic islet cell tumors. On the other hand, MEN type 2 involves medullary thyroid carcinoma with either phaeochromocytoma or parathyroid tumor.

      It is essential to recognize the different MEN syndromes to facilitate early diagnosis and management. Regular screening and genetic counseling are recommended for individuals with a family history of MEN syndromes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old male presents to the general practitioner (GP) with worries about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the general practitioner (GP) with worries about his facial appearance, which he believes has changed significantly over the past five years. He also reports that his shoes no longer fit properly, and that his hands seem larger. The GP suspects that he may be suffering from acromegaly, and the patient is referred to the Endocrinology Department for further evaluation and treatment.

      Regarding acromegaly, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Arthropathy occurs as a result of autoimmune destruction of the joint

      Correct Answer: There is an increased risk of colon cancer

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acromegaly: Symptoms, Causes, and Risks

      Acromegaly is a rare hormonal disorder that results from excess growth hormone (GH) in adulthood. This condition is typically caused by a pituitary tumour, which secretes GH and insulin growth factor 1 (IGF-1), leading to increased cellular growth and turnover. Unfortunately, this increased cellular activity also increases the risk of colon cancer.

      While an enlarged upper jaw is often associated with acromegaly, it is actually the lower jaw that is more commonly affected, resulting in the classic underbite seen in these patients. Additionally, untreated acromegaly can lead to osteoarthritis, which is associated with excessive cartilage and connective tissue growth, but not autoimmune destruction of the joint.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of acromegaly, such as enlarged hands and feet, thickened skin, and deepening of the voice, as early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      74.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus complains of a swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus complains of a swollen right ankle joint that is not painful. Upon examination, radiographs reveal a joint that has been destroyed and contains a significant number of loose bodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perthes Disease

      Correct Answer: Charcot's joint

      Explanation:

      Charcot’s Joint: A Destructive Process Affecting Weight-Bearing Joints

      Charcot’s joint is a condition that primarily affects the weight-bearing joints in the extremities, including the feet, ankles, knees, and hips. It is a destructive process that can often be mistaken for an infection in these areas. The condition is characterized by a decreased sensation in the affected area and peripheral neuropathy. It is most commonly associated with diabetes mellitus, leprosy, and tabes dorsalis.

      Charcot’s joint is a serious condition that can lead to significant disability if left untreated. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly. Treatment typically involves immobilization of the affected joint and management of the underlying condition. With proper care, it is possible to prevent further damage and preserve joint function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 36-year-old woman visits her new GP for routine blood tests after recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman visits her new GP for routine blood tests after recently moving locations. She mentions that her previous GP had told her she had a ‘thyroid problem’ and had prescribed medication, but she cannot recall any further details. Her blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 18 mu/l 0.5–5.5 mu/l
      Free thyroxine (T4) 9.2 pmol/l 9–18 pmol/l
      What could be the possible cause of these biochemical results?

      Your Answer: Primary hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Poor compliance with thyroxine

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Function Tests: Understanding the Results

      Thyroid function tests are commonly used to diagnose and monitor thyroid disorders. The results of these tests can provide valuable information about the functioning of the thyroid gland. Here are some common thyroid function test results and what they may indicate:

      Poor Compliance with Thyroxine
      Patients who are not compliant with their thyroxine medication may only take it a few days before a routine blood test. This can result in normal thyroxine levels due to the supplementation, but the TSH levels may not have enough time to reach the normal range due to the required negative feedback.

      Sick Euthyroid Syndrome
      In this condition, all TSH, thyroxine, and T3 levels are low. However, the TSH level is often within the normal range. This condition is reversible upon recovery from the systemic illness.

      Thyrotoxicosis
      Thyrotoxicosis is characterized by low TSH and high T4 levels.

      Primary Hypothyroidism
      Primary hypothyroidism results in low T4 levels and subsequent high TSH levels due to negative feedback.

      Secondary Hypothyroidism
      In secondary hypothyroidism, both TSH and T4 levels are low. This condition occurs due to the failure of the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH despite adequate thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) levels. TRH is elevated, but TSH, T3, and T4 are low, and TSH fails to rise even after a TRH stimulation test.

      Understanding the results of thyroid function tests can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage thyroid disorders effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      55.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia

      Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.

      Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 48-year old teacher is found to have a raised fasting glucose and...

    Correct

    • A 48-year old teacher is found to have a raised fasting glucose and abnormal cholesterol results following routine blood testing as a part of her NHS health check. She is noted to have a BMI of 32. She is also hypertensive. The reviewing physician suspects that the patient has metabolic syndrome.
      Which of the following statements is true about the metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Patients usually have high circulating insulin levels

      Explanation:

      Understanding Metabolic Syndrome and its Associated Features

      Metabolic syndrome is a condition characterized by three or more of the following: increased waist circumference, BMI >30 kg/m2, raised triglycerides, reduced HDL cholesterol, hypertension, and raised fasting glucose. It typically occurs in individuals with central obesity and insulin resistance, leading to elevated circulating insulin and C-peptide levels. However, significant weight loss can reverse insulin resistance and resolve the features of metabolic syndrome.

      Contrary to what one might expect, high serum HDL is typical in metabolic syndrome, while low serum HDL is a diagnostic criteria. Additionally, metabolic syndrome is a key risk factor for non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), which is fairly common in these patients. Hyperuricaemia is also common in metabolic syndrome, rather than hypouricaemia.

      Finally, while metabolic syndrome incidence does increase with age, it does not necessarily peak in the fifth decade of life. Understanding these features can aid in the diagnosis and management of metabolic syndrome and its associated conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      59.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination, a fine tremor of the outstretched hands, lid lag, and a moderate goitre with a bruit are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders and their Differentiation

      Thyroid disorders are a common occurrence, and their diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. One such disorder is Graves’ disease, which is characterized by a goitre with a bruit. Unlike MNG, Graves’ disease is associated with angiogenesis and thyroid follicular hypertrophy. Other signs of Graves’ disease include eye signs such as conjunctival oedema, exophthalmos, and proptosis. Additionally, pretibial myxoedema is a dermatological manifestation of this disease.

      De Quervain’s thyroiditis is another thyroid disorder that follows a viral infection and is characterized by painful thyroiditis. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, is a chronic autoimmune degradation of the thyroid. Multinodular goitre (MNG) is the most common form of thyroid disorder, leading to the formation of multiple nodules over the gland. Lastly, a toxic thyroid nodule is a solitary lesion on the thyroid that produces excess thyroxine.

      In conclusion, the different types of thyroid disorders and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What are the symptoms of Addison's disease? ...

    Correct

    • What are the symptoms of Addison's disease?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a condition that occurs when the adrenal cortex is destroyed, leading to a deficiency in glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid. These hormones are essential for various bodily functions, including glucose production from amino acids. The symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, fatigue, muscle weakness, dizziness, fainting, non-specific abdominal pain, and gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea and vomiting. Signs of the condition include postural hypotension and hyperpigmentation.

      Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. In the United Kingdom, the most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, which may be associated with other autoimmune diseases such as type 1 diabetes and autoimmune thyroid disease. Worldwide, tuberculosis is the leading cause of primary adrenal insufficiency. Other rare causes of the condition include congenital adrenal hyperplasia, HIV infection, infiltrating metastases, and haemochromatosis involving the adrenal glands.

      In summary, Addison’s disease is a condition that results from the destruction of the adrenal cortex, leading to a deficiency in essential hormones. The symptoms and signs of the condition can be varied, and the biochemical features include hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. While autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex is the most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency in the United Kingdom, tuberculosis is the leading cause worldwide. Other rare causes of the condition include congenital adrenal hyperplasia, HIV infection, infiltrating metastases, and haemochromatosis involving the adrenal glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old diabetic is discovered in an unconscious state and is transported to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old diabetic is discovered in an unconscious state and is transported to the Emergency Department. Upon admission, the patient's body mass index (BMI) is measured at 26 kg/m2, and a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is established.
      Regarding diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia is common at presentation

      Correct Answer: Patients with DKA are at high risk of thromboembolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Myths and Facts

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that can lead to life-threatening consequences. However, there are several myths and misconceptions surrounding this condition. Here are some important facts to help you better understand DKA:

      Patients with DKA are at high risk of thromboembolism: Patients with DKA are at an increased risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), especially in the pediatric age group and in patients with type-1 diabetes. Low-molecular-weight heparin is recommended to prevent this risk.

      DKA can be treated with oral hypoglycemics: This is a myth. Oral hypoglycemics are ineffective in managing DKA as the underlying cause is an imbalance between insulin and other regulatory hormones.

      Respiratory acidosis is typical: Metabolic acidosis occurs in DKA, and patients may develop a compensatory respiratory alkalosis (Kussmaul respiration).

      Hypokalemia is common at presentation: There is a risk of developing hypokalemia during admission due to insulin administration, but potassium levels are usually normal or high on admission.

      It often occurs in type II diabetes: This is a myth. DKA usually occurs in people with type I diabetes as it is related to low insulin levels, which leads to ketogenesis.

      Understanding these facts about DKA can help in its early recognition and prompt management, leading to better outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      201.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (5/10) 50%
Passmed